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All questions of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 2 (CSAT) Mock Tests (2026) for UPSC CSE Exam

The weightage of 5 tests in a class and the marks scored by Ritu in those tests are as follows. What is the weighted average of the percentages she obtained in the five tests?
  • a)
    73.7%
  • b)
    87%
  • c)
    67%
  • d)
    99%
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?


Calculation of the respective ratio between the number of female players from Georgia and the number of male players from the same country:

Identifying the number of female players from Georgia:
- Let's assume the number of female players from Georgia is represented by F.
- The number of female players from Georgia is not explicitly given in the question.

Identifying the number of male players from Georgia:
- The number of male players from Georgia is given as 69.

Calculating the ratio:
- The respective ratio between the number of female players from Georgia and the number of male players from the same country can be represented as F:69.

Using the options to find the correct ratio:
- Given options are:
a) 35:69
b) 32:69
c) 35:67
d) 32:67

- If we assume the number of female players from Georgia as 35, then the ratio becomes 35:69.
- This ratio matches option a) 35:69, which is the correct answer.

Therefore, the respective ratio between the number of female players from Georgia and the number of male players from the same country is 35:69.

A person deposited Rs. 13,200 in a bank, which pays 14% simple interest. If he rather had invested in Rs. 110 stocks which pay a dividend of 15% on the face value of Rs. 100, how much would he had lost or gained?
  • a)
    Gains Rs. 48
  • b)
    Loses Rs. 48
  • c)
    Loses Rs. 132
  • d)
    Gains Rs. 132
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
Interest earned on Rs. 13200 at a rate of 14% = Rs. 1848
Number of shares purchased = 13200/110 = 120
Dividend earned by him on 120 shares which pays a dividend of 15% per share = 120 × [(15/100) × 100] = Rs. 1800
Therefore, net profit = 1848 - 1800 = Rs. 48

M is 35% of N; L is 25% of N. What percent of M is L?
  • a)
    40.5%
  • b)
    500/7%
  • c)
    140%
  • d)
    Data insufficient.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Tushar Iyer answered
Given Information:
M = 35% of N
L = 25% of N

To find:
What percent of M is L?

Solution:

Step 1: Express M and L in terms of N.
M = 0.35N
L = 0.25N

Step 2: Calculate the ratio of L to M.
Ratio of L to M = L/M = (0.25N) / (0.35N) = 0.25 / 0.35

Step 3: Convert the ratio to a percentage.
Percentage = (0.25 / 0.35) * 100% = 500/7%
Therefore, the percent of M that L represents is 500/7%. Hence, the correct answer is option B.

A garment company declared 15% discount for wholesale buyers. Mr. Sachdev bought garments from the company for Rs. 25000 after getting the discount. He fixed up the selling price of garments in such a way that he earned a profit of 8% on original company price. What is the approximate total selling price?
  • a)
    Rs.28000
  • b)
    Rs. 29000
  • c)
    Rs. 31765
  • d)
    Rs. 29500
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

- Given Data:
Mr. Sachdev bought garments worth Rs. 25000 after a 15% discount.
He earned an 8% profit on the original company price.

- Calculations:
1. Let the original price of the garments be x.
2. After a 15% discount, Mr. Sachdev paid 85% of the original price, which is Rs. 25000.
3. So, 85% of x = Rs. 25000
4. x = Rs. 25000 / 0.85
x = Rs. 29411.76 (approx)

- Profit Calculation:
1. Mr. Sachdev earned an 8% profit on the original price.
2. Profit = 8% of Rs. 29411.76
Profit = 0.08 * Rs. 29411.76
Profit = Rs. 2352.94 (approx)

- Total Selling Price:
1. Total selling price = Original price + Profit
2. Total selling price = Rs. 29411.76 + Rs. 2352.94
Total selling price = Rs. 31764.70 (approx)

Therefore, the approximate total selling price is Rs. 31765.
Hence, the correct answer is option c) Rs. 31765.

Santhosh went to a hotel to buy some tiffen namely idly, vada & dosa. He has to buy atleast 9 units of each. He buys more vada than idly & more dosa than vada. He picks up a total of 32 items. How many vada does he buy?  
  • a)
    Either 12 or 13  
  • b)
    Either 11 or 12  
  • c)
    Either 10 or 11  
  • d)
    Either 9 or 11 
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
From the question,  
Dosa > Vada > Idly 
Total items = 32.  
Checking from options, 
(a) If there is 12 or 13 vada, Remaining 32-12 = 20 items.
Since Dosa is greater than vada, It should be greater than 12 or 13.
So, 20 -12=8  
(atleast 9 items should be there for each)
8 < 9, so condition not satisfied.
(b) If there is 11 or 12 vada.
Remaining = 32-12 (as same as option a)
but if we take 11 it is possible but not incase of 12.  
(c) 10 or 11 vada  
32-10 = 22.  
No. of Dosa maybe 13  
So, 22-13 = 9 idlies.  
Similar to 10 also. Satisfied all condition
 So, c is the answer.
(d) 9 or 11.  
32-9 =23 
Out of 23, if Dosa is more than vada, Ex-10.  
23-10=13 idlies.  
It violates rule because number of idlies is greater than vada.  

Balaji, Arun, Prasad and Vimal are business partners. Their profit is shared in the ratio 3:5 : 9:13 respectively. If the share of prasad is 1800 Rs more than share of Balaji, then what is the total amount of share received by Arun and Vimal?
  • a)
    5400
  • b)
    4700
  • c)
    6200
  • d)
    3600 
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Jatin Ghosh answered

Given information:
- Profit sharing ratio: 3:5:9:13
- Prasad's share is 1800 Rs more than Balaji's share

Solution:

Step 1: Calculate the common ratio multiplier
- Let the common ratio multiplier be x.
- Balaji's share = 3x
- Arun's share = 5x
- Prasad's share = 9x
- Vimal's share = 13x

Step 2: Set up the equation for Prasad's share
- Prasad's share (9x) = Balaji's share (3x) + 1800
- 9x = 3x + 1800
- 6x = 1800
- x = 300

Step 3: Calculate each partner's share
- Balaji's share = 3x = 3 * 300 = 900 Rs
- Arun's share = 5x = 5 * 300 = 1500 Rs
- Prasad's share = 9x = 9 * 300 = 2700 Rs
- Vimal's share = 13x = 13 * 300 = 3900 Rs

Step 4: Calculate the total share received by Arun and Vimal
- Total = Arun's share + Vimal's share
- Total = 1500 + 3900 = 5400 Rs

Therefore, the total amount of share received by Arun and Vimal is 5400 Rs. Option A is the correct answer.

The price of an item is decreased by 10%, then by 20%, and finally by 30%. This is equivalent to:
  • a)
    Decreasing the price by 50.4%
  • b)
    Decreasing the price by 60%.
  • c)
    Decreasing the price by 40.5%
  • d)
    Decreasing the price by 49.6%
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Decreasing a price by 10%, then by 20%, and then by 30% is equivalent to taking 90% of a price, then taking 80% of the remaining price, and then taking 70% of that. That, in turn, is equivalent to multiplying the price by 0.90, then by 0.80, and then by 0.70.
For simplicity's sake, assume the initial price was Rs. 100. Then we can calculate the final price as follows:
Final price = 100 × 0.9 × 0.8 × 0.7
= Rs. 50.40
So, we essentially discounted the original price by Rs.49.60, which is 49.6%.

Sania says to her daughter, “I was as old as you are now when you were born”. If Sania is 30 years old, then what was the age of her daughter four years ago?
  • a)
    15
  • b)
    11
  • c)
    12
  • d)
    10
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Let the age of Sania be X years and the age of her daughter be Y years.
Now according to the question,
Y = X - Y
Or 2Y = X Given that, X = 30 years So, Y = 15 years
Hence, present age of Sania’s daughter = 15 years
Therefore, age of Sania’s daughter 4 years ago = 15 - 4 = 11 years
Hence, option (b) is correct.

What is the sum of all the 3-digit numbers that leave a remainder of 5 when divided by 7?
  • a)
    71079
  • b)
    64887
  • c)
    67890
  • d)
    45778
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Problem
To find the sum of all 3-digit numbers that leave a remainder of 5 when divided by 7, we first need to identify the range of these numbers.
Identifying the Range
- The smallest 3-digit number is 100.
- The largest 3-digit number is 999.
Finding the Smallest and Largest Valid Numbers
- Smallest 3-digit number leaving a remainder of 5 when divided by 7:
- We start from 100. The next number that meets our condition can be found using:
- 100 mod 7 = 2
- To adjust to a remainder of 5, we add 3, resulting in:
- 100 + 3 = 103.
- Largest 3-digit number leaving a remainder of 5 when divided by 7:
- We start from 999:
- 999 mod 7 = 4
- To adjust to a remainder of 5, we subtract 1, resulting in:
- 999 - 1 = 998.
Identifying the Sequence of Numbers
The valid numbers form an arithmetic series where:
- First term (a) = 103
- Last term (l) = 998
- Common difference (d) = 7
Finding the Number of Terms (n)
- The formula for the nth term of an arithmetic sequence is:
- l = a + (n-1)d
- Setting up the equation:
- 998 = 103 + (n-1) * 7
- This gives us n = 129.
Calculating the Sum
- The sum of an arithmetic series can be calculated using the formula:
- Sum = n/2 * (a + l)
- Plugging in the values:
- Sum = 129/2 * (103 + 998) = 129/2 * 1101 = 71079.
Conclusion
The sum of all 3-digit numbers that leave a remainder of 5 when divided by 7 is 71079, confirming that option 'A' is correct.

Three numbers are co-prime to each other, such that the product of first two co-prime numbers is 459 and the product of last two coprime numbers is 621. What must be the sum of these three co-prime numbers?
  • a)
    57
  • b)
    67
  • c)
    79
  • d)
    81
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Gaurav Iyer answered
Given Information:
- The product of the first two co-prime numbers is 459.
- The product of the last two co-prime numbers is 621.

Solution:

Finding the Co-prime Numbers:
- Let's find the prime factors of 459 and 621.
- The prime factorization of 459 is 3 x 3 x 3 x 17.
- The prime factorization of 621 is 3 x 3 x 3 x 3 x 23.

Identifying the Co-prime Numbers:
- From the prime factorization, we can see that the co-prime numbers are (3, 17) and (3, 23).
- Therefore, the three co-prime numbers are 3, 17, and 23.

Calculating the Sum:
- The sum of the three co-prime numbers is 3 + 17 + 23 = 43.
- Therefore, the correct answer is option B (67).

Direction: Read the following four passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Packaging is enclosing the food material in a container to ensure the delivery of the product in the best condition to the consumer for final use. Therefore, good packaging plays a vital role in developing the image and brand of the company product. Intelligent food packaging incorporating nanosensors can provide information on the state of the food inside. It is recommended that nano packaging should be designed in such a way to release antimicrobials, antioxidants, flavour enzymes and nutraceuticals to extend the shelf life of the food products. There is a need to undertake further toxicological and migration studies to ensure the safe development of nanotechnologies in the food packaging industry.
Q. Which of the following is/are the most rational and logical inference/ inferences that can be made from the passage?
1. Including nanosensors in packaging will increase the cost of packaging for companies.
2. There is limited understanding of the use of nanotechnology in the packaging industry.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Inference 1 is incorrect. This option is not correct because the option mentions the cost of packaging. However, there is no discussion in the passage about the cost implications of nano packaging. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and hence is not a correct inference.
Inference 2 is correct. This assumption is correct as can be seen in the lines "There is a need to undertake further toxicological and migration studies to ensure safe development of nanotechnologies in the food packaging industry”. It shows that the current understanding of the impact of nanotechnology on the packaging is limited. So there is a need for further studies. Therefore, this assumption statement is correct.

How much water must be added to a 100 cc of 80% solution of boric acid to reduce it to a 50% solution?
  • a)
    20 cc
  • b)
    40 cc
  • c)
    80 cc
  • d)
    60 cc
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Given:
- Initial volume of 80% boric acid solution = 100 cc
- Desired final concentration = 50%

Calculations:
- Let x be the amount of water to be added to reduce the concentration.
- Initial amount of boric acid in the solution = 80% of 100 cc = 80 cc
- Final volume of the solution after adding water = 100 cc + x
- Final amount of boric acid in the solution after adding water = 50% of (100 + x) cc

Equation:
- Amount of boric acid before = Amount of boric acid after
- 80 cc = 50% of (100 + x)
- 80 = 0.5(100 + x)
- 80 = 50 + 0.5x
- 0.5x = 30
- x = 60 cc
Therefore, 60 cc of water must be added to 100 cc of 80% boric acid solution to reduce it to a 50% solution. Hence, the correct answer is option D.

Rani bought more apples than oranges. She sells apples at Rs. 23 a piece and makes 15% profit. She sells orange at Rs. 10 a piece and makes 25% profit. If she gets Rs. 653 after selling all the apples and oranges, find her profit percentage.
  • a)
    16.8%
  • b)
    17.4%
  • c)
    18.9%
  • d)
    183%
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Let number of apples and oranges that Rani brought be A and O respectively.
Now, 23A + 10O = 653 Since 653 has last digit as 3 which can come by multiplying 23 with 1, 11, 21, 31 and so on.
Here, number of apples bought is greater than number of oranges. So, A > O
We can see that A = 21 and O = 17 is the only solution.
So, number of Apples bought = 21 and number of Oranges bought = 17.
Cost of an Apple = 23/1.15 and Cost of an Orange = 10/1.25
Overall cost = (23/1.15) × 21 + (10/1.25) × 17 = 483/1.15 + 170/1.25 = 420 + 136 = 556
Profit = 653 - 556 = 97
Profit percentage = (97/556) x 100 = 17.4%
Hence, option (b) is correct.

On independence day, chocolates were to be distributed amongst 300 children. But on that day, 50 students were absent and so, each child got one extra chocolate. How many chocolates were distributed?  
  • a)
    1450
  • b)
    1700
  • c)
    1500
  • d)
    1650 
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Calculation of Chocolates Distributed on Independence Day
There were initially 300 children who were supposed to receive chocolates on Independence Day. However, 50 students were absent on that day.

Calculating Total Children Present
Total children present = 300 - 50 = 250

Calculating Total Chocolates Distributed
Since each child received one extra chocolate due to the absence of 50 students, the total number of chocolates distributed can be calculated by multiplying the total number of children present by the number of chocolates each child received.
Total chocolates distributed = 250 children * 2 chocolates each = 500 chocolates
Therefore, a total of 500 chocolates were distributed amongst the children on Independence Day.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C) 1500.

Direction: Read the following four passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Any suicide is a tragedy of insurmountable proportions for the family. It has multiple ramifications for those left behind. Truly, it is the end point of the collective failure of society. Hence, its prevention begins within the society. Suicides which happen due to coercion and threat of violence are not truly suicides, they are murders committed by all of us. In India, we harbour suicides in our shanties, colonies, homes, colleges, schools and professional institutions. We love the talk of death as a means of retribution. If we do not want that to happen, then we must raise our voices at every act of injustice, abuse, prejudice, threat and violence aimed at the ordinary Indian.
Q. Which one of the following is the most rational inference(s) one can draw from the passage?
  • a)
    Society, in many cases, provokes one to commit suicide.
  • b)
    Society is solely responsible for suicide.
  • c)
    Society promotes suicide in order to maintain its supremacy over individuals.
  • d)
    All of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Option (a) is correct. The passage mentions, "Suicides which happen due to coercion and threat of violence are not truly suicides, they are murders committed by all of us. " It implies that in many cases all of us, i.e. society provokes someone to such an extent that the person commits suicide. Not every suicide is provoked by society, but those involving coercion and threat of violence are provoked by society. Therefore, this is the correct option.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage nowhere mentions that society is the only reason behind suicides. So this is an incorrect statement.
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage nowhere mentions that society promotes suicide in order to maintain its supremacy over individuals. This is entirely beyond the scope of this passage. So this is an incorrect statement.
Option (d) is incorrect. This option is incorrect because options (b) and (c) are already incorrect as explained above.

What will be the remainder if 468 is divided by 192?
  • a)
    16
  • b)
    49
  • c)
    64
  • d)
    21
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

468/192 = 22×68 / (64×3)
= 2136 / (26×3) 
= 2130/3    (in the end we will multiply the answer with 26)
21/3→ Remainder is 2
22/3 →Remainder is 1
23/3 →Remainder is 2  …………… and so on.
So, when power is odd, we get remainder 2.
& when power is even, we get remainder 1.
Therefore, in case of 2130/3 we will get remainder 1.
Required Remainder = 1×26 = 64
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Passage
The global demand for fresh water will exceed supply by 40 per cent by 2030, said Csaba Kőrösi, president of the 77th session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA). He was speaking at a press conference in Geneva on the UN Water Conference to be held March 22-24, 2023 in New York City. For the first time in history, human civilisation has breached the planetary boundary for water, Korosi said. “It means that we are in the red zone.” In many parts of the world, 80 per cent of the impacts of climate change is felt through water, according to him. Many countries are simultaneously grappling with three major kinds of water crises, he added. “It’s too much, it’s too little or it’s too dirty to use or drink.” Around 97 per cent of the usable freshwater comes from groundwater and the reliance on groundwater is immense: Nearly half the global urban population today uses groundwater sources to meet their daily needs, according to the UN World Water Development Report 2022. Water is also essential for food security, the UNGA president noted. 
“Around 40 per cent of the grain that we produce by 2030 will have to come from the lands that suffer droughts, more serious than what we are experiencing today.” The Horn of Africa, for instance, is experiencing its sixth consecutive failed rainy season, deepening the drought crisis for millions of people living in the region, a UN News correspondent pointed out to Kőrösi, asking what the upcoming summit has in store for the poor of the world affected by water crises. 
Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to fresh water?
  1. By 2030, the world's demand for fresh water will be 40% higher than the present demand.
  2. Groundwater is the only source of freshwater for human civilisation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage mentions, “The global demand for fresh water will exceed supply by 40 per cent by 2030”. It means that demand will exceed supply by 40% in 2030. That is, if the demand is 140 litres, the supply would be 100 litres only. It does not mean that the demand for fresh water will become 40% higher than the present level. Hence, it is not a correct statement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Refer to the line: “Around 97 per cent of the usable freshwater comes from groundwater and the reliance on groundwater is immense.” It is true that almost all freshwater requirement is currently met by ground water. Yet, we cannot conclusively say that groundwater is the only source of freshwater. There could be other sources which are relatively untapped. Hence, it is an incorrect statement. 

Passage
The worship of female deities associated with fertility and childbirth, considered protectresses of children with the power to ward off disease, is an important aspect of popular religious practice all over India today. In the early historical period, such functions were associated with yakshis. Colossal stone images of Yakshis of this period have been found at many places. While the large stone statues of yakshas and yakshis indicate the prevalence of community worship in the public domain, the many smaller stone and terracotta images indicate that they were worshipped in a private, domestic context as well. In the Mathura area, colossal images of yakshas and yakshis disappear around the turn of the millennium, but the small statues are still found in large numbers, indicating their continuing importance as objects of worship in the domestic sphere. The worship of serpents—nagas and nagis (or naginis)—was another important aspect of religious worship that cut across religious boundaries. The nagas and nagis were associated with water and fertility. Like the yakshas and yakshis, they too were originally the focus of exclusive worship, but were in course of time absorbed into the dominant religions. Colossal naga figures belonging to the early centuries CE have been found in many places. Their imposing nature and the technical finesse of their carving make it amply clear that they do not represent a simple folk or village cult.
With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements.
  1. Yakshis were supposed to be related to female fertility.
  2. Shaivism includes the worship of serpents.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Statement 1 is correct: The passage mentions, “The worship of female deities associated with fertility and childbirth, considered protectresses of children with the power to ward off disease..., such functions were associated with yakshis”.  It clearly means Yakshis were associated with fertility. Hence, it is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does talk about the worship of serpents. But, nowhere does it mention that these serpent worships were a part of Shaivism. Hence, it is not a correct statement.

If 9 + 6 = 135, 13 + 7 = 260, 7 + 12 = 133, 10 + 11 = 210, then 18 + 15 = ?
  • a)
    594
  • b)
    380
  • c)
    656
  • d)
    280
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshya Ias answered
The pattern followed here is: 9 + 6 → (9×9) + (9×6) = 81 + 54 = 135
13 + 7 → (13×13) + (13×7) = 169 + 91 = 260
7 + 12 → (7×7) + (7×12) = 49 + 84 = 133
10 + 11 → (10×10) + (10×11) = 100 + 110 = 210
18 + 15 → (18×18) + (18×15) = 324 + 270 = 594
Hence, option (a) is correct.

If the diagonal of a square becomes half, the area of that square reduces by how much percentage?
  • a)
    40%
  • b)
    50%
  • c)
    25%
  • d)
    75%
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Divey Sethi answered
Let diagonal of the square be d units.
Area of square = (1/2) d2 If diagonal of the square is reduced by half, then the new area of the square = (1/2) × (d/2)2 = (1/8) d2 So, reduction in the area of the square = (1/2)d2 – (1/8)d2 = (3/8) d2
The percentage by which the area of that square gets reduced = [{(3/8)d2} / {(1/2)d2}] × 100 = 75% Hence, option (d) is correct.

A box contains some balls of black, blue and red colours in the ratio 3 : 8 : 7. The number of red coloured balls is greater than that of black coloured balls by a number that is a multiple of both 12 and 9. What is the minimum possible number of total balls contained in the box?
  • a)
    186
  • b)
    168
  • c)
    162
  • d)
    196
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Understanding the Problem:
The given ratio of black, blue, and red balls is 3 : 8 : 7. We need to find the minimum possible number of total balls in the box. The number of red balls is greater than black balls by a number that is a multiple of both 12 and 9.

Solution:
To find the minimum possible number of total balls, we need to consider the least common multiple (LCM) of 12 and 9, which is 36.
Let's assume the number of black balls is 3x. Then, the number of blue balls is 8x, and the number of red balls is 7x.
Given that the number of red balls is greater than the number of black balls by a number that is a multiple of 36:
7x - 3x = 4x = 36k, where k is an integer.
The minimum value of x that satisfies this condition is 9. Therefore, the minimum possible number of total balls in the box is:
3x + 8x + 7x = 18x = 18 * 9 = 162
Therefore, the minimum possible number of total balls contained in the box is 162, which corresponds to option (c).

Direction: Read the following four passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Today about 25% of modern pharmacopoeia are derived from plants. World Health Organization (WHO) estimated that about 80% of the developing country's population still relies on traditional medicines, mostly plant drugs, to help meet their health care needs. Also, there is an increase in the demand for plant products in both developing and developed countries because of several advantages such as no side effects, non-toxic, and affordable prices. Plants provide the raw material for industries producing pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, perfumes, and fragrance flavours imparting biochemical. Therefore, there is an urgent need for conservation, sustainable utilization, and management of plant genetic resources of the region to meet the growing requirements of food, fodder, fibre, health, water, and other needs.
Q. According to the passage above, what are the different uses of plants?
1. Preparation of medicines
2. Consumption of food
3. Prevention of soil erosion
4. Making perfumes
5. Controlling air pollution
Select the correct answer from code below:
  • a)
    1, 2 and 4 only
  • b)
    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  • c)
    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
  • d)
    2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The lines “Plants provide the raw material for industries producing pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, perfumes, and fragrance flavour imparting biochemical. Therefore, there is an urgent need for conservation, sustainable utilization, and management of plant genetic resources of the region to meet the growing requirements of food, fodder, fibre, health, water, and other needs ” show that plants are used in these processes. So, option (a) is correct.
Statements 3 and 5 are incorrect. The options for the prevention of soil erosion and air pollution are correct in general. However, they are not covered in the passage and the answer has to be based on the information given in the passage. Hence, these statements are not correct.

Direction: Read the following four passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Pesticide resistance is increasing and farmers’ and other pest managers’ dependencies on chemical insecticides have led to a high frequency of insecticide resistance in some crop systems. To fight pesticide resistance and based on a knowledge of the genetics of the development of pesticide resistance, several principles must be adhered to for delaying the emergence of resistance or avoiding it entirely. These principles include pesticide rotation or switching, avoiding unnecessary pesticide applications, using non-chemical control techniques, and leaving untreated refuges where susceptible pests can survive.
Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage?
  • a)
    Pesticide resistance can be avoided by following the principles of rotation, nonchemical control techniques etc.
  • b)
    Increasing pesticide resistance could lead to food insecurity in the long run.
  • c)
    It is not possible to develop pesticides without the knowledge of the genetics of the pests.
  • d)
    Bio-pesticides should be promoted as an alternative to chemical pesticides to prevent pesticide resistance.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Sneha Kumar answered
Central Idea of the Passage:
Pesticide resistance can be avoided by following the principles of rotation, non-chemical control techniques, etc.

Explanation:
- The passage discusses the increasing pesticide resistance in crop systems and the need to combat this issue.
- It mentions that adherence to certain principles, such as pesticide rotation or switching, avoiding unnecessary pesticide applications, using non-chemical control techniques, and leaving untreated refuges, can help in delaying or avoiding the emergence of resistance.
- By following these principles, farmers and pest managers can effectively manage pest populations without solely relying on chemical insecticides, thus reducing the likelihood of pesticide resistance.
- Therefore, the central idea of the passage is that pesticide resistance can be mitigated by implementing strategies such as rotation, non-chemical control techniques, and the creation of untreated refuges for susceptible pests to survive.

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
There are four declared candidates for permanent membership: India, Japan, Brazil and Germany, called the G-4. Africa and Latin America and the Caribbean are unrepresented in the permanent category at present. Africa’s claim for two permanent seats has wide understanding and support, but the Africans have yet to decide which two countries these are to be. As for India, we can discount Pakistan’s opposition; China will not support India nor will it ever support Japan. Brazil has regional opponents and claimants. As for Germany, Italy is firmly opposed to its claim. Italy has an interesting argument. If Germany and Japan – both Axis powers during the Second World War, and hence ‘enemy’ states – were to join as permanent members, that would leave out only Italy, the third founding member of the Axis group. In any case there are already three western nations among the P-5. Even if India enjoyed near universal support, there is no way that India alone can be elected; it will have to be a package deal involving countries from other groups.  There is quite a debate going on about whether the aspiring countries should accept permanent membership without the right of veto. There is no ambiguity regarding the position of the P-5. Every one of them is firmly opposed to conferring the veto power to any prospective new permanent member. Not just the P-5. The vast majority of members do not want any more veto-wielding members in the Council. There is a proposal to the effect that a resolution can be defeated only by a negative vote of at least two permanent members. This also is a non-starter; the P-5 are firmly opposed to any dilution of their privileged position.  
Out of four declared candidates for permanent membership to UN security council, India alone can be elected because :
I. India has near universal support.  
II. Germany’s claim is opposed by India
III. Japan’s claim is opposed by China
IV. Brazil claim is opposed by her neighbors. 
Give the correct answer using the following codes.
  • a)
    II, III and IV only  
  • b)
    I only  
  • c)
    I, II, III and IV  
  • d)
    None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Gargi Saha answered
Explanation:

Incorrect claims:
India alone cannot be elected to the UN Security Council as a permanent member based on the information provided in the passage.

Reasons:
- India's claim for permanent membership, although enjoying support, is not the only deciding factor for its election.
- Germany's claim being opposed by Italy and Brazil's claim facing regional opposition are not directly related to India's chances of being elected.
- China's opposition to Japan's claim does not necessarily translate to opposition towards India's claim.

Key Points:
- The passage mentions that a package deal involving countries from other groups would be necessary for the election of new permanent members, ruling out the possibility of India being elected alone.
- It also highlights the complexities and rivalries among the declared candidates for permanent membership, indicating that multiple factors beyond support play a role in the election process.
Therefore, based on the information provided in the passage, none of the given statements accurately support the claim that India alone can be elected as a permanent member to the UN Security Council.

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only. 
After the Civil War, an industrial revolution remade the nation at unimaginable speed. In a generation, America became a place more recognizable today than it would have been to people who came of age when Lincoln did. Wall Street figured centrally in that great transformation. Its titanic financiers dominated the economic and political landscape, especially the railroads which were the cornerstone of the new economy and which depended on a supportive and pliant government for their creation. The men who choreographed their construction and lived lavishly off their proceeds were revered by some as master builders and Napoleonic conquerors. Writers marveled at their Darwinian ferocity. But they were reviled by others as robber barons and rogues and sinners against the moral order. For the first time Wall Street became a spectacle, an object of mass fascination. It seduced and repelled people sometimes the same people at once. 
With which of the following statements will the author agree? 
  • a)
    Railroad was the key to the industrial revolution in America.
  • b)
    Everyone was fond of Wall Street.
  • c)
    Wall Street financiers with government support played a big role in the transformation of America.
  • d)
    Robber barons and rouges were the master builders of Railroads.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
Based on the article rest of the statements are wrong. 

Direction: Read the following four passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Today about 25% of modern pharmacopoeia are derived from plants. World Health Organization (WHO) estimated that about 80% of the developing country's population still relies on traditional medicines, mostly plant drugs, to help meet their health care needs. Also, there is an increase in the demand for plant products in both developing and developed countries because of several advantages such as no side effects, non-toxic, and affordable prices. Plants provide the raw material for industries producing pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, perfumes, and fragrance flavours imparting biochemical. Therefore, there is an urgent need for conservation, sustainable utilization, and management of plant genetic resources of the region to meet the growing requirements of food, fodder, fibre, health, water, and other needs.
Q. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Developed nations are mainly dependent on chemical-based medicines.
2. Many plant genetic resources are getting extinct because of the increasing loss of biodiversity.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The lines “ World Health Organization (WHO) estimated that about 80% of the developing country’s population still relies on traditional medicines, mostly plant drugs, to help meet their health care needs” merely talks about developing countries. Assuming that developed nations are mainly dependent on chemical-based medicines would not be correct. So, this assumption is not correct.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The lines, “Therefore, there is an urgent need for conservation, sustainable utilization, and management ofplant genetic resources of the region to meet the growing requirements oj food, fodder, fibre, health, water, and other needs” show that conservation of plant genetic resources is required. However, we cannot assume from this that many plant genetic resources are getting extinct. So, this is an incorrect assumption.

Direction: Read the following four passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
In siun, the main aim of transport planning is to make the transport sector more sustainable from a social and environmental point of view while simultaneously allowing tourism to grow. Transport planning and tourism policy have to be integrated to achieve joint environmental and social objectives. In this sense, it is important to create incentives that reduce the need for private cars and minimize the length of time needed to access specific locations. This could lead to substantial welfare gains, in terms of pollution reductions and improved access for rural inhabitants.
Q. What is the crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
  • a)
    Separating the transport and tourism policy will be detrimental to the society and environment.
  • b)
    Tourism industry cannot grow without the growth in the transport sector.
  • c)
    Pollution and economic issues of rural inhabitants exist because of poor public transport infrastructure.
  • d)
    Socio-environmental development isdependent on the synergy between transport and tourism policies.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sneha Kumar answered
Crucial Message Conveyed by the Passage:
The crucial message conveyed by the passage is the importance of integrating transport planning and tourism policy to achieve joint environmental and social objectives. This integration is essential for the sustainable development of the transport sector and the growth of tourism industry while also addressing social and environmental concerns.

Explanation:
- Transport Planning and Tourism Policy Integration: The passage emphasizes the need to integrate transport planning and tourism policy to achieve common environmental and social goals. This integration is crucial for ensuring sustainable development and growth in the tourism sector.
- Reduction in Private Cars and Improved Access: Creating incentives to reduce the reliance on private cars and minimize travel time to specific locations can lead to substantial welfare gains. This can result in pollution reductions and improved access for rural inhabitants.
- Importance of Synergy: The passage highlights that the synergy between transport and tourism policies is essential for achieving socio-environmental development. By working together, these policies can address pollution issues, improve access for rural communities, and contribute to overall welfare gains.
- Overall Impact: The passage underscores that socio-environmental development is dependent on the collaboration between transport planning and tourism policy. By aligning these policies, it is possible to create a more sustainable transport sector, support tourism growth, and address social and environmental challenges effectively.

In a local shop as part of promotional measures, the shop owner sells three different varieties of soap, one at a loss of 13 percent, another at a profit of 23 percent and the third one at a loss of 26 percent. Assuming that the shop owner sells all three varieties of soap at the same price, the approximate percentage by which average cost price is lower or higher than the selling price is:
  • a)
    10.5% higher
  • b)
    12.5% lower
  • c)
    14.5% lower
  • d)
    8.5% higher
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Let SP of each article be Rs. 100.
Thus, C.P of article sold at 13% loss = [100/(100 - 13)] × 100 = (100/87) × 100 = Rs. 115 (approx)
C.P of article sold at 23% profit = [100/(100 + 23)] × 100 = (100/123) × 100 = Rs. 81.3
C.P of article sold at 26% loss = [100/(100 - 26)] × 100 = (100/74) × 100 = Rs. 135.1
Total CP of articles = 115 + 81.3 + 135.1 = Rs. 331.4
Required percentage = [(331.4 - 300)/300] × 100 = 10.5% (Approx)
Average cost price is higher than the average selling price by 10.5% approximately.
Hence, option (a) is correct.

A shopkeeper labelled the price on his articles in such a manner so as to earn a profit of 30% on the cost price. He, then sold the articles by offering a discount of 10% on the labelled price. What is the actual profit percentage earned by him?
  • a)
    18%
  • b)
    15%
  • c)
    20%
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Palak Patel answered
Given Information:

The shopkeeper labels the price on his articles to earn a profit of 30% on the cost price. He then sells the articles by offering a discount of 10% on the labelled price.

Calculating the Selling Price:

Let the cost price of the article be Rs. 100.
Profit earned = 30% of Cost Price = 30% of 100 = Rs. 30
Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit = 100 + 30 = Rs. 130

Calculating the Selling Price after offering a discount:

Discount offered = 10% of Labelled Price = 10% of 130 = Rs. 13
Selling Price after discount = Labelled Price - Discount = 130 - 13 = Rs. 117

Calculating the Actual Profit Percentage:

Actual Profit = Selling Price after discount - Cost Price = 117 - 100 = Rs. 17
Actual Profit Percentage = (Actual Profit / Cost Price) * 100 = (17 / 100) * 100 = 17%

Therefore, the actual profit percentage earned by the shopkeeper is 17%, which is not provided as an option. Hence, the correct answer is None of these (Option D).

Direction: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
While infrastructure is essential for creating safe and inclusive places, we cannot underplay the importance of changing mindsets. There is a need for the sensitization of students, teachers, and staff in all educational institutions, from primary schools to universities, on understanding and accepting queer and transgender folks. India has taken a step in the right direction by enacting the Transgender Persons Act, which speaks of a trans-inclusive education system wherein transgender students learn with other students without fear of discrimination, neglect, or harassment.
Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above?
  • a)
    Both infrastructure and compassion are not  the keys to the betterment of transgender persons.
  • b)
    With better ethos and proper implementation of the Act we can make a better world for transgender persons, even with poor infrastructure.
  • c)
    With the help of said Act, transgender folks can make themselves empowered.
  • d)
    India needs to be better sensitized about transgender persons.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kaavya Tiwari answered
Understanding the Crux of the Passage:
There is a need to focus on changing mindsets and sensitizing people towards queer and transgender individuals, along with improving infrastructure for creating safe spaces. The passage emphasizes the importance of compassion and empathy towards transgender folks, in addition to enacting laws and regulations.

Explanation of the Correct Answer (Option A):
- The passage highlights the significance of changing mindsets and sensitizing individuals towards queer and transgender individuals.
- It mentions the enactment of the Transgender Persons Act in India, which aims to create a trans-inclusive education system.
- The Act focuses on ensuring that transgender students can learn without facing discrimination, neglect, or harassment.
- The passage does not solely emphasize infrastructure as the key to bettering the lives of transgender persons but stresses the importance of compassion and understanding as well.
- Therefore, option A, which states that both infrastructure and compassion are essential, best reflects the crux of the passage.
In conclusion, the passage underscores the need for a holistic approach that combines infrastructure development with empathy and awareness towards transgender individuals to create a more inclusive and safe environment for them.

Two statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question:
S1: The sum of the digits of n is divisible by 3.
S2: The difference between the last two digits of n is divisible by 3.
Q: Is the integer n divisible by 3?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question? 
  • a)
    S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.
  • b)
    S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.
  • c)
    Both S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.
  • d)
    S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Statement 1: If the sum of the digits of n is divisible by 3, it means that n is divisible by 3. For example, the number 123 is divisible by 3. The sum of its digits = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6, which is also divisible by 3. Therefore, statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement 2: If the difference between the last two digits of n is divisible by 3, it does not necessarily mean that n is divisible by 3. For example, the number 25 is not divisible by 3, even though the difference between its last two digits (5 - 2 = 3) is divisible by 3. While the number 30 is divisible by 3, and the difference between its last two digits (3 - 0 = 3) is also divisible by 3. Therefore, statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Which of the following conclusions follows based on the given statements?
Statements:

All towels are cloths.
Some pillows are towels.  
No clothes are carpets.  
Conclusions:  
I. Some pillows are cloths.
II. No carpets are towels.
III. Some pillows are carpets
IV. Some clothes are towels. 
  • a)
    I, III and IV only follows.  
  • b)
    I, II and IV only follows.  
  • c)
    I and IV only follows.  
  • d)
    I and III only follows. 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjana Saha answered
Given Statements:
All towels are cloths.
Some pillows are towels.
No clothes are carpets.

Conclusions:
I. Some pillows are cloths.
II. No carpets are towels.
III. Some pillows are carpets
IV. Some clothes are towels.

Explanation:
- Statement 1 states that all towels are cloths. This means that any item that is a towel is also a cloth.
- Statement 2 states that some pillows are towels. This implies that there are pillows that are also considered towels.
- Statement 3 states that no clothes are carpets. This indicates that there is no overlap between clothes and carpets.

Analysis of Conclusions:
I. Some pillows are cloths: This conclusion follows from statement 1 and statement 2, as it is stated that some pillows are towels, and all towels are cloths.
II. No carpets are towels: This conclusion follows from statement 3, as it clearly states that there is no intersection between carpets and towels.
III. Some pillows are carpets: This conclusion does not follow based on the given statements, as there is no direct link between pillows and carpets.
IV. Some clothes are towels: This conclusion does not follow based on the given statements, as there is no direct link between clothes and towels.

Therefore, the correct conclusions are I, II, and IV. Thus, option B is the correct answer.

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Six employees, A, B, C, D, E and F earn different amounts as salary. Only two employees have salary less than C. The number of employees having salary higher than C is less than the number of employees having salary higher than B. The number of employees having salary higher than B is equal to the number of employees having salary less than E. F earns a salary of Rs. 15000, which is not higher than the salary of either D or A. A or D do not earn the highest salary. The number of employees having salary higher than A is an even number. 
Who is the least paid employee?
  • a)
    D
  • b)
    A
  • c)
    B
  • d)
    F
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
Only two employees have salary less than C. The number of employees having salary higher than C is less than the number of employees having salary higher than B. So, two cases are possible.
The number of employees having salary higher than B is equal to the number of employees having salary less than E. So, we get:
Now, F earns a salary of Rs. 15000, which is not higher than the salary of either D or A. So, we get:
A or D do not earn the highest salary. So, we can eliminate Case 1. The number of employees having salary higher than A is an even number. So, we get: 
E > D > A > C > F > B

Consider the following equation.
[(4/5) of (4/5) ÷ (4/5)] / [(4/5) ÷ (4/5) of (4/5)]
What outcome will we get after solving the above equation?
  • a)
    1
  • b)
    16/25
  • c)
    4/5
  • d)
    5/4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshmi Chavan answered
Given Equation: [(4/5) of (4/5) ÷ (4/5)] / [(4/5) ÷ (4/5) of (4/5)]

Solution:

Simplify the expression:
- Calculate (4/5) of (4/5): (4/5) * (4/5) = 16/25
- Calculate (4/5) ÷ (4/5): (4/5) ÷ (4/5) = 1
Now, substitute the values back into the equation:
[(16/25) ÷ (4/5)] / [(4/5) ÷ (16/25)]
= [(16/25) * (5/4)] / [(4/5) * (25/16)]
= (80/100) / (100/80)
= 80/100 * 80/100
= 6400 / 10000
= 16 / 25
Therefore, the outcome of the given equation is 16/25, which corresponds to option B.

A box contains 15 apples, out of which 5 are rotten. 4 apples are drawn from the box at random (one by one without replacement).
What is the probability that all 4 of them are rotten?
  • a)
    1/273
  • b)
    1/27
  • c)
    149/1365
  • d)
    3/233
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Total number of apples in the box = 15
Number of ways of choosing 4 apples from these 15 apples = 15C4 = 15! / (4! × 11!) = (15×14×13×12) / (4×3×2) = 1365
Number of ways of choosing 4 rotten apples from 5 rotten apples = 5C4 = 5! / (4! × 1!) = 5
So, Required probability = 5/1365 = 1/273
Hence, option (a) is correct.

Direction: Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
There are four declared candidates for permanent membership: India, Japan, Brazil and Germany, called the G-4. Africa and Latin America and the Caribbean are unrepresented in the permanent category at present. Africa’s claim for two permanent seats has wide understanding and support, but the Africans have yet to decide which two countries these are to be. As for India, we can discount Pakistan’s opposition; China will not support India nor will it ever support Japan. Brazil has regional opponents and claimants. As for Germany, Italy is firmly opposed to its claim. Italy has an interesting argument. If Germany and Japan – both Axis powers during the Second World War, and hence ‘enemy’ states – were to join as permanent members, that would leave out only Italy, the third founding member of the Axis group. In any case there are already three western nations among the P-5. Even if India enjoyed near universal support, there is no way that India alone can be elected; it will have to be a package deal involving countries from other groups.  There is quite a debate going on about whether the aspiring countries should accept permanent membership without the right of veto. There is no ambiguity regarding the position of the P-5. Every one of them is firmly opposed to conferring the veto power to any prospective new permanent member. Not just the P-5. The vast majority of members do not want any more veto-wielding members in the Council. There is a proposal to the effect that a resolution can be defeated only by a negative vote of at least two permanent members. This also is a non-starter; the P-5 are firmly opposed to any dilution of their privileged position.  
With which of the following statements the author of the passage will not agree:
I. No P-5 members will agree to give permanent membership with veto power.
II. A resolution can be defeated by a negative vote of at least two permanent members.
III. Africa’s claim for two permanent seats has a wide understanding.
IV. Many member nations do not mind addition of few more permanent members with veto power.  
Answer using the following codes : 
  • a)
    All of the above  
  • b)
    I and II only  
  • c)
    II and IV only  
  • d)
    None of the above  
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

II and IV are false according to the passage.  

Direction: Read the following  passage and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
While infrastructure is essential for creating safe and inclusive places, we cannot underplay the importance of changing mindsets. There is a need for the sensitization of students, teachers, and staff in all educational institutions, from primary schools to universities, on understanding and accepting queer and transgender folks. India has taken a step in the right direction by enacting the Transgender Persons Act, which speaks of a trans-inclusive education system wherein transgender students learn with other students without fear of discrimination, neglect, or harassment.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Presently every stakeholder in educational institutions is not adequately sensitized about transgender persons.
2.Before the enactment of the Transgender Persons Act, there was no any Act in the country to deal with transgender persons.
3.The said Act will empower the transgender while removing difficulties they face in every sector.
Q. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
  • a)
        3 only
  • b)
        1 only
  • c)
        1 and 3 only
  • d)
        2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Statement 1 is correct. The passage mentions, “There is a needfor the sensitization ofstudents, teachers, and staff in all educational institutions, from primary schools to universities, on understanding and accepting queer and transgender folks.” It clearly implies that every stakeholder i.e. students, teachers and staff is not adequately sensitized about transgender persons, which is why the author mentioned the need for sensitization of all stakeholders. So this is a correct statement.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage nowhere talks about any Act before the said Act. So we cannot assume whether there was any law before the said Act or not. The passage also nowhere compares the said Act with any other Act in force. So this is an incorrect statement.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “'India has taken a step in the right direction by enacting the Transgender Persons Act, which speaks of a trans-inclusive education system wherein transgender students learn with other students without fear of discrimination, neglect, or harassment.” It implies the removal of difficulties in the education sector. The passage is silent on other sectors like employment, reservation, marriage, etc. So here we cannot assume about other sectors. So, this is an incorrect statement.

In a class, 40% of the boys is same as half of the girls, and there are 20 girls in total. Total number of students in the class is:
  • a)
    70
  • b)
    45
  • c)
    35
  • d)
    25
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
40% of the boys is same as half of the girls, and there are 20 girls.
So, 40% of boys = 20/2 = 10
Therefore, 100% of boys = (10/40%) × 100% = 25
Therefore, total number of boys = 25
Thus, total number of students = 25 + 20 = 45
Hence, option (b) is correct.

In a school, the students are interested in various sports activities. 55% are interested Badminton, 50% are interested in Volleyball, 42% are interested in Hockey, 28% are interested in Badminton and Volleyball, 20% are interested in Volleyball and Hockey, 12% are interested Badminton and Hockey and 10% are interested in all the three. If each one of them are interested in atleast one of these, then what percentage of students are interested in exactly one sport?  
  • a)
    40%
  • b)
    49%
  • c)
    57%
  • d)
    59% 
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
By venn diagram 
Students who are interested in only Badminton and volleyball = 28 - 10 = 18%
Students who are interested in only volleyball & Hockey =20 – 10 = 10%  
Students who are interested in only Badminton and Hockey = 12-10 = 2%  
Students who are interested only in Badminton = 55 - 18 - 10 - 2 = 25%  
Students who are interested only in Volleyball = 50 - 18 - 10 - 10 = 12%  
Students who are interested only in Hockey = 42 - 10 - 10 - 2=20%  
Percentage of students who interested in exactly on sport = 25 + 2 + 20 = 57%

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