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All questions of UPSC CSE Prelims Paper 1 (GS) Mock Tests (2026) for UPSC CSE Exam

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Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME)Scheme:
1. The scheme was launched under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan as a central sector scheme.
2. It aims to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises inthe unorganized segment of the food processing industry.
Which of the statements given aboveis/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    Both 1 and 2
  • c)
    2 only 
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ayush Yadav answered
Statement 1: The scheme was launched under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan as a central sector scheme.
The first statement is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme was not launched under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. It was launched as a part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan, which is a broader economic stimulus package announced by the Government of India in response to the COVID-19 pandemic. The PMFME Scheme specifically focuses on the micro food processing enterprises and is not a central sector scheme.

Statement 2: It aims to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganized segment of the food processing industry.
The second statement is correct. The objective of the PMFME Scheme is to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganized segment of the food processing industry. The scheme aims to provide financial, technical, and business support for the upgradation and formalization of these micro-enterprises. It seeks to promote the development of these enterprises by providing them with access to credit, modern technology, and training.

The scheme has several components:
1. Capacity Building: It includes training and skill development programs for the beneficiaries to enhance their knowledge and skills in food processing and entrepreneurship.
2. Credit Linked Subsidy: It provides credit-linked capital subsidy to the micro-enterprises for technological upgradation and expansion.
3. Marketing and Branding Support: It focuses on providing support for marketing and branding activities to improve market access for the micro-enterprises.
4. Infrastructure Development: It aims to develop common infrastructure facilities like testing labs, processing centers, cold storage units, etc., to support the growth of micro-enterprises.
5. Research and Development (R&D): It encourages R&D activities in the food processing sector to promote innovation and product development.

Overall, the PMFME Scheme is designed to empower the micro food processing enterprises by providing them with the necessary support and resources to enhance their competitiveness in the market. It aims to promote the formalization and growth of these enterprises, leading to job creation and economic development in the food processing industry.

With reference to the President rule in a state, consider the following statements:
1. Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List during President rule in a state.
2. Laws made by Parliament during President rule cease to exist immediately after the President’s Rule is over.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
Option (a) is correct: When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state. A law made so by the Parliament continues to be operative even after the president’s rule. This means that the period for which such a law remains in force is not co-terminus with the duration of the President’s rule. But such a law can be repealed or altered or re-enacted by the state legislature.a

Consider the following statements about Konark Sun Temple
  1. It was built by Narasimha I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty in 1250.
  2. It was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2020.
  3. It is a classic example of the Kalinga architecture.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
Statement 1: Correct: The temple is located on the coastline of Odisha in Puri district and is also known as Surya Devalaya, dedicated to the Hindu god Surya.
Statement 2: Incorrect: Although Narasimha I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty is traditionally associated with the construction of the temple, evidence suggests the temple was completed around 1250, but the exact builder is debated.
Statement 3: Correct: The Konark Sun Temple was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. The temple is renowned for its intricate stone carvings and is made of Khondalite rocks, giving it its dark color, and is also referred to as the ‘BLACK PAGODA.’ The temple remains a site of contemporary worship during the annual Chandrabhaga Festival.

Which of the following statements about NITI Aayog is/are correct?
1. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Delta Rankings under the Aspirational Districts Programme and Good Governance Index are released by NITI Aayog.
3. Project SATH-E on education and e- Amrit, a web portal on electric vehicles, was launched by NITI Aayog.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    3 only 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Academic Studio answered
The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is chaired by the Prime Minister. The Good Governance Index is prepared by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. The Parameters include:
(1) Agriculture and Allied Sectors,
(2) Commerce and Industries,
(3) Human Resource Development,
(4) Public Health,
(5) Public Infrastructure and Utilities,
(6) Economic Governance,
(7) Social Welfare and Development,
(8) Judicial and Public Security,
(9) Environment, and
(10) Citizen- Centric Governance.
The meetings of the Governing Council have been held under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister. The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises the Prime Minister of India; the Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislature; the Lt. Governors of other UTs; Ex-Officio Members; Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog; Full-Time Members, NITI Aayog; and Special Invitees. It is a premier body tasked with evolving a shared vision of national priorities and strategies, with the active involvement of the States, in shaping the development narrative. The Governing Council, which embodies the objectives of cooperative federalism, presents a platform to discuss inter-sectoral, inter- departmental and federal issues to accelerate the implementation of the national development agenda.
e-Amrit is a one-stop destination for all information on electric vehicles (EVs) – busting myths around the adoption of the EVs, their purchase, investment opportunities, policies, subsidies, etc. The portal has been developed and hosted by NITI Aayog, under a collaborative knowledge exchange programme with the UK Government and as part of the UK– India Joint Roadmap 2030, signed by the Prime Ministers of the two countries. SATH-E - Furthering the agenda for cooperative federalism, NITI Aayog has launched SATH, a programme providing ‘Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital-Education’ with the State Governments.
The vision of the programme is to initiate transformation in the education and health sectors. The programme addresses the need expressed by many states for technical support from NITI Aayog. The Aspirational Districts Programme of NITI Aayog aims to quickly and effectively transform 112 most under-developed districts across the country. The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central and State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers and District Collectors), and Competition among districts through monthly Delta Rankings - all driven by a mass movement.

Which of the following were advocated by the Nehru Report of 1928?
1. Universal adult suffrage
2. Equal rights for women
3. Freedom to form unions
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Innovative Classes answered
The Nehru Report of 1928 included the following key provisions:
  1. Universal Adult Suffrage: The Nehru Report advocated for universal adult suffrage, meaning that all adult citizens, irrespective of gender, class, or property, would have the right to vote. This was a significant step towards political equality in India.
  2. Equal Rights for Women: The Report supported equal rights for women, including their right to vote and participate in the political process. It was a progressive stance for women's empowerment during that period.
  3. Freedom to Form Unions: The Nehru Report proposed the freedom to form trade unions. It recognized the importance of workers' rights and the need for legal protection, enabling workers to organize and advocate for better wages and conditions.
Correct Answer: D: 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with reference to parliamentary committees:
1. The Constitution of India has prescribed specific functions for all parliamentary committees.
2. The standing committees are permanent and work on a continuous basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
  • a)
    2 only
  • b)
    1 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
  • The Parliament is too unwieldy a body to deliberate effectively on the issues that come up before it. The functions of the Parliament are varied, complex, and voluminous. Moreover, it has neither the adequate time nor the necessary expertise to make a detailed scrutiny of all legislative measures and other matters. Therefore, it is assisted by a number of committees in the discharge of its duties.
  • The Constitution of India makes a mention of these committees at different places, but without making any specific provisions regarding their composition, tenure, functions, etc. All these matters are dealt with by the rules of two Houses. Accordingly, a parliamentary committee means a committee that: Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    • Is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker / Chairman.
    • Works under the direction of the Speaker / Chairman. o Presents its report to the House or to the Speaker / Chairman.
    • Has a secretariat provided by the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha.
  • Broadly, parliamentary committees are of two kinds-Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees.
    • The standing committees are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • The Ad Hoc Committees are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them. Ad hoc committees can be divided into two categories, that is, Inquiry Committees and Advisory Committees.
      • Inquiry Committees are constituted from time to time, either by the two Houses on a motion adopted in that behalf or by the Speaker / Chairman, to inquire into and report on specific subjects. For example, the committee on the Conduct of Certain Members during President’s Address.
      • Advisory Committees include select or joint committees on bills, which are appointed to consider and report on particular bills. These committees are distinguishable from the other ad hoc committees in as much as they are concerned with bills and the procedure to be followed by them is laid down in the Rules of Procedure and the Directions by the Speaker / Chairman.

Consider the following statements with respect to notification released by a government concerning the Pollution Index:
  1. A new categorization of industries based on their pollution load has been released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). 
  2. The new criteria will prompt industrial sectors willing to adopt cleaner technologies, ultimately resulting in generation of more pollutants but in limit.
  3. Red category of industries are normally be permitted in the ecologically fragile area / protected area.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Saha answered
Explanation:
The correct answer is option 'A', only one statement is correct.

Statement Analysis:

A new categorization of industries based on their pollution load has been released by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC):
This statement is correct. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has indeed released a new categorization of industries based on their pollution load. This categorization aims to classify industries into different categories based on the amount of pollution they generate.

The new criteria will prompt industrial sectors willing to adopt cleaner technologies, ultimately resulting in generation of more pollutants but in limit:
This statement is incorrect. The new criteria released by MoEFCC is aimed at encouraging industrial sectors to adopt cleaner technologies in order to reduce pollution levels, not increase them. The ultimate goal is to limit the generation of pollutants and promote sustainable development.

Red category of industries are normally be permitted in the ecologically fragile area / protected area:
This statement is incorrect. Industries classified under the red category are considered highly polluting and are usually not permitted to operate in ecologically fragile areas or protected areas. These industries are subject to strict regulations and monitoring to minimize their environmental impact.

Consider the following statements regarding the Paris Agreement:
1. It is a legally binding agreement under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
2. The goal of the Paris Agreement is to limit global warming to well below 2o C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Under the Paris Agreement, each country is required to submit and update their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) every 10 years.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
Paris Agreement on Climate Change:
  • It is a global agreement under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that was adopted in 2015. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is a legally binding agreement. It aims to combat climate change and limit global warming to well below 2
    • above pre-industrial levels, with an ambition to limit warming to 1.5o
    • Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The Paris Agreement sets out a framework for countries to work together to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, adapt to the impacts of climate change, and provide support to developing countries in their efforts to address climate change.
  • Under the Paris Agreement, each country is required to submit and update their nationally determined contributions (NDCs) every five years, outlining their plans for reducing greenhouse gas emissions and adapting to climate change. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  • NDCs are pledges made by countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions and to adapt to the impacts of climate change.

With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1909, consider the following statements:
1. It retained an official majority in the Central Legislative Council.
2. It provided for the association of Indians with the executive councils of the Viceroy and Governors.
3. It provided for the separate representation of chambers of commerce, universities, and zamindars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
  • Indian Councils Act of 1909 is also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley was the then Secretary of State for India and Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of India).
  • The features of this Act were as follows: o It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial. The number of members in the Central legislative council was raised from 16 to 60. The number of members in the provincial legislative councils was not uniform.
    • It retained an official majority in the Central legislative council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have a nonofficial majority. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget, and so on.
    • It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive councils of the Viceroy and Governors. Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s executive council. He was appointed as the Law Member. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of a ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters.
    • It also provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers of commerce, universities, and zamindars. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • But the reformed councils still enjoyed no real power and remained mere advisory bodies. They also did not introduce an element of democracy or self-government. The undemocratic, foreign and exploitative character of British rule remained unchanged.
  • The Moderates and the country as a whole were disappointed by the ‘constitutional’ reforms of 1909.

With reference to the power of Judicial Review, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court can review the legislations of the Parliament but not the administrative actions of the Union.
2. The High Courts can review both the legislative and executive actions of the Union as well as states.
3. The Supreme Court cannot review the legislation placed under Ninth Schedule.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
  • The power of judicial review is significantly vested upon the High Courts and the Supreme Court of India. x Under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, the compulsion of judicial review was described in fundamental rights in Part III. It is stated that the State or the Union shall not make such rules that takes away or abridges the essential rights of the people. If any law made by the Parliament or the State Legislature contravenes the provisions of this Article, shall be void.
  • Therefore, judicial review is the power of judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the central and the state governments. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Justice Syed Shah Mohamed Quadri has classified the judicial review into following categories:
    • Judicial review of the Constitutional Amendments.
    • Judicial review of the legislations of the Parliament and state legislatures and subordinate legislations.
    • Judicial review of administrative actions of both the Union and states and authorities under the state. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • In a significant judgment delivered in I.R. Coelho case, 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that there cannot be any blanket immunity from judicial review of the laws included in the Ninth Schedule. Judicial review is a basic feature of the constitution and hence, the Supreme Court can review the legislation placed under Ninth Schedule passed after 24th April 1973. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 

Consider the following statements with respect to quasicrystals:
1. A quasicrystal consists of atoms that are arranged in a pattern that does not repeat itself regularly.
2. They do not occur naturally and are produced artificially in laboratories.
3. They are used in the manufacturing of non-stick frying pans and dental instruments.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • Scientists have discovered a new type of quasicrystal, one with 12-fold symmetry, in the Sand Hills of north central Nebraska, USA, according to a recent study. It said that this quasicrystal was formed during an accidental electrical discharge, possibly by a lightning strike or a downed power line in a dune.
  • Quasicrystal is essentially a crystal-like substance. However, unlike a crystal, in which atoms are arranged in a repeating pattern, a quasicrystal consists of atoms that are arranged in a pattern that doesn’t repeat itself regularly. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • For the longest time, physicists believed every crystalline arrangement of atoms must have a pattern that repeats itself perfectly over and over again. However, this changed in 1982, when material scientist Dan Shechtman discovered crystal structures that are mathematically regular, but that do not repeat themselves. He was awarded a Nobel Prize in 2011 for discovery of quasicrystals by using diffration patterns.
  • Since their discovery, quasicrystals have been widely created in labs and known to possess novel electrical, photonic, and mechanical properties that aren’t found in other materials, making them an attractive prospect for materials scientists. They are used in manufacturing non-stick frying pans, needles for acupuncture and surgery, dental instruments and razor blades. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Although quasicrystals can be easily produced, they are rarely found outside of the laboratory. The first one was identified in a meteorite, found in 2009 near the Khatyrka River in Chukhotka, Russia. The second one was discovered in 2021 during the study of debris from the site of the world’s first nuclear explosion, which took place in 1945 in New Mexico. Scientists suggest that in both instances, for the formations of quasicrystals, materials were subjected to extremely high-pressure and high-temperature shock events. The latest discovery is only the third time that scientists have come across a quasicrystal in nature. Hence statement 2 is not correct. 

Consider the following statements:
1. Graphite is a naturally occurring mineral composed of carbon and is one of the three crystalline forms of carbon.
2. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity but a bad conductor of heat.
3. Graphite has lubricating properties due to its layered structure that allows for easy sliding between the layers.
How many of the statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

T.S Academy answered
  • Graphite About: Graphite is a naturally occurring mineral composed of carbon. It is one of the three crystalline forms of carbon, with the other two being diamond and amorphous carbon (such as charcoal or carbon black). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Structure: Graphite has a hexagonal crystal structure in which carbon atoms are arranged in layers or sheets. These layers are weakly bonded together, allowing them to easily slide past each other, giving graphite its lubricating properties. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Properties: Graphite is a good conductor of both electricity and heat. It is used in the production of electrodes for batteries and in the electronics industry. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • Applications: Graphite is commonly known for its use in pencils. The "lead" in pencils is actually a mixture of graphite and clay. Other applications include crucibles, foundry facings, polishes, arc lamps, batteries, brushes for electric motors, and cores of nuclear reactors. 

Consider the following statements regarding Article 343 of the Constitution:
1. It provides that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script.
2. It states that all proceedings before the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
  • The British introduced a codified system of law in India with English as the official language.
  • Post-independence, Article 343 of the Constitution of India provides that the official language of the Union shall be Hindi in the Devanagari script. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • However, it mandated that the English language will continue to be used for all official purposes of the Union for 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution of India. It further provides that the President may, during the said period, by order to authorise the use of the Hindi language for any official purpose of the Union, other than the English language.
  • Article 348(1)(a) states that unless Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings before the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
  • Article 348(2) provides further that notwithstanding the provisions of Article 348(1), the Governor of a state may, with the previous consent of the President, authorise the use of Hindi or any other language used for any official purpose, in proceedings in the High Court. 

Which of the following best describe(s) the concept of Fiscal Drag?
  • a)
    Decrease in the GDP growth rate due to higher Fiscal Deficit.
  • b)
    Increase in tax collection due to higher rate of inflation.
  • c)
    Decrease in aggregate demand, when the people move from low tax bracket to high tax bracket.
  • d)
    Both (b) and (c) scrutiny
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
 Fiscal drag is a concept where inflation may push more taxpayers into higher tax brackets. Therefore, fiscal drag has the effect of raising the government tax revenue without explicitly raising the tax rates. This fiscal drag also has the effect of decreasing the aggregate demand in the economy and, thus, viewed as an automatic fiscal stabiliser.

With respect to the Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWRs), consider the following statements:
1. The Warehousing Development and Regulation Act provides for the issuance of the NWRs to enable the farmers to store agricultural commodities in the warehouses.
2. The loans given by the banks by taking the NWRs as collateral are considered as Priority Sector Loans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Pankaj Kumar answered
1. Statement 1:
- The Warehousing Development and Regulation Act indeed provides for the issuance of Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWRs) to enable farmers to store agricultural commodities in warehouses.
- NWRs are issued by accredited warehouses against the commodities deposited by the farmers and can be used as collateral for obtaining financial assistance from banks.

2. Statement 2:
- Loans given by banks against NWRs are considered as Priority Sector Loans.
- This is because lending against NWRs helps in providing credit to farmers, which is an essential component of the priority sector lending targets set by the Reserve Bank of India.
Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The issuance of NWRs under the Warehousing Development and Regulation Act facilitates easier access to credit for farmers and promotes agricultural growth in the country.

With reference to ‘Silapathikaram’ an ancient Tamil Epic, consider the following statements:
1. The epic was written by ‘Ilango Adigal’, who was a prince from the Chola dynasty.
2. The epic highlights its scenes from Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas, and Pallavas in its various parts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Hrishikesh Mehta answered

Explanation:

Ilango Adigal and Silapathikaram:
- The first statement is incorrect. The ancient Tamil epic 'Silapathikaram' was not written by Ilango Adigal, but rather by his brother Ilango Adigal.
- Ilango Adigal was a poet and a Jain monk who belonged to the Chera dynasty.

Scenes from Various Dynasties:
- The second statement is correct. The epic highlights scenes from various South Indian dynasties such as Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas, and Pallavas in different parts.
- It provides a vivid portrayal of the socio-cultural, political, and economic aspects of these dynasties during ancient times.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - Neither 1 nor 2.

Arrange the following events of British-India in the correct chronological order of their occurrence:
1. Establishment of All India Trade Union Congress
2. Establishment of All India Trade Union Federation by N.M. Joshi
3. Establishment of Bombay Millhands Association by N.M. Lokhande
4. First strike by the Great Indian Peninsular Railways
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • a)
    4-3-2-1
  • b)
    4-3-1-2
  • c)
    3-4-2-1
  • d)
    3-4-1-2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Ashutosh Chavan answered
Chronological Order of Events in British-India:
1. Establishment of Bombay Millhands Association by N.M. Lokhande
- N.M. Lokhande established the Bombay Millhands Association to address the issues faced by mill workers in Bombay.
2. First strike by the Great Indian Peninsular Railways
- The first strike by the Great Indian Peninsular Railways took place as a protest against unfair working conditions and low wages.
3. Establishment of All India Trade Union Federation by N.M. Joshi
- N.M. Joshi founded the All India Trade Union Federation to unify and organize trade unions across India.
4. Establishment of All India Trade Union Congress
- The All India Trade Union Congress was established to bring together various trade unions and represent the interests of workers at a national level.
Therefore, the correct chronological order of events in British-India is 3-4-1-2, making the correct answer option 'D'.

With reference to Cobalt production and uses, consider the following statements:
1. Cobalt is extracted as a by-product of copper, nickel, zinc or precious metals.
2. Major use of cobalt is in metallurgical applications such as special alloy/super alloy, magnets and cutting tools industries.
3. Cobalt reserves are mainly found in the Congo which contributes around 51% to the total reserves worldwide.
4. Presently, there is no production of cobalt in India from primary cobalt resources.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1, 2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1, 2 and 4 only
  • c)
    3 and 4 only
  • d)
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nitin Choudhury answered
1. Cobalt Production and Extraction:
- Cobalt is extracted as a by-product of copper, nickel, zinc or precious metals.
- This means that cobalt production is dependent on the mining activities of these primary metals.

2. Cobalt Uses:
- Major use of cobalt is in metallurgical applications such as special alloy/super alloy, magnets and cutting tools industries.
- Cobalt's unique properties make it a valuable component in various industrial applications.

3. Cobalt Reserves:
- Cobalt reserves are mainly found in the Congo which contributes around 51% to the total reserves worldwide.
- The Democratic Republic of Congo is a major player in the cobalt market due to its abundant reserves.

4. Cobalt Production in India:
- Presently, there is no production of cobalt in India from primary cobalt resources.
- India relies on imports for cobalt, highlighting the country's dependence on external sources for this critical metal.
In conclusion, all the given statements are correct. Cobalt's production, uses, reserves, and the lack of production in India are important factors to consider in the global cobalt market.

The founding and settling of hill stations in India were initially connected with the needs of the British army. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Shimla was founded during the course of the Gurkha War of 1815-16.
2. The British developed Mount Abu during the Third Anglo-Maratha War.
3. Britishers seized Darjeeling from the rulers of Bengal in 1835.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Upsc Toppers answered
  • As in the case of cantonments, hill stations were a distinctive feature of colonial urban development. The founding and settling of hill stations was initially connected with the needs of the British army.
    • Shimla (present-day Shimla) was founded during the course of the Gurkha War (1815-16). Hence statement 1 is correct. o The Anglo-Maratha War of 1818 (Third Anglo-Maratha war) led to British interest in Mount Abu. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • Darjeeling was wrested from the rulers of Sikkim in 1835. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
    • Hill stations became strategic places for billeting troops, guarding frontiers and launching campaigns against enemy rulers. The temperate and cool climate of the Indian hills was seen as an advantage, particularly since the British associated hot weather with epidemics. Cholera and malaria were particularly feared and attempts were made to protect the army from these diseases. The overwhelming presence of the army made these stations a new kind of cantonment in the hills. o These hill stations were also developed as sanitariums, i.e., places where soldiers could be sent for rest and recovery from illnesses. Because the hill stations approximated the cold climates of Europe, they became an attractive destination for the new rulers. It became a practice for viceroys to move to hill stations during the summer months.
    • In 1864 the Viceroy John Lawrence officially moved his council to Shimla, setting the seal to the practice of shifting capitals during the hot season. Shimla also became the official residence of the commander-in-chief of the Indian army. 

With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Jatakas mention long-distance journeys over land, river, and sea.
2. Sangam poems talk of yavanas bringing goods by ship into the ports of South India.
3. Ashokan inscriptions mention yavanas as people who lived on the south-eastern borders of the empire.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    3 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Shah answered
Explanation:

The Jatakas mention long-distance journeys:
- The Jatakas, a collection of stories about the previous lives of the Buddha, mention long-distance journeys over land, river, and sea.
- These stories provide insights into the trade and travel networks that existed in ancient India.

Sangam poems talk of yavanas bringing goods:
- Sangam poems, which are Tamil poems from the Sangam era, talk about yavanas (foreigners) bringing goods by ship into the ports of South India.
- This indicates that there were maritime trade connections between South India and foreign lands during that time.

Ashokan inscriptions mention yavanas:
- Ashokan inscriptions, specifically Rock Edict XIII, mention yavanas as people who lived on the south-eastern borders of the Mauryan empire.
- This shows that the presence of foreigners in different parts of the empire was acknowledged and documented during the Mauryan period.

Therefore, all three statements are correct, and option 'A' is the correct answer. The interconnectedness of ancient India with other regions through trade and travel is evident from these historical sources.

Consider the following statements regarding the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021:
1.According to the Act, any woman between the ages of 35 and 45 can opt for surrogacy if she has a medical condition that makes it necessary.
2.The Act has provisions that allow women to opt for Gestational Surrogacy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
  • Surrogacy Surrogacy is an arrangement in which a woman (the surrogate) agrees to carry and give birth to a child on behalf of another person or couple (the intended parent/s). A surrogate, sometimes also called a gestational carrier, is a woman who conceives, carries and gives birth to a child for another person or couple (intended parent/s). Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021: Provisions: Under the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, a woman who is a widow or a divorcee between the age of 35 to 45 years or a couple, defined as a legally married woman and man, can avail of surrogacy if they have a medical condition necessitating this option. The intended couple shall be a legally married Indian man and woman, the man shall be between the ages of 26-55 years and the woman shall be between the ages of 25-50 years, and shall not have any previous biological, adopted, or surrogate child. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Recent Changes Made by the Supreme Court A government notification in March 2023 amended the law, banning the use of donor gametes. It said “intending couples” must use their own gametes for surrogacy. The Court clarified that when Rule 14(a) of the Surrogacy Rules Applies, which lists medical or congenital conditions that allow a woman to opt for Gestational Surrogacy, the child must be related to the intended couple, especially the husband. Gestational surrogacy is a process where one person, who did not provide the egg used in conception, carries a fetus through pregnancy and gives birth to a baby for another person or couple. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The Supreme Court stayed the operation of Rule 7 of the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, to allow the woman suffering from the Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser (MRKH) Syndrome —a rare congenital disorder that affects the female reproductive system — to undergo surrogacy using a donor egg. Rule 7 of the Surrogacy Act bans the use of donor eggs for the procedure. 

With reference to the biodiversity beyond national jurisdiction (BBNJ) treaty, consider the following statements:
  1. The BBNJ treaty covers part of the ocean that lies beyond the exclusive economic zone of a country.
  2. BBNJ treaty covers digital sequence information on marine genetic resources.
  3. BBNJ mandates three months advance prior notification before carrying out any activity with respect to marine genetic resources.
How many statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

BT Educators answered
  • On 19 June 2023, after almost 20 years of negotiations, the United Nations member states adopted a landmark treaty to ensure the conservation and sustainable use of marine Biodiversity in areas Beyond National Jurisdiction (the “BBNJ” treaty).
  • The treaty was negotiated under the United Nations Convention on Laws of the Sea (UNCLOS) of 1982 which governs the rights of countries regarding marine resources. The proposed treaty concerns the ocean existing beyond the Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZ) that lie from the coast of a country to about 200 nautical miles (or 370 km into the sea), till where it has special rights for exploration. Waters beyond that are known as open seas or high seas. Currently, it is estimated high or open seas constitute two-thirds of the world’s oceans, and only one per cent of them are legally protected. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • One of the cornerstones of the BBNJ treaty is the creation of a new mechanism for the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from activities with respect to “marine genetic resources” (“MGRs”) and “digital sequence information” (“DSI”) from MGRs. This mechanism is groundbreaking because it will require companies to pay for the use of genetic resources beyond national jurisdiction for the first time. Until now, under the existing Convention on Biological Diversity (“CBD”) and its Nagoya Protocol, companies were required to make (non-)monetary contributions only for the utilization of genetic resources under national jurisdiction (e.g., from national territories, national seas, and exclusive economic zones).
  • The BBNJ creates new “Access and Benefit-Sharing” (“ABS”) obligations on MGRs from maritime areas beyond national jurisdiction (i.e., the High Seas and the Area). Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Under BBNJ, before carrying out “activities” (e.g., in situ collection of materials) with respect to MGRs and DSI from MGRs, interested parties will have to notify the newly created Clearing House Mechanism as early as possible and no less than six months in advance. This will allow for the monitoring of the collection and use of MGRs, as well as link it to the proper benefit-sharing obligations afterward. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

With respect to the “Gene Drive Technology”, consider the following statements:
1. It is a genetic engineering technology that can permanently change the traits of a population or even an entire species.
2. Gene drives can only be produced by technology.
3. Gene drives are the genetic elements that pass from the parents to unusually high numbers of their offspring, thereby spreading quickly.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
In a breakthrough in the global fight for malaria, the scientists have wiped out an entire population of malaria-carrying mosquitoes in lab conditions, using a CRiSPR gene drive technology. Gene drive technology is a genetic engineering technology that can permanently change the traits of a population or even an entire species. Gene drives are genetic elements that pass from the parents to unusually high numbers of their offspring, thereby spreading quickly. Gene drives occur naturally, but can also be engineered. The ‘gene drive technology’ is basically designed to introduce a genetic tweak in the population of a species by altering the rules of inheritance from the parent to the offspring. Firstly, using CRiSPR gene editing tool, a gene called ‘double-sex’ in female mosquitoes is disrupted. This genetic tweak of double-sex gene follows gene drive inheritance. Here, the gene drive inheritance makes the female mosquitoes inherit two copies of the disrupted gene. When the female mosquitoes inherit two copies of the disrupted gene, they develop like males and are unable to bite or lay eggs.

How many of the following activities can use the Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system?
  1. Weather forecasting
  2. Search and Rescue operations
  3. Navigation
  4. Television broadcasting
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    Only three
  • d)
    All four 
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
  • The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system is one of the largest domestic communication satellite systems in Asia-Pacific region with nine operational communication satellites placed in Geo-stationary orbit. Established in 1983 with commissioning of INSAT-1B, it initiated a major revolution in India’s communications sector and sustained the same later.
  • The INSAT system with more than 200 transponders in the C, Extended C and Ku-bands provides services to telecommunications, television broadcasting, satellite newsgathering, societal applications, weather forecasting, disaster warning, and Search and Rescue operations.
  • While not a primary navigation system, INSAT can provide augmentation to satellite-based navigation systems. It offers location and timing information to enhance navigation accuracy in applications such as civil aviation and maritime navigation. GSAT-8 / INSAT-4G is an Indian Ku-band satellite carrying 18 transponders similar to that of INSAT-4A and INSAT-4B. It carries 2 BSS transponders and a GAGAN (Navstar Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) payload (satellite navigation for aviation). The satellite was originally planned to be launched during 2008-09, but was postponed until 2011.
  • GSAT-7 or INSAT-4F is a multi-band military communications satellite developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

In the context of physical geography, the term 'thermokarst' is best defined as:
  • a)
    A more or less level land surface produced by erosion over a long period.
  • b)
    A feature resulting from the melting of ground ice in a region underlain by permafrost.  
  • c)
    An underground geomorphological feature of Karst topography.
  • d)
    An erosional feature of weathered rocks produces due to temperature differences. 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Naveen Kulkarni answered
Definition of Thermokarst:
Thermokarst is a term used in physical geography to describe a feature resulting from the melting of ground ice in a region underlain by permafrost. It is a common phenomenon in cold regions like the Arctic and subarctic where permafrost is present.

Explanation:
- When permafrost, which is a layer of soil or rock that remains frozen for at least two consecutive years, thaws due to increased temperatures, the ice within the soil melts. This melting of ice causes the ground surface to collapse and form depressions known as thermokarst features.
- Thermokarst features can take various forms such as pits, sinkholes, or small lakes, depending on the extent of ice melt and the characteristics of the overlying soil or rock.
- The formation of thermokarst features can have significant implications for the landscape, ecosystems, and human activities in the affected areas. It can lead to changes in drainage patterns, vegetation distribution, and wildlife habitats.
- Additionally, the release of trapped greenhouse gases such as methane from thawing permafrost can contribute to climate change, further exacerbating the impacts of thermokarst formation.

Conclusion:
In conclusion, thermokarst is an important concept in physical geography that highlights the complex interactions between ice, permafrost, and the environment. Understanding thermokarst processes is crucial for predicting and mitigating the impacts of climate change in cold regions.

Consider the following statements with regard to the decennial census in India:
  1. The decennial census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation.
  2. The census in India is conducted as an executive exercise and has no statutory backing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahana Singh answered
Explanation:

Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner:
- The decennial census in India is indeed conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation as mentioned in the question.

Statutory Backing:
- The second statement in the question is incorrect. The decennial census in India is not merely an executive exercise but has statutory backing. The Census Act of 1948 provides the legal framework for conducting the census in the country.
Therefore, both statements given in the question are incorrect. The decennial census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs, and it has statutory backing through the Census Act of 1948.

Which of the following best describes the concept of Debt Service Ratio?
  • a)
    External Debt to the GDP ratio.
  • b)
    Proportion of the total external debt service payments to the current receipts of the Balance of Payments (BoP).
  • c)
    The ratio of total external debt service payments to the total receipts in the Balance of Payments (BoP).
  • d)
    The ratio of the total internal and external debt service payments to the GDP ratio.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
The Debt Service Ratio is measured by the proportion of the total external debt service payments (i.e., principal repayment plus interest payment) to the current receipts (minus official transfers) of the Balance of Payments (BoP). It indicates the claim that the servicing of the external debt makes on the current receipts and is, therefore, a measure of strain on the BoP, due to the servicing of debt service obligations.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the President of India.
2. The administrative head of the Central Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary.
3. The Cabinet Secretary is the Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    2 and 3 only
  • b)
    1 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 2 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary, who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. The business allocated to the Cabinet Secretariat under the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, includes
(i) Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and Cabinet Committees; and
(ii) Rules of Business.

Which of the following micro-organisms takes part in the process of composting and bioremediation?
  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Virus
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3 
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Puja Menon answered
Micro-organisms involved in composting and bioremediation:
Bacteria and fungi play crucial roles in the processes of composting and bioremediation. These micro-organisms help break down organic matter and pollutants, respectively, into simpler compounds, contributing to the recycling of nutrients and cleaning up of contaminated environments.

Bacteria:
- Bacteria are essential in composting as they decompose organic materials such as kitchen scraps, yard waste, and manure.
- They break down complex organic molecules into simpler forms, releasing nutrients that can be used by plants.
- In bioremediation, certain bacteria species can degrade pollutants like oil spills, pesticides, and industrial chemicals, converting them into less harmful substances.

Fungi:
- Fungi, particularly species like mushrooms and molds, also play a significant role in composting.
- They help break down tough materials like wood and plant fibers, accelerating the decomposition process.
- In bioremediation, fungi can remove contaminants from soil and water by absorbing and metabolizing them, aiding in the detoxification of the environment.

Conclusion:
Both bacteria and fungi are essential components of composting and bioremediation processes due to their abilities to break down organic matter and pollutants, respectively. Utilizing these micro-organisms can help in sustainable waste management and environmental cleanup efforts.

In the context of interstate financial relations, under Article 282, the Union can make financial grants for
  • a)
    subjects within its legislative competence
  • b)
    any public purpose
  • c)
    states in need of financial competence
  • d)
    local bodies
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Arnab Kulkarni answered
Understanding Article 282 of the Indian Constitution
Article 282 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Union government to make financial grants to the states. This provision plays a crucial role in the fiscal relationship between the Centre and the states.
Key Aspects of Article 282
- Nature of Grants: The Union can provide financial assistance for any public purpose. This means the grants are not limited to specific subjects or legislative competencies but can be utilized for a wide range of developmental activities.
- Flexibility of Use: The phrase "any public purpose" allows the Union government to address various issues, including social welfare, infrastructure development, and disaster relief, among others. This flexibility is essential for responding to the diverse needs of different states.
Implications for States
- Addressing Financial Needs: States facing financial difficulties can benefit from such grants, ensuring they can implement essential services and programs that benefit the public.
- Promotion of Equity: By allowing financial support for any public purpose, Article 282 helps promote balanced regional development, enabling states with fewer resources to catch up with more prosperous ones.
Conclusion
In summary, the correct answer is option 'B' because Article 282 explicitly permits the Union to make financial grants for "any public purpose." This broad mandate ensures that the Union can effectively support states in various capacities, fostering overall development and addressing regional disparities.

Consider the following statements about a personality from medieval India:
  1. He allied with Yasodharman and defeated the Tibetans.
  2. He was successful against the mountain tribes on the north and north-western frontier of his kingdom.
  3. His expedition against Yasodharman made him the master of Kanauj.
  4. The king of Gauda acknowledged his suzerainty without a fight.
Which of the following rulers has been described in the statements given above?
  • a)
    Mihir Bhoja
  • b)
    Harshvardhan
  • c)
    Chandrapida
  • d)
    Lalitaditya
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Lakshmi Chavan answered
Identifying the Ruler from the Statements

Mihir Bhoja
- Mihir Bhoja was a ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty in medieval India.
- He is known for his military campaigns against various neighboring kingdoms and tribes.
- However, the statements provided do not match the actions or accomplishments of Mihir Bhoja.

Harshvardhan
- Harshvardhan was a prominent ruler of the Pushyabhuti dynasty in medieval India.
- While he was successful in many military campaigns, the statements do not align with Harshvardhan's specific achievements.

Chandrapida
- Chandrapida was a ruler of the Ganga dynasty in medieval India.
- While he had notable military successes, the statements do not match the specific events associated with Chandrapida's reign.

Lalitaditya
- Lalitaditya was a powerful ruler of the Karkota dynasty in medieval India.
- He allied with Yasodharman, defeated the Tibetans, and established his authority over Kanauj.
- Lalitaditya was also successful against the mountain tribes on his kingdom's frontiers.
- Additionally, the king of Gauda acknowledged Lalitaditya's suzerainty without a fight.
- Therefore, the statements provided accurately describe the achievements and military campaigns of Lalitaditya.

Consider the following statements:
1.The University Grants Commission (UGC) regulation allows foreign universities, ranked among the world's top 500, to establish branch campuses in India.
2.Foreign universities have to get permission from the union government to decide their admission process, fee structure, and repatriation funds to their parent campuses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

K.L Institute answered
  • UGC Regulations Open Doors for Foreign Universities in India: The University Grants Commission (UGC) has recently released regulations that pave the way for foreign universities, ranked among the world's top 500, to establish branch campuses in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The move aligns with the National Education Policy 2020, envisioning a legislative framework for top global universities in India. The guidelines were notified after the draft norms announced by UGC for Foreign universities were made public for feedback.
  • Key Aspects of these Regulations:
    • Collaborative Initiatives: Two or more foreign universities can collaborate to establish campuses in India. Each participating institution must meet individual eligibility criteria. Each foreign university has the opportunity to set up more than one campus in the country. Faculty Engagement Requirements: International faculty appointed for Indian campuses must commit to staying in the country for a minimum of one semester. This ensures a sustained and meaningful contribution to the academic environment. Autonomy: Foreign universities are permitted to decide their admission process, fee structure, and also repatriate funds to their parent campuses. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Consider the following statements with reference to the Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT):
  1. REITs are only permitted to engage in commercial real estate, not residential real estate.
  2. Dividends obtained from REITs are completely taxable in the hands of the investor.
  3. In India, all REITs have to be mandatorily listed on stock exchanges.
How many of the following statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Ias Masters answered
  • REITS or Real Estate Investment Trust is a company that owns, operates, or finances income-producing real estate properties.  They pool money from the investors and invest it in commercial real estate projects like workspaces, malls, etc. Currently, REITs are only permitted to engage in commercial real estate, not residential real estate. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • REITs work like mutual funds. Mutual funds pool money from multiple investors and then invest in various asset classes like equity, debt, gold, etc. Similarly, REITs pool money from various investors and then invest the corpus in income-generating assets. In the return on their investments, REITs receives rental income and interest payment from these properties, which are further distributed to the investors as dividends. As per the SEBI guidelines, they must distribute 90% of their earnings to the investors.
  • The REITs are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) through the SEBI (Real Estate Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014.
  • SEBI-mandated criteria that REITs in India need to fulfill in order to qualify are as follows:
    • At least 80% of investments made by a REIT need to be in commercial properties that can be rented out to generate income. The remaining assets of the trust (up to the 20% limit) can be held in the form of stocks, bonds, cash, or under-construction commercial property.
    • At least 90% of the rental income earned by the REIT has to be distributed to its unitholders as dividends or interest.
    • Stock market listing of REIT is mandatory. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • In India too, REITs get a few key tax exemptions that are not available to other types of Real Estate companies:
    • Interest payments and dividends received by a REIT from a Special Purpose Vehicle or SPV are exempted from tax. In this context, SPV is a domestic company in which at least a 50% stake is held by the REIT. A REIT can theoretically hold a 50% or higher stake in multiple SPVs that own individual Real Estate properties on behalf of the REIT. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Any income obtained from renting or leasing Real Estate Assets that are owned by the REIT directly (i.e. not through an SPV) is also exempted from tax.

With reference to Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru, consider the following statements:
1. He led the protest against the Simon Commission in 1930.
2. He presided over the INC meeting during Lahore Session (1929) and Lucknow Session (1936).
3. He was the first Satyagrahi of Individual Satyagraha.
How many of the above statements are correct?
  • a)
    Only one
  • b)
    Only two
  • c)
    All three
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavya Basak answered
Analysis of the Statements Regarding Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
To determine the correctness of the statements regarding Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru, let's evaluate each one:
1. Nehru's Protest Against the Simon Commission (1930)
- This statement is correct. Nehru was indeed one of the prominent leaders who protested against the Simon Commission in 1928, which was met with widespread opposition in India due to the absence of Indian representation.
2. Nehru's Presidency in INC Meetings
- This statement is incorrect. While Nehru presided over the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1929, which is famous for the declaration of Poorna Swaraj (complete independence), he did not preside over the Lucknow Session in 1936. The Lucknow Session was presided over by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
3. Nehru as the First Satyagrahi of Individual Satyagraha
- This statement is incorrect. Although Nehru was a key figure in the Individual Satyagraha movement initiated in 1940, the first Satyagrahi was Vinoba Bhave, who was chosen to lead this form of resistance against British rule.
Conclusion
- Given the evaluations above, only the first statement about Nehru’s protest against the Simon Commission is correct. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is option 'A' - Only one statement is correct.
This analysis highlights the significance of Nehru's role in the Indian independence movement while clarifying misconceptions regarding his leadership in specific events.

Consider the following statements:
1. Aurangzeb banned the tradition of playing of musical instruments in his court.
2. The largest number of books on classical Indian music in Persian were written during Aurangzeb’s reign.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Master Training Institute answered
  • A branch of cultural life in which the Hindus and the Muslims co-operated was music. Akbar patronised Tansen of Gwaliyar, who is accredited with composing many new melodies (Ragas). Jahangir and Shah Jahan, as well as many Mughal nobles followed this example. There are many stories about the burial of music by the orthodox Aurangzeb. Recent research shows that Aurangzeb banished singing from his court, but not playing of the musical instruments.
  • In fact, Aurangzeb himself was an accomplished Veena player. Music in all forms continued to be patronised by Aurangzeb’s queens in the Haram, and by the princes and the nobles. That is why the largest number of books on classical Indian music in Persian were written during Aurangzeb’s reign. But, some of the most important developments in the field of music took place later on in the 18th century during the reign of Muhammad Shah (1719—48), who was a great patron of music and musicians.

Consider the following statements regarding follow-on-public offer (FPO) and initial public offer (IPO):
1. Unlike in an IPO, the company that releases an FPO is already listed on a stock exchange.
2. Generally, investing in an IPO is considered less risky than investing in an FPO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Lohit Matani answered
  • Initial public offering is the process by which a private company can go public by the sale of its stocks to the general public. Companies can raise equity capital with the help of an IPO by issuing new shares to the public or the existing shareholders can sell their shares to the public without raising any fresh capital.
  • Follow-on Public Offer (FPO) is the issuance of securities for public trading by a company whose shares are being traded in a stock exchange. Unlike in an IPO, the company that releases an FPO is already listed on a stock exchange and later decides to offer equity to raise additional capital. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • FPO allows a company to raise additional funds through the issuance of new shares. This capital can be used for a variety of purposes such as general corporate expenses, working capital, expansion, and debt reduction. It also provides an opportunity for existing shareholders to increase their stake in the company.
  • When compared, investing in FPO is less risky than investing in IPO. This is because data of the past performance of the company in the share market is available when FPO is released. As a consequence of ‘reward for risk-taking behavior’, the profit-earning probability of investment is also less in an FPO than in an IPO. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Chief Justice of India?
1. He is the patron-in-chief of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA). 
2. He can use veto power as a member of the collegium in case of a difference of opinion.
3. He can be removed by the Parliament of India on the grounds of proven misbehavior and incapacity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    1 only
  • c)
    1, 2 and 3
  • d)
    2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Future Foundation Institute answered
  • The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of society and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. The Chief Justice of India is the patron-in-chief of NALSA while the second senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman. Currently, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Collegium system: It is a system under which appointments and transfers of judges (of the higher judiciary) are decided by a forum of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court (SC). It has no place in the Indian Constitution and has evolved through the judgments of the Supreme Court. In case of a difference of opinion, the majority view will prevail. The CJI has no veto power in this case. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • A judge of the Supreme Court (including the Chief Justice of India) can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting). The grounds for removal are two–proven misbehaviour or incapacity. The President of India removes (can remove) the Chief Justice of India and not the Parliament. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Which of the following statements is correctregarding the Investor Education andProtection Fund Authority (IEPFA)?
  • a)
    It is an autonomous body set up under theaegis of the Ministry of Finance.
  • b)
    It has been established under theprovisions of the Securities andExchange Board of India Act, 1992.
  • c)
    It is a quasi-judicial body set up under theInsolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
  • d)
    It has been set up to protect the interestsof investors under the Companies Act,2013.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sneha Shah answered
Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA)

The correct statement regarding the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) is option 'D', which states that it has been set up to protect the interests of investors under the Companies Act, 2013.

Explanation:

The Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) was established under the Companies Act, 2013 with the objective of protecting the interests of investors and promoting investor awareness. The IEPF is a statutory fund where unclaimed dividends, matured deposits, debentures, and other amounts that have remained unclaimed or unpaid for a period of seven years are transferred.

Key Points:

- Objective: The primary objective of the IEPF is to promote investor education, awareness, and protection.
- Authority: The IEPF Authority is responsible for administering the fund and ensuring its proper utilization.
- Composition: The IEPF Authority is composed of a Chairperson and other members appointed by the Central Government.
- Functions: The IEPF Authority performs various functions such as receiving and managing the unclaimed amounts transferred to the fund, conducting investor education and awareness programs, and taking measures to protect the interests of investors.
- Utilization: The funds in the IEPF are utilized for various purposes such as refunding unclaimed dividends, matured deposits, and other amounts to the rightful claimants, promotion of investor education and awareness, and any other purposes specified by the Central Government.
- Investor Education: The IEPF Authority plays a crucial role in promoting investor education and awareness through various initiatives such as organizing seminars, workshops, and campaigns to educate investors about their rights and responsibilities.
- Protection of Investors: The IEPF Authority takes measures to protect the interests of investors by ensuring compliance with the provisions of the Companies Act, investigating complaints of fraud or unfair practices, and initiating appropriate action against defaulting companies.

In conclusion, the correct statement regarding the Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) is that it has been set up to protect the interests of investors under the Companies Act, 2013. The IEPFA plays a vital role in safeguarding the rights of investors and promoting investor education and awareness.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.
2. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Rhea Mehta answered
Explanation:

1. The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.
The Constitution of India does not provide for a specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India, who is the head of the state, based on the support and confidence of the majority of members in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The President usually appoints the leader of the majority party or coalition as the Prime Minister.

2. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
According to the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (House of the People). This means that they are accountable to the Parliament and can be removed from office if they lose the confidence of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha.

Explanation of the Correct Answer:
The correct answer is option C, which means both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Statement 1 is correct because the Constitution of India does not provide a specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. The appointment of the Prime Minister is based on the support and confidence of the majority of members in the Lok Sabha.

Statement 2 is also correct because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that they are accountable to the Parliament and can be removed from office if they lose the confidence of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha.

Conclusion:
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Constitution of India does not contain a specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister, and the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Consider the following statements with respect to the Sunga dynasty:
1. Under the influence of Buddhism, performing Brahmanical rituals like Ashvamedha declined during Sunga rule.
2. Kalidasa's Malavikagnimitra was based on the love story of a Sunga ruler.
3. Sunga rulers promoted the growth of the Sanskrit language.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
  • The founder of the Sunga dynasty was Pushyamitra Sunga, who was the commander-in-chief under the Mauryas.
  • He assassinated the last Mauryan ruler Brihadratha and usurped the throne. Pushyamitra was a staunch follower of Brahmanism. He performed two asvamedha sacrifices. In the cultural sphere, the Sungas revived Brahmanism and horse sacrifice. They also promoted the growth of Vaishnavism and the Sanskrit language. In short, the Sunga rule was brilliant anticipation of the golden age of the Guptas. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
  • Malavikagnimitra is a five-act drama written by Kalidasa in the 5th century CE. The story is a light tale set in a harem, and, unlike Kalidasa‘s other works, it sustains a playful and comical mood throughout. It concerns the machinations of King Agnimitra of the Sunga dynasty to win Malavika, a female dance student with whom he is in love. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements:
  1. The Sun exhibits differential rotation, with its poles rotating every 25 days, while its equator takes about 35 days to complete one rotation.
  2. The chromosphere is a thin plasma layer located between the Sun's visible surface and its outer atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Valor Academy answered
  • The Sun shows differential rotation, with its equator completing a rotation every 25 days, while its poles take around 35 days. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The Sun's equator rotates at a rate of 13.98 degrees per day, while at 80 degrees latitude, the rotation rate decreases to 10.5 degrees per day.
  • The chromosphere is a thin plasma layer situated between the Sun's visible surface (photosphere) and its outer atmosphere (corona). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements regarding stem cells:
1. Multipotent stem cells are able to divide and differentiate into cells of the whole organism.
2. Pluripotent stem cells (PSC) form cells of all germ layers but not extraembryonic structures, such as the placenta.
3. Totipotent stem cells have a narrower spectrum of differentiation than PSCs. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Goel UPSC Coaching Center answered
  • Stem cells are unspecialized cells of the human body. They are able to differentiate into any cell of an organism and have the ability of self-renewal. Stem cells exist both in embryos and adult cells. There are several steps of specialization. Developmental potency is reduced with each step, which means that a unipotent stem cell is not able to differentiate into as many types of cells as a pluripotent one.
  • Totipotent stem cells are able to divide and differentiate into cells of the whole organism. Totipotency has the highest differentiation potential and allows cells to form both embryo and extra-embryonic structures. One example of a totipotent cell is a zygote, which is formed after a sperm fertilizes an egg. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • Cell differentiation: The process during which young, immature (unspecialized) cells take on individual characteristics and reach their mature (specialized) form and function.
  • Pluripotent stem cells (PSCs) form cells of all germ layers but not extraembryonic structures, such as the placenta. Embryonic stem cells (ESCs) are an example. ESCs are derived from the inner cell mass of preimplantation embryos. Another example is induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) derived from the epiblast layer of implanted embryos. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Multipotent stem cells have a narrower spectrum of differentiation than PSCs, but they can specialize in discrete cells of specific cell lineages. One example is a hematopoietic stem cell, which can develop into several types of blood cells. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Oligopotent stem cells can differentiate into several cell types. A myeloid stem cell is an example that can divide into white blood cells but not red blood cells.
  • Unipotent stem cells are characterized by the narrowest differentiation capabilities and a special property of dividing repeatedly. Their latter feature makes them a promising candidate for therapeutic use in regenerative medicine. These cells are only able to form one cell type, e.g. dermatocytes.

Which of the following statements are true regarding Charter Act of 1833?
1. The governor of Bombay was deprived of its legislative powers.
2. Governor of Madras was vested with all civil and military powers.
3. It made Warren Hastings the first Governor-General of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    1 and 2 only
  • c)
    2 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Avik Kapoor answered
Charter Act of 1833
The correct answer is option 'A' which states that only statement 1 is true regarding the Charter Act of 1833. Let's break down each statement to understand why this is the correct answer:

Deprived the governor of Bombay of its legislative powers
- The Charter Act of 1833 did indeed deprive the governor of Bombay of its legislative powers. This Act transferred the legislative powers of the governor of Bombay to the Governor-General of India.

Did not vest the Governor of Madras with all civil and military powers
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Charter Act of 1833 did not vest the Governor of Madras with all civil and military powers. In fact, the Act did not significantly alter the powers of the Governors of Madras and Bombay.

Did not make Warren Hastings the first Governor-General of India
- Statement 3 is also incorrect. The Charter Act of 1833 did not make Warren Hastings the first Governor-General of India. Warren Hastings was actually appointed as the first Governor-General of Bengal in 1773.
Therefore, the only true statement regarding the Charter Act of 1833 is that it deprived the governor of Bombay of its legislative powers.

With reference to ‘Purana Qila’, consider the following  statements
1. The construction of the structure started in the reign of Sher Shah Suri and was completed by Akbar
2. The architecture of the fort is a happy blend of Hindu and Muslim styles of architecture
3. It is one of the oldest forts in Agra and built on the banks of river Yamuna
Q. How many of the statements given above are correct?
  • a)
    Only one 
  • b)
    Only two 
  • c)
    All three 
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Garima Menon answered
Explanation:

Statement 1:
- The construction of the structure actually started in the reign of Humayun, the Mughal Emperor, and was completed by Sher Shah Suri after he defeated Humayun and took over the fort.
- Akbar, the grandson of Humayun, further renovated and expanded the fort, adding several structures to it.

Statement 2:
- The architecture of Purana Qila is primarily Islamic in style, with influences from Afghan and Mughal architectural elements.
- The fort does not exhibit a happy blend of Hindu and Muslim styles of architecture, as it was primarily built during the Mughal period.

Statement 3:
- Purana Qila is not located in Agra; it is situated in Delhi.
- The fort is built on the banks of the river Yamuna, making it a strategic location for defense purposes.
Therefore, the correct answer is option A) Only one.

Consider the following statements regarding the Non-Banking Finance Companies- Microfinance Institutions (NBFC-MFIs):
1. For entities to qualify as NBFC-MFI, they should have at least 50% of their assets in microfinance.
2. NBFC-MFIs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
3. Currently, NBFC-MFIs account for the highest share of the microfinance sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 and 3 only
  • c)
    1 and 3 only
  • d)
    1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

EduRev UPSC answered
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released its final guidelines for microfinance institutions (MFIs) that will be applicable to all entities (banks, small finance banks and NBFCs) engaged in this sector last year.
  • Unlike the earlier definition that distinguished between rural and urban, RBI has now set a common household limit of Rs 300,000 for loans to qualify as microfinance. For entities to qualify for an NBFC- MFI license, they should have at least 75% of assets in microfinance and the cap on NBFCs was increased to 25% of assets as against 10% earlier. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • The guidelines are positive for NBFC-MFIs, especially because it levels the playing field for them (hitherto the 10% spread cap was applicable only to NBFC-MFIs) and it allows the board to create a policy that prices the credit risk adequately. Increasing the household income threshold to Rs 300,000 will also expand the addressable market for MFI players.
  • The NBFC-MFIs (non banking finance company-micro finance institutions) group dominated the microfinance market with portfolio share of 35.1% as of September last year, credit information services company Crif High Mark said in a report. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • It said that NBFC-MFIs surpassed banks by a thin margin. Banks as a group controls 34.8% of the market, in which lenders provide micro loans without collateral to joint liability group members. Loans given by banks to self help group members are not included here.
  • Microfinance is a financial service provided to low-income individuals or groups who otherwise would have no other access to financial services. Microfinance allows people to take small business loans in a manner that is consistent with ethical lending practices. There are basically two distinct approaches for extending micro finance services in India viz. the Bank led approach called Self Help Group–Bank Linkage Programme (SHG-BLP), and the Micro Finance Institution (MFI) led approach. Microfinance industry in India is diverse with several types of players delivering financial services viz. credit, insurance and pension to the low income households.
  • The various microfinance industry players are broadly categorized into five types: Banks, NBFC- MFIs, Small Finance Banks, NBFCs and Non-profit MFIs. All of these, except the Non-profit MFIs, are regulated by RBI. The Non-profit MFIs are mostly registered as Societies or Trusts and are regulated by the respective Acts. Voluntary agencies /NGOs were also active in the sector as financial intermediaries and were mostly registered as trusts or societies. Many of them have helped in the growth of the sector by helping SHGs to organize themselves into federations that performed many non-financial but crucial functions like social and capacity building functions, SHG promotion training, undertaking internal audit and serving as backward and forward linkages. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

With reference to Non-resident Indian (NRI), consider the following statements:
1. An Indian citizen ordinarily residing outside India and holding an Indian passport is designated an NRI.
2. NRIs are entitled to all the benefits available to Indian citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 only
  • b)
    2 only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Capstone Ias Learning answered
Has been in India for 365 days in the four Financial Years preceding the previous Financial Year and at least 60 days in the previous Financial Year. Anyone not satisfying the above is a Non-Resident Indian NRIs enjoy certain benefits in parity with resident Indians which Person of Indian Origin (PIO) do not.
  • NRIs enjoy voting rights in India. PIOs cannot vote in India.
  • NRIs can stand for public office, while PIOs cannot.
  • NRIS can conduct research work without any prior permission. However, PIOs must get permission from the local Foreign Regional Registration Offices (FRRO).
  • PIOs also need to apply for permission from the local FRRO to undertake mountaineering, missionary activities, or to visit restricted areas in India. NRIs do not need any such permission.

Arrange the following cities of ancient India from North to South:
1. Ujjain
2. Indraprastha
3. Kaushambi
4. Vaishali
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  • a)
    2-4-3-1
  • b)
    2-4-1-3
  • c)
    1-2-3-4
  • d)
    3-1-4-2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Devika Dasgupta answered


Arrangement of Cities from North to South:

- Indraprastha: Located in present-day Delhi, Indraprastha is situated in the northern part of ancient India.

- Vaishali: Vaishali is located in present-day Bihar, which is further south compared to Indraprastha.

- Kaushambi: Kaushambi is located in present-day Uttar Pradesh, further south compared to Vaishali.

- Ujjain: Ujjain is located in present-day Madhya Pradesh, which is the southernmost city among the options provided.

Therefore, the correct arrangement of cities from North to South is Indraprastha (2) - Vaishali (4) - Kaushambi (3) - Ujjain (1), making option (A) the correct answer.

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