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All questions of State Government : Executive & Legislatures for UPSC CSE Exam

In which year did the Lok Sabha unanimously decide to suspend official business to prioritize a debate on Assam?
  • a)
    2002
  • b)
    1998
  • c)
    1985
  • d)
    1983
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Varun Datta answered
22 February 1983: In a rare move, the Lok Sabha today unanimously decided to suspend official business and give precedence to debate on Assam. Home Minister P.C.Sethi made a statement “I seek the cooperation of all members whatever their views and policies, in promoting harmony among different communities and groups living in Assam. What is needed now is not acrimony but a healing touch.” (Hindustan Times, 22 February 1983)
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In every two years, one-third members of the Rajya Sabha get
  • a)
    suspended.
  • b)
    retired.
  • c)
    nominated.
  • d)
    promoted.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

All members of the Rajya Sabha do not complete their terms at the same time. Every two years, one-third members of the Rajya Sabha complete their term and elections are held for those one-third seats only.

The total numbers of seats for Lok Sabha are
  • a)
    484
  • b)
    496
  • c)
    535
  • d)
    543
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Jaideep Mehta answered
At present there are 543 constituencies or seats for Lok Sabha and this number has not changed since 1971.

What does the term 'judicial review' mean?
  • a)
    A review of the judicial structure of the system
  • b)
    the power of the Supreme Court (or High Courts) to examine the constitutionality of any law if the Court arrives at the conclusion that the law is inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution, such a law is declared as unconstitutional and inapplicable.
  • c)
    Judicial review means the power vested in High Courts to challenge Supreme Court of India
  • d)
    None of the Above
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Akanksha Saha answered
Explanation:

Judicial review is a process of reviewing the actions or decisions of the legislative, executive or administrative branch of the government by the judiciary. It is an important aspect of any democratic government that helps to maintain the balance of power between different branches of the government. The term judicial review is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution but it is an implied power of the Supreme Court of India under Article 32 and Article 226.

Authority of Supreme Court:

The authority of the Supreme Court to exercise judicial review is derived from the Constitution of India. The Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both Central and State governments.

Constitutionality:

The Supreme Court examines whether the legislation or executive order is in conformity with the provisions of the Constitution or not. If the legislation or executive order is found to be inconsistent with the Constitution, the Supreme Court may declare it as unconstitutional and void.

Scope of Judicial Review:

The scope of judicial review in India is wide and includes the following:

  • Examining the constitutionality of laws

  • Examining the constitutionality of executive orders

  • Examining the constitutionality of administrative decisions

  • Examining the constitutionality of actions of statutory bodies

  • Examining the constitutionality of actions of private bodies that have public functions



Conclusion:

Judicial review is an essential component of any democratic government. It helps in maintaining the balance of power between different branches of the government. The authority of the Supreme Court to exercise judicial review is derived from the Constitution of India. The scope of judicial review in India is wide and includes a range of actions and decisions.

The members of parliament are free to raise any matter, which according to them is important, during
  • a)
    Adjournment motion.
  • b)
    Question hour.
  • c)
    No confidence motion.
  • d)
    Zero hour.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Dhruba Malik answered
Zero Hour where members are free to raise any matter that they think is important (though the ministers are not bound to reply), half-an –hour discussion on matters of public importance, adjournment motion etc. are some instruments of exercising control.

Who decides the substance and timing of the bill?
  • a)
    Governor
  • b)
    President
  • c)
    Cabinet
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Yadav answered
The cabinet decides the substance and even the timing of the bill. No major bill is introduced in the parliament without the cabinet’s approval.

Confidence or no-confidence can be moved only in
  • a)
    Rajya Sabha
  • b)
    Lok Sabha
  • c)
    Planning Commission
  • d)
    Estimate Committee
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Preethi Sen answered
The motion of no confidence (alternatively vote of no confidence, censure motion or confidence motion) is a parliamentary motion put before a parliament by the opposition in the hope of defeating or weakening a government, or rarely, by an erstwhile supporter who has lost confidence in the government. Lok sabha alone can move this motion.

Which Articles of the Constitution invest extraordinary power in the Supreme Court?
  • a)
    Articles 32, 137 and 142
  • b)
    Articles 32, 136 and 142
  • c)
    Articles 136, 137 and 226
  • d)
    Articles 226, 137 and 142
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Articles of the Constitution that invest extraordinary power in the Supreme Court

The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial authority in the country. The Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court various powers and responsibilities to protect the rights of citizens and uphold the rule of law. Among the various Articles of the Constitution, the following three Articles invest extraordinary power in the Supreme Court:

Article 32
This Article is considered as the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution. It provides individuals with the right to move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights. This means that if an individual feels that his/her fundamental rights have been violated, he/she can approach the Supreme Court for relief. The Supreme Court can issue writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari to protect the fundamental rights of citizens.

Article 136
This Article confers extraordinary power on the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal against any judgment or order passed by any court or tribunal in the country. This means that any aggrieved party can approach the Supreme Court for relief, even if the High Court has not granted permission to appeal. The Supreme Court has the discretion to grant or deny special leave to appeal.

Article 142
This Article empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary to do complete justice in any case or matter pending before it. The Supreme Court can issue any order or direction to any person or authority, including the government, to ensure that justice is done. This Article gives the Supreme Court the power to pass orders that may not fall within the scope of its jurisdiction but are necessary to ensure complete justice.

Conclusion
In conclusion, Articles 32, 136 and 142 of the Constitution of India invest extraordinary powers in the Supreme Court. These powers have been granted to ensure that the Supreme Court can protect the fundamental rights of citizens, grant relief to aggrieved parties, and pass orders necessary to ensure complete justice.

Which of the following comes under the article 167:
1. The ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor
2. It shall be the duty of the chief minister to communicate to the governor of the state all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the state
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    2 Only
  • b)
    Both of them
  • c)
    1 Only
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Kabir Verma answered
  1. The statement that "The ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor" is related to the general principle of constitutional governance in India, but it is not specifically under Article 167. This concept is more closely associated with Article 164(1), which mentions that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the governor.
  2. The statement that "It shall be the duty of the chief minister to communicate to the governor of the state all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the state" accurately reflects the content of Article 167. This article specifies the chief minister's responsibility to communicate with the governor about the decisions made by the council of ministers.
Therefore, the correct option is: 2 Only

The law stated by the Supreme Court becomes the law of the land under
  • a)
    Article 164
  • b)
    Article 141
  • c)
    Article 131
  • d)
    None of these
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Roshni kapoor answered
The correct answer is option C, Article 131. Let's understand why.

Explanation:
The law stated by the Supreme Court becomes the law of the land under Article 131 of the Constitution of India. Article 131 deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It empowers the Supreme Court to hear and decide disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between two or more states.

Here's a detailed explanation of Article 131:

1. Original Jurisdiction: Article 131 grants the Supreme Court exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes mentioned above. This means that these disputes can only be filed directly in the Supreme Court and not in any lower court.

2. Disputes between the Government of India and one or more states: Article 131 allows for disputes between the Government of India (also known as the Union Government) and one or more states to be adjudicated by the Supreme Court. These disputes can include matters related to constitutional interpretation, distribution of powers, or any other issue that arises between the two entities.

3. Disputes between two or more states: Article 131 also provides for the resolution of disputes between two or more states. These disputes can involve matters such as boundary disputes, water-sharing disputes, or any other issue that arises between the states.

4. Law of the Land: When the Supreme Court pronounces a judgment on a dispute under Article 131, the law stated by the Court becomes the law of the land. This means that the judgment is binding on all parties involved and has the force of law. It is applicable not only to the parties in the specific case but also to all similar cases that may arise in the future.

In conclusion, Article 131 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to hear and decide disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between two or more states. The law stated by the Supreme Court in such disputes becomes the law of the land.

What was the outcome of the acrimonious scenes in the Lok Sabha on June 4, 1998, regarding the proposed hike in urea prices?
  • a)
    The entire opposition staged a walkout.
  • b)
    The Finance Minister resigned from his position.
  • c)
    The hike in urea prices was approved.
  • d)
    The issue was deferred to a later date for discussion.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

On 4 June 1998, the Lok Sabha witnessed acrimonious scenes over the hike in urea and petroleum process. The entire opposition staged a walkout. The issue rocked the house for two days leading to walkout by opposition. The finance minister in his budget proposal had proposed a hike of 50 paisa per kilogram of urea to reduce subsidy on it. This forced the finance minister Mr. Yashwant Sinha to roll back the hike in urea prices ( Hindustan Times, 4 and 5 June 1998)

The number of members from Uttar Pradesh to Rajya Sabha is
  • a)
    23
  • b)
    29
  • c)
    31
  • d)
    33
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Avi Kapoor answered
In Rajya Sabha, a state with larger population gets more representatives than states with smaller population. So, a more populous state like Uttar Pradesh sends 31 members to the Rajya Sabha, while a smaller and less populous state like Sikkim has only one seat in the Rajya Sabha.

Consider the following statements.
1. The constitution does not place any restriction on this power of superintendence over the subordinate courts
2. It is not only by means of appeal by the person, it can be suo motto
3. It is of the nature of revision as it verifies the earlier judgments
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Avantika Das answered
The correct answer is option 'D', i.e., all of the statements are correct.

Explanation:
1. The power of superintendence over the subordinate courts is vested in the High Courts under Article 227 of the Constitution of India. The constitution does not place any restriction on this power, allowing the High Courts to exercise their superintendence over the subordinate courts.

2. The power of superintendence can be exercised not only through appeals but also suo motu. Suo motu refers to the power of the court to initiate proceedings on its own accord without any party bringing the matter before it. This means that the High Courts can take cognizance of any matter related to subordinate courts and intervene in the interest of justice, even without a formal appeal or application.

3. The power of superintendence is not limited to the revision of judgments. While it does include the power to revise and correct judgments, it goes beyond that. The power of superintendence involves the overall supervision, control, and direction of the subordinate courts. It includes ensuring that the subordinate courts are functioning properly, maintaining discipline among the judges and staff, and upholding the principles of justice.

In conclusion, all the statements provided are correct. The power of superintendence over the subordinate courts is a significant power vested in the High Courts, allowing them to exercise control and supervision over the lower courts. This power is not restricted by the constitution and can be exercised through appeals as well as suo motu. It goes beyond just revising judgments and involves the overall supervision and functioning of the subordinate courts.

Who is responsible for drafting the bill?
  • a)
    Judiciary
  • b)
    Bureaucracy
  • c)
    Governor
  • d)
    None
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Arun Yadav answered
The actual task of drafting the bill is performed by the bureaucracy under the supervision of the minister concerned.

Consider the following statements. 
1. A Minister must countersign an order of the Governor for a public act 
2. The judiciary can scrutinize the nature of advice rendered by the ministers to the Governor 
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
As at the Centre, there is no provision in the Constitution for the system of legal responsibility of the minister in the states. It is not required that a minister should countersign an order of the governor for a public act. Moreover, the courts are barred from inquiring into the nature of advice rendered by the ministers to the governor.

How many states have a bicameral legislature?
  • a)
    Eight
  • b)
    Six
  • c)
    Four
  • d)
    Five
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rajesh Gupta answered
The 6 states of India are those who have bicameral legislature they are (Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh).

Why are there no direct elections to appoint the Governor in our Constitution? 
  • a)
    It can create conflicts between the Governor and the Chief Minister of state.
  • b)
    The Governor is the only nominated head.
  • c)
    An elected Governor would naturally belong to a party and would not be a neutral person and an impartial head.
  • d)
    All of the above.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
All of the above statements are correct. Instead of that, the below reasons are also given for indirect elections of Governor 
(1) The election of Governor would create separatists tendencies and thus affect the political stability and unity of the country. 
(2) The system of presidential nomination enables the Center to maintain its control over the states 
(3) It can create a serious problem of leadership at the time of a general election in the state.

Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Conduct of business of the Government of a State - Article 166
2. Council of Ministers to aid and advise governor - Article 164
3. Duties of Chief Minister - Article 167
Choose from the following options.
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Under the Indian Constitution, the distribution of powers and functions between the Union and the States is clearly defined. The conduct of business of the Government of a State, the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, and the duties of the Chief Minister are all important aspects of the functioning of the State Government. Let's examine each of these provisions in detail to understand why option 'C' is the correct answer.

1. Conduct of business of the Government of a State - Article 166:
Article 166 of the Indian Constitution deals with the conduct of business of the Government of a State. It states that the Governor of a State shall conduct the business of the State Government in accordance with the rules of procedure made by the Governor himself. The Governor is required to act with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister in the exercise of his functions, except in cases where he is required to act in his discretion. This article ensures the smooth functioning of the State Government.

2. Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor - Article 164:
Article 164 of the Indian Constitution provides for the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor. It states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in cases where he is required to act in his discretion. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the State Legislature and its advice is binding on the Governor. This article establishes the democratic principle of collective responsibility and ensures that the Governor does not exercise arbitrary power.

3. Duties of Chief Minister - Article 167:
Article 167 of the Indian Constitution deals with the duties of the Chief Minister of a State. It states that it shall be the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation. The Chief Minister also provides information to the Governor regarding the decisions of the Council of Ministers. This article establishes the role and responsibilities of the Chief Minister in the State Government.

In conclusion, all three provisions mentioned in the options are correctly matched. Article 166 deals with the conduct of business of the Government of a State, Article 164 establishes the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, and Article 167 outlines the duties of the Chief Minister. Therefore, option 'C' - 1 and 3 Only, is the correct answer.

The lokayukta and upalokayukta are appointed by the governor of the state. While appointing, the governor in most of the states consults   
  • a)
    The chief justice of the state high court
  • b)
    The leader of Opposition in the state legislative assembly
  • c)
    Both A & B
  • d)
    Neither A nor B
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Meera Kapoor answered
The correct answer is C. Both A & B.
  • In most states in India, the Lokayukta and Upalokayukta are appointed by the Governor of the state, but only after consultation with the Chief Justice of the State High Court and the Leader of Opposition in the State Legislative Assembly.
  • The Lokayukta is an anti-corruption authority or ombudsman who represents the public interest. The Lokayukta investigates allegations of corruption and mal-administration against public servants and is tasked with quickly redressing public grievances.
  • The Chief Justice and the Leader of Opposition are consulted to ensure a fair and unbiased appointment. This is because the Lokayukta should be an individual of high integrity and impartiality. The involvement of these two key figures helps uphold the credibility and independence of the Lokayukta.

In which of the following matters, the powers and status of council are broadly equal to that of the assembly?
1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills.
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor
3. Selection of ministers including the chief minister
Choose from the following options.
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Nandini Iyer answered
Introduction and passage of ordinary bills:
- In a parliamentary system of government, the legislative assembly and the legislative council are the two houses responsible for the passage of bills.
- The assembly is the lower house and is typically more powerful than the council. It represents the people and is directly elected by them.
- The council, on the other hand, is the upper house and is usually less powerful. Its members are either elected or nominated and it represents various interest groups and sectors of society.
- However, in some states in India, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly in matters related to the introduction and passage of ordinary bills.
- This means that both the assembly and the council have the same level of authority and influence in shaping and approving ordinary bills.

Approval of ordinances issued by the governor:
- Ordinances are temporary laws that are promulgated by the governor when the legislative assembly and council are not in session.
- These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of the legislature, but they need to be approved by the legislature within a certain period of time to become permanent laws.
- In some states, the powers and status of the council are also broadly equal to that of the assembly in matters related to the approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
- This means that both the assembly and the council have the same level of authority and influence in approving or rejecting the ordinances issued by the governor.

Selection of ministers including the chief minister:
- The chief minister and other ministers are appointed by the governor on the advice of the chief minister.
- In most cases, the chief minister is the leader of the political party or coalition with a majority in the assembly.
- The selection of ministers, including the chief minister, is a crucial process in government formation.
- In some states, the powers and status of the council are also broadly equal to that of the assembly in matters related to the selection of ministers.
- This means that both the assembly and the council have the same level of authority and influence in the selection of ministers, including the chief minister.

Conclusion:
In summary, in some states in India, the powers and status of the legislative council are broadly equal to that of the legislative assembly in matters related to the introduction and passage of ordinary bills, approval of ordinances issued by the governor, and the selection of ministers including the chief minister. This ensures a balanced and inclusive decision-making process in the state legislature.

Consider the following privileges belonging to the members of the state legislature.
1. They cannot be arrested during the session of state legislature in the cases pertaining to Civil matters.
2. They can refuse to give evidence in a court when the state legislature is in session 
3. They have freedom of speech and Movement in the state legislature 
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 and 2 Only
  • b)
    2 and 3 Only
  • c)
    1 and 3 Only
  • d)
    All of them
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Kavita Shah answered
The privileges belonging to the members individually are
1. They cannot be arrested during the session of the state legislature and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of such session. This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases.
2. They have freedom of speech in the state legislature. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in the state legislature or its committees. This freedom is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of the state legislature'.
3. They are exempted from jury service. They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when the state legislature is in session.

The Parliament passed the Administrative Tribunals Act in: 
  • a)
    1985 
  • b)
    1975 
  • c)
    1982 
  • d)
    1987
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Sarkar answered
The correct answer is option 'A' - 1985.

Explanation:
The Administrative Tribunals Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 1985. This act aimed to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the speedy and effective disposal of disputes and complaints related to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or any State.

Key Points:
1. Purpose of the Act: The Administrative Tribunals Act was enacted to address the growing number of cases related to service matters pending in regular courts. It aimed to provide a separate mechanism for the resolution of such disputes, ensuring a faster and more efficient process.

2. Establishment of Administrative Tribunals: The Act provided for the establishment of administrative tribunals at both the central and state levels. These tribunals were given the authority to adjudicate matters related to recruitment, conditions of service, and other administrative issues concerning public servants.

3. Composition of Tribunals: The Act specified the composition of the administrative tribunals. Each tribunal would consist of a Chairman and such number of Vice-Chairmen and Members as the government deemed necessary. The Chairman and members were appointed by the President or the Governor, as the case may be.

4. Jurisdiction of Tribunals: The administrative tribunals established under this act had the jurisdiction to hear and determine disputes and complaints arising out of service matters of public servants. They had the power to make orders and pass judgments, which were enforceable as if they were decrees of a civil court.

5. Exclusion of Jurisdiction of Civil Courts: One of the significant provisions of the act was the exclusion of the jurisdiction of civil courts in matters falling within the jurisdiction of administrative tribunals. This meant that once a dispute was referred to the tribunal, the civil courts could no longer entertain or decide upon the same matter.

6. Appellate Authority: The Act also provided for the establishment of a Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) at the central level and State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) at the state level. The CAT and SATs served as appellate authorities, hearing appeals against the decisions of the administrative tribunals.

In conclusion, the Administrative Tribunals Act was passed by the Parliament of India in 1985 to establish administrative tribunals for the speedy and effective resolution of service-related disputes of public servants. This act aimed to streamline the process and ensure timely justice for the aggrieved parties.

Consider the following statements regarding the award by Lok Adalat. 
1. The award by the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties, and it has the status of a decree of a civil court 
2. It is non-appealable 
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sahana Menon answered
The correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Explanation:
- The first statement is correct. The award by the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties involved in the dispute. It has the same status as a decree of a civil court. This means that the parties are legally obligated to comply with the decision of the Lok Adalat. If any party fails to comply with the award, the other party can enforce it through the civil court.
- The second statement is also correct. The award given by the Lok Adalat is non-appealable. This means that the parties cannot challenge the decision of the Lok Adalat in a higher court. Once the award is given, it becomes final and cannot be appealed.

Lok Adalat is a system of alternative dispute resolution in India. It aims to provide a speedy and cost-effective resolution to disputes, especially in cases of pending court cases. Lok Adalats are organized at various levels, including the National Level, State Level, District Level, and Taluk Level.

The Lok Adalat comprises of a panel of members, including a judicial officer, social workers, and legal professionals. The Lok Adalat follows a conciliatory approach to resolve disputes. The parties involved in the dispute are encouraged to negotiate and reach a mutually acceptable settlement. If a settlement is reached, it is recorded as an award by the Lok Adalat.

The award by the Lok Adalat has certain legal characteristics. It is considered to be a decree of a civil court and is binding on the parties. It has the same enforceability as a decree of a civil court. The award can be executed through the civil court if required.

One of the key features of the Lok Adalat is its non-appealable nature. Once the award is given, the parties cannot challenge it in a higher court. This ensures the finality and speedy resolution of disputes. However, it is important to note that if the parties are not satisfied with the outcome of the Lok Adalat, they still have the option to approach the regular court for resolution.

In conclusion, the award by the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties and has the status of a decree of a civil court. It is non-appealable, meaning the parties cannot challenge the decision in a higher court.

Consider the following statements.
1. It is the duty of every minister to stand by the cabinet decisions and support them both within and outside the state legislature.
2. If any minister disagrees with a cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign
Which of these statements are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Sanjay Rana answered
The principle of collective responsibility also means that the cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers (and other ministers) even if they deferred in the cabinet meeting. It is the duty of every minister to stand by the cabinet decisions and support them both within and outside the state legislature. If any minister disagrees with a cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign. Several ministers have resigned in the past owing to their differences with the cabinet.

Which one of the following is a Quasi-judicial authority? 
  • a)
    Central Vigilance Commission 
  • b)
    National Commission for Women 
  • c)
    Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 
  • d)
    Administrative Tribunal
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Sakshi Pillai answered
Quasi-judicial authority:
A quasi-judicial authority is an entity or body that has the power to make decisions or judgments that are similar to those made by a court of law. These authorities are vested with certain powers and responsibilities to adjudicate disputes, make decisions, and enforce laws within their respective jurisdictions.

Options:
a) Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
b) National Commission for Women (NCW)
c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG)
d) Administrative Tribunal

Explanation:

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
The Central Vigilance Commission is an apex anti-corruption watchdog in India. It is responsible for addressing corruption cases and ensuring transparency and accountability in government organizations. However, the CVC does not possess quasi-judicial powers. It primarily investigates corruption cases and recommends action to be taken by the concerned authorities.

National Commission for Women (NCW):
The National Commission for Women is a statutory body that works towards protecting and promoting the rights of women in India. It investigates complaints related to women's rights violations and recommends actions to be taken. While the NCW has the power to investigate and make recommendations, it does not possess quasi-judicial powers.

Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG):
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is an independent constitutional authority responsible for auditing government accounts and ensuring financial transparency and accountability. It does not possess quasi-judicial powers but plays a crucial role in ensuring financial oversight.

Administrative Tribunal:
An Administrative Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body that has the authority to adjudicate disputes and grievances related to the administration of laws and regulations. These tribunals are established for specific sectors such as tax, labor, or administrative matters. They have the power to hear evidence, examine witnesses, and make decisions that are binding on the parties involved. Administrative Tribunals are established to provide an efficient and specialized mechanism for resolving disputes outside the regular court system.

Out of the given options, the Administrative Tribunal is the only entity that possesses quasi-judicial powers. It functions as an independent body to resolve administrative disputes and ensure justice in matters related to specific sectors or areas of governance.

Village Panchayat is the lowest level of the three-tier Panchayat System in India. Which of the following statements is true for village Panchayat?
  • a)
    The president of the Village Panchayat is the Pradhan.
  • b)
    The Gram Panchayats can levy certain taxes and duties to meet their expenses.
  • c)
    The Gram Panchayat must present its budget and annual administrative report before the Gram Sabha.
  • d)
    Both (B) and (C)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Arpita Sharma answered
Explanation:

The Panchayat System in India is a three-tier system of local self-government. The three tiers are Village Panchayat, Block Panchayat, and District Panchayat. The Village Panchayat is the lowest level of this system and is responsible for the administration of a single village or a group of villages.

Statement (a): The president of the Village Panchayat is the Pradhan.
This statement is true. The head of the Village Panchayat is called the Pradhan. The Pradhan is elected by the members of the Panchayat and is responsible for the overall administration and decision-making of the Panchayat.

Statement (b): The Gram Panchayats can levy certain taxes and duties to meet their expenses.
This statement is true. Gram Panchayats have the power to levy certain taxes and duties on various activities within their jurisdiction. These taxes and duties are collected to meet the expenses of the Panchayat, including the provision of basic amenities and services to the villagers.

Statement (c): The Gram Panchayat must present its budget and annual administrative report before the Gram Sabha.
This statement is also true. The Gram Panchayat is required to prepare and present its annual budget and administrative report before the Gram Sabha, which is a general body of all the adult villagers in the Panchayat area. The Gram Sabha reviews and approves the budget and report, ensuring transparency and accountability in the functioning of the Panchayat.

Therefore, both statement (b) and (c) are true for the Village Panchayat. The Gram Panchayat has the power to levy taxes and duties, and it must present its budget and annual administrative report before the Gram Sabha. Hence, the correct answer is option 'D' - Both (B) and (C).

Article 371-I is associated with:
  • a)
    Assam 
  • b)
    Arunachal Pradesh
  • c)
    Mizoram 
  • d)
    Goa
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Article 371-I is associated with Goa

Explanation:
Article 371-I of the Indian Constitution grants special status and privileges to the state of Goa. It was inserted into the Constitution in 1987 following the Opinion Poll held in Goa in 1967, which decided that Goa should continue to be a separate state.

Key Points:

1. Background: Goa, a former Portuguese colony, was incorporated into the Indian Union in 1961. However, there was a significant section of the population that wanted Goa to be an independent entity rather than being merged with any other state.

2. Opinion Poll: To decide the future of Goa, an Opinion Poll was conducted in 1967. The poll offered two options: merging Goa with Maharashtra or retaining it as a separate Union Territory. The majority of the voters favored the second option, and Goa continued to be a separate entity.

3. Inclusion of Article 371-I: To address the concerns and aspirations of the people of Goa, Article 371-I was added to the Constitution of India. It provides for certain special provisions and safeguards for Goa.

4. Special Provisions: Article 371-I grants the following special provisions for Goa:

- The Governor of Goa shall have special responsibilities regarding law and order in the state.
- The Governor shall have the power to direct the manner in which the state government is to be carried out.
- The Governor can also exercise his/her discretion in matters related to the use of the official language of Goa, grant of mining leases, and ownership of houses and other properties.

5. Protection of Culture and Identity: Article 371-I ensures the preservation of the distinct culture, heritage, and identity of the people of Goa. It safeguards the rights and interests of the local population.

6. Empowerment of Local Institutions: The provision also empowers the local institutions in Goa, such as the Village Panchayats and the Municipalities, by giving them greater autonomy in their functioning.

7. Goa Daman and Diu Reorganization Act: In 1987, Goa was granted statehood through the Goa Daman and Diu Reorganization Act, which incorporated Article 371-I into the Constitution.

Therefore, Article 371-I of the Indian Constitution grants special status and privileges to Goa, ensuring the protection of its unique culture, heritage, and identity, and empowering local institutions in the state.

Consider the following statements.
1. Privileges of a state legislature are a sum of special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the Houses of state legislature, their committees and their members
2. They are necessary in order to secure the independence and effectiveness of their actions
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Neha Joshi answered
Privileges of a state legislature are a sum of special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the Houses of state legislature, their committees and their members. They are necessary in order to secure the independence and effectiveness of their actions. Without these privileges, the Houses can neither maintain their authority, dignity and honour nor can protect their members from any obstruction in the discharge of their legislative responsibilities.

The First woman Governor of a State in free India was:   
  • a)
    Mrs Sarojni Naidu
  • b)
    Mrs Sucheta Kriplani
  • c)
    Mrs Indira Gandhi
  • d)
    Mrs Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The first woman Governor of a State in free India was Mrs Sarojini Naidu. She was appointed as the Governor of Uttar Pradesh in 1947, just after India gained independence from British rule.

Mrs Sarojini Naidu was a renowned poet, writer, and political activist. She played an active role in the Indian independence movement and was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi. She was also the first Indian woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress.

Some key points about Mrs Sarojini Naidu:

- She was born on February 13, 1879, in Hyderabad, India.
- She was educated in India and England and was fluent in several languages, including English, Hindi, and Urdu.
- She began her political career as a member of the Indian National Congress and was known for her fiery speeches and poetic verses.
- She played an active role in the Non-Cooperation Movement and the Civil Disobedience Movement.
- She was arrested several times for her political activities and spent many years in prison.
- She was a strong advocate for women's rights and was instrumental in the formation of the All India Women's Conference.
- She was also a well-known poet and writer, and her works include "The Golden Threshold", "The Bird of Time", and "The Broken Wing".
- She passed away on March 2, 1949, at the age of 70.

In conclusion, Mrs Sarojini Naidu was a pioneering figure in Indian politics and literature, and her appointment as the first woman Governor of a State in free India was a historic moment for the country.

Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the state executive?   
  • a)
    Part V 
  • b)
    Part VI 
  • c)
    Part IV 
  • d)
    Part VII
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Priya Menon answered
Part Vl deals with state executive which includes Governor, Chief Minister, The council of Ministers and advocate general of the state.

How many constituencies are there at present?
  • a)
    547
  • b)
    543
  • c)
    539
  • d)
    551
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anagha Pillai answered

Number of Constituencies in India

There are currently 543 constituencies in India.

Explanation

- The number of constituencies in India is determined by the representation of each state and union territory in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament.
- The total number of seats in the Lok Sabha is 545, out of which 2 are nominated by the President of India to represent the Anglo-Indian community.
- Each state and union territory is allocated a certain number of seats based on its population and other factors.
- The delimitation commission is responsible for readjusting the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies to ensure equal representation.
- As of now, there are 543 constituencies in India, which represent the diverse population and territories of the country.

Consider the following statements about Appellate jurisdiction of High Court.
1. In civil cases its jurisdiction includes to the orders and judgments of the district courts, additional district courts and other subordinate courts
2. In criminal cases its jurisdiction includes judgments relating to sessions courts and additional sessions court
Which of these statements is/are correct?
  • a)
    1 Only
  • b)
    2 Only
  • c)
    Both 1 and 2
  • d)
    None of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Prisha Tiwari answered
Appellate jurisdiction refers to the authority of a higher court to review and revise decisions made by lower courts. In the case of High Courts in India, they have appellate jurisdiction over both civil and criminal cases.

1. Appellate jurisdiction in civil cases:
- The first statement is correct. The High Court has the authority to hear appeals against the orders and judgments of the district courts, additional district courts, and other subordinate courts in civil cases.
- This means that if a party is dissatisfied with the decision of a lower court in a civil case, they can appeal to the High Court to review and potentially overturn the decision.

2. Appellate jurisdiction in criminal cases:
- The second statement is also correct. The High Court has the authority to hear appeals against judgments relating to sessions courts and additional sessions courts in criminal cases.
- This means that if a person is convicted or acquitted by a sessions court or an additional sessions court and they believe that there was an error in the judgment, they can appeal to the High Court to review the decision.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is option 'C' - Both 1 and 2.

Appellate jurisdiction of High Courts is an important aspect of the Indian judicial system as it ensures that there is a mechanism for reviewing and correcting errors made by lower courts. It provides an opportunity for parties to seek justice and ensure that their cases are heard fairly. The High Court plays a crucial role in maintaining the rule of law and upholding the principles of justice in civil and criminal cases.

To be appointed as Governor Indian Citizen should have completed the age of  
  • a)
    25 Years 
  • b)
    35 Years 
  • c)
    30 Years 
  • d)
    45 Years
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Rishika Basak answered
Age requirement for appointment as Governor in India

The correct answer to the question is option 'B', i.e., 35 years.

Explanation:

The Constitution of India lays down certain qualifications for individuals who can be appointed as a Governor of a state in India. One of the important criteria is the age requirement.

The age requirement for appointment as Governor in India is as follows:

- The candidate should be a citizen of India.
- He/she should have completed the age of 35 years.

Other qualifications for appointment as Governor are:

- The candidate should not hold any office of profit under the central or state government.
- He/she should not be a Member of Parliament or State Legislature.
- He/she should not be connected with any political party or any political activity.

Conclusion:

In conclusion, the age requirement for appointment as Governor in India is 35 years. It is one of the essential qualifications along with others such as citizenship, non-holding of any office of profit, and non-connection with any political party.

The constitution of India describes India as
  • a)
    A Union of States
  • b)
    Quasi-federal
  • c)
    A federation of state and union territories
  • d)
    A Unitary State
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

The Union and its Territories:
  • Article 1 describes India, i.e. Bharat, as a Union of States.
  • According to Article 1, the Territory of India can be classified into three categories:
    • Territories of the States.
    • Union Territories.
    • Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
  • At present, there are 28 states and 8 Union territories in the country. 
  • Article 2 empowers the Parliament to admit into the Union of India, or establish new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.

Which action is considered a primary function of State government?
  • a)
    supervising elected federal government officials.
  • b)
    regulating political parties and the media.
  • c)
    organizing a local military to provide security.
  • d)
    enforcing laws regarding the public safety.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?

Simran Basak answered
Enforcing laws regarding public safety is considered a primary function of State government. State governments are responsible for maintaining law and order within their respective jurisdictions and ensuring the safety and security of their citizens. This involves a range of activities and initiatives aimed at preventing and addressing crime, protecting public welfare, and maintaining order in society.

Law Enforcement and Policing:
State governments play a crucial role in enforcing laws and maintaining public safety through the establishment and management of law enforcement agencies such as state police departments. These agencies are responsible for investigating crimes, apprehending offenders, and ensuring the overall safety of the community. They work in coordination with local law enforcement agencies to address criminal activities and maintain order.

Court Systems and Legal Enforcement:
State governments are responsible for the administration of justice within their jurisdictions. They establish and oversee court systems that handle criminal and civil cases, ensuring that legal proceedings are conducted fairly and efficiently. State governments also appoint judges and other judicial officers who preside over these courts, ensuring the effective enforcement of laws and the protection of individual rights.

Correctional Facilities and Rehabilitation:
State governments are also responsible for maintaining correctional facilities such as prisons and ensuring the proper rehabilitation of convicted individuals. They establish policies and programs aimed at reducing recidivism rates and promoting the successful reintegration of offenders into society. State governments may also provide resources for community-based programs that focus on preventing crime and addressing the root causes of criminal behavior.

Emergency Response and Disaster Management:
State governments are often at the forefront of emergency response and disaster management efforts. They establish and coordinate emergency management agencies, which are responsible for planning, preparedness, response, and recovery activities in the event of natural disasters, public health emergencies, or other emergencies that threaten public safety. State governments work closely with local governments, federal agencies, and other stakeholders to ensure a coordinated and effective response to emergencies.

Conclusion:
Enforcing laws regarding public safety is a primary function of State government. Through their various agencies and initiatives, state governments strive to maintain law and order, protect citizens from crime, ensure the fair administration of justice, and respond effectively to emergencies and disasters. These efforts contribute to the overall well-being and security of the community.

Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with administrative tribunals? 
  • a)
    Article 322 
  • b)
    Article 323 
  • c)
    Article 323-A
  • d)
    Article 323-B
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?

Disha Yadav answered
Article 323-A of the Constitution of India deals with administrative tribunals.

Explanation:
Administrative tribunals are specialized bodies that have been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution of India to hear and resolve disputes and grievances related to the recruitment, conditions of service, and disciplinary matters of public servants. These tribunals provide an alternative forum for resolving administrative disputes, separate from the regular courts.

Key Points:
1. Article 323-A: Article 323-A was inserted in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. It empowers the Parliament to establish administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes and complaints related to the recruitment and conditions of service of public servants.
2. Establishment of Tribunals: Under Article 323-A, the Parliament has the power to establish administrative tribunals at both the central and state levels. These tribunals are responsible for hearing and deciding matters concerning the recruitment, appointment, promotion, and conditions of service of public servants.
3. Composition and Powers: The composition and powers of the administrative tribunals are determined by the Parliament through legislation. These tribunals are vested with the powers of a civil court, including the power to summon witnesses, receive evidence, and enforce the attendance of witnesses and the discovery and production of documents.
4. Exclusion of Jurisdiction: Once an administrative tribunal is established for a particular category of cases, the jurisdiction of regular courts in those matters is excluded. This means that the administrative tribunals have exclusive jurisdiction over the matters assigned to them, and the regular courts cannot entertain such cases.
5. Judicial Review: The decisions of administrative tribunals can be challenged in the High Courts and the Supreme Court through writ petitions under Article 226 and Article 32 respectively. The High Courts and the Supreme Court have the power to examine the legality, correctness, and propriety of the decisions of the administrative tribunals.

In conclusion, Article 323-A of the Constitution of India deals with administrative tribunals. These tribunals provide a specialized forum for resolving disputes and complaints related to the recruitment and conditions of service of public servants, and their decisions can be challenged in the High Courts and the Supreme Court.

Under Art. 224 of the Constitution, the President may appoint additional judges of High Court for a term not exceeding
  • a)
    one year
  • b)
    two years
  • c)
    three years
  • d)
    five years
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?

Anaya Patel answered
B is the correct option.Additional Judges can be appointed by the President under clause (1) of Article 224 of the Constitution. 
The State Government should first obtain the sanction of the Central Government for the creation of such additional posts. The period of such service must not exceed two years.
 

The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may been larged by the
  • a)
    Parliament
  • b)
    President
  • c)
    President in consultation with Chief Justice of India
  • d)
    Union Council of Ministers in consultation with Chief Justice of India
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?

Shiwangi Singh answered
I guess the question is wrong. It should have been High court instead of Supreme court.

Parliament may by law extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to, or exclude the jurisdiction of a High Court from, any Union territory.

Where the High Court of a State exercises jurisdiction in relation to a Union territory:—

(a) nothing in this Constitution shall be construed as empowering the Legislature of the State to increase, restrict or abolish that jurisdiction; and

(b) the reference in article 227 to the Governor shall, in relation to any rules, forms or tables for subordinate courts in that territory, be construed as a reference to the President.

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