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All questions of Sectional Test for Mechanical Engineering Exam
‘Local Government’ is a subject mentioned in which list under 7th schedule of Indian constitution?- a)Union list
- b)State list
- c)Concurrent list
- d)No option is correct.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
‘Local Government’ is a subject mentioned in which list under 7th schedule of Indian constitution?
a)
Union list
b)
State list
c)
Concurrent list
d)
No option is correct.
|
Swara Dasgupta answered |
Union List
State List
Concurrent List
The Constitution of India in Schedule 7 provides for 61 items in the State List i.e. the states are entitled to make laws in regards to these topics.
But, If any law made by the states is repugnant or in conflict with any provision made by the Parliament which Parliament is competent to enact, or to any provision of an existing law with respect to one of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List, then, the law made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the law made by the Legislature of such State, or, as the case may be, the existing law, shall prevail and the law made by the Legislature of the State shall, to the extent of the conflict, be void.
The law made by the state legislature can be enforced by a special provision when the President gives his ascent for the same. (Concurrent List)
Some of the topics under State List are:
Public Order
Police
Public Health & Sanitation
Domestic Pilgrimage
Fisheries
Betting & Gambling
Salaries and perks of Legislative Assembly and Council
Which of the following topologies has the highest reliability?- a)Star topology
- b)Bus topology
- c)Ring topology
- d)Mesh topology
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following topologies has the highest reliability?
a)
Star topology
b)
Bus topology
c)
Ring topology
d)
Mesh topology
|
Mehul Yadav answered |
A mesh network is a network topology in which each node relays data for the network. All mesh nodes cooperate in the distribution of data in the network. The network is typically quite reliable, as there is often more than one path between a source and a destination in the network, so problems in a cable affect only the two nodes attached to it.
In which of the following countries is the Kalahari desert located?- a)India
- b)Pakistan
- c)Botswana
- d)Kenya
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
In which of the following countries is the Kalahari desert located?
a)
India
b)
Pakistan
c)
Botswana
d)
Kenya
|
Meera Bose answered |
The Kalahari Desert is a large semi-arid sandy savanna in Southern Africa covering much of Botswana, parts of Namibia and regions of South Africa.
Which among the following is TRUE regarding the composition of the Union Public Service Commission?- a)There should be ten members in the commission including the Chairman of the Commission
- b)At least half the members should have held a government office for at least 10 years either at the central level or at the state level
- c)The members of the Commission should at least be a graduate from a recognized university
- d)Both 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which among the following is TRUE regarding the composition of the Union Public Service Commission?
a)
There should be ten members in the commission including the Chairman of the Commission
b)
At least half the members should have held a government office for at least 10 years either at the central level or at the state level
c)
The members of the Commission should at least be a graduate from a recognized university
d)
Both 2 and 3
|
Juhi Choudhary answered |
The correct answer is option 'B'. At least half of the members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) should have held a government office for at least 10 years either at the central level or at the state level.
Explanation:
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body in India that is responsible for conducting examinations and selecting candidates for various civil services and central government positions. The composition of the UPSC is specified in Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.
Composition of the UPSC:
1. Chairman: The Commission is headed by a Chairman who is appointed by the President of India. The Chairman holds office for a term of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
2. Members: The UPSC consists of other members who are appointed by the President of India. The number of members is not fixed by the constitution, but it should not be less than six. However, as per the amended UPSC (Exemption from Consultation) Regulations, 1958, the number of members should not exceed ten, including the Chairman.
Qualifications of Members:
1. Government Office Experience: According to the UPSC (Exemption from Consultation) Regulations, 1958, at least half of the members of the Commission should have held a government office for at least ten years either at the central level or at the state level. This requirement ensures that the members have relevant administrative experience and understanding of the functioning of the government.
2. Educational Qualification: The members of the Commission should at least be a graduate from a recognized university. This educational qualification ensures that the members have a certain level of knowledge and understanding required for the responsibilities of the Commission.
Therefore, among the given options, option 'B' is the correct answer as it correctly states that at least half the members of the UPSC should have held a government office for at least ten years either at the central level or at the state level.
Explanation:
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body in India that is responsible for conducting examinations and selecting candidates for various civil services and central government positions. The composition of the UPSC is specified in Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.
Composition of the UPSC:
1. Chairman: The Commission is headed by a Chairman who is appointed by the President of India. The Chairman holds office for a term of six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
2. Members: The UPSC consists of other members who are appointed by the President of India. The number of members is not fixed by the constitution, but it should not be less than six. However, as per the amended UPSC (Exemption from Consultation) Regulations, 1958, the number of members should not exceed ten, including the Chairman.
Qualifications of Members:
1. Government Office Experience: According to the UPSC (Exemption from Consultation) Regulations, 1958, at least half of the members of the Commission should have held a government office for at least ten years either at the central level or at the state level. This requirement ensures that the members have relevant administrative experience and understanding of the functioning of the government.
2. Educational Qualification: The members of the Commission should at least be a graduate from a recognized university. This educational qualification ensures that the members have a certain level of knowledge and understanding required for the responsibilities of the Commission.
Therefore, among the given options, option 'B' is the correct answer as it correctly states that at least half the members of the UPSC should have held a government office for at least ten years either at the central level or at the state level.
The code for a Web page is written using ________.- a)A fifth generation language
- b)Win Zip
- c)Perl
- d)Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The code for a Web page is written using ________.
a)
A fifth generation language
b)
Win Zip
c)
Perl
d)
Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)
|
|
Janhavi Choudhary answered |
Introduction:
The code for a web page is written using Hypertext Markup Language (HTML). HTML is a markup language that allows the creation and structuring of content on a web page. It provides the basic structure and elements necessary for displaying information on the internet.
Explanation:
HTML is the standard language used for building web pages. It uses a set of tags to define the structure and elements of a page. These tags are enclosed in angle brackets and are used to define headings, paragraphs, images, links, and other elements.
Key Pointers:
1. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language.
2. It is used to create the structure and content of a web page.
3. HTML tags are used to define elements such as headings, paragraphs, lists, tables, images, links, etc.
4. The basic structure of an HTML document includes the , , and tags.
5. The tag is used to define the root element of an HTML page.
6. The tag contains meta-information about the HTML document, such as the title, character encoding, etc.
7. The tag contains the visible content of the web page.
8. HTML tags can have attributes that provide additional information or modify the behavior of an element.
9. CSS (Cascading Style Sheets) can be used to style and format HTML elements.
10. HTML is a markup language, not a programming language. It defines the structure and presentation of content but does not have the capability of performing complex calculations or logical operations.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, HTML is the language used for writing the code of a web page. It provides the necessary structure and elements to display content on the internet. HTML tags define the structure and formatting of the content, and CSS can be used to style and format the elements. Understanding HTML is essential for creating and designing web pages.
The code for a web page is written using Hypertext Markup Language (HTML). HTML is a markup language that allows the creation and structuring of content on a web page. It provides the basic structure and elements necessary for displaying information on the internet.
Explanation:
HTML is the standard language used for building web pages. It uses a set of tags to define the structure and elements of a page. These tags are enclosed in angle brackets and are used to define headings, paragraphs, images, links, and other elements.
Key Pointers:
1. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language.
2. It is used to create the structure and content of a web page.
3. HTML tags are used to define elements such as headings, paragraphs, lists, tables, images, links, etc.
4. The basic structure of an HTML document includes the , , and tags.
5. The tag is used to define the root element of an HTML page.
6. The tag contains meta-information about the HTML document, such as the title, character encoding, etc.
7. The tag contains the visible content of the web page.
8. HTML tags can have attributes that provide additional information or modify the behavior of an element.
9. CSS (Cascading Style Sheets) can be used to style and format HTML elements.
10. HTML is a markup language, not a programming language. It defines the structure and presentation of content but does not have the capability of performing complex calculations or logical operations.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, HTML is the language used for writing the code of a web page. It provides the necessary structure and elements to display content on the internet. HTML tags define the structure and formatting of the content, and CSS can be used to style and format the elements. Understanding HTML is essential for creating and designing web pages.
In the question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.Statement: If mileage and looks are your criteria for buying a car, Renault’s Duster is your best bet.Conclusions:I. Renault Duster gives good mileage.II. It is the best looking car of all times.- a)Only conclusion I follows.
- b)Only conclusion II follows.
- c)Neither I nor II follows.
- d)Both I and II follow.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In the question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statement: If mileage and looks are your criteria for buying a car, Renault’s Duster is your best bet.
Conclusions:
I. Renault Duster gives good mileage.
II. It is the best looking car of all times.
a)
Only conclusion I follows.
b)
Only conclusion II follows.
c)
Neither I nor II follows.
d)
Both I and II follow.
|
|
Bhargavi Sengupta answered |
The statement suggests that Renault Duster is being suggested to someone for whom mileage and looks are important attributes. Thus, it implies that the car gives good mileage. Hence, conclusion I follows.
The second conclusion cannot be deduced because the statement does not convey any information about comparison of the car with any other contemporary car in terms of looks. Thus this conclusion does not follow.
In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.Rabbit : Animal : : ? : ? - a)Sun : Moon
- b)Pentagon : Figure
- c)Lion : Bird
- d)Animal : Cow
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Rabbit : Animal : : ? : ?
a)
Sun : Moon
b)
Pentagon : Figure
c)
Lion : Bird
d)
Animal : Cow
|
|
Swara Gupta answered |
Just as Rabbit is an animals, Pentagon is a Figure.
Hence, answer is Pentagon: Figure.
Which of the following is not among the inventions of the Thomas Alva Edison?- a)Tasimeter
- b)Electric bulb
- c)Phonograph
- d)Air conditioning system
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is not among the inventions of the Thomas Alva Edison?
a)
Tasimeter
b)
Electric bulb
c)
Phonograph
d)
Air conditioning system
|
Aniket Pillai answered |
Inventions of Thomas Alva Edison
Thomas Alva Edison is known as one of the most prolific inventors in history, with numerous inventions that have significantly impacted various fields. However, not all inventions can be attributed to him.
Inventions by Edison
Edison’s key inventions include:
- Tasimeter: A device for measuring minute changes in temperature, showcasing Edison's work in the field of metrology.
- Electric Bulb: Often credited for developing the first commercially viable incandescent light bulb, revolutionizing indoor lighting.
- Phonograph: The first device to record and reproduce sound, marking a significant milestone in audio technology.
Air Conditioning System
The correct answer to the question is option 'D', the air conditioning system, which was not invented by Edison. Here’s why:
- Historical Context: The modern air conditioning system was developed later, primarily credited to Willis Haviland Carrier in 1902. Carrier’s invention focused on controlling temperature and humidity, which was a different concept from Edison's work.
- Edison's Focus: Edison’s innovations were centered around electricity, sound, and light. His contributions laid the foundation for electric power distribution but did not extend to climate control systems.
Conclusion
In summary, while Edison made remarkable contributions to technology, the air conditioning system falls outside his range of inventions, highlighting the distinct timeline and different inventors associated with that technology.
Thomas Alva Edison is known as one of the most prolific inventors in history, with numerous inventions that have significantly impacted various fields. However, not all inventions can be attributed to him.
Inventions by Edison
Edison’s key inventions include:
- Tasimeter: A device for measuring minute changes in temperature, showcasing Edison's work in the field of metrology.
- Electric Bulb: Often credited for developing the first commercially viable incandescent light bulb, revolutionizing indoor lighting.
- Phonograph: The first device to record and reproduce sound, marking a significant milestone in audio technology.
Air Conditioning System
The correct answer to the question is option 'D', the air conditioning system, which was not invented by Edison. Here’s why:
- Historical Context: The modern air conditioning system was developed later, primarily credited to Willis Haviland Carrier in 1902. Carrier’s invention focused on controlling temperature and humidity, which was a different concept from Edison's work.
- Edison's Focus: Edison’s innovations were centered around electricity, sound, and light. His contributions laid the foundation for electric power distribution but did not extend to climate control systems.
Conclusion
In summary, while Edison made remarkable contributions to technology, the air conditioning system falls outside his range of inventions, highlighting the distinct timeline and different inventors associated with that technology.
Directions: In each of the following questions, select the related number from the given alternatives.5 : 24 : : 23 : ?- a)98
- b)114
- c)115
- d)97
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Directions: In each of the following questions, select the related number from the given alternatives.
5 : 24 : : 23 : ?
a)
98
b)
114
c)
115
d)
97
|
|
Hiral Sharma answered |
Given:
5 : 24
To Find:
23 : ?
Solution:
The given numbers 5 and 24 are related in some way. We need to find the number that is related to 23 in a similar manner.
Step 1: Analyzing the relationship between 5 and 24
To find the relationship between 5 and 24, we can try different operations or patterns that relate the two numbers. Let's try a few possibilities:
- Addition: 5 + 19 = 24 (No pattern)
- Subtraction: 24 - 19 = 5 (No pattern)
- Multiplication: 5 x 4 + 4 = 24 (Possible pattern)
Step 2: Applying the pattern to find the missing number
Based on the multiplication pattern, we can try to find the missing number by using the same pattern. Let's apply the pattern to 23:
23 x 4 + 4 = 92 + 4 = 96 (Not the correct answer)
The pattern seems to be close but not exactly correct. Let's try adding a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 5 = 92 + 5 = 97 (Not the correct answer)
Step 3: Finding the correct pattern
Based on the previous attempts, it seems that the pattern involves multiplying the number by 4 and then adding a constant value. However, the constant value is not clear yet.
Let's try adding a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 6 = 92 + 6 = 98 (Not the correct answer)
Step 4: Finding the correct constant value
Based on the previous attempts, it seems that the correct constant value is 9. Let's apply this value to find the missing number:
23 x 4 + 9 = 92 + 9 = 101 (Not the correct answer)
Step 5: Final attempt
We have tried different constant values, but none of them gave the correct answer. Let's try one more attempt with a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 10 = 92 + 10 = 102 (Not the correct answer)
Conclusion:
After trying different patterns and constant values, we can conclude that the relationship between 5 and 24 is not clear or consistent. Therefore, we cannot determine the related number for 23 based on the given information.
5 : 24
To Find:
23 : ?
Solution:
The given numbers 5 and 24 are related in some way. We need to find the number that is related to 23 in a similar manner.
Step 1: Analyzing the relationship between 5 and 24
To find the relationship between 5 and 24, we can try different operations or patterns that relate the two numbers. Let's try a few possibilities:
- Addition: 5 + 19 = 24 (No pattern)
- Subtraction: 24 - 19 = 5 (No pattern)
- Multiplication: 5 x 4 + 4 = 24 (Possible pattern)
Step 2: Applying the pattern to find the missing number
Based on the multiplication pattern, we can try to find the missing number by using the same pattern. Let's apply the pattern to 23:
23 x 4 + 4 = 92 + 4 = 96 (Not the correct answer)
The pattern seems to be close but not exactly correct. Let's try adding a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 5 = 92 + 5 = 97 (Not the correct answer)
Step 3: Finding the correct pattern
Based on the previous attempts, it seems that the pattern involves multiplying the number by 4 and then adding a constant value. However, the constant value is not clear yet.
Let's try adding a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 6 = 92 + 6 = 98 (Not the correct answer)
Step 4: Finding the correct constant value
Based on the previous attempts, it seems that the correct constant value is 9. Let's apply this value to find the missing number:
23 x 4 + 9 = 92 + 9 = 101 (Not the correct answer)
Step 5: Final attempt
We have tried different constant values, but none of them gave the correct answer. Let's try one more attempt with a different constant value:
23 x 4 + 10 = 92 + 10 = 102 (Not the correct answer)
Conclusion:
After trying different patterns and constant values, we can conclude that the relationship between 5 and 24 is not clear or consistent. Therefore, we cannot determine the related number for 23 based on the given information.
In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.Football : Outdoor : : ? : ?- a)Snooker : Indoor
- b)Chess : Outdoor
- c)Cricket : Bat
- d)Tennis : Ball
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Football : Outdoor : : ? : ?
a)
Snooker : Indoor
b)
Chess : Outdoor
c)
Cricket : Bat
d)
Tennis : Ball
|
|
Swati Gupta answered |
‘Football’ is an ‘Outdoor’ game. Similarly, ‘Snooker’ is an ‘Indoor’ game.
Where is the headquarter of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development located?- a)New York
- b)Paris
- c)Geneva
- d)Dubai
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Where is the headquarter of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development located?
a)
New York
b)
Paris
c)
Geneva
d)
Dubai
|
|
Sreemoyee Joshi answered |
Location of Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development Headquarters
The headquarters of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is located in Paris, France. The OECD is an international organization that promotes economic development and cooperation among its member countries.
About the OECD
The OECD was founded in 1961 and currently has 38 member countries, including the United States, Japan, Australia, Canada, and many European countries. Its mission is to promote policies that will improve the economic and social well-being of people around the world. The organization works to identify best practices, develop policies, and provide advice and support to member countries.
Functions of the OECD
The OECD has several functions, including:
- Collecting and analyzing data on economic and social issues
- Conducting research and analysis to identify best practices
- Developing policies and guidelines to promote economic and social well-being
- Providing advice and support to member countries
- Facilitating cooperation and coordination among member countries
Conclusion
The OECD is an important international organization that promotes economic development and cooperation among its member countries. Its headquarters is located in Paris, France, where it conducts research, develops policies, and provides advice and support to member countries.
The headquarters of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) is located in Paris, France. The OECD is an international organization that promotes economic development and cooperation among its member countries.
About the OECD
The OECD was founded in 1961 and currently has 38 member countries, including the United States, Japan, Australia, Canada, and many European countries. Its mission is to promote policies that will improve the economic and social well-being of people around the world. The organization works to identify best practices, develop policies, and provide advice and support to member countries.
Functions of the OECD
The OECD has several functions, including:
- Collecting and analyzing data on economic and social issues
- Conducting research and analysis to identify best practices
- Developing policies and guidelines to promote economic and social well-being
- Providing advice and support to member countries
- Facilitating cooperation and coordination among member countries
Conclusion
The OECD is an important international organization that promotes economic development and cooperation among its member countries. Its headquarters is located in Paris, France, where it conducts research, develops policies, and provides advice and support to member countries.
Which committee was set up to review the concept of the poverty line?- a)Suresh Tendulkar Committee
- b)Lakdawala Committee
- c)Wanchoo Committee
- d)Dutt Committee
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which committee was set up to review the concept of the poverty line?
a)
Suresh Tendulkar Committee
b)
Lakdawala Committee
c)
Wanchoo Committee
d)
Dutt Committee
|
Shreya Choudhury answered |
- Suresh Tendulkar committee was constituted to review the concept of the poverty line in 2005. The committee recommended to shift away from the calories model.
- Lakdawala committee was constituted to consider methodological and computational aspects of estimation of proportion and number of poor in India.
- Wanchoo committee was constituted to look into industrial development for the backward areas and to recommend fiscal and financial incentives for industries in these areas.
- Dutt committee was constituted to inquire into the working of the licensing system in India.
Which of the following is an example of thermosetting plastic?- a)Bakelite
- b)PVC
- c)Polyethylene
- d)No option is correct.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is an example of thermosetting plastic?
a)
Bakelite
b)
PVC
c)
Polyethylene
d)
No option is correct.
|
Vaibhav Khanna answered |
- Thermosetting plastic is a type of plastic which once heated gets solidified and cannot be remoulded or melted on subsequent applications of heat.
- This occurs due to the formation of cross links in the polymer which prevent it from being remoulded.
- Bakelite is an example of thermosetting plastics.
- PVC and polyethylene are examples of thermoplastics. These are the types of polymers that melt on heating and solidify on cooling.
Which country forms the longest international border with India in the far east?- a)China
- b)Bangladesh
- c)Thailand
- d)Vietnam
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which country forms the longest international border with India in the far east?
a)
China
b)
Bangladesh
c)
Thailand
d)
Vietnam
|
|
Nishanth Banerjee answered |
Bangladesh and India share a 4,156 km long international border. India shares its longest international border with Bangladesh. Indian State West Bengal with 2217 Km shares longest border with Bangladesh amongst all the states.
Which of the following elements has the lowest melting point?- a)Helium
- b)Potassium
- c)Tungsten
- d)Sulphur
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following elements has the lowest melting point?
a)
Helium
b)
Potassium
c)
Tungsten
d)
Sulphur
|
Keerthana Joshi answered |
Helium has the lowest melting point. The data is as follows: Helium: -272.2°C, Potassium: 63.5°C, Tungsten: 3422°C, Sulphur: 115°C
In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.18, 14, 10, 6, ?- a)2
- b)3
- c)4
- d)5
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
18, 14, 10, 6, ?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
|
|
Pranab Chaudhary answered |
The relation between the numbers is as follows,
18 - 4 = 14
14 - 4 = 10
10 - 4 = 6
Hence, the next number is 6 - 4 = 2.
In question, select the related word from the given alternatives.Elated : Despondent :: Enlightened : ____- a)Tolerant
- b)Ignorant
- c)Miserable
- d)Aware
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Elated : Despondent :: Enlightened : ____
a)
Tolerant
b)
Ignorant
c)
Miserable
d)
Aware
|
|
Sravya Tiwari answered |
Elated means happy which is the opposite of despondent that means discourage. Similarly, enlightened is the opposite of ignorant.
Quinine is obtained from a plant. What Part of the plant yields the drug?- a)Leaves
- b)Fruits
- c)Root
- d)Stem bark
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Quinine is obtained from a plant. What Part of the plant yields the drug?
a)
Leaves
b)
Fruits
c)
Root
d)
Stem bark
|
Sagarika Dey answered |
Quinine, a medication used to treat malaria, is indeed obtained from a plant. The part of the plant that yields the drug is the stem bark. Let's discuss this in detail.
The plant from which quinine is derived is called Cinchona, specifically the species Cinchona ledgeriana and Cinchona succirubra. These plants are native to the Andean region of South America and are also cultivated in other parts of the world, including Asia and Africa.
The stem bark of the Cinchona tree contains the highest concentration of quinine alkaloids compared to other parts of the plant. This alkaloid is responsible for the antimalarial properties of quinine. The bark is harvested from mature trees, usually by making deep cuts into the stem and removing the outer layer.
Once the bark is collected, it undergoes a series of processing steps to extract the quinine. This typically involves grinding the bark into a fine powder and then subjecting it to various extraction methods, such as maceration or percolation. These techniques use solvents, typically ethanol or water, to dissolve the quinine alkaloids from the bark.
After the extraction, the resulting liquid is concentrated and purified to obtain a higher concentration of quinine. This is usually done through techniques like filtration, evaporation, and crystallization. The purified quinine is then further processed into different forms, such as tablets, capsules, or injections, for use as a medication.
It is worth noting that while quinine is primarily obtained from the stem bark of the Cinchona tree, small amounts of the alkaloid can also be found in other parts of the plant, including the leaves and fruits. However, the concentration of quinine in these parts is significantly lower compared to the stem bark.
In conclusion, the stem bark of the Cinchona tree is the part that yields the drug quinine. The bark is harvested, processed, and purified to obtain the quinine alkaloid, which is used as an effective treatment for malaria.
The plant from which quinine is derived is called Cinchona, specifically the species Cinchona ledgeriana and Cinchona succirubra. These plants are native to the Andean region of South America and are also cultivated in other parts of the world, including Asia and Africa.
The stem bark of the Cinchona tree contains the highest concentration of quinine alkaloids compared to other parts of the plant. This alkaloid is responsible for the antimalarial properties of quinine. The bark is harvested from mature trees, usually by making deep cuts into the stem and removing the outer layer.
Once the bark is collected, it undergoes a series of processing steps to extract the quinine. This typically involves grinding the bark into a fine powder and then subjecting it to various extraction methods, such as maceration or percolation. These techniques use solvents, typically ethanol or water, to dissolve the quinine alkaloids from the bark.
After the extraction, the resulting liquid is concentrated and purified to obtain a higher concentration of quinine. This is usually done through techniques like filtration, evaporation, and crystallization. The purified quinine is then further processed into different forms, such as tablets, capsules, or injections, for use as a medication.
It is worth noting that while quinine is primarily obtained from the stem bark of the Cinchona tree, small amounts of the alkaloid can also be found in other parts of the plant, including the leaves and fruits. However, the concentration of quinine in these parts is significantly lower compared to the stem bark.
In conclusion, the stem bark of the Cinchona tree is the part that yields the drug quinine. The bark is harvested, processed, and purified to obtain the quinine alkaloid, which is used as an effective treatment for malaria.
Which ruler of Bengal gave a portion of Orissa to the Marathas?- a)Shaista Khan
- b)Murshid Kuli Khan
- c)Alivardi Khan
- d)Sirajuddaula
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which ruler of Bengal gave a portion of Orissa to the Marathas?
a)
Shaista Khan
b)
Murshid Kuli Khan
c)
Alivardi Khan
d)
Sirajuddaula
|
Sagarika Patel answered |
In 1751, the Marathas signed a peace treaty with the Nawab of Bengal, according to which Mir Habib (a former courtier of Alivardi Khan, who had defected to the Marathas) was made provincial governor of Orissa under nominal control of the Nawab of Bengal.
Which of the following type of medicine is used for treating indigestion?- a)Antibiotic
- b)Analgesic
- c)Antacid
- d)Antiseptic
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following type of medicine is used for treating indigestion?
a)
Antibiotic
b)
Analgesic
c)
Antacid
d)
Antiseptic
|
|
Anjali Shah answered |
Antacid for Treating Indigestion
Indigestion is a common digestive issue that can cause discomfort and pain in the upper abdomen. One type of medicine that is commonly used to treat indigestion is an antacid.
What is an Antacid?
- Antacids are medications that help neutralize stomach acid to relieve symptoms such as heartburn, acidity, and indigestion.
- They work by raising the pH level in the stomach, which helps to reduce the irritation caused by excess acid.
How Antacids Help with Indigestion?
- Indigestion is often caused by an imbalance of stomach acid, leading to symptoms such as bloating, belching, and discomfort.
- Antacids can help to alleviate these symptoms by neutralizing the excess acid in the stomach, providing relief from indigestion.
- They can also help to soothe the lining of the stomach and esophagus, reducing inflammation and discomfort.
Types of Antacids
- There are various types of antacids available over the counter, including calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, and aluminum hydroxide.
- Some antacids may also contain additional ingredients such as simethicone to help relieve gas and bloating.
Usage and Precautions
- Antacids are generally safe for short-term use to relieve occasional indigestion symptoms.
- However, prolonged or excessive use of antacids may lead to side effects such as constipation, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalances.
- It is important to follow the recommended dosage and consult a healthcare provider if symptoms persist or worsen.
In conclusion, antacids are a commonly used type of medicine for treating indigestion by neutralizing stomach acid and providing relief from symptoms such as heartburn and discomfort.
Indigestion is a common digestive issue that can cause discomfort and pain in the upper abdomen. One type of medicine that is commonly used to treat indigestion is an antacid.
What is an Antacid?
- Antacids are medications that help neutralize stomach acid to relieve symptoms such as heartburn, acidity, and indigestion.
- They work by raising the pH level in the stomach, which helps to reduce the irritation caused by excess acid.
How Antacids Help with Indigestion?
- Indigestion is often caused by an imbalance of stomach acid, leading to symptoms such as bloating, belching, and discomfort.
- Antacids can help to alleviate these symptoms by neutralizing the excess acid in the stomach, providing relief from indigestion.
- They can also help to soothe the lining of the stomach and esophagus, reducing inflammation and discomfort.
Types of Antacids
- There are various types of antacids available over the counter, including calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, and aluminum hydroxide.
- Some antacids may also contain additional ingredients such as simethicone to help relieve gas and bloating.
Usage and Precautions
- Antacids are generally safe for short-term use to relieve occasional indigestion symptoms.
- However, prolonged or excessive use of antacids may lead to side effects such as constipation, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalances.
- It is important to follow the recommended dosage and consult a healthcare provider if symptoms persist or worsen.
In conclusion, antacids are a commonly used type of medicine for treating indigestion by neutralizing stomach acid and providing relief from symptoms such as heartburn and discomfort.
In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.College : Dean ∷ Museum : ?- a)Curator
- b)Keeper
- c)Guardian
- d)Manager
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
College : Dean ∷ Museum : ?
a)
Curator
b)
Keeper
c)
Guardian
d)
Manager
|
|
Shounak Saini answered |
Dean is the in charge of the college.
Similarly, Curator is the in charge of the museum.
Hence, Curator is the answer.
National Waterway-2 is on which water system?- a)West Coast Canal
- b)River Brahmaputra
- c)Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hoogli river
- d)Sundarbans waterways
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
National Waterway-2 is on which water system?
a)
West Coast Canal
b)
River Brahmaputra
c)
Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hoogli river
d)
Sundarbans waterways
|
|
Sreemoyee Joshi answered |
National Waterway 2 (NW-2):
- is a section of the Brahmaputra River having a length of 891 km
- between the Bangladesh border near Dhubri and Sadiya in Assam
Which among the following is NOT correctly matched?- a)Article 321: Power to extend functions of the Public Service Commissions.
- b)Article 317: Removal and Suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission
- c)Article 320: Expenses of Public Service Commissions
- d)Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which among the following is NOT correctly matched?
a)
Article 321: Power to extend functions of the Public Service Commissions.
b)
Article 317: Removal and Suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission
c)
Article 320: Expenses of Public Service Commissions
d)
Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions
|
|
Lekshmi Das answered |
Introduction:
In this question, we are asked to identify the correctly matched article among the given options. We need to determine which article does not accurately describe the power or function of the Public Service Commissions.
Explanation:
Let's analyze each option one by one:
a) Article 321: Power to extend functions of the Public Service Commissions:
This article correctly describes the power of the Public Service Commissions to extend their functions. Public Service Commissions are constitutional bodies that are responsible for conducting recruitment examinations, interviews, and making appointments to various government positions. They have the authority to extend their functions as per the requirements of the government.
b) Article 317: Removal and Suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission:
This article accurately describes the provision for the removal and suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission. It states that a member of the Public Service Commission can be removed or suspended on the grounds of misbehavior or incapacity. The process for removal or suspension is prescribed by the President of India.
c) Article 320: Expenses of Public Service Commissions:
This is the incorrect match. Article 320 does not specifically mention the expenses of Public Service Commissions. It primarily deals with the functions of the Public Service Commissions, including the recruitment and appointment of government officials. The expenses of the Public Service Commissions are usually covered under the general budget of the government.
d) Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions:
This article accurately describes the provision for the submission of reports by the Public Service Commissions. It states that the Public Service Commissions are required to submit annual reports to the President of India, who will then lay them before the respective state legislatures or the Parliament.
Conclusion:
Based on the analysis, it can be concluded that option 'c' is the correct answer as it does not correctly match the power or function of the Public Service Commissions.
In this question, we are asked to identify the correctly matched article among the given options. We need to determine which article does not accurately describe the power or function of the Public Service Commissions.
Explanation:
Let's analyze each option one by one:
a) Article 321: Power to extend functions of the Public Service Commissions:
This article correctly describes the power of the Public Service Commissions to extend their functions. Public Service Commissions are constitutional bodies that are responsible for conducting recruitment examinations, interviews, and making appointments to various government positions. They have the authority to extend their functions as per the requirements of the government.
b) Article 317: Removal and Suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission:
This article accurately describes the provision for the removal and suspension of a member of the Public Service Commission. It states that a member of the Public Service Commission can be removed or suspended on the grounds of misbehavior or incapacity. The process for removal or suspension is prescribed by the President of India.
c) Article 320: Expenses of Public Service Commissions:
This is the incorrect match. Article 320 does not specifically mention the expenses of Public Service Commissions. It primarily deals with the functions of the Public Service Commissions, including the recruitment and appointment of government officials. The expenses of the Public Service Commissions are usually covered under the general budget of the government.
d) Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions:
This article accurately describes the provision for the submission of reports by the Public Service Commissions. It states that the Public Service Commissions are required to submit annual reports to the President of India, who will then lay them before the respective state legislatures or the Parliament.
Conclusion:
Based on the analysis, it can be concluded that option 'c' is the correct answer as it does not correctly match the power or function of the Public Service Commissions.
In which of the following states, the President rule has never been imposed?- a)Haryana
- b)Chhattisgarh
- c)Gujarat
- d)Himachal Pradesh
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In which of the following states, the President rule has never been imposed?
a)
Haryana
b)
Chhattisgarh
c)
Gujarat
d)
Himachal Pradesh
|
Aditya Majumdar answered |
Explanation:
Chhattisgarh
President's Rule, also known as Central Rule, is the imposition of Article 356 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India on a state, suspending the state government and imposing direct rule of the Centre. However, Chhattisgarh has never faced President's Rule since its formation on November 1, 2000.
Other States:
- Haryana: President's Rule was imposed in Haryana in 1967, 1991, 1996, and 2005.
- Gujarat: President's Rule was imposed in Gujarat in 1975, 1980, and 1996.
- Himachal Pradesh: President's Rule was imposed in Himachal Pradesh in 1977, 1992, and 1994.
Therefore, out of the given options, Chhattisgarh is the state where President's Rule has never been imposed.
Chhattisgarh
President's Rule, also known as Central Rule, is the imposition of Article 356 of the Indian Constitution by the President of India on a state, suspending the state government and imposing direct rule of the Centre. However, Chhattisgarh has never faced President's Rule since its formation on November 1, 2000.
Other States:
- Haryana: President's Rule was imposed in Haryana in 1967, 1991, 1996, and 2005.
- Gujarat: President's Rule was imposed in Gujarat in 1975, 1980, and 1996.
- Himachal Pradesh: President's Rule was imposed in Himachal Pradesh in 1977, 1992, and 1994.
Therefore, out of the given options, Chhattisgarh is the state where President's Rule has never been imposed.
Choose the odd number from the given alternatives. - a)243 - 132
- b)183 - 54
- c)108 - 97
- d)99 - 63
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Choose the odd number from the given alternatives.
a)
243 - 132
b)
183 - 54
c)
108 - 97
d)
99 - 63
|
|
Tanishq Menon answered |
1) 243 - 132 = 111 (divisible by 3)
2) 183 - 54 = 129 (divisible by 3)
3) 108 - 97 = 11 (not divisible by 3)
4) 99 - 63 = 36 (divisible by 3)
Hence, 108 - 97 is odd one out.
Young Bengal Movement was founded by- a)Raja Rammohun Roy
- b)Clive Lyster
- c)Henry Vivian Derozio
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Young Bengal Movement was founded by
a)
Raja Rammohun Roy
b)
Clive Lyster
c)
Henry Vivian Derozio
d)
None of the above
|
Dhana answered |
Derozio was one of the rare teachers whose attachment to the knowledge,love of truth and hatred of evil made a profound impression upon those who came in contact with him, like Socrates ,he pursued that was right and was accused of mis guidelines to the youth . some influential Hindus had removed from his service,and shortly thereafter ,he died .But Derozio influence continued ,and it was known as the young Bengal movement,at that time all the leading movements of that period were connected to it
Amir Khusrow was the disciple of whom?- a)Mirza Ghiyas Beg
- b)Nizamuddin Auliya
- c)Asadullah Beg
- d)Sheikh Salim Chisti
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Amir Khusrow was the disciple of whom?
a)
Mirza Ghiyas Beg
b)
Nizamuddin Auliya
c)
Asadullah Beg
d)
Sheikh Salim Chisti
|
Sanskriti Chakraborty answered |
- Amir Khusrow (1253 - 1325) was a disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya. Khusrow is sometimes referred as the "voice of India", “Father of Urdu literature” and “Father of qawwali”.
- Muhammad Nizamuddin Auliya, also known as Hazrat Nizamuddin, was a Sufi saint of the Chishti Order and arguably one of the most famous Sufis on the Indian Subcontinent.
Find out the odd numbers from the given alternatives.- a)82
- b)75
- c)64
- d)30
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Find out the odd numbers from the given alternatives.
a)
82
b)
75
c)
64
d)
30
|
Prakash Kumawat answered |
75 v Ho skta h bs Vese Bcz 75 is odd no. and others r even no.
In the following question, select the related numbers from the given alternatives.J : 90 ∷ N : ?- a)165
- b)196
- c)157
- d)182
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In the following question, select the related numbers from the given alternatives.
J : 90 ∷ N : ?
a)
165
b)
196
c)
157
d)
182
|
|
Anshul Chakraborty answered |
J : 90 N : ?
To find the related number for N, we need to determine the pattern or relationship between J and its corresponding number, 90.
The relationship between J and 90 can be found by assigning numerical values to the letters in the alphabet. Assuming A=1, B=2, C=3, and so on, we can assign the values to J and N:
J = 10
N = 14
Now, let's analyze the relationship between the assigned values and their corresponding numbers (90 for J and ? for N).
The relationship can be determined by multiplying the assigned value by 9 and subtracting 9 from the result:
J = 10
10 * 9 = 90
90 - 9 = 81
Therefore, the related number for N can be found by applying the same calculation:
N = 14
14 * 9 = 126
126 - 9 = 117
However, none of the given options (165, 196, 157, and 182) match the calculated value of 117.
Therefore, none of the given alternatives are valid and the correct answer cannot be determined based on the given information.
Hence, the answer cannot be determined.
To find the related number for N, we need to determine the pattern or relationship between J and its corresponding number, 90.
The relationship between J and 90 can be found by assigning numerical values to the letters in the alphabet. Assuming A=1, B=2, C=3, and so on, we can assign the values to J and N:
J = 10
N = 14
Now, let's analyze the relationship between the assigned values and their corresponding numbers (90 for J and ? for N).
The relationship can be determined by multiplying the assigned value by 9 and subtracting 9 from the result:
J = 10
10 * 9 = 90
90 - 9 = 81
Therefore, the related number for N can be found by applying the same calculation:
N = 14
14 * 9 = 126
126 - 9 = 117
However, none of the given options (165, 196, 157, and 182) match the calculated value of 117.
Therefore, none of the given alternatives are valid and the correct answer cannot be determined based on the given information.
Hence, the answer cannot be determined.
Shyama, a woman, says that father of Rajiv’s father is my father. How Shyama is related to Rajiv?- a)Sister
- b)Mother
- c)Father’s sister (aunt)
- d)Niece
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Shyama, a woman, says that father of Rajiv’s father is my father. How Shyama is related to Rajiv?
a)
Sister
b)
Mother
c)
Father’s sister (aunt)
d)
Niece
|
|
Milan Ghosh answered |
Shyama, a woman, says that father of Rajiv’s father is my father.
Now, father of Rajiv’s father is Rajiv’s grandfather.
That means Shyama’s father is Rajiv’s grandfather.
Thus Syama is Rajiv’s aunt.
Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?YXXXXXX, YYXXXXX, YYYXXXX, YYYYXXX, YYYYYXX, _______________. - a)XXXXXXX
- b)YXXXXXX
- c)YYYYYYX
- d)YYXXXXX
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?
YXXXXXX, YYXXXXX, YYYXXXX, YYYYXXX, YYYYYXX, _______________.
a)
XXXXXXX
b)
YXXXXXX
c)
YYYYYYX
d)
YYXXXXX
|
Constructing Careers answered |
The pattern here is the letter ‘X’ which is to the immediate right of letter ‘Y’ is converted to ‘Y’ in every step and hence increasing the number of letter ‘Y’ in every step i.e.
YXXXXXX, YYXXXXX, YYYXXXX, YYYYXXX, YYYYYXX, YYYYYYX.
Hence, YYYYYYX is the correct alternative.
A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.-4, ?, 1, 3.5, 6, 8.5- a)2
- b)1.5
- c)-1.5
- d)-2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
-4, ?, 1, 3.5, 6, 8.5
a)
2
b)
1.5
c)
-1.5
d)
-2
|
|
Vaibhav Khanna answered |
Explanation:
To find the missing number in the given series, we need to observe the pattern and logic behind the numbers.
The given series is: -4, ?, 1, 3.5, 6, 8.5
Pattern:
- The series starts with -4 and the subsequent numbers are increasing with a pattern.
- The difference between the first two numbers (i.e., -4 and the missing number) is unknown.
- The difference between the missing number and the next number (1) is 5.
- The difference between 1 and the next number (3.5) is 2.5.
- The difference between 3.5 and the next number (6) is 2.5.
- The difference between 6 and the next number (8.5) is 2.5.
Logic:
- The pattern in the differences between the numbers is consistent.
- It appears that each number in the series is obtained by adding 2.5 to the previous number.
- Therefore, the missing number can be found by subtracting 2.5 from 1.
Calculation:
1 - 2.5 = -1.5
Conclusion:
The missing number in the given series is -1.5, which corresponds to option 'C'.
To find the missing number in the given series, we need to observe the pattern and logic behind the numbers.
The given series is: -4, ?, 1, 3.5, 6, 8.5
Pattern:
- The series starts with -4 and the subsequent numbers are increasing with a pattern.
- The difference between the first two numbers (i.e., -4 and the missing number) is unknown.
- The difference between the missing number and the next number (1) is 5.
- The difference between 1 and the next number (3.5) is 2.5.
- The difference between 3.5 and the next number (6) is 2.5.
- The difference between 6 and the next number (8.5) is 2.5.
Logic:
- The pattern in the differences between the numbers is consistent.
- It appears that each number in the series is obtained by adding 2.5 to the previous number.
- Therefore, the missing number can be found by subtracting 2.5 from 1.
Calculation:
1 - 2.5 = -1.5
Conclusion:
The missing number in the given series is -1.5, which corresponds to option 'C'.
Select the related letters from the given alternatives.ZWU : TQO : : LIG : ?- a)EFG
- b)FCA
- c)DEF
- d)EFC
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Select the related letters from the given alternatives.
ZWU : TQO : : LIG : ?
a)
EFG
b)
FCA
c)
DEF
d)
EFC
|
|
Swati Gupta answered |
In ZWU : TQO
Z – 3 = W; W – 2 = U
U – 1 = T
T – 3 = Q; Q – 2 = O
Similarly, in LIG : ?
L – 3 = I; I – 2 = G
G – 1 = F
F – 3 = C; C – 2 = A
Therefore, “FCA” is correct answer.
A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.POT, OMS, NKR, MIQ, ?- a)LGP
- b)KGO
- c)LHP
- d)KHO
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
POT, OMS, NKR, MIQ, ?
a)
LGP
b)
KGO
c)
LHP
d)
KHO
|
Sameer Verma answered |
Series Analysis:
The given series is: POT, OMS, NKR, MIQ, ?
Pattern:
To find the missing term in the series, let's analyze the pattern followed by the given terms:
1. The first letter of each term is decreasing by one alphabet.
2. The second letter of each term is increasing by one alphabet.
3. The third letter of each term is unchanged.
Applying the Pattern:
Using the above pattern, we can determine the missing term in the series:
1. POT -> P is one alphabet before O, O is one alphabet after N, T remains the same.
2. OMS -> O is one alphabet before N, M is one alphabet after L, S remains the same.
3. NKR -> N is one alphabet before M, K is one alphabet after J, R remains the same.
4. MIQ -> M is one alphabet before L, I is one alphabet after H, Q remains the same.
Following the pattern, the missing term should be one alphabet before L, one alphabet after K, and the third letter should remain the same. The only option that satisfies this pattern is option 'A': LGP.
Conclusion:
The missing term in the series is LGP. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A'.
The given series is: POT, OMS, NKR, MIQ, ?
Pattern:
To find the missing term in the series, let's analyze the pattern followed by the given terms:
1. The first letter of each term is decreasing by one alphabet.
2. The second letter of each term is increasing by one alphabet.
3. The third letter of each term is unchanged.
Applying the Pattern:
Using the above pattern, we can determine the missing term in the series:
1. POT -> P is one alphabet before O, O is one alphabet after N, T remains the same.
2. OMS -> O is one alphabet before N, M is one alphabet after L, S remains the same.
3. NKR -> N is one alphabet before M, K is one alphabet after J, R remains the same.
4. MIQ -> M is one alphabet before L, I is one alphabet after H, Q remains the same.
Following the pattern, the missing term should be one alphabet before L, one alphabet after K, and the third letter should remain the same. The only option that satisfies this pattern is option 'A': LGP.
Conclusion:
The missing term in the series is LGP. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A'.
If ‘ + ’ means ‘multiplication, ‘ - ’ means ‘division’, ‘×’ means ‘subtraction’ and ‘÷’ means ‘addition’, then 9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 × 9 is- a)65
- b)11
- c)26
- d)56
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
If ‘ + ’ means ‘multiplication, ‘ - ’ means ‘division’, ‘×’ means ‘subtraction’ and ‘÷’ means ‘addition’, then 9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 × 9 is
a)
65
b)
11
c)
26
d)
56
|
|
Moumita Rane answered |
We use BODMAS to calculate the following expression.
9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4 × 9 = 9 × 8 + 8/4 – 9 = 9 × 8 + 2 – 9 = 72 + 2 – 9 = 74 – 9 = 65.
Therefore, 65 is the correct answer.
Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by which of the following?- a)Adam Smith
- b)Paul Samuelson
- c)J. S. Mill
- d)T. R. Malthus
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Revealed Preference Theory was propounded by which of the following?
a)
Adam Smith
b)
Paul Samuelson
c)
J. S. Mill
d)
T. R. Malthus
|
|
Arjun Menon answered |
Revealed preference theory was propounded by the American economist Paul Samuelson. It is a method of analyzing choices made by individuals, mostly used for comparing the influence of policies on consumer behaviour. These models assume that the preferences of consumers can be revealed by their purchasing habits.
Which of the following animal can be seen on Seal of Constituent Assembly of India?- a)Tiger
- b)Lion
- c)Elephant
- d)Dog
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following animal can be seen on Seal of Constituent Assembly of India?
a)
Tiger
b)
Lion
c)
Elephant
d)
Dog
|
Sanskriti Basu answered |
Seal of Constituent Assembly of India
The animal that can be seen on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India is an elephant.
Significance of the Elephant
- The elephant has been a symbol of wisdom, strength, and prosperity in Indian culture for centuries.
- It is also considered a symbol of stability and power in Hindu mythology.
- The choice of the elephant on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India represents these qualities and the aspirations of the newly independent nation.
Explanation of the Seal
- The Seal of Constituent Assembly of India features the image of an elephant with a rider on its back.
- The rider is holding a flag and a lotus, which are symbols of national pride and unity.
- The elephant is shown with its trunk raised, a gesture that signifies good luck and prosperity in Indian culture.
Historical Significance
- The Seal of Constituent Assembly of India was designed by renowned artist Nandalal Bose.
- It was adopted on 26th January 1950, the day the Constitution of India came into effect.
- The Seal symbolizes the values and principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
In conclusion, the elephant on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India represents the rich cultural heritage and the noble aspirations of the Indian people as they embarked on a new journey as an independent nation.
The animal that can be seen on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India is an elephant.
Significance of the Elephant
- The elephant has been a symbol of wisdom, strength, and prosperity in Indian culture for centuries.
- It is also considered a symbol of stability and power in Hindu mythology.
- The choice of the elephant on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India represents these qualities and the aspirations of the newly independent nation.
Explanation of the Seal
- The Seal of Constituent Assembly of India features the image of an elephant with a rider on its back.
- The rider is holding a flag and a lotus, which are symbols of national pride and unity.
- The elephant is shown with its trunk raised, a gesture that signifies good luck and prosperity in Indian culture.
Historical Significance
- The Seal of Constituent Assembly of India was designed by renowned artist Nandalal Bose.
- It was adopted on 26th January 1950, the day the Constitution of India came into effect.
- The Seal symbolizes the values and principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
In conclusion, the elephant on the Seal of Constituent Assembly of India represents the rich cultural heritage and the noble aspirations of the Indian people as they embarked on a new journey as an independent nation.
Which of the following statement is not correct?- a)Isotopes of an element have same atomic number but different mass numbers
- b)The electronic configuration of isotopes of an element is different
- c)The atoms which have the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called isobars
- d)Two nuclei A and B are isotonic with mass numbers 15 and 16 respectively. If A contains 7 protons, then the number of protons in B would be 8
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statement is not correct?
a)
Isotopes of an element have same atomic number but different mass numbers
b)
The electronic configuration of isotopes of an element is different
c)
The atoms which have the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called isobars
d)
Two nuclei A and B are isotonic with mass numbers 15 and 16 respectively. If A contains 7 protons, then the number of protons in B would be 8
|
|
Aniket Saini answered |
Isotope, one of two or more species of atoms of a chemical element with the same atomic number and position in the periodic table and nearly identical chemical behaviour but with different atomic masses and physical properties. The electronic configuration of isotopes remains same because the atoms have same atomic number. Isobars are those atoms which have same mass number but different atomic number.Two nuclei will be isotone, if they have same neutron number. The mass number of the atom is equal to the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. A contains 7 protons, hence it will have 8 neutrons. And since A and B are isotonic, hence neutrons will be same for B too which is 8.
Select the related numbers from the given alternatives :
35 : 48 :: 110 : ?- a)18
- b)132
- c)136
- d)140
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Select the related numbers from the given alternatives :
35 : 48 :: 110 : ?
35 : 48 :: 110 : ?
a)
18
b)
132
c)
136
d)
140
|
|
Prashanth Mehra answered |
In 35 : 48
7 × 5 = 35
8 × 6 = 48
Similarly;
11 × 10 = 110
12 × 11 = 132
Hence, 132 is correct option.
In question select the related numbers from the given alternatives.76 : 01 :: 42 : ?- a)02
- b)05
- c)01
- d)04
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In question select the related numbers from the given alternatives.
76 : 01 :: 42 : ?
a)
02
b)
05
c)
01
d)
04
|
|
Aman Ghosh answered |
Analogy:
The given analogy is 76:01::42:?
Relation in the given numbers:
In the given analogy, 76 is related to 01. Let's find out the relationship between these numbers.
Explanation:
- The number 76 can be split into two digits, 7 and 6.
- If we add these two digits, 7 + 6 = 13.
- Now, reverse this sum to get the number 31, which is the number related to 76 in the analogy.
Applying the same logic:
- In the analogy, we have 42.
- Splitting it into two digits, 4 and 2.
- Add these two digits, 4 + 2 = 6.
- Reverse this sum to get 6, which should be the related number.
Answer:
Therefore, in the analogy 42:? the related number is 6, which corresponds to option A) 02.
The given analogy is 76:01::42:?
Relation in the given numbers:
In the given analogy, 76 is related to 01. Let's find out the relationship between these numbers.
Explanation:
- The number 76 can be split into two digits, 7 and 6.
- If we add these two digits, 7 + 6 = 13.
- Now, reverse this sum to get the number 31, which is the number related to 76 in the analogy.
Applying the same logic:
- In the analogy, we have 42.
- Splitting it into two digits, 4 and 2.
- Add these two digits, 4 + 2 = 6.
- Reverse this sum to get 6, which should be the related number.
Answer:
Therefore, in the analogy 42:? the related number is 6, which corresponds to option A) 02.
Select the related word from the given alternatives:Crime : Court :: Disease : ?- a)Doctor
- b)Medicine
- c)Hospital
- d)Treatment
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Select the related word from the given alternatives:
Crime : Court :: Disease : ?
a)
Doctor
b)
Medicine
c)
Hospital
d)
Treatment
|
|
Ameya Roy answered |
As the Crimes are solved in Court, in similar way Diseases are solved in Hospitals
Ram walked 20 m towards the north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Finally he turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many metres is he from the starting position?- a)45 m west
- b)30 m east
- c)30 m west
- d)45 m east
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Ram walked 20 m towards the north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Finally he turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many metres is he from the starting position?
a)
45 m west
b)
30 m east
c)
30 m west
d)
45 m east
|
|
Disha Nambiar answered |
Starting position: 0 m (origin)
Northward movement: +20 m in the y-direction
Turning right: Eastward movement: +30 m in the x-direction
Turning right: Southward movement: -35 m in the y-direction
Turning left: Eastward movement: +15 m in the x-direction
Turning left: Northward movement: +15 m in the y-direction
## Calculation
The net displacement in the x-direction is 30 m - 15 m = 15 m to the east.
The net displacement in the y-direction is 20 m - 35 m + 15 m = 0 m, meaning no displacement in the y-direction.
Thus, the final position is 15 m east and 0 m north of the starting position.
## Direction and Distance from Starting Position
The final position is 15 m east and 0 m north of the starting position. The direction can be determined using the trigonometric concept of angles. The displacement in the x-direction forms the adjacent side of a right-angled triangle, and the displacement in the y-direction forms the opposite side. The angle between the hypotenuse (net displacement) and the adjacent side can be found using the tangent function:
tan(θ) = (opposite side) / (adjacent side)
tan(θ) = 0 m / 15 m
θ = tan^(-1)(0) = 0°
Since the angle is 0°, the displacement is purely in the eastward direction. Therefore, Ram is 15 m east of the starting position.
## Answer
Therefore, Ram is 15 m east of the starting position. Hence, the correct answer is option D: 45 m east.
Northward movement: +20 m in the y-direction
Turning right: Eastward movement: +30 m in the x-direction
Turning right: Southward movement: -35 m in the y-direction
Turning left: Eastward movement: +15 m in the x-direction
Turning left: Northward movement: +15 m in the y-direction
## Calculation
The net displacement in the x-direction is 30 m - 15 m = 15 m to the east.
The net displacement in the y-direction is 20 m - 35 m + 15 m = 0 m, meaning no displacement in the y-direction.
Thus, the final position is 15 m east and 0 m north of the starting position.
## Direction and Distance from Starting Position
The final position is 15 m east and 0 m north of the starting position. The direction can be determined using the trigonometric concept of angles. The displacement in the x-direction forms the adjacent side of a right-angled triangle, and the displacement in the y-direction forms the opposite side. The angle between the hypotenuse (net displacement) and the adjacent side can be found using the tangent function:
tan(θ) = (opposite side) / (adjacent side)
tan(θ) = 0 m / 15 m
θ = tan^(-1)(0) = 0°
Since the angle is 0°, the displacement is purely in the eastward direction. Therefore, Ram is 15 m east of the starting position.
## Answer
Therefore, Ram is 15 m east of the starting position. Hence, the correct answer is option D: 45 m east.
Generally covalently bonded molecules ________.I. Have high boiling and melting point as compared to ionically bonded moleculesII. Are poor conductors of electricity.III. Have weak inter-molecular force.- a)Only I and II
- b)Only I and III
- c)Only II and III
- d)All I, II and III
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Generally covalently bonded molecules ________.
I. Have high boiling and melting point as compared to ionically bonded molecules
II. Are poor conductors of electricity.
III. Have weak inter-molecular force.
a)
Only I and II
b)
Only I and III
c)
Only II and III
d)
All I, II and III
|
|
Shreya Choudhury answered |
Only II and III
Generally, covalently bonded molecules are poor conductors of electricity and have weak intermolecular force.
The time period of a sound wave is 0.01 seconds. Find its frequency (in Hz).- a)100
- b)10
- c)50
- d)20
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The time period of a sound wave is 0.01 seconds. Find its frequency (in Hz).
a)
100
b)
10
c)
50
d)
20
|
|
Bhargavi Chauhan answered |
Frequency= 1/T (time period)
therefore, 1/0.01 = 100
f = 100Hz
What fraction of Earth’s diameter is the diameter of the moon?- a)1/2
- b)1/3
- c)1/4
- d)1/6
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What fraction of Earth’s diameter is the diameter of the moon?
a)
1/2
b)
1/3
c)
1/4
d)
1/6
|
Shruti Bose answered |
- 1/4 fraction of Earth’s diameter is the diameter of the moon.
- Earth’s diameter is 12,742 km
- Moon’s diameter is 3,474 km
Which of the following is the tributary of river Godavari?- a)Tungbhadra
- b)Indravati
- c)Kabini
- d)Amravati
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is the tributary of river Godavari?
a)
Tungbhadra
b)
Indravati
c)
Kabini
d)
Amravati
|
|
Akshara Rane answered |
Indravati is one of the major tributaries of Godavari. Indravati originates from the state of Odisha and passes through Chhattisgarh before meeting Godavari river. Chitrakoot falls is located on Indravati river.
Who among the following has written the famous poem, 'Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna'?- a)Bismil Azimabadi
- b)Chandra Shekhar Azad
- c)Ashfaqulla Khan
- d)Ram Prasad Bismil
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Who among the following has written the famous poem, 'Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna'?
a)
Bismil Azimabadi
b)
Chandra Shekhar Azad
c)
Ashfaqulla Khan
d)
Ram Prasad Bismil
|
|
Soumya Basak answered |
Sarfaroshi ki Tamanna:
- is a patriotic poem in Urdu
- written by “Bismil Azimabadi” of Patna in 1921
- was also immortalized as a “freedom war cry during the British Raj period in India”
- first published in the journal Sabah, published from Delhi
What is the term for the attorney general of India?- a)6 years
- b)5 years
- c)No fixed term
- d)Fixed term for 3 years
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
What is the term for the attorney general of India?
a)
6 years
b)
5 years
c)
No fixed term
d)
Fixed term for 3 years
|
|
Siddharth Menon answered |
There is no fixed term of the attorney general of India. He holds his office during the pleasure of the President.
Salil S. Parekh has been appointed as the MD and CEO of which company?- a)Wipro
- b)Tata
- c)Infosys
- d)Cognizant
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Salil S. Parekh has been appointed as the MD and CEO of which company?
a)
Wipro
b)
Tata
c)
Infosys
d)
Cognizant
|
|
Sahil Majumdar answered |
Infosys annouced the appointment of Salil S. Parekh as its new CEO and Managing Director. Salil was in Capegemini earlier. The Bengaluru-headquartered company was searching for a new CEO after former CEO Vishal Sikka resigned in August 2017. Cofounder Nandan Nilekani returned to the company as non-executive chairman to steady operations.
Chapter doubts & questions for Sectional Test - Mock Test Series for SSC JE Mechanical Engineering 2025 2025 is part of Mechanical Engineering exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the Mechanical Engineering exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for Mechanical Engineering 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
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Mock Test Series for SSC JE Mechanical Engineering 2025
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