All Exams > UPSC > UPSC Previous Year Question Papers and Video Analysis > All Questions
All questions of 2019 for UPSC CSE Exam
Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Q. Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2, 3 and 4 only
- c)1 and 4 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Q. Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Q. Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2, 3 and 4 only
c)
1 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
 | Alok Verma answered |
Burning of crop residues emits traces of carbon dioxide, methane, carbon monoxide, nitrous oxide, sulphur dioxide and particulates which affect human health.
Punjab and Haryana are both responsible for causing air pollution due to burning.
Punjab and Haryana are both responsible for causing air pollution due to burning.
These two states contribute to 48 per cent of the total emission due to paddy burning across India.
Note: The majority of tropospheric ozone formation occurs when nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon monoxide (CO) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs), such as xylene, react in the atmosphere in the presence of sunlight.
Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?
A digital signature is
1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Alok Verma answered |
It is an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged. Hence statement 3 is correct. Digital signatures are easily transportable and cannot be imitated by someone else.
What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?- a)Recently discovered uranium deposits
- b)Tropical rain forests
- c)Underground cave systems
- d)Water reservoirs
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
a)
Recently discovered uranium deposits
b)
Tropical rain forests
c)
Underground cave systems
d)
Water reservoirs
 | Arnav Malik answered |
Common feature of Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati
Water Reservoirs
Explanation:
Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are all places known for their water reservoirs.
Aliyar is a village in Tamil Nadu, India, known for the Aliyar Reservoir which is a large dam built across the Aliyar River. It is a popular tourist destination and provides water for irrigation and drinking purposes.
Isapur is a village in Maharashtra, India, known for the Isapur dam which is a small reservoir built across the Bhima River. It provides irrigation water to nearby farmlands.
Kangsabati is a river in West Bengal, India, which has a dam built across it that creates a reservoir. The Kangsabati Reservoir is used for irrigation and drinking water purposes.
Thus, the common feature of these places is their water reservoirs.
Water Reservoirs
Explanation:
Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati are all places known for their water reservoirs.
Aliyar is a village in Tamil Nadu, India, known for the Aliyar Reservoir which is a large dam built across the Aliyar River. It is a popular tourist destination and provides water for irrigation and drinking purposes.
Isapur is a village in Maharashtra, India, known for the Isapur dam which is a small reservoir built across the Bhima River. It provides irrigation water to nearby farmlands.
Kangsabati is a river in West Bengal, India, which has a dam built across it that creates a reservoir. The Kangsabati Reservoir is used for irrigation and drinking water purposes.
Thus, the common feature of these places is their water reservoirs.
Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?- a)2<3<1<4
- b)2<3<4<1
- c)3<2<4<1
- d)3<2<1<4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
a)
2<3<1<4
b)
2<3<4<1
c)
3<2<4<1
d)
3<2<1<4
 | Esu Sharma answered |
According to Indian forest state report 2019, Madhya Pradesh has largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra..
their hasn't any option related to current scenario..
their hasn't any option related to current scenario..
In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is /are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is /are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
 | Kabir Verma answered |
- Wearable technology, wearables, fashion technology, tech togs, or fashion electronics are smart electronic devices (electronic device with micro-controllers) that are worn close to and/or on the surface of the skin, where they detect, analyze, and transmit information concerning e.g. body signals such as vital signs, and/or ambient data and which allow in some cases immediate biofeedback to the wearer.
- Wearable devices such as activity trackers are an example of the Internet of Things, since "things" such as electronics, software, sensors, and connectivity are effectors that enable objects to exchange data (including data quality through the internet with a manufacturer, operator, and/or other connected devices, without requiring human intervention.
- Wearable technology has a variety of applications which grows as the field itself expands. It appears prominently in consumer electronics with the popularization of the smartwatch and activity tracker. Apart from commercial uses, wearable technology is being incorporated into navigation systems, advanced textiles, and healthcare.
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)1 and 2
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1, 3 and 4
- d)2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.
1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1, 3 and 4
d)
2, 3 and 4
 | Aashna Desai answered |
Reasons for occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India
Incorrect doses of antibiotics
One of the main reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India is the incorrect doses of antibiotics that are taken to cure diseases. Many patients do not complete their course of antibiotics, leading to the development of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
Use of antibiotics in livestock farming
Another reason for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India is the use of antibiotics in livestock farming. Antibiotics are often used to promote growth and prevent disease in livestock. This leads to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria that can be transmitted to humans through the food chain.
Genetic predisposition
Genetic predisposition may also play a role in the development of antibiotic resistance in microbial pathogens in India. Some people may have genetic mutations that make them more susceptible to antibiotic-resistant infections.
Multiple chronic diseases
Multiple chronic diseases in some people may also contribute to the development of antibiotic resistance in microbial pathogens in India. People who have multiple chronic diseases are often treated with multiple antibiotics, which can lead to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
Conclusion
In conclusion, the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India include the incorrect doses of antibiotics, the use of antibiotics in livestock farming, genetic predisposition, and multiple chronic diseases. It is important to take steps to address these factors in order to prevent the development and spread of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. This includes promoting the responsible use of antibiotics, minimizing the use of antibiotics in livestock farming, and developing new treatments for antibiotic-resistant infections.
Incorrect doses of antibiotics
One of the main reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India is the incorrect doses of antibiotics that are taken to cure diseases. Many patients do not complete their course of antibiotics, leading to the development of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
Use of antibiotics in livestock farming
Another reason for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India is the use of antibiotics in livestock farming. Antibiotics are often used to promote growth and prevent disease in livestock. This leads to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria that can be transmitted to humans through the food chain.
Genetic predisposition
Genetic predisposition may also play a role in the development of antibiotic resistance in microbial pathogens in India. Some people may have genetic mutations that make them more susceptible to antibiotic-resistant infections.
Multiple chronic diseases
Multiple chronic diseases in some people may also contribute to the development of antibiotic resistance in microbial pathogens in India. People who have multiple chronic diseases are often treated with multiple antibiotics, which can lead to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
Conclusion
In conclusion, the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India include the incorrect doses of antibiotics, the use of antibiotics in livestock farming, genetic predisposition, and multiple chronic diseases. It is important to take steps to address these factors in order to prevent the development and spread of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. This includes promoting the responsible use of antibiotics, minimizing the use of antibiotics in livestock farming, and developing new treatments for antibiotic-resistant infections.
Consider the following statements :
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Govt of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, Coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)2 & 3 Only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2, & 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements :
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Govt of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, Coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Govt of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, Coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 & 3 Only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2, & 3 Only
| | Alok Verma answered |
i. Coal sector was nationalised in two phases under Indira Gandhi Government in 1972.
ii. The coal Blocks are allocated through Auctions not on lottery basis.
iii. The coal sector is the monopolistic sector in India. India holds 5th biggest coal reserves in the world but due to incapacity of coal production by monopolistic firms, it imports coals to meet the shortages of domestic supply. But, still the country is not self-sufficient of coal production.
Hence option (A) is correct
ii. The coal Blocks are allocated through Auctions not on lottery basis.
iii. The coal sector is the monopolistic sector in India. India holds 5th biggest coal reserves in the world but due to incapacity of coal production by monopolistic firms, it imports coals to meet the shortages of domestic supply. But, still the country is not self-sufficient of coal production.
Hence option (A) is correct
Consider the following pairs:
Q. Which of the pairs given above are currently matched?- a)1,2 and 4
- b)1,3 and 4
- c)2 and 5
- d)3 and 5
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
Q. Which of the pairs given above are currently matched?
Q. Which of the pairs given above are currently matched?
a)
1,2 and 4
b)
1,3 and 4
c)
2 and 5
d)
3 and 5
 | Imran M N answered |
1) Yamunotri(source of river Yamuna ) is near the bandarpunch peak in Uttarakhand.
2)Bara Shigri Glacier is the source of river Chenab in himachal pradesh
3)the milam glacier is the source of river goriganga in Uttarakhand.
the Mandakini river originates from chorabari glacier .
4) the Siachen glacier is the source of the river nubra( part of Indus valley system) in Ladakh
5)the zemu Glacier is the source of the river teesta( part of Brahmaputra) in Sikkim.
The manas river flows from glaciers in Bhutan.
the answer is A.
2)Bara Shigri Glacier is the source of river Chenab in himachal pradesh
3)the milam glacier is the source of river goriganga in Uttarakhand.
the Mandakini river originates from chorabari glacier .
4) the Siachen glacier is the source of the river nubra( part of Indus valley system) in Ladakh
5)the zemu Glacier is the source of the river teesta( part of Brahmaputra) in Sikkim.
The manas river flows from glaciers in Bhutan.
the answer is A.
In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (HCNG) as fuel for buses public transport, consider the following statements :
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)1, 2, 3 & 4
- c)4 only
- d)2 & 3 Only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (HCNG) as fuel for buses public transport, consider the following statements :
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
1, 2, 3 & 4
c)
4 only
d)
2 & 3 Only
| | Shraddha Basak answered |
B) 1, 2, 3
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?- a)Advances
- b)Deposits
- c)Investments
- d)Money at call and short notice
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
a)
Advances
b)
Deposits
c)
Investments
d)
Money at call and short notice
 | Vikram Kapoor answered |
The assets of the commercial bank in India are Cash in hand, Investments, Loans, Advances, Bills discounted and purchased.
While the liabilities are Capital and Reserves, Deposits, Borrowings, and other liabilities.
In the context of Digital Technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)3 and 4 only
- c)1, 2 and 3
- d)4 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
In the context of Digital Technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 and 4 only
c)
1, 2 and 3
d)
4 only
| | Gitanjali Roy answered |
Statement Analysis
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Explanation
Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR) are two popular technologies used for entertainment. Both technologies are used to enhance user experience by simulating a virtual environment. However, there are some key differences between the two.
AR vs VR
AR is a technology that superimposes digital information onto the real world. It uses the camera of a smartphone or PC to capture the real world and then overlays digital information onto it. This allows users to experience a blended reality where they can interact with both the real and virtual world simultaneously. AR is commonly used in mobile gaming, advertising, and education.
On the other hand, VR is a technology that completely immerses users into a virtual environment. It uses a headset to block out the real world and transport users to a fully simulated environment. VR is commonly used in gaming, training, and therapy.
Conclusion
Based on the given statements, it can be concluded that:
- Statement 1 is incorrect as AR does not shut out the physical world completely.
- Statement 2 is correct as VR projects images generated from a computer onto real-life objects or surroundings.
- Statement 3 is incorrect as AR does not close the world but allows users to be present in the real world.
- Statement 4 is correct as VR transposes users to a fully simulated environment providing a complete immersion experience.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, i.e., statements 3 and 4 only.
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
Explanation
Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR) are two popular technologies used for entertainment. Both technologies are used to enhance user experience by simulating a virtual environment. However, there are some key differences between the two.
AR vs VR
AR is a technology that superimposes digital information onto the real world. It uses the camera of a smartphone or PC to capture the real world and then overlays digital information onto it. This allows users to experience a blended reality where they can interact with both the real and virtual world simultaneously. AR is commonly used in mobile gaming, advertising, and education.
On the other hand, VR is a technology that completely immerses users into a virtual environment. It uses a headset to block out the real world and transport users to a fully simulated environment. VR is commonly used in gaming, training, and therapy.
Conclusion
Based on the given statements, it can be concluded that:
- Statement 1 is incorrect as AR does not shut out the physical world completely.
- Statement 2 is correct as VR projects images generated from a computer onto real-life objects or surroundings.
- Statement 3 is incorrect as AR does not close the world but allows users to be present in the real world.
- Statement 4 is correct as VR transposes users to a fully simulated environment providing a complete immersion experience.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, i.e., statements 3 and 4 only.
Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Sanvi Kapoor answered |
- External debt is the money that borrowers in a country owe to foreign lenders. India’s external debt was $513.4 billion at the end of December 2017, an increase of 8.8% since March 2017. Most of it was owed by private businesses which borrowed at attractive rates from foreign lenders.
- To be precise, 78.8% of the total external debt ($404.5 billion) was owed by non-governmental entities like private companies. The size of external commercial borrowings and foreign currency convertible bonds, which represents Indian companies’ foreign borrowings, has risen from Rs. 99,490 crore at the end of December 2015 to Rs 1,72,872 crore at the end of December 2017.
- While external debt may be denominated in either the rupee or a foreign currency like the U.S. dollar, most of India’s external debt is linked to the dollar. This means Indian borrowers will have to pay back their lenders by first converting their rupees into dollars. As of December 2017, about 48% of India’s total external debt was denominated in dollars and 37.3% in rupees.
With' reference to · the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements :1. Mahatina Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian· people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?a)1 and 2 onlyb)1 and 3 onlyc)2 and 3 onlyd)1, 2 and 3Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
| | Anagha Shah answered |
In South Africa, Gandhi in opposition to compulsory registration of Indian population under Asiatic Law Amendment Act of the Transvaal government organised non-violent protest which led to passing of Indian Relief Act 1914- which eliminated extra tax on Indian citizens who had not renewed their indentures and recognised validity of Indian marriages.
In the Young India article dated 27 Nov ,1920 - “To Every Englishmen In India”, Gandhi quoted his recruiting campaign which was carried out in Kaira District (Gujarat) in support of British Cause in World War I according to the promise made in War Conference of Delhi.
As the Salt March ended in month of April 1930, between June and August several Congress Working Committees and leaders were arrested and Congress as an political was declared illegal by the British Administration.
In the Young India article dated 27 Nov ,1920 - “To Every Englishmen In India”, Gandhi quoted his recruiting campaign which was carried out in Kaira District (Gujarat) in support of British Cause in World War I according to the promise made in War Conference of Delhi.
As the Salt March ended in month of April 1930, between June and August several Congress Working Committees and leaders were arrested and Congress as an political was declared illegal by the British Administration.
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)1 and 2
- b)1, 3 and 4
- c)3, 4 and 5
- d)2 and 5
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 and 2
b)
1, 3 and 4
c)
3, 4 and 5
d)
2 and 5
| | Ujwal Unni answered |
Review of Independent Regulators in India
In India, there are several independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc. The following are the bodies that review these regulators:
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament: These committees are appointed by the Parliament to study specific issues related to the functioning of independent regulators. They can review the performance of the regulators and make recommendations for improvement.
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees: These committees are permanent committees of the Parliament that review the functioning of various government departments and agencies. They can also review the performance of independent regulators.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 and 2.
The other options are incorrect because:
- Option 'B' includes the Finance Commission and the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission, which do not review independent regulators.
- Option 'C' includes the Finance Commission and the NITI Aayog, which do not review independent regulators.
- Option 'D' includes the Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees and the NITI Aayog, but it is missing the Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament.
In India, there are several independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc. The following are the bodies that review these regulators:
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament: These committees are appointed by the Parliament to study specific issues related to the functioning of independent regulators. They can review the performance of the regulators and make recommendations for improvement.
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees: These committees are permanent committees of the Parliament that review the functioning of various government departments and agencies. They can also review the performance of independent regulators.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A' - 1 and 2.
The other options are incorrect because:
- Option 'B' includes the Finance Commission and the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission, which do not review independent regulators.
- Option 'C' includes the Finance Commission and the NITI Aayog, which do not review independent regulators.
- Option 'D' includes the Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees and the NITI Aayog, but it is missing the Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament.
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?- a)Article 19
- b)Article 21
- c)Article 25
- d)Article 29
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
a)
Article 19
b)
Article 21
c)
Article 25
d)
Article 29
 | Vaidehi Pareshbhai answered |
Article 21 deals with right to personal liberty,which safegaurds one's right to marry the person of one's choice.
With reference to communication technology, what is/are the difference(s) between LTE (Long Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data only technology and VoLTE is voice only technology.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to communication technology, what is/are the difference(s) between LTE (Long Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data only technology and VoLTE is voice only technology.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data only technology and VoLTE is voice only technology.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Shraddha Gupta answered |
Yes because in the first option instead of advance 3g there should b the usage of 4g
And in second option both lte and volte are used for both voice and data , so this option is also wrong .
And in second option both lte and volte are used for both voice and data , so this option is also wrong .
The chairman of public sector banks are selected by the- a)Banks Board Bureau
- b)Reserve Bank of India
- c)Union Ministry of finance
- d)Management of concerned bank
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The chairman of public sector banks are selected by the
a)
Banks Board Bureau
b)
Reserve Bank of India
c)
Union Ministry of finance
d)
Management of concerned bank
| | Srishti Gupta answered |
The Department of Personnel and Training deals with appointment to posts of Chairman, Managing Director, and full-time Director/Member of various Public Sector Undertakings, Corporations, Banks and financial institutions. The appointment of the Chairman of public sector bank follows the recommendations of the Banks Board Bureau (BBB), an autonomous body of Government that works to improve governance of Public Sector Banks, recommends selection of bank chiefs and helps banks in developing strategies.
The economic cost of food grains to the food cooperation of India is minimum support price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus- a)Transport cost only
- b)Interest cost only
- c)Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
- d)Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The economic cost of food grains to the food cooperation of India is minimum support price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
a)
Transport cost only
b)
Interest cost only
c)
Procurement incidentals and distribution cost
d)
Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns
 | EduRev CLAT answered |
The economic cost of food grains procured by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a total of minimum support price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus the procurement incidentals and distribution cost.
The economic cost has three main components - procurement cost, procurement price, and distribution cost. The procurement incidentals are the initial costs incurred during procurement of foodgrains. The FCI buys foodgrains from the farmers at the pre-announced Minimum Support Price. The distribution costs include freight, handling charges, storage charges, losses during transit and establishment cost.
Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to sell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1, 2 and 3
- c)3 only
- d)2 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to sell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to sell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1, 2 and 3
c)
3 only
d)
2 and 3 only
 | Saranya Gupta answered |
The correct answer is option 'D', i.e., 2 and 3 only.
Explanation:
- The recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927 allows for the transit of bamboo and other forest produce. However, it does not give the right to sell bamboo to forest dwellers.
- The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling communities to live in and access forest resources, including minor forest produce such as bamboo.
- Bamboo is considered a minor forest produce under the Forest Rights Act, which means that forest-dwelling communities have the right to collect, use, and dispose of it for their livelihood needs.
- The Forest Rights Act also allows forest-dwelling communities to have ownership rights over minor forest produce such as bamboo, which can be sold in the market for income generation.
- Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.
Explanation:
- The recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927 allows for the transit of bamboo and other forest produce. However, it does not give the right to sell bamboo to forest dwellers.
- The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling communities to live in and access forest resources, including minor forest produce such as bamboo.
- Bamboo is considered a minor forest produce under the Forest Rights Act, which means that forest-dwelling communities have the right to collect, use, and dispose of it for their livelihood needs.
- The Forest Rights Act also allows forest-dwelling communities to have ownership rights over minor forest produce such as bamboo, which can be sold in the market for income generation.
- Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statement is correct?- a)It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
- b)It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
- c)The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
- d)The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statement is correct?
a)
It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
b)
It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
c)
The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
d)
The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.
 | Pooja Choudhury answered |
Vishti was considered as a source of income for the state, a sort of tax by the people.
Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, ·the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, ·the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, ·the in-charge of revenue collection was known as 'Amil'.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of 'Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Sanvi Kapoor answered |
In the Delhi Sultanate, the task of collecting revenue directly from peasant and measurement of land rested on Amils.
Iqta system evolved in West Asia significantly in Persia.
Mir Bhakshi was the head of militiary department in Mughal India whereas in Delhi Sultanate, Ariz under Diwan-i-arz (set up by Balban) was improved by Alauddin Khalji as he introduced Dagh system which was aimed to improve Horse quality as well as eliminate fake numbering.
Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of thr Government of the wetlands in the territory of India,
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were farmed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)3 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 2 only
- d)1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of thr Government of the wetlands in the territory of India,
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were farmed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of thr Government of the wetlands in the territory of India,
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were farmed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
3 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 2 only
d)
1,2 and 3
| | Tanishq Choudhury answered |
Statement 3 is Correct- Under the Wetlands (Conservation and Management Rules), 2010, Wetland" means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and man made wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority but does not include main river channels, paddy fields and the coastal wetland.
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statement is not correct?- a)Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
- b)Tansencomposed Dhrupads on Hindu ''gods and goddesses.
- c)Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
- d)Tansen invented many Ragas.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statement is not correct?
a)
Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
b)
Tansencomposed Dhrupads on Hindu ''gods and goddesses.
c)
Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
d)
Tansen invented many Ragas.
| | Neha Joshi answered |
Tansen was the title given by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandavagarh (Rewa).
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?- a)The proportion of literates in the population.
- b)The stock of its buildings, other than infrastructure and machines.
- c)The size of population in the working age group
- d)The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
a)
The proportion of literates in the population.
b)
The stock of its buildings, other than infrastructure and machines.
c)
The size of population in the working age group
d)
The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
| | Kajal Chopra answered |
Social capital is the willingness of people to help each other. It replaces money through which people buy the same help. The social capital of any country is measured through the level of trust and harmony among the people.
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?- a)Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
- b)The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
- c)The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
- d)It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
a)
Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
b)
The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
c)
The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
d)
It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
| | Debolina Chakraborty answered |
Under the Solid Waste Management, Rules 2016, waste processing facilities will have to be set up by all local bodies having 1 million or more population within two years. In case of census towns below 1 million population, setting up common, or stand-alone sanitary landfills by, or for all local bodies having 0.5 million or more population and for setting up common, or regional sanitary landfills by all local bodies and census towns under 0.5 million population will have to be completed in three years. Hence, rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for identification of landfill sites and waste processing facilities. Hence option C is correct.
Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams- Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector. Hence, option a is incorrect.
Waste generators would now have to now segregate waste into three streams- Biodegradables, Dry (Plastic, Paper, metal, Wood, etc.) and Domestic Hazardous waste (diapers, napkins, mosquito repellants, cleaning agents etc.) before handing it over to the collector. Hence, option a is incorrect.
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?- a)Chanhudaro
- b)Kot diji
- c)Sohgaura
- d)Desalpur
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
a)
Chanhudaro
b)
Kot diji
c)
Sohgaura
d)
Desalpur
| | Sasmita Rout answered |
Chanhudard & Desalpur are Harappan sites. Kot diji is contemporaneous to Harappan era. Sohgura, on the otherhand , is a famous for Ashokn era inscription.
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?- a)Kanganahalli
- b)Sanchi
- c)Shahnazgarhi
- d)Sohgaura
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
a)
Kanganahalli
b)
Sanchi
c)
Shahnazgarhi
d)
Sohgaura
 | Manoj Nair answered |
Kanaganahalli in Karnataka is the site with an inscription in Brahmi script reading Ranyo Ashoka and a sculpture of King Ashoka.
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?- a)Tobacco, Cocoa and rubber
- b)Tobacco, Cotton and rubber
- c)Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
- d)Rubber, coffee and Wheat
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
a)
Tobacco, Cocoa and rubber
b)
Tobacco, Cotton and rubber
c)
Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
d)
Rubber, coffee and Wheat
| | Devansh Ghoshal answered |
"New World" means the Americas which were discovered by European Powers such as Spain, Portuguese and French; Tobacco, Cocoa and Rubber were native crops of Americas and were introduced in the Old World (Asia).
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?- a)First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
- b)Rajamannar Committee (1969)
- c)Sarkaria Commission (1983)
- d)National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
a)
First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
b)
Rajamannar Committee (1969)
c)
Sarkaria Commission (1983)
d)
National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
| | Prisha Basak answered |
The ‘Sarkaria Commission’ recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and should be a detached figure without intense political links. Governor should not have taken part in politics in recent past and should not be a member of the ruling party. The Commission was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship between state and central governments.
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?- a)Increase in cash reserve ratio
- b)Increase in the banking habit of the population
- c)Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
- d)Increase in the population of the country
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
a)
Increase in cash reserve ratio
b)
Increase in the banking habit of the population
c)
Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
d)
Increase in the population of the country
| | Lakshmi Singh answered |
The money-multiplier is the maximum amount of broad money (M3 Money) that could be created by the commercial banks for a given fixed amount of base money or reserve ratios. Or, simply it can be stated that the maximum amount of money that the banking system generates with each rupees of reserves.
So, more the people will be linked with the banking system or have the habit of banking more will be the money in use in the form of loans, credits etc. that results an increase in economic activity. This will directly help in increase money multiplier in an economy. The money multiplier goes up because of the reduction in the cash reserve ratio (CRR).
So, more the people will be linked with the banking system or have the habit of banking more will be the money in use in the form of loans, credits etc. that results an increase in economic activity. This will directly help in increase money multiplier in an economy. The money multiplier goes up because of the reduction in the cash reserve ratio (CRR).
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below- a)Neither 1 nor 2
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)1 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below
1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below
a)
Neither 1 nor 2
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
1 only
| | Dhruv Yadav answered |
In Mughal India, Jagirdars under Mansabdari system were assigned land in lieu of assigned duties towards the empire such as police,judicial,military; Zamindars too apart from revenue collecting duties had to render military duties and perform Khidmat such as rendering soldiers to fill the ranks of royal army at times of need and offer gifts at the royal court.
Jagirdars were frequently transferred as promotion and demotion was a regular part of empire as loyalties towards Emperor were largely dependent on the rank of jagir/mansab held by a Noble; on the other hand, Zamindars had hereditary rights over revenue as their sway over rural society was overarching in all aspects which rested on paternal and patronage application of rituals.
Jagirdars were frequently transferred as promotion and demotion was a regular part of empire as loyalties towards Emperor were largely dependent on the rank of jagir/mansab held by a Noble; on the other hand, Zamindars had hereditary rights over revenue as their sway over rural society was overarching in all aspects which rested on paternal and patronage application of rituals.
Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?- a)Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
- b)Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
- c)The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on Cloudy nights.
- d)Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
a)
Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
b)
Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
c)
The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on Cloudy nights.
d)
Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
 | Shail Chavan answered |
Dew is a type of precipitation where water droplets form on the ground, or on objects near the ground in a process called condensation of moisture. The favorable weather elements for dew include clear skies, light wind, decent soil moisture, and low night-time dew point depressions.
Dew forms when the temperature becomes equal to the dew point. This often happens first at ground level for two reasons. First, longwave emission causes the earth's surface to cool at night.Cloud cover prevent this from happening as it reflect's earth's radiation.
Condensation requires the temperature to decrease to the dew point. Second, the soil is often the moisture source for the dew. Warm and moist soils will help with the formation of dew as the soil cools overnight.
Dew forms when the temperature becomes equal to the dew point. This often happens first at ground level for two reasons. First, longwave emission causes the earth's surface to cool at night.Cloud cover prevent this from happening as it reflect's earth's radiation.
Condensation requires the temperature to decrease to the dew point. Second, the soil is often the moisture source for the dew. Warm and moist soils will help with the formation of dew as the soil cools overnight.
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?- a)Third Schedule
- b)Fifth Schedule
- c)Ninth Schedule
- d)Twelfth Schedule
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
a)
Third Schedule
b)
Fifth Schedule
c)
Ninth Schedule
d)
Twelfth Schedule
| | Sanjana Roy answered |
Grant of mineral concessions in Scheduled Areas is guided by the provisions contained in article 244 along with Fifth and Sixth Schedules to the Constitution relating to administration of the Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas and the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 and the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 or any other relevant statutory acts protecting the interests of tribals.
Under the fifth Schedule, the Governor may by public notification direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or any part thereof in the State or shall apply to a Scheduled Area.
Under the fifth Schedule, the Governor may by public notification direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or any part thereof in the State or shall apply to a Scheduled Area.
Why is there a great concern about the ‘micro beads’ that are released into environment?- a)They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems
- b)They are considered to cause skin cancer in children
- c)They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields
- d)They are often found to be used as food adulterants
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Why is there a great concern about the ‘micro beads’ that are released into environment?
a)
They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems
b)
They are considered to cause skin cancer in children
c)
They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields
d)
They are often found to be used as food adulterants
| | Akanksha Bose answered |
Microbeads are small, solid, manufactured plastic particles that are less than 5mm and don’t degrade or dissolve in water. They may be added to a range of products, including rinse-off cosmetics, personal care and cleaning products. They are considered harmful to marine and aquatic ecosystem.
With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2, 3 and 4 only
- c)2 and 4 only
- d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Q. Which of the statements given above is are/correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2, 3 and 4 only
c)
2 and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3 and 4
| | Anisha Yadav answered |
Statement 1 is correct: The area under rice crop was 43.86 million hectares during 2014-15. While the area under wheat is around 30 Million hectares in 2017-18
Statement 2 is not correct: Area under cultivation of Jowar is 5.14 million hectares in 2016-17 while that under oilseed is 26.21 million hectares in 2016-17
Statement 3 is correct: Area under cotton cultivation in India is 10.85 million hectares.
Statement 4 is not correct: Area under Sugarcane has increased in India from 4.42 million hectares in 2008-09 to 5.04 million hectares in 2012-13 to 4.39 million hectares in 2016-17
Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018
1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Niti Mehta answered |
The government has notified fixed term employment for all sectors through an amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946. Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire-and-fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen. Hence, statement 1 is correct. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension These chemicals are used as- a)Pesticides in agriculture
- b)Preservative in processed foods
- c)Fruit-ripening agents
- d)Moisturising agents in cosmetics
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension These chemicals are used as
a)
Pesticides in agriculture
b)
Preservative in processed foods
c)
Fruit-ripening agents
d)
Moisturising agents in cosmetics
| | Mohit Chakraborty answered |
Carbofuran, Phorate and Triazophos are pesticides used in agriculture.
To promote organic farming in Kerala, the state agriculture department had ordered a ban on the use of pesticides on May 7. Kerala Agriculture University was asked to provide alternatives to the banned pesticides, which include carbofuran, phorate, methyl parathion, monocrotophos, methyl demethon, prophenophos and triazophos. The university suggested less hazardous pesticides, like acephate, carbaryl, dimethoate and flubendiamide. Hence option A is correct.
To promote organic farming in Kerala, the state agriculture department had ordered a ban on the use of pesticides on May 7. Kerala Agriculture University was asked to provide alternatives to the banned pesticides, which include carbofuran, phorate, methyl parathion, monocrotophos, methyl demethon, prophenophos and triazophos. The university suggested less hazardous pesticides, like acephate, carbaryl, dimethoate and flubendiamide. Hence option A is correct.
Recently scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?- a)‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
- b)‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
- c)Possibility of Inter- galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
- d)It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Recently scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
a)
‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
b)
‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
c)
Possibility of Inter- galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
d)
It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.
| | Shraddha Tiwari answered |
When the two supermassive black holes in each of these systems finally come together in millions of years, their encounters will produce strong gravitational waves. Gravitational waves produced by the collision of two stellar-mass black holes have already been detected by the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO). Observatories such as the planned NASA/ESA space-based Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (LISA) will be able to detect the lower-frequency gravitational waves from supermassive black-hole mergers, which are a million times more massive than those detected by LIGO
In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?- a)Extraction of rare earth elements
- b)Natural gas extraction technologies
- c)Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
- d)Waste-to-energy technologies
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?
a)
Extraction of rare earth elements
b)
Natural gas extraction technologies
c)
Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
d)
Waste-to-energy technologies
| | Athul Sen answered |
In developing Three-Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20), the Niti Aayog has drawn a broader framework for addressing the issue of municipal solid waste (MSW). The solution being suggested by the Action Agenda is twin-fold: waste-to-energy incinerators for bigger municipalities and composting method of waste disposal for small towns and semi-urban areas. While proposing incineration as a solution, the Niti Aayog has also assessed the benefit-cost ratio of thermal pyrolysis and plasma gasification technologies.
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Index?- a)Maintenance of law and order.
- b)Paying taxes
- c)Registering property
- d)Dealing with construction permits
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Index?
a)
Maintenance of law and order.
b)
Paying taxes
c)
Registering property
d)
Dealing with construction permits
| | Niharika Roy answered |
A) Global Competitiveness Index
b) Ease of Doing Business Index
c) Human Development Index
d) Corruption Perceptions Index
a) Global Competitiveness Index is not a sub-index of the World Bank. It is a separate index created by the World Economic Forum.
b) Ease of Doing Business Index
c) Human Development Index
d) Corruption Perceptions Index
a) Global Competitiveness Index is not a sub-index of the World Bank. It is a separate index created by the World Economic Forum.
Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) Is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Q. Which one of the statements given above is correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) Is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Q. Which one of the statements given above is correct?
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) Is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Q. Which one of the statements given above is correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Srestha Kulkarni answered |
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under ‘The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006’ to protect the interests of consumers and organisations engaged in petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas sector. The Board works to foster fair trade and competition amongst the entities. The appeals against the decisions of the Board go before the Appellate Tribunal established under section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003
Which one of the following statements is not correct?- a)Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
- b)Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
- c)Globally, the numbers of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
- d)Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a)
Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
b)
Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
c)
Globally, the numbers of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
d)
Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
| | Gargi Kumar answered |
Explanation:
Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are both viral infections that attack the liver. However, there are some differences between the two viruses. The statement that is not correct is option B, which says that Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. This statement is incorrect as there is a vaccine available for Hepatitis B, but not for Hepatitis C.
Here are some key points to help understand the differences between Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C:
Transmission:
- Both viruses are transmitted through contact with infected blood or bodily fluids.
- Hepatitis B can also be transmitted through sexual contact, sharing needles, and from mother to baby during childbirth.
- Hepatitis C is primarily transmitted through sharing needles or other injection equipment.
Vaccine:
- There is a vaccine available for Hepatitis B, which is recommended for all infants and children, as well as for adults who are at increased risk of infection.
- There is currently no vaccine available for Hepatitis C.
Symptoms:
- Both viruses can cause similar symptoms, including fatigue, nausea, and jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes).
- However, many people with Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C do not experience any symptoms at all.
- In some cases, the viruses can lead to chronic liver disease, liver failure, or liver cancer.
Prevention:
- The best way to prevent both Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C is to avoid contact with infected blood or bodily fluids.
- This can be done by using condoms during sexual activity, not sharing needles or injection equipment, and getting vaccinated for Hepatitis B if recommended.
Prevalence:
- Globally, it is estimated that there are over 250 million people living with Hepatitis B and over 70 million people living with Hepatitis C.
- This is several times more than the estimated 38 million people living with HIV.
In conclusion, while both Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are serious viral infections that impact the liver, there are some key differences between the two viruses. It is important to get vaccinated for Hepatitis B if recommended and to take steps to prevent both infections through safe sex practices and avoiding sharing needles or injection equipment.
Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are both viral infections that attack the liver. However, there are some differences between the two viruses. The statement that is not correct is option B, which says that Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. This statement is incorrect as there is a vaccine available for Hepatitis B, but not for Hepatitis C.
Here are some key points to help understand the differences between Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C:
Transmission:
- Both viruses are transmitted through contact with infected blood or bodily fluids.
- Hepatitis B can also be transmitted through sexual contact, sharing needles, and from mother to baby during childbirth.
- Hepatitis C is primarily transmitted through sharing needles or other injection equipment.
Vaccine:
- There is a vaccine available for Hepatitis B, which is recommended for all infants and children, as well as for adults who are at increased risk of infection.
- There is currently no vaccine available for Hepatitis C.
Symptoms:
- Both viruses can cause similar symptoms, including fatigue, nausea, and jaundice (yellowing of the skin and eyes).
- However, many people with Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C do not experience any symptoms at all.
- In some cases, the viruses can lead to chronic liver disease, liver failure, or liver cancer.
Prevention:
- The best way to prevent both Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C is to avoid contact with infected blood or bodily fluids.
- This can be done by using condoms during sexual activity, not sharing needles or injection equipment, and getting vaccinated for Hepatitis B if recommended.
Prevalence:
- Globally, it is estimated that there are over 250 million people living with Hepatitis B and over 70 million people living with Hepatitis C.
- This is several times more than the estimated 38 million people living with HIV.
In conclusion, while both Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are serious viral infections that impact the liver, there are some key differences between the two viruses. It is important to get vaccinated for Hepatitis B if recommended and to take steps to prevent both infections through safe sex practices and avoiding sharing needles or injection equipment.
What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?- a)To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit.
- b)To support the infrastructure projects of central and state governments.
- c)To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 Crore or more.
- d)To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 Crore or more which are under consortium lending.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
a)
To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit.
b)
To support the infrastructure projects of central and state governments.
c)
To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 Crore or more.
d)
To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 Crore or more which are under consortium lending.
| | Saptarshi Majumdar answered |
Indian banks and financial institutions signed an Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) on July 23, 2018 to fast-track the resolution of stressed assets of Rs 500 crore or above that are under consortium lending. The ICA, a part of Project Sashakt, was signed by 22 public sector banks including SBI, India Post Payments Bank; 19 private sector banks; and 32 foreign banks.
Consider the following statements :
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The supreme court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 Only
- b)2 Only
- c)Both 1 & 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements :
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The supreme court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The supreme court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 Only
b)
2 Only
c)
Both 1 & 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Mehul Malik answered |
In 1975, Parliament passed the Thirty-ninth amendment to the Constitution which removed the authority of the Supreme Court to adjudicate petitions regarding elections of the President, Vice President, Prime Minister and Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Instead, a body constituted by Parliament would be vested with the power to resolve such election disputes.
So, option 1 is incorrect.
Supreme court struck down 99th amendment as it impinges upon the principles of “independence of the judiciary”, as well as, “separation of powers”
So, option 1 is incorrect.
Supreme court struck down 99th amendment as it impinges upon the principles of “independence of the judiciary”, as well as, “separation of powers”
Consider the following statements:
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
 | Avantika Ahuja answered |
The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is set up at both central and state levels for expeditious and transparent utilisation of funds released for forest land diverted for non-forest purpose. Compensatory afforestation means afforestation done in lieu of diversion of forest land for non forest use. For this purpose, funds are collected from the company to whom the forest land is diverted.
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?- a)Manas National Park
- b)Namdapha National Par
- c)Neora Valley National Park
- d)Valley of Flowers, National Park
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
a)
Manas National Park
b)
Namdapha National Par
c)
Neora Valley National Park
d)
Valley of Flowers, National Park
| | Athul Chauhan answered |
The Valley of Flowers national park located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand and is known for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and the variety of flora.Situated approximately 3255m above sea level, this splendid park is spread across 87.5 sq km of land.
The valley has three sub-alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and 3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m.
The rich diversity of species reflects the valley's location within a transition zone between the Zanskar and Great Himalayas ranges to the north and south, respectively, and between the Eastern Himalaya and Western Himalaya flora.
The valley has three sub-alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and 3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m.
The rich diversity of species reflects the valley's location within a transition zone between the Zanskar and Great Himalayas ranges to the north and south, respectively, and between the Eastern Himalaya and Western Himalaya flora.
Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1,2 and 3
| | Pritam Chaudhary answered |
Asiatic lions that once ranged from Persia (Iran) to Palamau in Eastern India were almost driven to extinction by indiscriminate hunting and habitat loss. A single population of less than 50 lions persisted in the Gir forests of Gujarat by late 1890's. With timely and stringent protection offered by the State Government and the Center Government, Asiatic lions have increased to the current population of over 500 numbers. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The double-hump camel is a native of Gobi desert, and is found on a vast expanse of cold-desert areas across Mongolia, China, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and parts of Afghanistan. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct. The populations of one horned rhinoceros have increased to around 3,500 rhinos in northeastern India and the Terai grasslands of Nepal. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.
Chapter doubts & questions for 2019 - UPSC Previous Year Question Papers and Video Analysis 2026 is part of UPSC CSE exam preparation. The chapters have been prepared according to the UPSC CSE exam syllabus. The Chapter doubts & questions, notes, tests & MCQs are made for UPSC CSE 2026 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests here.
Chapter doubts & questions of 2019 - UPSC Previous Year Question Papers and Video Analysis in English & Hindi are available as part of UPSC CSE exam. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for UPSC CSE Exam by signing up for free.
UPSC Previous Year Question Papers and Video Analysis228 videos|459 docs|21 tests |
