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All questions of 2018 for UPSC CSE Exam
Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship of domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated of omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Q. Which of the statements give above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 or 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship of domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated of omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Q. Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship of domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated of omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Q. Which of the statements give above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 or 2
 | Pooja Choudhury answered |
Statement 1 is not correct: The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 says that the number can’t be used as proof of citizenship or domicile.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Aadhaar Act regulations, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The regulations give the Authority the power to deactivate Aadhaar numbers even in the absence of an effective grievance redressal procedure for those whose numbers have been suspended.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Aadhaar Act regulations, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The regulations give the Authority the power to deactivate Aadhaar numbers even in the absence of an effective grievance redressal procedure for those whose numbers have been suspended.
In which of the following areas can GPS technology is used ?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below :- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
In which of the following areas can GPS technology is used ?
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. Mobile phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Bimlesh Kaur answered |
The doubling of mobile data use caused by the increase in 3G connections boosts GDP per capita growth rate by 0.5% globally. The Internet accounts for 3.4% of overall GDP in some economies. Most of this effect is driven by e-commerce – people advertising and selling goods online.
Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if- a)Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
- b)Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
- c)Poverty and unemployment increase.
- d)Imports grow faster than exports.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if
a)
Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
b)
Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
c)
Poverty and unemployment increase.
d)
Imports grow faster than exports.
| | Pooja Shah answered |
An essential aspect of development is to enable the maximum number to experience the fruits of development. Concepts of per capita income (per capita GDP or per capita NSDP) are not able to capture this aspect of development.
There may be a case wherein increase in absolute and per capita GNP is reflective of growth in income of a small section of society and that majority of the population is poverty stricken and unemployed. Multi-dimensional non-monetary social indicators are better reflectors of overall economic development in the society.
There may be a case wherein increase in absolute and per capita GNP is reflective of growth in income of a small section of society and that majority of the population is poverty stricken and unemployed. Multi-dimensional non-monetary social indicators are better reflectors of overall economic development in the society.
When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognizes the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.
Q. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?- a)Border Gateway Protocol
- b)Internet of Things
- c)Internet Protocol
- d)Virtual Private Network
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognizes the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.
Q. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?
Q. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?
a)
Border Gateway Protocol
b)
Internet of Things
c)
Internet Protocol
d)
Virtual Private Network
 | Amit Kumar answered |
What Is The Internet Of Things?
The Internet of Things, or IoT, refers to billions of physical devices around the world that are now connected to the internet, collecting and sharing data.
This can be anything from cellphones, coffee makers, washing machines, headphones, lamps, wearable devices and almost anything else you can think of.
How Does This Impact You?
There are many examples for what this might look like or what the potential value might be. Say for example you are on your way to a meeting; your car could have access to your calendar and already know the best route to take. If the traffic is heavy your car might send a text to the other party notifying them that you will be late. What if your alarm clock wakes up you at 6 a.m. and then notifies your coffee maker to start brewing coffee for you? What is an example of an Internet of Things device?
A lightbulb that can be switched on using a smartphone app is an IoT device, as is a motion sensor or a smart thermostat in your office or a connected streetlight. An IoT device could be as fluffy as a child's toy or as serious as a driverless truck.At an even bigger scale, smart cities projects are filling entire regions with sensors to help us understand and control the environment.
The Internet of Things, or IoT, refers to billions of physical devices around the world that are now connected to the internet, collecting and sharing data.
This can be anything from cellphones, coffee makers, washing machines, headphones, lamps, wearable devices and almost anything else you can think of.
How Does This Impact You?
There are many examples for what this might look like or what the potential value might be. Say for example you are on your way to a meeting; your car could have access to your calendar and already know the best route to take. If the traffic is heavy your car might send a text to the other party notifying them that you will be late. What if your alarm clock wakes up you at 6 a.m. and then notifies your coffee maker to start brewing coffee for you? What is an example of an Internet of Things device?
A lightbulb that can be switched on using a smartphone app is an IoT device, as is a motion sensor or a smart thermostat in your office or a connected streetlight. An IoT device could be as fluffy as a child's toy or as serious as a driverless truck.At an even bigger scale, smart cities projects are filling entire regions with sensors to help us understand and control the environment.
Consider the following statement :
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by concerned state Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of Teacher education institutions are directly under the State Government.
Q. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3
- d)3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statement :
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by concerned state Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of Teacher education institutions are directly under the State Government.
Q. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by concerned state Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of Teacher education institutions are directly under the State Government.
Q. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 3
d)
3 only
| | Pooja Shah answered |
Statement 1 is not correct: In accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has laid down the minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in class I to VIII, vide its Notification dated August 23, 2010. Statement 2 is correct: One of the essential qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in any of the primary schools is that he/she should pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) which will be conducted by the appropriate Government.
Statement 3 is not correct: From the mid-1960s to 1993, the number of TEIs in India went up from about 1,200 to about 1,500. After the NCTE was set up, the number of TEIs exploded, to about 16,000 (over 90% private) by 2011.
Statement 3 is not correct: From the mid-1960s to 1993, the number of TEIs in India went up from about 1,200 to about 1,500. After the NCTE was set up, the number of TEIs exploded, to about 16,000 (over 90% private) by 2011.
Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to- a)Weak administrative machinery
- b)Illiteracy
- c)High population density
- d)High capital-output ratio
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to
a)
Weak administrative machinery
b)
Illiteracy
c)
High population density
d)
High capital-output ratio
 | Akshara Desai answered |
Capital formation means increasing the stock of real capital in a country. In other words, capital formation involves making of more capital goods such as machines, tools, factories, transport equipment, materials, electricity, etc., which are all used for future production of goods. For making additions to the stock of Capital, saving and investment are essential.
Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. For example, suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the economic growth corresponding to this level of investment is 8%. Here, a Rs 32 investment produces an output of Rs 8. Capital output ratio is 32/8 or 4. In other words, to produce one unit of output, 4 unit of capital is needed.
Hence, if the capital-output ratio is high, there will not be significant increase in output despite high savings and investment.
Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output. For example, suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the economic growth corresponding to this level of investment is 8%. Here, a Rs 32 investment produces an output of Rs 8. Capital output ratio is 32/8 or 4. In other words, to produce one unit of output, 4 unit of capital is needed.
Hence, if the capital-output ratio is high, there will not be significant increase in output despite high savings and investment.
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection ) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to- a)ILO
- b)IMF
- c)UNCTAD
- d)WTO
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection ) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
a)
ILO
b)
IMF
c)
UNCTAD
d)
WTO
| | Poonam Reddy answered |
Geographical Indications of Goods are defined as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the geographical indication referring to a country or to a place situated therein as being the country or place of origin of that product. Typically, such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness which is essentially attributable to the fact of its origin in that defined geographical locality, region or country. Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications are covered as an element of IPRs. They are also covered under Articles 22 to 24 of the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which was part of the Agreements concluding the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations.
India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force with effect from 15th September 2003.
India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force with effect from 15th September 2003.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1,2 and 3
 | Sagarika Desai answered |
Statement 1 is correct. Earth's magnetic field has flipped its polarity many times over the millennia. Magnetic Reversals are the rule, not the exception. Earth has settled in the last 20 million years into a pattern of a magnetic pole reversal about every 200,000 to 300,000 years.
Statement 2 is not correct. When Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago, it had almost no atmosphere. As Earth cooled, an atmosphere formed mainly from gases spewed from volcanoes. It included hydrogen sulfide, methane, and 10 to 200 times as much carbon dioxide as today’s atmosphere.
Statement 3 is correct. Living organisms includes plants and microbes. Life started to have a major impact on the environment once photosynthetic organisms evolved. While photosynthetic life reduced the carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere, it also started to produce oxygen. So, when living beings originated, they did modify the atmosphere.
Statement 2 is not correct. When Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago, it had almost no atmosphere. As Earth cooled, an atmosphere formed mainly from gases spewed from volcanoes. It included hydrogen sulfide, methane, and 10 to 200 times as much carbon dioxide as today’s atmosphere.
Statement 3 is correct. Living organisms includes plants and microbes. Life started to have a major impact on the environment once photosynthetic organisms evolved. While photosynthetic life reduced the carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere, it also started to produce oxygen. So, when living beings originated, they did modify the atmosphere.
With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtana are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 and 4 only
- c)1, 2 and 3
- d)2, 3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtana are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtana are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Q. Which of the statements given above are correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 and 4 only
c)
1, 2 and 3
d)
2, 3 and 4
| | Dipanjan Das answered |
Statement 1 is not correct. Most of Tyagaraja’s songs were in praise of Rama, who, like Krishna, is believed to be an incarnation of the god Vishnu.
Statement 2 is correct. Tyagaraja is credited with various musical innovations, including the use of a structured variation of musical lines within the performance, a practice that may have been derived from improvisatory techniques.
Statement 3 is not correct. Tyagaraja belonged to the 18th century and Annamacharya to the 15th century. Statement 4 is correct. Annamācārya was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu.
Statement 2 is correct. Tyagaraja is credited with various musical innovations, including the use of a structured variation of musical lines within the performance, a practice that may have been derived from improvisatory techniques.
Statement 3 is not correct. Tyagaraja belonged to the 18th century and Annamacharya to the 15th century. Statement 4 is correct. Annamācārya was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu.
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Moumita Menon answered |
The correct answer is option C: 2 and 3 only.
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The objective of PMKVY is to provide skill development training to the youth of the country to enhance their employability and livelihood opportunities.
Here is an explanation of the given statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
This statement is incorrect. PMKVY is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). The MSDE is responsible for the coordination of all skill development efforts across the country, including the PMKVY scheme.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
This statement is correct. The PMKVY scheme aims to provide training to the youth in various sectors and job roles, including soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy. These additional skills are important in today's competitive job market and can enhance the employability of the candidates.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
This statement is correct. The PMKVY scheme aims to align the skills and competencies of the unregulated workforce in the country with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF). The NSQF is a competency-based framework that organizes all qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills, and aptitude.
In conclusion, statement 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option C: 2 and 3 only.
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The objective of PMKVY is to provide skill development training to the youth of the country to enhance their employability and livelihood opportunities.
Here is an explanation of the given statements:
1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
This statement is incorrect. PMKVY is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). The MSDE is responsible for the coordination of all skill development efforts across the country, including the PMKVY scheme.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
This statement is correct. The PMKVY scheme aims to provide training to the youth in various sectors and job roles, including soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy. These additional skills are important in today's competitive job market and can enhance the employability of the candidates.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
This statement is correct. The PMKVY scheme aims to align the skills and competencies of the unregulated workforce in the country with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF). The NSQF is a competency-based framework that organizes all qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills, and aptitude.
In conclusion, statement 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is option C: 2 and 3 only.
Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?- a)If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
- b)If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
- c)If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
- d)If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
a)
If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
b)
If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
c)
If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
d)
If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
| | Poonam Reddy answered |
The term 'liberty' means absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individuals.
However, liberty does not mean 'license' to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution and various laws. The concept of liberty is not absolute. Absense of laws does not ensure liberty.
However, liberty does not mean 'license' to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the Constitution and various laws. The concept of liberty is not absolute. Absense of laws does not ensure liberty.
Which one of the following is an artificial lake?- a)Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
- b)Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
- c)Nainital (Uttarakhand)
- d)Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following is an artificial lake?
a)
Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
b)
Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
c)
Nainital (Uttarakhand)
d)
Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
 | Ritika Choudhury answered |
Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamilnadu, India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from USA.
Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?- a)B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
- b)Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
- c)C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
- d)Ashok Mehta. T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?
a)
B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
b)
Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
c)
C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
d)
Ashok Mehta. T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
 | Rajesh Kulkarni answered |
United Nations?
The founders of the United Nations were representatives from 50 countries who participated in the United Nations Conference on International Organization in San Francisco in 1945. Some of the key figures involved in the creation of the UN include:
1. Franklin D. Roosevelt - President of the United States during WWII and a strong proponent of international cooperation.
2. Winston Churchill - Prime Minister of the United Kingdom and a key ally of the US during WWII.
3. Joseph Stalin - Leader of the Soviet Union and one of the "Big Three" Allied leaders during WWII.
4. Harry S. Truman - Succeeded Roosevelt as President of the US and played a key role in the early years of the UN.
5. Trygve Lie - The first Secretary-General of the UN, who helped to establish the organization's structure and functions.
The founders of the United Nations were representatives from 50 countries who participated in the United Nations Conference on International Organization in San Francisco in 1945. Some of the key figures involved in the creation of the UN include:
1. Franklin D. Roosevelt - President of the United States during WWII and a strong proponent of international cooperation.
2. Winston Churchill - Prime Minister of the United Kingdom and a key ally of the US during WWII.
3. Joseph Stalin - Leader of the Soviet Union and one of the "Big Three" Allied leaders during WWII.
4. Harry S. Truman - Succeeded Roosevelt as President of the US and played a key role in the early years of the UN.
5. Trygve Lie - The first Secretary-General of the UN, who helped to establish the organization's structure and functions.
Regarding wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Regarding wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Abhiram Rane answered |
In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a despatch on an educational system for India. Considered the "Magna Carta of English Education in. India", this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India.
1. It asked the Government of India to assume responsibility for education of the masses, thus repudiating the 'downward filtration theory', at least on paper.
2. It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. Statement 3 is not correct.
3. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.
4. It laid stress on female and vocational, education, and on teachers' training.
5 . It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.
Statement 1 is correct.
6. It recommended a system of grantsin-aid to encourage private enterprise.
Statement 2 is correct. The Despatch recommended the establishment of universities in the three Presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. The universities were to be modeled after the London University and these were to have a senate comprising of a Chancellor, a Vice-Chancellor, and fellows who were nominated by the Government. The Universities would confer degrees to the successful candidates after passing the examinations, (of Science or Arts Streams) conducted by the Senate. The universities were to organize departments not only of English but also of Arabic, Sanskrit and Persian, as well as law and civil engineering.
1. It asked the Government of India to assume responsibility for education of the masses, thus repudiating the 'downward filtration theory', at least on paper.
2. It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo-Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. Statement 3 is not correct.
3. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.
4. It laid stress on female and vocational, education, and on teachers' training.
5 . It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.
Statement 1 is correct.
6. It recommended a system of grantsin-aid to encourage private enterprise.
Statement 2 is correct. The Despatch recommended the establishment of universities in the three Presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. The universities were to be modeled after the London University and these were to have a senate comprising of a Chancellor, a Vice-Chancellor, and fellows who were nominated by the Government. The Universities would confer degrees to the successful candidates after passing the examinations, (of Science or Arts Streams) conducted by the Senate. The universities were to organize departments not only of English but also of Arabic, Sanskrit and Persian, as well as law and civil engineering.
Consider the following items:
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1, 2 and 4 only
- d)1,2,3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following items:
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
1. Cereal grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1, 2 and 4 only
d)
1,2,3 and 4
| | Meghana Sharma answered |
The correct answer is C as Fish processed and canned is not exempted from GST while all other options are exempted.
Among the following cities, Which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?- a)Bengaluru
- b)Hyderabad
- c)Nagpur
- d)Pune
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Among the following cities, Which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
a)
Bengaluru
b)
Hyderabad
c)
Nagpur
d)
Pune
 | Neha Joshi answered |
Delhi and Bengaluru are located almost on the same longitude.
Longitude of Delhi- 77.1025° E
Longitude of Bengaluru- 77.5946° E
longitude of Hyderabad- 78.4867° E
longitude of Nagpur- 79.0882° E
longitude of pune- 73.8567° E
Longitude of Delhi- 77.1025° E
Longitude of Bengaluru- 77.5946° E
longitude of Hyderabad- 78.4867° E
longitude of Nagpur- 79.0882° E
longitude of pune- 73.8567° E
With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)1 and 2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq.km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
1 and 2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
None
| | Gowri Patel answered |
Statement 1 is correct: The space segment consists of the IRNSS constellation of Seven satellites, NavIC. Three satellites are located in suitable orbital slots in the geostationary orbit and the remaining four are located in geosynchronous orbits with the required inclination and equatorial crossings in two different planes.
Statement 2 is not correct: IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.
Statement 3 is not correct: India will not have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Statement 2 is not correct: IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.
Statement 3 is not correct: India will not have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)2 only
- d)1 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
2 only
d)
1 and 3
 | Garima Choudhury answered |
As per NASA, over the last 50 years, Aral Sea has shrunk by about 75% of its original size mainly because of water diversion for agricultural usages in surrounding areas. Also from a depth of 68 meters in the 1960s, today it stands at less than 10 meters. In Lake Baikal, water level has gone below the critical mark of 456m eleven times since 1962. Thus, while Aral Sea has dried up immensely, Lake Baikal shows more of a fluctuating regime and shrinkage is not comparable to that of Aral Sea.
Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?- a)Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
- b)It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
- c)Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
- d)None of the above.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?
a)
Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
b)
It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
c)
Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
d)
None of the above.
| | Ritika Choudhury answered |
Prosopis juliflora (P juliflora), an exotic tree, is one of the top invaders in India. A native of South and Central America, it was introduced in India to meet the fuel and wood requirement of the rural poor and to restore degraded lands. A recent study has shown that apart from threatening local plants, with whom it competes for resources, this tree is also affecting the nesting success of birds.
Which among the following events happened earliest?- a)Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
- b)Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
- c)Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
- d)Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which among the following events happened earliest?
a)
Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj.
b)
Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
c)
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
d)
Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination.
 | Avi Mehra answered |
1. Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj - 1875
2. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan - 1858-59
3. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath - 1882
4. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination – 1863
2. Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan - 1858-59
3. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath - 1882
4. Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination – 1863
Consider the following statements:
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Ritika Datta answered |
Statement 1 is correct. India occupies a prominent position in the world oilseeds industry with contribution of around 10% in worldwide production. But the demand of edible oils (extracted from oilseeds in addition to palm oil) is significantly higher than the domestic production, leading to dependence on imports (60% of requirement).
Statement 2 is not correct. Government imposes customs duty on edible oils to safeguard the interests of domestic oil crushing industry. The duty on two major edible oils, namely crude sunflower seed oil and crude canola/rapeseed/mustard is 25 per cent, while crude soyabean oil attracts 30 per cent duty.
Statement 2 is not correct. Government imposes customs duty on edible oils to safeguard the interests of domestic oil crushing industry. The duty on two major edible oils, namely crude sunflower seed oil and crude canola/rapeseed/mustard is 25 per cent, while crude soyabean oil attracts 30 per cent duty.
The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to- a)Exoplanets
- b)Cryptocurrency
- c)Cyber attacks
- d)Mini satellites
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The terms ‘WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
a)
Exoplanets
b)
Cryptocurrency
c)
Cyber attacks
d)
Mini satellites
 | Gaurav Choudhary answered |
These all are the names of Virus attacks that took place in the last few years.
The term “Two-State Solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of- a)China
- b)Israel
- c)Iraq
- d)Yemen
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The term “Two-State Solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
a)
China
b)
Israel
c)
Iraq
d)
Yemen
| | Neha Joshi answered |
Two- State Solution of Israel Palestine Issue: It envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel west of Jordan river. The UNSC Resolution 1397 agreed in 2000 with support from USA and becoming first UNSC resolution to agree on two state solution
The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were- a)Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
- b)Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
- c)Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
- d)Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were
a)
Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
b)
Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
c)
Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
d)
Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
 | Meera Singh answered |
Cotton, raw silk, saltpetre, opium were the major commodities exported from Bengal by the English East India Company.
Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the opposition” was recognized for the first times in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha , if a party does not have minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
Q. Which of the statement given above is / are correct?- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the opposition” was recognized for the first times in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha , if a party does not have minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
Q. Which of the statement given above is / are correct?
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the opposition” was recognized for the first times in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha , if a party does not have minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
Q. Which of the statement given above is / are correct?
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1,2 and 3
 | Kaavya Dey answered |
Statement 1 is not correct: The Congress party won 364 of the 489 seats in the first Lok Sabha and finished way ahead of any other challenger. The Communist Party of India that came next in terms of seats won only 16 seats.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1969, an official leader of opposition was recognised for the first time. However, it was given statutory recognition in 1977.
Statement 3 is not correct: The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than onetenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as the leader of Opposition in that House.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1969, an official leader of opposition was recognised for the first time. However, it was given statutory recognition in 1977.
Statement 3 is not correct: The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than onetenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as the leader of Opposition in that House.
“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of following?- a)Amnesty International
- b)International Court of Justice
- c)The office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
- d)World Justice Project
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of following?
a)
Amnesty International
b)
International Court of Justice
c)
The office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
d)
World Justice Project
| | Garima Menon answered |
The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived by the general public across the globe. It is the world’s leading source for original, independent data on the rule of law.
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE),a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies,emerged at- a)The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002,Johannesburg
- b)The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012,Rio de Janerio
- c)The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015,Paris
- d)The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016,New Delhi
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE),a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies,emerged at
a)
The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002,Johannesburg
b)
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012,Rio de Janerio
c)
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015,Paris
d)
The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016,New Delhi
| | Ruchi Choudhury answered |
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories. PAGE seeks to put sustainability at the heart of economic policies and practices to advance the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and supports nations and regions in reframing economic policies and practices around sustainability to foster economic growth, create income and jobs, reduce poverty and inequality, and strengthen the ecological foundations of their economies.
PAGE brings together five UN agencies – UN Environment, International Labour Organization, UN Development Programme, UN Industrial Development Organization, and UN Institute for Training and Research – whose mandates, expertises and networks combined can offer integrated and holistic support to countries on inclusive green economy, ensuring coherence and avoiding duplication.
PAGE brings together five UN agencies – UN Environment, International Labour Organization, UN Development Programme, UN Industrial Development Organization, and UN Institute for Training and Research – whose mandates, expertises and networks combined can offer integrated and holistic support to countries on inclusive green economy, ensuring coherence and avoiding duplication.
Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?
1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?
1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Mohit Goyal answered |
In order to transform the entire ecosystem of public services through the use of information technology, the Government of India has launched the Digital India programme with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy.
Under the Digital India Plan, NII would integrate the network and cloud infrastructure in the country to provide high speed connectivity and cloud platform to various government departments up to the panchayat level. Cities with population of over 1 million and tourist centres would be provided with public wi-fi hotspots to promote digital cities. The scheme would be implemented by DoT and Ministry of Urban Development (MoUD). Hence, only statement 3 is correct.
Under the Digital India Plan, NII would integrate the network and cloud infrastructure in the country to provide high speed connectivity and cloud platform to various government departments up to the panchayat level. Cities with population of over 1 million and tourist centres would be provided with public wi-fi hotspots to promote digital cities. The scheme would be implemented by DoT and Ministry of Urban Development (MoUD). Hence, only statement 3 is correct.
With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power traffics are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power traffics are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power traffics are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Athul Chauhan answered |
Statement 1 is not correct. Manufacture of solar panels (also called modules) start with polysilicon, which is made from silicon. Polysilicon is made into ingots, which are cut into wafers. Cells are made with wafers and a string of cells is a module. Today, only modules and cells are made in India, with imported material. At present, the only incentives available for manufacturing these is the Modified-Special Incentive Package Scheme, which is available to all electronic goods manufacturers and implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, but there have been few takers for the scheme.
Statement 2 is not correct. "Solar Energy Corporation of India ltd" (SECI) is a CPSU under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It aims to become the leader in development of large scale solar installations, solar plants and solar parks and to promote and commercialize the use of solar energy to reach remotest corner of India. It also explores new technologies and their deployment to harness solar energy.
Solar Power tariffs are determined either through the regulations of Central Electricity Regulatory Commission/State Electricity Regulatory Commission or through competitive bidding.
Statement 2 is not correct. "Solar Energy Corporation of India ltd" (SECI) is a CPSU under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It aims to become the leader in development of large scale solar installations, solar plants and solar parks and to promote and commercialize the use of solar energy to reach remotest corner of India. It also explores new technologies and their deployment to harness solar energy.
Solar Power tariffs are determined either through the regulations of Central Electricity Regulatory Commission/State Electricity Regulatory Commission or through competitive bidding.
Consider the following pairs:
Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Q. Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?- a)1 and 2
- b)1 and 4
- c)2 and 3
- d)3 and 4
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following pairs:
Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Q. Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Q. Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 4
c)
2 and 3
d)
3 and 4
| | Prisha Basak answered |
Correctly matched pairs of Towns mentioned in news and their respective countries are as follows:
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Iraq
3. Mosul - Iraq
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Explanation:
- Aleppo: It is a city in Syria that has been in news for the ongoing Syrian civil war and the battle between the Syrian government forces and the opposition groups.
- Kirkuk: It is a city in Iraq that has been in news due to the conflict between the Iraqi government and the Kurdish forces over control of the city.
- Mosul: It is a city in Iraq that has been in news due to the ongoing battle between the Iraqi government forces and the Islamic State of Iraq and Syria (ISIS) for control of the city.
- Mazar-i-Sharif: It is a city in Afghanistan that has been in news due to the ongoing conflict between the Afghan government forces and the Taliban.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which states that pair 1 and 4 are correctly matched.
1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Iraq
3. Mosul - Iraq
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan
Explanation:
- Aleppo: It is a city in Syria that has been in news for the ongoing Syrian civil war and the battle between the Syrian government forces and the opposition groups.
- Kirkuk: It is a city in Iraq that has been in news due to the conflict between the Iraqi government and the Kurdish forces over control of the city.
- Mosul: It is a city in Iraq that has been in news due to the ongoing battle between the Iraqi government forces and the Islamic State of Iraq and Syria (ISIS) for control of the city.
- Mazar-i-Sharif: It is a city in Afghanistan that has been in news due to the ongoing conflict between the Afghan government forces and the Taliban.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B, which states that pair 1 and 4 are correctly matched.
After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure / measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :- a)Both 1 and 2
- b)2 only
- c)1 only
- d)Neither 1 or 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
After the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure / measures taken by the colonial government?
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a)
Both 1 and 2
b)
2 only
c)
1 only
d)
Neither 1 or 2
 | Anirban Datta answered |
In 1855-56 the Santhal Revolt took place. Santhals are a group of tribals concentrated in the state of Jharkhand. This was the first peasant movement which took place in India. The revolt has reference to the establishment of the permanent land settlement of 1793.
Santhal rebellion was led by four Murmu brothers named Sindhu, Kanhu, Chand and Bhairav against the oppressive zamindari system. The Santhals showed exemplary courage in fighting against the British, despite being beaten and harassed.
The British knew it well that if they want to rule in the area they have to agree to the main demands of the Santhals and accord them the dignity due to them. Therefore, the District of Santhal Pargana was created in 1885 after the partition of Bhagalpur and Birbhum.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)3 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1,2and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1,2and 3
| | Arindam Mukherjee answered |
The Reserve Bank of India manages public debt and issues Indian currency denominated loans on behalf of the central and the state governments under the powers derived from the Reserve Bank of India Act. The RBI is the debt manager for both the Central Government and the State Governments. RBI manages the debt of state governments on the basis of separate agreements. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day. Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91 day Treasury bill of Rs 100/- (face value) may be issued at say Rs 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, Rs 1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of Rs 100/-. The return to the investors is the difference between the maturity value or the face value (that is Rs 100). Hence, statement 2 and 3 are also correct.
Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day. Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91 day Treasury bill of Rs 100/- (face value) may be issued at say Rs 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, Rs 1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of Rs 100/-. The return to the investors is the difference between the maturity value or the face value (that is Rs 100). Hence, statement 2 and 3 are also correct.
With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Q. Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?- a)1 and 2
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3
- d)3 only
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs:
Q. Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
Q. Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 3
d)
3 only
 | Rahul Kumar answered |
Sanskrit clg of benarus by raja ram mohan ro
ford william clg by lord richard wellesly
so only 2nd option is correct...
ford william clg by lord richard wellesly
so only 2nd option is correct...
With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA); which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 3 only
- b)2 only
- c)2 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA); which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 3 only
b)
2 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Charvi Bose answered |
India is not a member of GACSA, hence it did not play a role in establishing it.
Being a member does not create any binding obligations and members determine their particular voluntary actions according to their needs and priorities. It started working in 2014, hence it cannot be the outcome of Paris summit, 2015
Being a member does not create any binding obligations and members determine their particular voluntary actions according to their needs and priorities. It started working in 2014, hence it cannot be the outcome of Paris summit, 2015
Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
Q. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?- a)1,2,3 and 7 only
- b)2,4,5 and 6 only
- c)1,3,4,5 and 6 only
- d)1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following:
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
Q. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
Q. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
a)
1,2,3 and 7 only
b)
2,4,5 and 6 only
c)
1,3,4,5 and 6 only
d)
1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7
| | Avantika Das answered |
Barley, Finger millet (Ragi), Groundnut, Sesamum, are covered under MSP fixed by GOI.
If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then- a)The opportunity cost is zero.
- b)The opportunity cost is ignored.
- c)The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
- d)The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
a)
The opportunity cost is zero.
b)
The opportunity cost is ignored.
c)
The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
d)
The opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
| | Avi Sharma answered |
Opportunity cost is the cost of choosing one alternative over another and missing the benefit offered by the forgone opportunity, investing or otherwise. Opportunity cost refers to a benefit that a person could have received, but gave up, to take another course of action. Stated differently, an opportunity cost represents an alternative given up when a decision is made. Opportunity cost is also called the economic cost.
Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water –table
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water –table
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water –table
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1,2 and 3
| | Preethi Kumar answered |
Excessive instream sand-andgravel mining causes the degradation of rivers. Instream mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea. The effect of mining is compounded by the effect of sea level rise. Any volume of sand exported from streambeds and coastal areas is a loss to the system.
Excessive instream sand mining is a threat to bridges, river banks and nearby structures. Sand mining also affects the adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people make of the river.
Sand aquifer helps in recharging the water table and sand mining causes sinking of water tables in the nearby areas, , drops leaving the drinking water wells on the embankments of these rivers dry. Turbidity increases at the mining site.
Excessive instream sand mining is a threat to bridges, river banks and nearby structures. Sand mining also affects the adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people make of the river.
Sand aquifer helps in recharging the water table and sand mining causes sinking of water tables in the nearby areas, , drops leaving the drinking water wells on the embankments of these rivers dry. Turbidity increases at the mining site.
Consider the following statements :
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Governments and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1,2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements :
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Governments and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Governments and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1,2 and 3
 | Sameer Ghoshal answered |
1. The FRBM Review Committee (Chairperson: Mr. N.K. Singh) submitted its report in January 2017. The Report was made public in April 2017. The Committee suggested using debt as the primary target for fiscal policy. A debt to GDP ratio of 60% should be targeted with a 40% limit for the centre and 20% limit for the states. The targeted debt to GDP ratio should be achieved by 2023. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a per cent of GDP, States’ liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
3. The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 46.1% of GDP (2016-17) and as a per cent of GDP, States’ liabilities increased to 23.2 per cent at end-March 2016. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
3. The Constitution of India empowers State Governments to borrow only from domestic sources (Article 293(1)). Further, as long as a State has outstanding borrowings from the Central Government, it is required to obtain Central Government's prior approval before incurring debt (Article 293 (3)). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza at Lucknow.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Amar Nair answered |
Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is the most iconic architectural accomplishment of Akbar’s reign. It incorporates almost all the essential features of Akbar’s architectural traditions: red sandstone, stone carvings, relief by inserting white marble, etc. This monumental gate, however, was probably less intended to commemorate a military victory than to underscore Akbar’s links with the Chishti order. Its surface is covered by marble slabs inscribed with Quranic verses promising paradise to true believers, appropriate for the entrance into a khanqah, a complex intended for meditation and devotion.
AsafiImambara, or Bara Imambara, of Lucknow was built to give employment and revenue to the public. Resources were strained, a peak had been reached in architectural style, and a certain decadence had crept in. To overcome these, the Nawabs used a more economical style in architecture, which also gave a touch of lightness to the buildings.
Instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used. Stucco ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep relief effect even on flat walls. Mother of pearl and shells deposited in lake beds were used in the stucco ornamentation to give a shine finer than marble.
The local masons cleverly used the brick, with its small size and thickness, to form remarkably fine details on the wall and column surfaces. It’s a testimony to their skill that they could adapt lowly material to such wonderful effect: balusters were imitated in clay supported on iron rods. Similarly, pottery was used for roof finials and ornaments. This skill can be seen in the delicately built Rumi Darwaza that was the main gateway to the Bara Imambara.
It was called so because the design of the structure bears resemblance to an ancient gateway at Constantinople. It’s also called the “Turkish Gateway”. The word Rumi means Roman, and the name was probably given due to the gateway’s design having traces of Roman architecture.
AsafiImambara, or Bara Imambara, of Lucknow was built to give employment and revenue to the public. Resources were strained, a peak had been reached in architectural style, and a certain decadence had crept in. To overcome these, the Nawabs used a more economical style in architecture, which also gave a touch of lightness to the buildings.
Instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used. Stucco ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep relief effect even on flat walls. Mother of pearl and shells deposited in lake beds were used in the stucco ornamentation to give a shine finer than marble.
The local masons cleverly used the brick, with its small size and thickness, to form remarkably fine details on the wall and column surfaces. It’s a testimony to their skill that they could adapt lowly material to such wonderful effect: balusters were imitated in clay supported on iron rods. Similarly, pottery was used for roof finials and ornaments. This skill can be seen in the delicately built Rumi Darwaza that was the main gateway to the Bara Imambara.
It was called so because the design of the structure bears resemblance to an ancient gateway at Constantinople. It’s also called the “Turkish Gateway”. The word Rumi means Roman, and the name was probably given due to the gateway’s design having traces of Roman architecture.
Consider the following statements:
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Mrinalini Roy answered |
Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank's capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process.
With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
Q. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Keerthana Sen answered |
Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: Equalisation Levy was introduced in India in 2016, with the intention of taxing the digital transactions i.e. the income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from India. It is aimed at taxing business to business transactions.
As the levy was not introduced as part of the Income Tax Act but as a separate legislation under the Finance Bill, global firms that offer such services in India cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the double taxation avoidance agreements
As the levy was not introduced as part of the Income Tax Act but as a separate legislation under the Finance Bill, global firms that offer such services in India cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the double taxation avoidance agreements
Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3
- c)3 only
- d)1 and 3
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3
c)
3 only
d)
1 and 3
| | Rithika Sen answered |
Barren Island is India’s only active volcano. It is located 140kms to the east of Port Blair (lies in South Andaman) while Great Nicobar is southernmost region of Andaman & Nicobar and lies further south of Port Blair.
The Barren Island volcano had been lying dormant for more than 150 years until it saw a major eruption in 1991. Since then it has shown intermittent activity, including eruptions in 1995, 2005 and 2017.
The Barren Island volcano had been lying dormant for more than 150 years until it saw a major eruption in 1991. Since then it has shown intermittent activity, including eruptions in 1995, 2005 and 2017.
With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Q. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Sanjana Sen answered |
Governance of Public Sector Banking in India
Statement 1: Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
Explanation:
• Capital infusion is the process of providing additional capital to banks.
• Public sector banks are owned and controlled by the Government of India.
• In recent years, the government has been infusing capital into public sector banks to strengthen their financial position and enable them to meet regulatory requirements.
• The capital infusion by the government has increased steadily in the last decade.
• This has been done to improve the health of public sector banks, which have been burdened with bad loans and non-performing assets.
Statement 2: To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Explanation:
• The State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest public sector bank in India.
• It has several associate banks, which were separate entities until they were merged with SBI.
• The merger of associate banks with SBI was done to streamline operations and improve the efficiency of the banking system.
• The merger enabled SBI to become a global player in the banking sector and strengthen its position in the Indian market.
• The merger was also aimed at reducing costs and improving profitability.
Conclusion:
• Both the statements are related to the governance of public sector banking in India.
• However, only statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 1 is incorrect as it is the other way around. Capital infusion has decreased in the last decade due to economic slowdown and fiscal constraints.
Statement 1: Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
Explanation:
• Capital infusion is the process of providing additional capital to banks.
• Public sector banks are owned and controlled by the Government of India.
• In recent years, the government has been infusing capital into public sector banks to strengthen their financial position and enable them to meet regulatory requirements.
• The capital infusion by the government has increased steadily in the last decade.
• This has been done to improve the health of public sector banks, which have been burdened with bad loans and non-performing assets.
Statement 2: To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Explanation:
• The State Bank of India (SBI) is the largest public sector bank in India.
• It has several associate banks, which were separate entities until they were merged with SBI.
• The merger of associate banks with SBI was done to streamline operations and improve the efficiency of the banking system.
• The merger enabled SBI to become a global player in the banking sector and strengthen its position in the Indian market.
• The merger was also aimed at reducing costs and improving profitability.
Conclusion:
• Both the statements are related to the governance of public sector banking in India.
• However, only statement 2 is correct.
• Statement 1 is incorrect as it is the other way around. Capital infusion has decreased in the last decade due to economic slowdown and fiscal constraints.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, State Government do not have the power to auction noncoal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Q. Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?- a)1 and 2
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3
- d)3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, State Government do not have the power to auction noncoal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Q. Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
1. In India, State Government do not have the power to auction noncoal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Q. Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
a)
1 and 2
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 3
d)
3 only
| | Divyansh Singh answered |
Unlike coal, the auction of mining licences of non-coal minerals is conducted by the respective state governments.
Iron ore mines are located in
Bhilwara in Rajasthan.
India has gold deposits spread across several states including Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan. Governments of both Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh have auctioned several gold mines in recent years.
Iron ore mines are located in
Bhilwara in Rajasthan.
India has gold deposits spread across several states including Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan. Governments of both Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh have auctioned several gold mines in recent years.
Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Sneha Shah answered |
CHARTER ACT OF 1813: The Act incorporated the principle of encouraging learned Indians and promoting knowledge of modern sciences in the country. The Act directed the. Company to sanction one lakh rupees annually for this purpose. However, even this petty amount was not made available till 1823, mainly because of the controversy raged on the question of the direction that this expenditure should take. In 1823, the Governor-General-in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education. That committee consisted of 10(ten) European members belonging to 2 groups Anglicists and Orientalists. Hence, it promoted both Indian and english education.
ORIENTALIST-ANGLIC1ST CONTROVERSY: Within the General Committee on Public Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the government spending on education should be exclusively for modern studies. The. Orientalists said while western sciences and literature should be taught to prepare students to take up jobs, emphasis should be placed on expansion of traditional Indian learning. Even the Anglicists were divided over the question of medium of instruction—one faction was for English language as the medium, while the other faction was for Indian languages (vernaculars) for the purpose. Lord Macaulay's Minute (1835), This famous minute settled the row in favour of Anglicists—the limited government resources were to be devoted to teaching of western sciences and literature through the medium of English language alone.
ORIENTALIST-ANGLIC1ST CONTROVERSY: Within the General Committee on Public Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the government spending on education should be exclusively for modern studies. The. Orientalists said while western sciences and literature should be taught to prepare students to take up jobs, emphasis should be placed on expansion of traditional Indian learning. Even the Anglicists were divided over the question of medium of instruction—one faction was for English language as the medium, while the other faction was for Indian languages (vernaculars) for the purpose. Lord Macaulay's Minute (1835), This famous minute settled the row in favour of Anglicists—the limited government resources were to be devoted to teaching of western sciences and literature through the medium of English language alone.
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?- a)A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
- b)A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
- c)A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
- d)A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
a)
A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
b)
A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
c)
A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
d)
A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
| | Preethi Mehta answered |
Money Bills in India
A Money Bill is a type of bill introduced in the Indian Parliament which deals with financial matters, such as taxation, government expenditure, and borrowing. Money Bills are defined under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. Here are some facts about Money Bills:
Provisions of a Money Bill:
- A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
- A Money Bill also has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
- A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Incorrect statement:
- A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. (This statement is incorrect.)
Explanation:
The correct statement is that a Money Bill is not concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. The Contingency Fund of India is a fund established to meet unforeseen expenditures by the government. Any bill that seeks to appropriate money out of the Contingency Fund of India cannot be deemed as a Money Bill. The reason for this is that Money Bills are a special category of bills that can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament), and are subject to a special procedure under the Constitution. The Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) has no power to amend or reject a Money Bill; it can only recommend changes, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. Since the Contingency Fund of India is not related to taxation, expenditure, or borrowing, it cannot be included in a Money Bill.
A Money Bill is a type of bill introduced in the Indian Parliament which deals with financial matters, such as taxation, government expenditure, and borrowing. Money Bills are defined under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. Here are some facts about Money Bills:
Provisions of a Money Bill:
- A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
- A Money Bill also has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
- A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Incorrect statement:
- A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. (This statement is incorrect.)
Explanation:
The correct statement is that a Money Bill is not concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. The Contingency Fund of India is a fund established to meet unforeseen expenditures by the government. Any bill that seeks to appropriate money out of the Contingency Fund of India cannot be deemed as a Money Bill. The reason for this is that Money Bills are a special category of bills that can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament), and are subject to a special procedure under the Constitution. The Rajya Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) has no power to amend or reject a Money Bill; it can only recommend changes, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. Since the Contingency Fund of India is not related to taxation, expenditure, or borrowing, it cannot be included in a Money Bill.
Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?- a)Angola and Zambia
- b)Morocco and Tunisia
- c)Venezuela and Colombia
- d)Yemen and South Sudan
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts?
a)
Angola and Zambia
b)
Morocco and Tunisia
c)
Venezuela and Colombia
d)
Yemen and South Sudan
 | Ankit Roy answered |
Yemen and South Sudan are the correct answers. Both of these countries have experienced severe famine and acute malnutrition, leading to the deaths of thousands of people due to war and ethnic conflicts.
Yemen:
Yemen has been facing a grave humanitarian crisis, with a significant portion of its population suffering from severe famine and starvation. The country has been enduring a civil war since 2015, when Houthi rebels took control of the capital, Sanaa, and ousted the internationally recognized government. The conflict has escalated, leading to widespread violence and displacement of people, disruption of essential services, and a collapsing economy.
Key Points:
- The war in Yemen has resulted in the destruction of infrastructure, including hospitals, schools, and water facilities, creating a dire humanitarian situation.
- The ongoing conflict has severely impacted food production and distribution, leading to a scarcity of food and a sharp increase in food prices.
- According to the United Nations, more than 20 million people in Yemen are in need of humanitarian assistance, with over 10 million suffering from acute malnutrition.
- The situation is particularly dire for children, with reports of widespread child malnutrition and a high mortality rate among infants.
South Sudan:
South Sudan, the world's youngest country, has also experienced severe famine and starvation caused by ongoing ethnic conflicts and political instability. Following its independence from Sudan in 2011, South Sudan descended into a civil war in 2013. The conflict is primarily between forces loyal to President Salva Kiir and those supporting former Vice President Riek Machar.
Key Points:
- The civil war in South Sudan has resulted in the displacement of millions of people, disrupting their access to food, water, and healthcare.
- The conflict has also led to the destruction of agricultural lands and livelihoods, exacerbating the food crisis in the country.
- The United Nations estimates that over 7 million people in South Sudan are in need of humanitarian assistance, with approximately 1.3 million children suffering from acute malnutrition.
- The situation is further aggravated by economic challenges, limited infrastructure, and a lack of access to basic services.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, Yemen and South Sudan are two countries that have recently witnessed severe famine, acute malnutrition, and starvation due to war and ethnic conflicts. The ongoing violence and disruption of essential services have created dire humanitarian crises in both nations, leading to the suffering and deaths of thousands of people, particularly children. International efforts are required to address these urgent humanitarian needs and work towards sustainable peace and stability in these countries.
Yemen:
Yemen has been facing a grave humanitarian crisis, with a significant portion of its population suffering from severe famine and starvation. The country has been enduring a civil war since 2015, when Houthi rebels took control of the capital, Sanaa, and ousted the internationally recognized government. The conflict has escalated, leading to widespread violence and displacement of people, disruption of essential services, and a collapsing economy.
Key Points:
- The war in Yemen has resulted in the destruction of infrastructure, including hospitals, schools, and water facilities, creating a dire humanitarian situation.
- The ongoing conflict has severely impacted food production and distribution, leading to a scarcity of food and a sharp increase in food prices.
- According to the United Nations, more than 20 million people in Yemen are in need of humanitarian assistance, with over 10 million suffering from acute malnutrition.
- The situation is particularly dire for children, with reports of widespread child malnutrition and a high mortality rate among infants.
South Sudan:
South Sudan, the world's youngest country, has also experienced severe famine and starvation caused by ongoing ethnic conflicts and political instability. Following its independence from Sudan in 2011, South Sudan descended into a civil war in 2013. The conflict is primarily between forces loyal to President Salva Kiir and those supporting former Vice President Riek Machar.
Key Points:
- The civil war in South Sudan has resulted in the displacement of millions of people, disrupting their access to food, water, and healthcare.
- The conflict has also led to the destruction of agricultural lands and livelihoods, exacerbating the food crisis in the country.
- The United Nations estimates that over 7 million people in South Sudan are in need of humanitarian assistance, with approximately 1.3 million children suffering from acute malnutrition.
- The situation is further aggravated by economic challenges, limited infrastructure, and a lack of access to basic services.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, Yemen and South Sudan are two countries that have recently witnessed severe famine, acute malnutrition, and starvation due to war and ethnic conflicts. The ongoing violence and disruption of essential services have created dire humanitarian crises in both nations, leading to the suffering and deaths of thousands of people, particularly children. International efforts are required to address these urgent humanitarian needs and work towards sustainable peace and stability in these countries.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?- a)The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
- b)The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
- c)The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc
- d)The metallic money in circulation in a country
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?
a)
The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
b)
The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
c)
The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc
d)
The metallic money in circulation in a country
| | Rhea Choudhury answered |
Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt. Legal tender can only be issued by the national body that is authorized to do so
With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?- a)Avalokiteshvara
- b)Lokesvara
- c)Maitreya
- d)Padmapani
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?
a)
Avalokiteshvara
b)
Lokesvara
c)
Maitreya
d)
Padmapani
| | Kavya Patel answered |
Maitreya is a future Buddha in Indian history who is yet to come to save the world.
Explanation:
• Maitreya is a Buddhist deity who is believed to be a future Buddha who will appear on earth to save the world from suffering.
• According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is currently residing in the Tushita heaven, awaiting his time to descend to earth and teach the dharma.
• Maitreya is often depicted in Buddhist art as a seated figure with a gentle smile and a relaxed posture, holding a vase or a lotus flower.
• The belief in Maitreya is prevalent in Mahayana Buddhism, which originated in India and spread to other parts of Asia.
• The concept of Maitreya is closely associated with the Buddhist teachings on compassion, wisdom, and the path to enlightenment.
• In Buddhist scriptures, Maitreya is described as a bodhisattva, a being who has attained enlightenment but chooses to remain in the cycle of rebirth to help others.
• The coming of Maitreya is seen as a source of hope and inspiration for Buddhist practitioners, who strive to follow the path of the Buddha and attain liberation from suffering.
In conclusion, Maitreya is a significant figure in Indian history, representing the future Buddha who is yet to come and bring salvation to the world.
Explanation:
• Maitreya is a Buddhist deity who is believed to be a future Buddha who will appear on earth to save the world from suffering.
• According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is currently residing in the Tushita heaven, awaiting his time to descend to earth and teach the dharma.
• Maitreya is often depicted in Buddhist art as a seated figure with a gentle smile and a relaxed posture, holding a vase or a lotus flower.
• The belief in Maitreya is prevalent in Mahayana Buddhism, which originated in India and spread to other parts of Asia.
• The concept of Maitreya is closely associated with the Buddhist teachings on compassion, wisdom, and the path to enlightenment.
• In Buddhist scriptures, Maitreya is described as a bodhisattva, a being who has attained enlightenment but chooses to remain in the cycle of rebirth to help others.
• The coming of Maitreya is seen as a source of hope and inspiration for Buddhist practitioners, who strive to follow the path of the Buddha and attain liberation from suffering.
In conclusion, Maitreya is a significant figure in Indian history, representing the future Buddha who is yet to come and bring salvation to the world.
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