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All questions of Topic wise Tests for UPSC CSE Exam
Consider the following and choose the correct option:1. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.2. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the Governor cannot.- a)Only I
- b)Both
- c)Only II
- d)None of the above.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following and choose the correct option:
1. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.
2. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the Governor cannot.
a)
Only I
b)
Both
c)
Only II
d)
None of the above.
 | Sneha Kumar answered |
1. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial (military courts). On 3rd August 2021, the Supreme Court held that the Governor of a State can pardon prisoners, including death row ones, even before they have served a minimum of 14 years of a prison sentence.
2. The President can pardon death sentence while governor cannot. Even if a state law prescribes death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the President and not the governor. However, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.
Can you explain the answer of this question below:A new state can be formed by the Parliament under:A:Article 3B:Article 2C:Article 1D:Article 4The answer is A
 | Vikas Choudhury answered |
Article 3 provides the following procedure:
Presidential reference is sent to State Assembly.
After presidential reference, a resolution is tabled and passed in Assembly.
Assembly has to pass a Bill creating the new State/States.
A separate Bill has to be ratified by Parliament
What is the strength of the Public Accounts Committee?a)10 from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabhab)15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabhac)15 from the Lok Sabha and 15 from the Rajya Sabhad)None of the aboveCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
 | Anjali Kapoor answered |
The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee of selected members of Parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India, for the auditing of the expenditure of the Government of India.
The Public Accounts Committee is formed every year with a strength of not more than 22 members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament, and 7 from Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament. The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. The chief function of Public Accounts Committee is to examine the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid in the Parliament. CAG assists the committee during the course of investigation.
Consider the following statements about the Central Information Commission(CIC).1. The CIC consists of a chairperson and two other members.
2. MPs and MLAs are eligible to become members of the CIC.
3. The chairperson should be an eminent Justice in the opinion of the President or eligible to be a Supreme Court Judge.Choose the correct answer from the codes below- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements about the Central Information Commission(CIC).
1. The CIC consists of a chairperson and two other members.
2. MPs and MLAs are eligible to become members of the CIC.
3. The chairperson should be an eminent Justice in the opinion of the President or eligible to be a Supreme Court Judge.
2. MPs and MLAs are eligible to become members of the CIC.
3. The chairperson should be an eminent Justice in the opinion of the President or eligible to be a Supreme Court Judge.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
None of the above
 | Poonam Reddy answered |
- The Commission includes 1 Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and not more than 10 Information Commissioners (IC) who are appointed by the President of India.
- Candidates for CIC/IC must be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.
- CIC/IC shall not be a Member of Parliament or Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory. He shall not hold any other office of profit or connected with any political party or carrying on any business or pursuing any profession.
State Emergency or President’s Rule can be applied to an Indian state on which of the following grounds?
1. Failure to comply with Center’s directions
2. Breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the state
3. Threat to the financial stability of the state
4. Internal aggression in the stateChoose the correct answer from the codesbelow- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 4 only
- c)1, 3 and 4 only
- d)1, 2 and 3only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
State Emergency or President’s Rule can be applied to an Indian state on which of the following grounds?
1. Failure to comply with Center’s directions
2. Breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the state
3. Threat to the financial stability of the state
4. Internal aggression in the state
1. Failure to comply with Center’s directions
2. Breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the state
3. Threat to the financial stability of the state
4. Internal aggression in the state
Choose the correct answer from the codesbelow
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 4 only
c)
1, 3 and 4 only
d)
1, 2 and 3only
 | Eesha Bhat answered |
President’s Rule
Grounds of Imposition
Grounds of Imposition
Article 355 imposes a duty on the Centre to
ensure that the government of every state is
carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It is this duty in the
performance of which the Centre takes over the government of a state under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional machinery in state. This is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds—one mentioned in Article 356 itself and another in Article 365:
ensure that the government of every state is
carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. It is this duty in the
performance of which the Centre takes over the government of a state under Article 356 in case of failure of constitutional machinery in state. This is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known as ‘State Emergency’ or ‘Constitutional Emergency’.
The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds—one mentioned in Article 356 itself and another in Article 365:
1. Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a
situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on
in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e., even without
the governor’s report).
situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on
in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e., even without
the governor’s report).
2. Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any
direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
President’s rule is imposed in a state under:- a)Article 352
- b)Article 350
- c)Article 360
- d)Article 356
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
President’s rule is imposed in a state under:
a)
Article 352
b)
Article 350
c)
Article 360
d)
Article 356
| | 188-hist-shailendra answered |
Under article 356 emergency due to failure of constitution machinery in a state president take a charge
India has adopted the Parliamentarysystem of Government. It is based on theprinciple of- a)Doctrine of separation of powersbetween the legislature andexecutive organs
- b)Cooperation and Co-ordinationbetween the legislative and executiveorgans
- c)Doctrine of separation of powersbetween the legislature and judicialorgans
- d)Doctrine of separation of powersbetween the judicial and executiveorgans
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
India has adopted the Parliamentarysystem of Government. It is based on theprinciple of
a)
Doctrine of separation of powersbetween the legislature andexecutive organs
b)
Cooperation and Co-ordinationbetween the legislative and executiveorgans
c)
Doctrine of separation of powersbetween the legislature and judicialorgans
d)
Doctrine of separation of powersbetween the judicial and executiveorgans
 | Meera Singh answered |
Features of Parliamentary Government
1. Nominal or Titular Head:
In a Parliamentary form of government, there two heads, namely, nominal and real. The nominal head is one who, though head of the state, is not head of government. His powers are more apparent than real. He may be hereditary or elected.
The British Queen is not elected. She got the throne on the heredity. But the President of India who is also a nominal head has been el Parliamentary-government the real powers are exercised by a Council of Ministers by a Prime Minister.
2. Collective Responsibility and Individual Responsibility:
The C Ministers is collectively responsible to the lower house of the legislature. It policy decisions collectively and it collectively goes out of office when it loses thee of the lower house of the legislature. A minister may express his disagreement policy when it is discussed in the cabinet meeting, but he has to defend and support the cabinet takes the decision. A minister is also individually responsible to the P for the acts of omission and commission of his department.
1. Nominal or Titular Head:
In a Parliamentary form of government, there two heads, namely, nominal and real. The nominal head is one who, though head of the state, is not head of government. His powers are more apparent than real. He may be hereditary or elected.
The British Queen is not elected. She got the throne on the heredity. But the President of India who is also a nominal head has been el Parliamentary-government the real powers are exercised by a Council of Ministers by a Prime Minister.
2. Collective Responsibility and Individual Responsibility:
The C Ministers is collectively responsible to the lower house of the legislature. It policy decisions collectively and it collectively goes out of office when it loses thee of the lower house of the legislature. A minister may express his disagreement policy when it is discussed in the cabinet meeting, but he has to defend and support the cabinet takes the decision. A minister is also individually responsible to the P for the acts of omission and commission of his department.
3. Political Homogeneity:
The ministers, normally being members of political party, share the same ideology and approach. Even when there is a c government, the ministers are committed to a common minimum programme. B single party government and a coalition government, there is a fair amount of h and cooperation among the ministers. However, a single party government is homogeneous than a multi-party coalition government,
4. Harmony between Executive and Legislature:
In a Parliamentary government the ministers are drawn from the legislature. As ministers, they are part of the executive. They also remain members of the legislature. Thus the dual identity of ministers con to a harmonious relationship between the executive and the legislature.
The ministers, normally being members of political party, share the same ideology and approach. Even when there is a c government, the ministers are committed to a common minimum programme. B single party government and a coalition government, there is a fair amount of h and cooperation among the ministers. However, a single party government is homogeneous than a multi-party coalition government,
4. Harmony between Executive and Legislature:
In a Parliamentary government the ministers are drawn from the legislature. As ministers, they are part of the executive. They also remain members of the legislature. Thus the dual identity of ministers con to a harmonious relationship between the executive and the legislature.
5. Rigidity of Party Discipline:
In a Parliamentary government, the party discipline is rigid. The members of a political party whether in power or in opposition are required to defend and support the stand of their party on any issue both in the legislature and outside.
6. Leadership of the Prime Minister:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the C of Ministers. On his advice, the ministers are appointed and dropped. They stay in during his pleasure. He presides over the meetings of the cabinet. He exercises preponderant influence in domestic policy as well as foreign policy.
He is more powerful and important than any
other member of the cabinet. It has been rightly observed that "he (Prime Mi is central to its (ministry's) birth, central to its life and central to its death."
In a Parliamentary government, the party discipline is rigid. The members of a political party whether in power or in opposition are required to defend and support the stand of their party on any issue both in the legislature and outside.
6. Leadership of the Prime Minister:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the C of Ministers. On his advice, the ministers are appointed and dropped. They stay in during his pleasure. He presides over the meetings of the cabinet. He exercises preponderant influence in domestic policy as well as foreign policy.
He is more powerful and important than any
other member of the cabinet. It has been rightly observed that "he (Prime Mi is central to its (ministry's) birth, central to its life and central to its death."
Which among the following must be passed by both the houses by a special majority?- a)Ordinary Bill
- b)Money Bill
- c)Finance Bill
- d)Constitution Amendment Bill
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which among the following must be passed by both the houses by a special majority?
a)
Ordinary Bill
b)
Money Bill
c)
Finance Bill
d)
Constitution Amendment Bill
| | Anjali Rane answered |
A Constitution Amendment Bill under article 368 can be introduced in either House of Parliament and has to be passed by each House by special majority.
The Chairman of the UPSC holds the office for a term of:a)Five years or 62 years of age whichever is earlierb)Six years or 62 years of age whichever is earlierc)Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlierd)Five years or 65 years of age whichever is earlierCorrect answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
 | Akanksha Bose answered |
Term of Chairman of UPSC:
The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is appointed by the President of India. The Chairman holds office for a fixed term as per the Constitution of India. The term of the Chairman of UPSC is:
Option (c) Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier.
Explanation:
The Constitution of India provides for the appointment and removal of the Chairman and other Members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) under Article 316. The term of office of the Chairman and Members of the UPSC is governed by the UPSC (Conditions of Service) Regulations, 1969.
The Chairman of the UPSC holds office for a fixed term of six years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, the Chairman shall be eligible for reappointment for a further term of five years or until he attains the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
Therefore, option (c) Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier, is the correct answer.
The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is appointed by the President of India. The Chairman holds office for a fixed term as per the Constitution of India. The term of the Chairman of UPSC is:
Option (c) Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier.
Explanation:
The Constitution of India provides for the appointment and removal of the Chairman and other Members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) under Article 316. The term of office of the Chairman and Members of the UPSC is governed by the UPSC (Conditions of Service) Regulations, 1969.
The Chairman of the UPSC holds office for a fixed term of six years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, the Chairman shall be eligible for reappointment for a further term of five years or until he attains the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
Therefore, option (c) Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier, is the correct answer.
Which act is the ‘Act for the Good Government of India’?- a)Charter Act 1813
- b)Charter Act 1853
- c)Govt. of India Act 1858
- d)None of the above.
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Which act is the ‘Act for the Good Government of India’?
a)
Charter Act 1813
b)
Charter Act 1853
c)
Govt. of India Act 1858
d)
None of the above.
 | Monroe Gogoi answered |
The answer is C. The British Crown decided to assume sovereignty over India from the East India Company as a consequence of the Revolt of 1857. The Govt. of India Act 1858 provided for absolute Imperial control over India without any power to the Indians. The country was divided into provinces headed by the Governor General.
The Vote on Account is passed:- a)Before general discussion on budget
- b)After discussion on demands for grants and before passing the appropriation bill
- c)After general discussion and before discussion on demands for grants
- d)After passing the appropriation bill
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
The Vote on Account is passed:
a)
Before general discussion on budget
b)
After discussion on demands for grants and before passing the appropriation bill
c)
After general discussion and before discussion on demands for grants
d)
After passing the appropriation bill
| | Poonam Reddy answered |
A provision has been made in the Constitution empowering the Lok Sabha to make any grant in advance through a vote on account to enable the Government to carry on until the voting of demands for grants and the passing of the Appropriation Bill and Finance Bill.
Normally, the vote on account is taken for two months for a sum equivalent to one sixth of the estimated expenditure for the entire year under various demands for grants. Vote on account is passed by Lok Sabha after the general discussion on the Budget is over and before the discussion on demands for grants is taken up.
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of- a)Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
- b)Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
- c)Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
- d)Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in the four states of
a)
Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
b)
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
c)
Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland
d)
Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
| | Priya Menon answered |
The sixth Schedule deals with the administration of Tribal Areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram. It provides for the constitution of District Councils and Regional Councils. Governors of these four states are empowered to declare some tribal-dominated districts/areas of these states as autonomous districts and autonomous regions by order.
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:- He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
- He/She needs not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
- If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)3 only
- c)1, 2 and 3
- d)None of these
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
- He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
- He/She needs not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
- If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
3 only
c)
1, 2 and 3
d)
None of these
 | Warpe Warpe answered |
Yes its option B. because the speaker hold the ofdice for a 5 year. and he must be a member of house
____________ was an act of the British Parliament that increased the size of the legislative councils in India.- a)Government of India Act, 1861
- b)Indian Council Act, 1892
- c)Indian Council Act, 1909
- d)None of the above.
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
____________ was an act of the British Parliament that increased the size of the legislative councils in India.
a)
Government of India Act, 1861
b)
Indian Council Act, 1892
c)
Indian Council Act, 1909
d)
None of the above.
| | Amit Kumar answered |
The Indian Councils Act 1892 was an act of the British Parliament that increased the size of the legislative councils in India.
- The Indian National Congress (INC) was formed in 1885. There was a growing feeling of nationalism and this led the INC to put forth some demands to the British authorities.
- One of their demands was the reform of the legislative councils.
- They also wanted the principle of the election instead of nomination.
- The INC also wanted the right to hold discussions on financial matters which was hitherto not allowed.
- The Viceroy at the time Lord Dufferin set up a committee to look into the matter. But the Secretary of State did not agree to the plan of direct elections. He, however, agreed to representation by way of indirect election.
- The act increased the number of additional or non-official members in the legislative councils as follows:
- Central Legislative Council: 10 – 16 members
- Bengal: 20 members
- Madras: 20 members
- Bombay: 8 members
- Oudh: 15 members
- North Western Province: 15
- In 1892, out of 24 members, only 5 were Indians.
- The members were given the right to ask questions on the budget (which was barred in the Indian Councils Act 1861) or matters of public interest but had to give notice of 6 days for it.
- They could not ask supplementary questions.
- The principle of representation was initiated through this act. The district boards, universities, municipalities, chambers of commerce and zamindars were authorised to recommend members to the provincial councils.
- The legislative councils were empowered to make new laws and repeal old laws with the permission of the Governor-General.
- It was the first step towards a representative form of government in modern India although there was nothing in it for the common man.
- The number of Indians was increased and this was a positive step.
- However, since the British conceded only a little, this act led indirectly to the rise of many revolutionary movements in India. Many leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak blamed Congress’s moderate policy of petitions and persuasions for a lack of positive developments and called for a more aggressive policy against British rule.
Consider the following statements.1. There is only one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for elections to the Parliament and the State Legislature.
2. The State Legislatures, apart from Parliament can also make provision with respect to all matters relating to the elections to the State Legislature. Which of the above is/are true?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)None
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements.
1. There is only one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for elections to the Parliament and the State Legislature.
2. The State Legislatures, apart from Parliament can also make provision with respect to all matters relating to the elections to the State Legislature. Which of the above is/are true?
2. The State Legislatures, apart from Parliament can also make provision with respect to all matters relating to the elections to the State Legislature. Which of the above is/are true?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
None
 | Rohit Jain answered |
• Article 325 of Indian Constitution -There shall be one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for election to either House of Parliament or to the House or either House of the Legislature of a State and no person shall be ineligible for inclusion in any such roll or claim to be included in any special electoral roll for any such constituency on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or any of them.
• Article 328 of India Constitution - Subject to the provisions of this Constitution and in so far as provision in that behalf is not made by Parliament, the Legislature of a State may from time to time by law make provision with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, the elections to the House or either House of the Legislature of the State including the preparation of electoral rolls and all other matters necessary for securing the due constitution of such House or Houses.
Consider the following procedures:
1. President referring the matter to the Lok Sabha.
2. Inquiry by the Supreme Court.
3. Parliament passes the motion by a simple majority in both the houses.Which of the following procedures is/are followed for the removal of CVC?- a)2 and 3 only
- b)1, 2 and 3 only
- c)2 only
- d)1 and 3 only
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following procedures:
1. President referring the matter to the Lok Sabha.
2. Inquiry by the Supreme Court.
3. Parliament passes the motion by a simple majority in both the houses.
Which of the following procedures is/are followed for the removal of CVC?
a)
2 and 3 only
b)
1, 2 and 3 only
c)
2 only
d)
1 and 3 only
| | Priya Menon answered |
The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed. The President may suspend from office, and if deem necessary prohibit also from attending the office during inquiry, the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner in respect of whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court until the President has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference. The President may, by order, remove from office the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner if the Central Vigilance Commissioner or such Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be:
1. Is adjudged an insolvent; or
2. Has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude; or
3. Engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
4. Is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or
5. Has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as a Central Vigilance Commissioner or a Vigilance Commissioner
2. Has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the Central Government, involves moral turpitude; or
3. Engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
4. Is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body; or
5. Has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect prejudicially his functions as a Central Vigilance Commissioner or a Vigilance Commissioner
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds as provided in Article 15 of the Constitution is a fundamental right classifiable under:- a)Right against exploitation
- b)Right to equality
- c)Right to freedom of expression
- d)The Cultural and Educational rights
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds as provided in Article 15 of the Constitution is a fundamental right classifiable under:
a)
Right against exploitation
b)
Right to equality
c)
Right to freedom of expression
d)
The Cultural and Educational rights
| | Madhurima Khanna answered |
Answer: b
Explanation: The idea of Residual Powers has been taken from Canada.
The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were added to the Preamble by:- a) 24th amendment
- b) 42nd amendment
- c) 44th amendment
- d) 86th amendment
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The words ‘socialist’ and ‘secular’ were added to the Preamble by:
a)
24th amendment
b)
42nd amendment
c)
44th amendment
d)
86th amendment
| | Anshika Singh answered |
Answer: b
Explanation: President can proclaim President’s Rule / State Emergency if he is satisfied:
- Either on the report of the Governor or
- Otherwise -- That the administration of the state cannot be carried in accordance with the provisions of the constitution or the constitutional machinery has failed in the state.
- And Election commission certifies that it is not possible to hold the election in that state.
Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution deal with maintaining the social fabric, moral values and national consciousness?1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Choose the correct answer from the codes below?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution deal with maintaining the social fabric, moral values and national consciousness?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Choose the correct answer from the codes below?
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Choose the correct answer from the codes below?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
| | Eesha Bhat answered |
- FR clearly establish a secular, equitable, just and non-exploitative social fabric in India.
- FD provide a secular, fraternity and a patriotic aspect to the Indian citizens by making them respect the constitution, national flag, asking them render services to the nation and mankind etc.
- DPSP does so by providing for a more equitable work culture in men and women, minimizing inequalities in social and economic status: establishing the ideal of a welfare society.
Consider the following about the Governor:- The executive power of the state is vested in him.
- He must have attained 35 years of age.
- He holds office for 5 years.
- The grounds for his removal are laid down in the Constitution.
Which is an incorrect statement?- a) Only I
- b) Only II and III
- c) Only III
- d) Only III and IV
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following about the Governor:
- The executive power of the state is vested in him.
- He must have attained 35 years of age.
- He holds office for 5 years.
- The grounds for his removal are laid down in the Constitution.
Which is an incorrect statement?
a)
Only I
b)
Only II and III
c)
Only III
d)
Only III and IV
 | Rakibul Islam answered |
There is no mention of the ground of removal of governor
Consider the following statements1. Union of India is a wider expression than the Territory of India.
2. India can acquire foreign territories according to models recognized by international law.
3. Parliament can establish new states that were not a part of the Union of India.Choose the correct answer from the codes below- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements
1. Union of India is a wider expression than the Territory of India.
2. India can acquire foreign territories according to models recognized by international law.
3. Parliament can establish new states that were not a part of the Union of India.
2. India can acquire foreign territories according to models recognized by international law.
3. Parliament can establish new states that were not a part of the Union of India.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
| | Rahul Desai answered |
With reference to the government in India,
the two terms namely “Union of India” and
“Territory of India” have specific meanings. While the former stands for the states that share federal powers with the Union Governments, the latter include not only the states but all other units like the Union Territories also or, in other words, the territory of India includes a larger area as compared to the union of India. i.e. the territory of India covers the entire territory over which Indian sovereignty is exercised while Union of India covers only the federal system. Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognized by international law i.e cession, occupation, conquest or subjugation.
the two terms namely “Union of India” and
“Territory of India” have specific meanings. While the former stands for the states that share federal powers with the Union Governments, the latter include not only the states but all other units like the Union Territories also or, in other words, the territory of India includes a larger area as compared to the union of India. i.e. the territory of India covers the entire territory over which Indian sovereignty is exercised while Union of India covers only the federal system. Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognized by international law i.e cession, occupation, conquest or subjugation.
Article 2: Grants two powers to the Parliament namely:
1) The power to admit into the Union of
India new states; and
2) The power to establish new states
Broadly, the first refers to the admission of
states which are already in existence while the second refers to the establishment of states which are not in existence before. The latest addition was that of the state of Sikkim by the 35th and 36th Constitutional Amendments in 1974 and 1975. This was done at the request of the Sikkim Assembly and after the approval the people of Sikkim through a referendum.
1) The power to admit into the Union of
India new states; and
2) The power to establish new states
Broadly, the first refers to the admission of
states which are already in existence while the second refers to the establishment of states which are not in existence before. The latest addition was that of the state of Sikkim by the 35th and 36th Constitutional Amendments in 1974 and 1975. This was done at the request of the Sikkim Assembly and after the approval the people of Sikkim through a referendum.
Who is called the ‘Father of Communal electorate’?
a)Lord Morleyb)Lord Irwinc)Lord Mintod)None of the above.Correct answer is 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
| | Anagha Patel answered |
Lord Minto
Act of 1909 introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of separate electorate. Under this the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus the act legalised communalism and Lord Minto came to be known as Father of communal Electorate.
Act of 1909 introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of separate electorate. Under this the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus the act legalised communalism and Lord Minto came to be known as Father of communal Electorate.
Consider the following about Finance Commission:1. It considers applications for grants-in-aid from States.2. It supervises and reports on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.Which statement is INCORRECT?- a)Only II
- b)Only I
- c)Both
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following about Finance Commission:
1. It considers applications for grants-in-aid from States.
2. It supervises and reports on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which statement is INCORRECT?
a)
Only II
b)
Only I
c)
Both
d)
None of the above
 | Rishabh Sen answered |
Answer: a
Explanation: A bill for the formation of a new state can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. The Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent. In other words, the Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will. Hence, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Therefore, India is rightly described as ‘an indestructible union of destructible states’.
A Joint Public Service Commission can be created by:- a)An order of the President
- b)A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
- c)A resolution of the concerned state legislatures
- d)An act of Parliament
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
A Joint Public Service Commission can be created by:
a)
An order of the President
b)
A resolution of the Rajya Sabha
c)
A resolution of the concerned state legislatures
d)
An act of Parliament
| | Alok Verma answered |
A Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC) can be created by an act of the Parliament on the request of the Legislature of the State concerned.
Fundamental Duties were added on the recommendation of which committee?- a) Swaran Singh Committee
- b) Sarkaria Committee
- c) Urjit Patel Committee
- d) Nayar Committee
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Fundamental Duties were added on the recommendation of which committee?
a)
Swaran Singh Committee
b)
Sarkaria Committee
c)
Urjit Patel Committee
d)
Nayar Committee
 | UPSC Achievers answered |
Answer a)the Swaran Singh Committee
The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted by the Government
What is not true about the Election Commission?- a)It prepares and periodically revises electoral rolls.
- b)It determines the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections.
- c)It grants recognition to political parties and allots election symbols to them.
- d)It doesn’t have authority of settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
What is not true about the Election Commission?
a)
It prepares and periodically revises electoral rolls.
b)
It determines the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections.
c)
It grants recognition to political parties and allots election symbols to them.
d)
It doesn’t have authority of settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them.
| | Saikat Nair answered |
't conduct bye-elections for vacant seats in the Parliament or State Legislatures.
(Note: All options except d) are true statements about the Election Commission)
(Note: All options except d) are true statements about the Election Commission)
The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of Indian Act 1935. This argument is supported by which of the following features/provisions of the Constitution?1. Public Service Commission of Union and States
2. Federal polity
3. Division of powers in lists between Center and States
4. Bicameralism in state assemblies.Choose the correct answer from the codes below?- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 4 only
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of Indian Act 1935. This argument is supported by which of the following features/provisions of the Constitution?
1. Public Service Commission of Union and States
2. Federal polity
3. Division of powers in lists between Center and States
4. Bicameralism in state assemblies.
2. Federal polity
3. Division of powers in lists between Center and States
4. Bicameralism in state assemblies.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below?
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 4 only
d)
All of the above
| | Uday Menon answered |
refer to the provisions of the Government of
India Act 1935, to understand how these
provisions affected Indian Constitution.
India Act 1935, to understand how these
provisions affected Indian Constitution.
Who was the first woman to become a Chief Election Commissioner of India?- a)V. S. Ramadevi
- b)G. D. Das
- c)S.K. Bedi
- d)R.M. Nikam
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Who was the first woman to become a Chief Election Commissioner of India?
a)
V. S. Ramadevi
b)
G. D. Das
c)
S.K. Bedi
d)
R.M. Nikam
| | Saikat Malik answered |
Answer: a
V.S. Ramadevi was the first woman to become a Chief Election Commissioner, and she occupied the office from 26 November 1990 to 11 December 1990
Consider the following statements:1. The fourth schedule of the constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and Union territories.2. Rajya Sabha has 245 members; out of these 6 members represent the Union territories.Which of the Statements given below is/are correct?- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) All of the above
- d) None of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
1. The fourth schedule of the constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and Union territories.
2. Rajya Sabha has 245 members; out of these 6 members represent the Union territories.
Which of the Statements given below is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
All of the above
d)
None of the above
| | Kiran Sharma answered |
Explanation:
The given statements are related to the Rajya Sabha and its composition. Let's discuss each statement in detail:
1. The fourth schedule of the constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and Union territories.
The fourth schedule of the constitution contains provisions for the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha. It specifies the number of seats allocated to each state and Union territory. The number of seats allocated to a state or Union territory depends on its population. This schedule was added to the constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
2. Rajya Sabha has 245 members; out of these 6 members represent the Union territories.
The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Indian parliament. It has a total of 245 members. Out of these, 233 members represent the states and Union territories, and 12 members are nominated by the President of India. The Union territories are represented by one member each, making a total of 6 members.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A', i.e., 1 only. The first statement is correct, while the second statement is partially correct as it only mentions the number of members representing the Union territories, but not the total number of members in the Rajya Sabha.
The given statements are related to the Rajya Sabha and its composition. Let's discuss each statement in detail:
1. The fourth schedule of the constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and Union territories.
The fourth schedule of the constitution contains provisions for the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha. It specifies the number of seats allocated to each state and Union territory. The number of seats allocated to a state or Union territory depends on its population. This schedule was added to the constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
2. Rajya Sabha has 245 members; out of these 6 members represent the Union territories.
The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Indian parliament. It has a total of 245 members. Out of these, 233 members represent the states and Union territories, and 12 members are nominated by the President of India. The Union territories are represented by one member each, making a total of 6 members.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'A', i.e., 1 only. The first statement is correct, while the second statement is partially correct as it only mentions the number of members representing the Union territories, but not the total number of members in the Rajya Sabha.
Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived and select the correct answer
Below the options are given in the A B C D order- a)3 1 4 2
- b)1 2 3 4
- c)2 1 4 3
- d)1 4 3 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived and select the correct answer
Below the options are given in the A B C D order
a)
3 1 4 2
b)
1 2 3 4
c)
2 1 4 3
d)
1 4 3 2
 | Wizius Careers answered |
Borrowed features from different countries
Canadian constitution
- A quasi-federal form of government —a federal system with a strong central government
- Distribution of powers between the central government and state governments
- Residual powers retained by the central government
Constitution of the United States
- Preamble; Fundamental Rights; Federal structure of government; Electoral College; Independence of the judiciary and separation of powers among the three branches of the government; Judicial review; President as Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
- Equal protection under the law
Irish constitution (Ireland)
- Directive Principles of State Policy; Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha; Method of Election of President
Australian constitution
- Freedom of trade and commerce within the country and between the states
- Power of the national legislature to make laws for implementing treaties, even on matters outside normal Federal jurisdiction
- Concurrent List
Consider a situation where the Prime Minister wants to impose President’s rule in one state because the state government has failed to effectively curb atrocities in that state. The president does not agree wholeheartedly on signing the order.
Which of the following course of actions are available to the President?
1. Tell the Prime Minister that he will not sign on the order promulgating President’s rule.2. Make press statement about how the Prime Minister is wrong.
3. Discuss the matter with the Prime Minister and try to dissuade him from taking this action, but if he
insists agreeing to sign the said order.Choose the correct answer from the codes below- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)3 only
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider a situation where the Prime Minister wants to impose President’s rule in one state because the state government has failed to effectively curb atrocities in that state. The president does not agree wholeheartedly on signing the order.
Which of the following course of actions are available to the President?
1. Tell the Prime Minister that he will not sign on the order promulgating President’s rule.
Which of the following course of actions are available to the President?
1. Tell the Prime Minister that he will not sign on the order promulgating President’s rule.
2. Make press statement about how the Prime Minister is wrong.
3. Discuss the matter with the Prime Minister and try to dissuade him from taking this action, but if he
insists agreeing to sign the said order.
3. Discuss the matter with the Prime Minister and try to dissuade him from taking this action, but if he
insists agreeing to sign the said order.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
3 only
 | Rithika Yadav answered |
Article 74
(1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the PM at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such
advises. (The matter in bold letters is added by the Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India in the year 1977)
Provided that the President may require the
Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advises tendered after such reconsideration. (This para is added by the Forty-fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India in the year 1978)
(2) The question if any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
(1) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the PM at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such
advises. (The matter in bold letters is added by the Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India in the year 1977)
Provided that the President may require the
Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advises tendered after such reconsideration. (This para is added by the Forty-fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India in the year 1978)
(2) The question if any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 puts duty on parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his Child or Ward in the age of- a) 6 to 14
- b) 6 to 10
- c) 5 to 15
- d) 6 to 16
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 puts duty on parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his Child or Ward in the age of
a)
6 to 14
b)
6 to 10
c)
5 to 15
d)
6 to 16
 | Suyash Unni answered |
The correct answer is option 'A' which states that the duty of providing opportunities for education to a child or ward lies on the parent or guardian in the age of 6 to 14. This is stated in the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
Explanation:
1. The Right to Education (RTE) Act:
- The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 is commonly known as the Right to Education (RTE) Act.
- It was enacted to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.
- The Act made it a fundamental right for children to receive quality education.
- It aimed to bridge the gap between privileged and underprivileged children by ensuring equal opportunities for education.
2. Duty on Parent or Guardian:
- The RTE Act places the responsibility of providing opportunities for education on the parent or guardian of a child.
- Parents or guardians are expected to ensure that their child or ward between the ages of 6 to 14 attend school regularly.
- They are required to support their child's education by providing necessary resources and creating a conducive learning environment at home.
- The Act emphasizes the importance of parental involvement in a child's education.
3. Importance of Education:
- Education is a fundamental right and plays a vital role in an individual's personal and social development.
- It empowers individuals with knowledge, skills, and values necessary to lead a meaningful and productive life.
- Education helps in reducing poverty, improving health outcomes, promoting gender equality, and fostering social cohesion.
4. Benefits of RTE Act:
- The RTE Act has several benefits, such as increasing enrollment rates, reducing dropout rates, and improving the quality of education.
- It prohibits discrimination in school admissions based on a child's social background, economic status, or gender.
- The Act also lays down norms and standards for infrastructure, teacher-student ratios, and quality of education in schools.
- It provides for the appointment of Special Educators to cater to the needs of children with disabilities.
In conclusion, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 places the duty on parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward in the age group of 6 to 14. This Act aims to ensure free and compulsory education for all children and emphasizes the importance of parental involvement in a child's education.
Explanation:
1. The Right to Education (RTE) Act:
- The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 is commonly known as the Right to Education (RTE) Act.
- It was enacted to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.
- The Act made it a fundamental right for children to receive quality education.
- It aimed to bridge the gap between privileged and underprivileged children by ensuring equal opportunities for education.
2. Duty on Parent or Guardian:
- The RTE Act places the responsibility of providing opportunities for education on the parent or guardian of a child.
- Parents or guardians are expected to ensure that their child or ward between the ages of 6 to 14 attend school regularly.
- They are required to support their child's education by providing necessary resources and creating a conducive learning environment at home.
- The Act emphasizes the importance of parental involvement in a child's education.
3. Importance of Education:
- Education is a fundamental right and plays a vital role in an individual's personal and social development.
- It empowers individuals with knowledge, skills, and values necessary to lead a meaningful and productive life.
- Education helps in reducing poverty, improving health outcomes, promoting gender equality, and fostering social cohesion.
4. Benefits of RTE Act:
- The RTE Act has several benefits, such as increasing enrollment rates, reducing dropout rates, and improving the quality of education.
- It prohibits discrimination in school admissions based on a child's social background, economic status, or gender.
- The Act also lays down norms and standards for infrastructure, teacher-student ratios, and quality of education in schools.
- It provides for the appointment of Special Educators to cater to the needs of children with disabilities.
In conclusion, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 places the duty on parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward in the age group of 6 to 14. This Act aims to ensure free and compulsory education for all children and emphasizes the importance of parental involvement in a child's education.
Article 23 of the Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings, forced labour and other similar forms of forced labour.
It is enforced by which of the following laws made by the parliament?
1. Minimum wages Act, 1948
2. Contract labour Act, 1970
3. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976Choose the correct answer from the codesbelow- a)All of the above
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)1 and 2 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Article 23 of the Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings, forced labour and other similar forms of forced labour.
It is enforced by which of the following laws made by the parliament?
1. Minimum wages Act, 1948
2. Contract labour Act, 1970
3. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
It is enforced by which of the following laws made by the parliament?
1. Minimum wages Act, 1948
2. Contract labour Act, 1970
3. Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Choose the correct answer from the codesbelow
a)
All of the above
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
1 and 2 only
| | Husna Nunu answered |
All the above options are correct answer
Collective responsibility of the Council ofMinisters to the Parliament is the bedrockprinciple of parliamentary government. Itimplies that- a)The parliament can remove theCouncil of Ministers from office bypassing a vote of no confidence.
- b)The Council of Ministers isappointed and dismissed by theParliament
- c)All important decisions of theCouncil of Ministers have to beapproved by the Parliament
- d)None of the above
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Collective responsibility of the Council ofMinisters to the Parliament is the bedrockprinciple of parliamentary government. Itimplies that
a)
The parliament can remove theCouncil of Ministers from office bypassing a vote of no confidence.
b)
The Council of Ministers isappointed and dismissed by theParliament
c)
All important decisions of theCouncil of Ministers have to beapproved by the Parliament
d)
None of the above
 | Atmakuri Eswaramma answered |
What is not true about a public bill?- a)It is introduced by any Member of Parliament other than a minister.
- b)It reflects of the policies of the government
- c)It is drafted by the concerned department in consultation with the law department.
- d)Its rejection by the House amounts to the expression of want of parliamentary confidence in the government and may lead to its resignation.
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
What is not true about a public bill?
a)
It is introduced by any Member of Parliament other than a minister.
b)
It reflects of the policies of the government
c)
It is drafted by the concerned department in consultation with the law department.
d)
Its rejection by the House amounts to the expression of want of parliamentary confidence in the government and may lead to its resignation.
| | Palak Nambiar answered |
Answer: a
Explanation: It is introduced in the Parliament by a minister.
Which of the following is not a ground to discriminate against any citizen- a)Religion
- b)None
- c)Caste
- d)Place of birth
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following is not a ground to discriminate against any citizen
a)
Religion
b)
None
c)
Caste
d)
Place of birth
| | Vandana Deshpande answered |
Grounds for Discrimination Against Citizens
Discrimination against citizens is not allowed under the Indian Constitution. The following are the grounds that are not acceptable for discrimination against any citizen:
a) Religion
b) Caste
c) Place of birth
Explanation
Religion, caste, and place of birth are some of the major grounds on which people have been discriminated against in India for centuries. Discrimination on the basis of these grounds is not acceptable as per the Indian Constitution. Every citizen of India has the right to live with dignity and respect, regardless of their religion, caste, or place of birth.
Religion: India is a secular country, which means that the state does not endorse or promote any particular religion. Every citizen of India has the right to practice and follow their own religion. Discrimination on the basis of religion is not acceptable in India.
Caste: The caste system is a social hierarchy that has been prevalent in India for centuries. Discrimination on the basis of caste is not acceptable as per the Indian Constitution. Every citizen of India has the right to live with dignity and respect, regardless of their caste.
Place of Birth: Discrimination on the basis of place of birth is also not acceptable in India. Every citizen of India has the right to live with dignity and respect, regardless of their place of birth.
Conclusion
In conclusion, discrimination against citizens on the basis of religion, caste, and place of birth is not acceptable in India. Every citizen of India has the right to live with dignity and respect, regardless of their background. The Indian Constitution guarantees these rights to every citizen of the country.
Discrimination against citizens is not allowed under the Indian Constitution. The following are the grounds that are not acceptable for discrimination against any citizen:
a) Religion
b) Caste
c) Place of birth
Explanation
Religion, caste, and place of birth are some of the major grounds on which people have been discriminated against in India for centuries. Discrimination on the basis of these grounds is not acceptable as per the Indian Constitution. Every citizen of India has the right to live with dignity and respect, regardless of their religion, caste, or place of birth.
Religion: India is a secular country, which means that the state does not endorse or promote any particular religion. Every citizen of India has the right to practice and follow their own religion. Discrimination on the basis of religion is not acceptable in India.
Caste: The caste system is a social hierarchy that has been prevalent in India for centuries. Discrimination on the basis of caste is not acceptable as per the Indian Constitution. Every citizen of India has the right to live with dignity and respect, regardless of their caste.
Place of Birth: Discrimination on the basis of place of birth is also not acceptable in India. Every citizen of India has the right to live with dignity and respect, regardless of their place of birth.
Conclusion
In conclusion, discrimination against citizens on the basis of religion, caste, and place of birth is not acceptable in India. Every citizen of India has the right to live with dignity and respect, regardless of their background. The Indian Constitution guarantees these rights to every citizen of the country.
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:- a)1 and 2 only
- b)1, 2 and 5 only
- c)3, 4 and 5 only
- d)1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1, 2 and 5 only
c)
3, 4 and 5 only
d)
1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
| | Amit Sharma answered |
The correct option is Option B.
Directive principle of state policy Article 45 states that the state shall endeavour to promote free education until they attain 14 years within ten years from the commencement of constitution .Education is included in 7th schedule as concurrent list.73rd and 74 th amendment gave rights to panchayats and municipalities to administer educational institutions.
Consider the following about the proportional representation system of election.1. The entire country may be single constituency in this system.
2. Multi member constituencies may be present.3. A party may get more seats than votes in the legislature.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)All of the above
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following about the proportional representation system of election.
1. The entire country may be single constituency in this system.
2. Multi member constituencies may be present.
2. Multi member constituencies may be present.
3. A party may get more seats than votes in the legislature.
Choose the correct answer from the codes below
Choose the correct answer from the codes below
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
All of the above
| | Meenu Chaturvedi answered |
C
Which of the following have not been borrowed from Australian Constitution:- a) Power of the national legislature to make laws for implementing treaties
- b) Emergency Provision u/a 356
- c) Freedom of trade and commerce within the country and between the states
- d) Concurrent List
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following have not been borrowed from Australian Constitution:
a)
Power of the national legislature to make laws for implementing treaties
b)
Emergency Provision u/a 356
c)
Freedom of trade and commerce within the country and between the states
d)
Concurrent List
| | Rithika Yadav answered |
Explanation:
The Australian Constitution is the legal foundation of the Commonwealth of Australia. It was drafted in the late 19th century and came into effect on January 1, 1901. The Constitution outlines the structure and powers of the Australian government, including the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
Power of the national legislature to make laws for implementing treaties:
This power has been borrowed from the Australian Constitution. Section 51(xxix) of the Australian Constitution grants the Commonwealth Parliament the power to make laws for the implementation of treaties. This means that the national legislature has the authority to pass laws that give effect to international agreements entered into by the Australian government.
Freedom of trade and commerce within the country and between the states:
This provision has also been borrowed from the Australian Constitution. Section 92 of the Australian Constitution guarantees freedom of trade and commerce among the states. It prohibits any state from imposing tariffs or other barriers to trade that would hinder the free movement of goods and services across state borders.
Concurrent List:
The concept of a concurrent list, which divides legislative powers between the national and state governments, is not borrowed from the Australian Constitution. In the Australian system, there is no concurrent list. Instead, the Australian Constitution grants specific powers to the Commonwealth Parliament (national legislature) and reserves all other powers to the states.
Emergency Provision under Article 356:
This provision is not borrowed from the Australian Constitution. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution allows the President of India to impose President's Rule or emergency in a state if the constitutional machinery of that state has failed. This provision is not present in the Australian Constitution.
In conclusion, the provision that has not been borrowed from the Australian Constitution is the Emergency Provision under Article 356. This provision is unique to the Indian Constitution and grants the President of India the power to impose emergency in a state.
The Australian Constitution is the legal foundation of the Commonwealth of Australia. It was drafted in the late 19th century and came into effect on January 1, 1901. The Constitution outlines the structure and powers of the Australian government, including the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
Power of the national legislature to make laws for implementing treaties:
This power has been borrowed from the Australian Constitution. Section 51(xxix) of the Australian Constitution grants the Commonwealth Parliament the power to make laws for the implementation of treaties. This means that the national legislature has the authority to pass laws that give effect to international agreements entered into by the Australian government.
Freedom of trade and commerce within the country and between the states:
This provision has also been borrowed from the Australian Constitution. Section 92 of the Australian Constitution guarantees freedom of trade and commerce among the states. It prohibits any state from imposing tariffs or other barriers to trade that would hinder the free movement of goods and services across state borders.
Concurrent List:
The concept of a concurrent list, which divides legislative powers between the national and state governments, is not borrowed from the Australian Constitution. In the Australian system, there is no concurrent list. Instead, the Australian Constitution grants specific powers to the Commonwealth Parliament (national legislature) and reserves all other powers to the states.
Emergency Provision under Article 356:
This provision is not borrowed from the Australian Constitution. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution allows the President of India to impose President's Rule or emergency in a state if the constitutional machinery of that state has failed. This provision is not present in the Australian Constitution.
In conclusion, the provision that has not been borrowed from the Australian Constitution is the Emergency Provision under Article 356. This provision is unique to the Indian Constitution and grants the President of India the power to impose emergency in a state.
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?- The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
- The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
- The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
- The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below- a)1 only
- b)2 and 4 only
- c)1, 3, and 4 only
- d)1, 2, 3, and 4
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
- The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
- The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
- The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
- The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 4 only
c)
1, 3, and 4 only
d)
1, 2, 3, and 4
| | Devansh Ghoshal answered |
According to the Constitution of India,
The Report of the Public Accounts Committee is not a duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament.
The Public Accounts Committee examines the accounts showing the appropriation of the sums granted by Parliament to meet the expenditure of the Government of India, the Annual Finance Accounts of the Government of India and such other accounts laid before the House as the Committee may think fit.
Which of the following statements is true with respect to 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?1. Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 19762. Ten Fundamental Duties were included by this Amendment3. The 11th Fundamental Duty was incorporated by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002Select the correct answer using the code given below.- a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 1 and 3 only
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Which of the following statements is true with respect to 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?
1. Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
2. Ten Fundamental Duties were included by this Amendment
3. The 11th Fundamental Duty was incorporated by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Raksha Das answered |
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, was a significant amendment that brought about several changes to the Constitution of India. The following statements are true with respect to this amendment:
1. Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976: This statement is true. The amendment introduced a new Part IV-A in the Constitution, which contains the Fundamental Duties of citizens.
2. Ten Fundamental Duties were included by this Amendment: This statement is also true. The 42nd Amendment Act included ten Fundamental Duties, which are listed in Article 51A of the Constitution.
3. The 11th Fundamental Duty was incorporated by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002: This statement is true. The 86th Amendment Act added a new Fundamental Duty to the Constitution, which states that parents or guardians must ensure that their children receive education between the ages of 6 and 14.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - 1, 2 and 3 are all true statements. The 42nd Amendment Act was a significant step towards strengthening the democratic values of the country by highlighting the responsibilities of citizens towards the nation.
1. Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976: This statement is true. The amendment introduced a new Part IV-A in the Constitution, which contains the Fundamental Duties of citizens.
2. Ten Fundamental Duties were included by this Amendment: This statement is also true. The 42nd Amendment Act included ten Fundamental Duties, which are listed in Article 51A of the Constitution.
3. The 11th Fundamental Duty was incorporated by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002: This statement is true. The 86th Amendment Act added a new Fundamental Duty to the Constitution, which states that parents or guardians must ensure that their children receive education between the ages of 6 and 14.
Therefore, the correct answer is option 'D' - 1, 2 and 3 are all true statements. The 42nd Amendment Act was a significant step towards strengthening the democratic values of the country by highlighting the responsibilities of citizens towards the nation.
Consider the following statements:- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
- While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?- a)1 only
- b)2 only
- c)Both 1 and 2
- d)Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
- While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
Both 1 and 2
d)
Neither 1 nor 2
| | Amar Menon answered |
Answer: b
Explanation: Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Disqualification on ground of defection does not apply in cases of1. Political party mergers
2. Political party splits
3. A candidate quitting political partyChoose the correct answer from the codes below- a)1 and 2 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 3 only
- d)2 only
Correct answer is option 'A'. Can you explain this answer?
Disqualification on ground of defection does not apply in cases of
1. Political party mergers
2. Political party splits
3. A candidate quitting political party
2. Political party splits
3. A candidate quitting political party
Choose the correct answer from the codes below
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 3 only
d)
2 only
| | Amrita Bose answered |
The correct option is A.
Disqualification on ground of defection. - Subject to the provisions of paragraphs 3, 4 and 5, a member of a House belonging to any political party shall be disqualified for being a member of the House-
(a) if he has voluntarily given up his membership of such political party; or
(b) if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by the political party to which he belongs or by any person or authority authorised by it in this behalf, without obtaining, in either case, the prior permission of such political party, person or authority and such voting or abstention has not been condoned by such political party, person or authority within fifteen days from the date of such voting or abstention.
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The fundamental Rights and Directive Principles together have been described as the ‘conscience of the Constitution’ by Granville Austin
2. DPSP are in the nature of directives to all governments of the country, Central, State as well as local.
Choose the correct options among the following-- a) 1 only
- b)2 only
- c)1 and 2 only
- d)none of them
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The fundamental Rights and Directive Principles together have been described as the ‘conscience of the Constitution’ by Granville Austin
2. DPSP are in the nature of directives to all governments of the country, Central, State as well as local.
Choose the correct options among the following-
1. The fundamental Rights and Directive Principles together have been described as the ‘conscience of the Constitution’ by Granville Austin
2. DPSP are in the nature of directives to all governments of the country, Central, State as well as local.
Choose the correct options among the following-
a)
1 only
b)
2 only
c)
1 and 2 only
d)
none of them
| | Meera Singh answered |
The DPSP are mentioned in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 511. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Dr B R Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution.
The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. Granville Austin has described the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution’
The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution. Granville Austin has described the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights as the ‘Conscience of the Constitution’
- Which of the following is / are the function / functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
- Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
- Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below- a)1 only
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)1 and 2 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'C'. Can you explain this answer?
- Which of the following is / are the function / functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
- Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
- Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
- Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a)
1 only
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
1 and 2 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Saptarshi Majumdar answered |
The correct answer is option 'C' - 1 and 2 only.
The Cabinet Secretariat is an important body in the government structure of India. It acts as a link between the political executive and the permanent bureaucracy. It assists in the functioning of the Cabinet and its Committees. Let's discuss the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat in detail:
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings:
The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for preparing the agenda for Cabinet Meetings. The agenda includes the issues to be discussed and decisions to be taken by the Cabinet. The Cabinet Secretariat coordinates with various ministries and departments to gather information and proposals for the agenda. It ensures that all relevant matters are included for discussion and decision-making by the Cabinet.
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees:
The Cabinet Secretariat provides secretarial assistance to various Cabinet Committees. These Committees are formed to examine specific issues and make recommendations to the Cabinet. The Cabinet Secretariat assists in the organization of meetings, preparation of minutes, and follow-up actions on the decisions taken by the Committees. It plays a crucial role in coordinating the work of different ministries and departments involved in the Committees.
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries:
The allocation of financial resources to the ministries is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat. It is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance, specifically the Department of Expenditure. The Ministry of Finance prepares the Union Budget, which includes the allocation of funds to different ministries and departments based on their requirements and priorities.
In conclusion, the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat include the preparation of the agenda for Cabinet Meetings and providing secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. However, the allocation of financial resources to the ministries is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - 1 and 2 only.
The Cabinet Secretariat is an important body in the government structure of India. It acts as a link between the political executive and the permanent bureaucracy. It assists in the functioning of the Cabinet and its Committees. Let's discuss the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat in detail:
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings:
The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for preparing the agenda for Cabinet Meetings. The agenda includes the issues to be discussed and decisions to be taken by the Cabinet. The Cabinet Secretariat coordinates with various ministries and departments to gather information and proposals for the agenda. It ensures that all relevant matters are included for discussion and decision-making by the Cabinet.
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees:
The Cabinet Secretariat provides secretarial assistance to various Cabinet Committees. These Committees are formed to examine specific issues and make recommendations to the Cabinet. The Cabinet Secretariat assists in the organization of meetings, preparation of minutes, and follow-up actions on the decisions taken by the Committees. It plays a crucial role in coordinating the work of different ministries and departments involved in the Committees.
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries:
The allocation of financial resources to the ministries is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat. It is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance, specifically the Department of Expenditure. The Ministry of Finance prepares the Union Budget, which includes the allocation of funds to different ministries and departments based on their requirements and priorities.
In conclusion, the functions of the Cabinet Secretariat include the preparation of the agenda for Cabinet Meetings and providing secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. However, the allocation of financial resources to the ministries is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat. Therefore, the correct answer is option 'C' - 1 and 2 only.
Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts- consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
- Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
- Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?- a)1
- b)2 and 3 only
- c)3 only
- d)1, 2 and 3
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
- consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
- Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
- Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a)
1
b)
2 and 3 only
c)
3 only
d)
1, 2 and 3
| | Vikram Verma answered |
The financial committee has 22 members. All the members are taken from the Indian Parliament. Out of 22 members, 15 are elected from Lok Sabha (Lower House) and 7 members are elected from Rajya Sabha (Upper House.) The Public Accounts Committee examines both the Appropriation and Finance Reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
The constituent Assembly was set up in:- a)1945
- b)1946
- c)1947
- d)1949
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
The constituent Assembly was set up in:
a)
1945
b)
1946
c)
1947
d)
1949
 | Harshad Nambiar answered |
Constituent Assembly of India:
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. It was set up in 1946 after the end of British rule in India. The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the provincial assemblies and nominated by the rulers of the princely states.
Establishment:
The proposal to establish the Constituent Assembly was made in 1934 by M.N. Roy, a communist leader. Later, it was accepted by the Indian National Congress in 1935. Finally, the British Government passed the Indian Independence Act in 1947, and the Constituent Assembly was established in November 1946.
Objectives:
The Constituent Assembly was formed with the following objectives:
1. To draft the Constitution of India
2. To create a democratic government system
3. To establish safeguards for the rights of citizens
4. To ensure the unity and integrity of the nation
5. To promote economic growth and development
Members:
The Constituent Assembly had a total of 389 members, including 296 elected members and 93 nominated members. The members represented different states, communities, and political parties.
Leadership:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly, and H.V. Kamath was elected as the Vice-President. Other prominent leaders in the Assembly included Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, and B.R. Ambedkar.
Conclusion:
The Constituent Assembly played a crucial role in the establishment of democracy in India. It drafted the Constitution of India, which is the supreme law of the country. The Constitution provides for the fundamental rights of citizens, the separation of powers, and the establishment of a democratic government system. The Constituent Assembly laid the foundation for a strong and prosperous India.
The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. It was set up in 1946 after the end of British rule in India. The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected by the provincial assemblies and nominated by the rulers of the princely states.
Establishment:
The proposal to establish the Constituent Assembly was made in 1934 by M.N. Roy, a communist leader. Later, it was accepted by the Indian National Congress in 1935. Finally, the British Government passed the Indian Independence Act in 1947, and the Constituent Assembly was established in November 1946.
Objectives:
The Constituent Assembly was formed with the following objectives:
1. To draft the Constitution of India
2. To create a democratic government system
3. To establish safeguards for the rights of citizens
4. To ensure the unity and integrity of the nation
5. To promote economic growth and development
Members:
The Constituent Assembly had a total of 389 members, including 296 elected members and 93 nominated members. The members represented different states, communities, and political parties.
Leadership:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly, and H.V. Kamath was elected as the Vice-President. Other prominent leaders in the Assembly included Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, and B.R. Ambedkar.
Conclusion:
The Constituent Assembly played a crucial role in the establishment of democracy in India. It drafted the Constitution of India, which is the supreme law of the country. The Constitution provides for the fundamental rights of citizens, the separation of powers, and the establishment of a democratic government system. The Constituent Assembly laid the foundation for a strong and prosperous India.
In which case Supreme Court has declared the Preamble as the part of the constitution?a) Berubai Union caseb) Keshavnanda Bharti casec) Both a and bd) None of the aboveCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
| | Anjali Kapoor answered |
The Supreme Court of India originally stated in the BeruBari case presidential reference that the preamble is not an integral part of the Indian constitution, and therefore it is not enforceable in a court of law.
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