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APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - AP TET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test APSET Mock Test Series 2025 - APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 for AP TET 2024 is part of APSET Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the AP TET exam syllabus.The APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for AP TET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 below.
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APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Direction: Following table shows the percentage distribution of votes amongst five candidates A, B, C, D and E and total votes cast (in hundred) during the year 2013 to 2018 of collage presidential election. Study the data carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Q. If, out of the total number of voters in 2016 who fevered D, only 40 % could successfully cast their votes and remaining was unsuccessful. Find the number of voters who appeared to cast their votes in favour of D: 

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

Votes received by D in 2016

40% of total  votes =5950
total votes 

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

The communication which happens outside the realm of interpersonal communication is called:

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Mass communication is the process of me ages to the masses. 

  • Mass communication is the process of conveying a message to a large group of anonymous and heterogeneous people. 
  • A huge group of anonymous and diverse people might be thought of as either the general public or a part of the general public. 
  • Examples of mass communication channels, Broadcast television, radio, social media, print, etc.
  • The message is usually provided by a professional communicator who frequently represents an organization.
  • In contrast to interpersonal communication, mass communication feedback is typically delayed and indirect.

Therefore, The communication which happens outside the realm of interpersonal communication is called Mass communication.

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APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

The Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is a captive body of the Ministry of Education, Government of India established by an Administrative Order. The ICHR is based in Delhi, with regional centres in Pune (Maharashtra), Bengaluru (Karnataka), and Guwahati (Assam).
The Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS) is a research institute located in Shimla, India. It was set up by the Ministry of Education, Government of India in 1964 and started functioning from 20 October 1965.
Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) was established in March 1977 under Department of Higher Education and Ministry of Human Resource Development[1] as an Apex Level Body under the societies registration Act 1860.
The Central Institute of Coastal Engineering for Fishery (CICEF), formerly known as Pre-Investment Survey of Fishing Harbours (PISFH) is a premier institution of the Government of India established in January 1968 with its jurisdiction covering the entire Indian coastline for conducting engineering and economic investigations and preparing the Techno-Economic Feasibility Reports (TEFRs) for the fishery harbour (FH) projects.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

Directions: Answer the given question based on the following table.
Marks obtained by 6 candidates A, B, C, D, E and F:

Q. Which of the following candidates did not fail in any of the subjects?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 4


It is clear from the table that 'F' is the only candidate who did not fail in any subject.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Nitrification results in an increase in effluent ammonia toxicity
Statement II: Denitrification reduces nitrate to nitrogen gas using bacteria
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

Statement I: Nitrification results in an increase in effluent ammonia toxicity.

  • Nitrification is the conversion of ammonia to nitrites (NO2-) and ultimately to nitrates (NO3-)
  • Nitrification is the process by which nitrifying bacteria convert ammonia to nitrite and eventually to nitrate.
  • Chemoautotrophic bacteria carry out the process, which is an aerobic process.
  • Ammonia is the primary substrate in the nitrification process.

Thus, Statement I is incorrect.
Statement II: Denitrification reduces nitrate to nitrogen gas using bacteria.

  • Denitrification is the process of converting nitrate to nitrogen in the soil.
  • Bacteria such as Pseudomonas, Clostridium, and others carry out this activity.
  • Changes in the oxygen (O2) concentration in their immediate environment cause denitrification.

So. Statement II is correct. 
Therefore, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the given questions:
Recently, India witnessed a severe power shortage due to high demand and the non-availability of adequate coal supply. An energy deficit of more than 100 million units has been recorded during the month of April 2022. Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab, UP, Bihar, and Madhya Pradesh were the most affected states. India is the second largest country in terms of population, and the usage of electricity is increasing day by day. In today's India, electricity has reached even the remotest areas, and people are reaping its benefits. Electricity is critical to the overall development of society and the country, including technological development. However, technological advances require more electricity. The power requirement of many industries, such as railroads, agriculture, and domestic use, is increasing day by day. 
The advancement of technology and the resurgence of economic activity following the COVID-19 disruptions increased the demand for power. In April 2022, the average daily energy requirement increased to 4,512 million units, as opposed to 3,941 million units in April 2021, registering a growth of 14.5%. The use of electricity has increased in many industries, including railways, agriculture, and households. India's thermal power plants are also running well below their capacity, which could have managed this demand increase by increasing thermal generation. To address the problem of the power crisis in India, there is a need to change our planning and policies from ones that mainly manage shortages to ones that are flexible. Policies should be formulated with a focus on long-term structural solutions that address delivery, financial viability, and a robust mechanism for resource planning. The focus should be on ensuring that power plants operate efficiently. To address power shortages, a strategic approach to the low-cost energy transition, such as renewable energy and opportunities for diversification in the energy mix, is critical. For long-term power security, greater attention should be paid to accelerating generation from renewable energy sources.

Q. ​Choose the most appropriate option that describes the meaning of the term ‘renewable energy’ as used in the passage.

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

A renewable energy source means energy that is sustainable something that cannot be exhausted or is endless like the sun.

  • There is no evidence in the passage to accept options 'B',’ ‘C’, and ‘D’ as the correct answers.
APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the given question.
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The defacto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.

Q. The 'de facto' values in the passage mean

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 7

It is mentioned in the line "The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the 'is' of our ethic".

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Directions: Read the below information carefully and answer the question that follow.
The bar graph shows revenue (in lakhs) of a food company that sells different kinds of food items:

Q. What was the number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two categories?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Revenue increased in 2005 and 2006 from at least two categories. Hence, the answer is 2.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

The average age of 5 teachers is 28 years. If one teacher is excluded, then the mean gets reduced by 2 years. The age of the excluded teacher is

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Sum of the ages of 5 teachers = 28 × 5 = 140
Sum of the ages of 4 teachers = (28 - 2) × 4 = 104
The age of excluded teacher
= 140 - 104
= 36 years

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

What among the following is the major factor of biodiversity change?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

Biodiversity loss is the loss that occurs as a result of a drop or reduction in this variety due to a range of circumstances. The loss of biodiversity in a location may result in the extinction of some species, which in turn may result in the extinction of the entire ecosystem in that area.
Some of the major factors for the loss of biodiversity: 

  • Natural resources that were limitless a thousand years ago now appear to be severely limited due to the rising human population alone.
  • One of the biggest causes of biodiversity and ecosystem loss is land-use intensification.
  • Overexploitation has resulted in the extinction of species.
  • For Example, Steller's sea cow and the passenger pigeon. 
  • Climate change has an impact on biodiversity on several levels, including species distribution, population dynamics, community structure, and ecosystem function.
APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an eco-friendly resource for use in:
1) agriculture as micro-nutrient
2) wasteland development
3) dam and water holding structures
4) brick industry
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

Fly ash can be used in:

  • Construction of the Roman structure.
  • Manufacturing of building bricks.
  • Manufacture of cement.
  • Used as fertilizers.
  • In a dam and water holding structures.
  • As a replacement of white cement.
  • Used in road construction.
APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question.
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanisation process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality? Given the unprecedented increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.
In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

Q. Which of the following is/are not considered the indicator(s) of urban quality of life?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

"Tempo of urbanisation" has not been mentioned in the passage. So, option 1 is the correct answer.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

Direction: The following consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
What is Rohit's rank in the class?
Statement I. Rohit's rank is 24 less than Nandani's rank.
Statement II. Archana's rank is 38 more than Rohit's rank. Nandani's rank is 10 less than Archana's rank.

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

From statement I:
We have no information about Nandani's rank. Therefore, Rohit's rank cannot be determined.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using Statement I alone.
From statement II:
Archana's rank and Nandani's rank is not given. Therefore, Rohit's rank cannot be determined.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using statement II alone.
From statements I and II:
Ranks are not known for any of them. Thus, Rohit's rank cannot be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered using both statements I and II together.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of Administrators"?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Part IV of the Constitution of India is devoted to Directive Principles of the State Policy. The Directive Principles prescribe a code of conduct for administrators while discharging their responsibilities. Therefore, Part IV of Indian Constitution is known as "Code of Administrators".

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

______ is committing to the factual information to memory.

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 15

Memory level of teaching is committing to the factual information to memory.
There is a close relationship between teaching and learning. A teacher is said to be teaching when it is helping someone else to learn.
The quality of a teacher’s teaching is directly related to the quality of learning that is taking place in his students. A teacher interacts with his students under three types of relationships; viz., authoritative, democratic, and laissez-faire. These relationships create distinctive personality characteristics among the students.
The memory Level of teaching covers only the knowledge-based objective of Bloom's taxonomy where the students learn to identify, recall, or remember the objects, events, ideas, and concepts and retain them in memory.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question.
It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.
Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian people.
Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.
It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi, the question of personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.

Q. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

It is mentioned in the line, "Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses."

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written in that code?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

If CLOCK is coded as KCOLC, i.e., letters are written from right to left, then STEPS will be coded as SPETS.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

UV radiation released into the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone causes the mutation that leads to the severe damage to eyes by disrupting of rod and cone cells and cause permanent blindness.
It is because of the depletion of stratospheric ozone, UV radiation is able to reach the earth's surface. Exposure to these radiations has increased the occurrence of skin cancer, snow blindness (damage to eyes), herpes, deficient functioning of the immune system, etc. Liver cancer is not a consequence of UV exposure.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the question.
The phrase “What is it like?“ stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolise not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalisations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then he/she sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.

Q. The relation of Percept to Concept is

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

It is mentioned in the lines, "The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear .... what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions."

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Under GATS, higher education policies are to be framed by which of the following Departments?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

GATS (The General Agreement on Trade in Services) is the first multidimensional agreement that covers trade in services. It was set up during the last round of multilateral trade negotiations which is also known as the Uruguay Round. GATS came into force in the year 1995.

  • In the year 2000, a meeting was held and all the member countries of WTO were involved in a new round of negotiations which is known as GATS (General Agreement on Trade in Services).
  • The world Trade Organization is an international organization with global trading rules.
  • The primary function of WTO is to ensure that trade flows smoothly and freely.
  • WTO is committed to liberalizing trade and has included education in the list of the services of global trade rules.
  • WTO in its meeting Propososed that four-member countries need to develop the liberalization of trade in education and in the year 2000, Commerce and trade department was given the responsibility to frame higher education policies.

Therefore, Under GATS, higher education policies are to be framed by Commerce and Trade.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

This is one of the approaches that can be used to enhance inclusive education in the school. Inclusive education means that all students attend and are welcomed by their neighbourhood schools in age-appropriate, regular classes and are supported to learn, contribute and participate in all aspects of the life of the school. The teacher must accommodate the student (as mentioned in the question) in the class, providing him with all the facilities that are requisite to him.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

McGrath earned a profit of Rs. 300 by selling 100 kg of a mixture of A and B types of rice at a total price of Rs. 1,100. What was the proportion of A and B types of rice in the mixture if the cost prices of A and B are Rs. 10 and Rs. 5 per kg, respectively?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

Total amount which McGrath gets after selling the 100 kg of rice = Rs. 1,100
And profit = Rs. 300
∴ CP of 100 kg = 1,100 - 300 = Rs. 800
CP of 1 kg = Rs. 8
Now, apply the rule of alligation:

Hence, ratio of A and B in the mixture = 3 : 2

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason(R). Read and examine the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.
Reason (R): They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are ubiquitous environmental pollutants generated primarily during the incomplete combustion of organic materials (e.g. coal, oil, petrol, and wood). Emissions from anthropogenic activities predominate; nevertheless, some PAHs in the environment originate from natural sources such as open burning, natural losses or seepage of petroleum or coal deposits, and volcanic activities.
Many PAHs have toxic, mutagenic and/or carcinogenic properties. PAHs are highly lipid soluble and, thus, readily absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract of mammals.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Direction: Choose the correct option with the help of Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establishing interactions later. 
Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning. 

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

The fundamental aspect to teacher and student success is the teacher's ability to communicate with students, parents and colleagues. Teachers must have quality communication skills to assist their students to achieve success in their academic studies. More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the following question.
All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or parish birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are shifting and indistinct, the history of art and science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills. Both can also be seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident when one considers. For example, the common stock of knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.
Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of ‘methods’. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that the label ‘intellectual history’ attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding.
It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered. The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was ‘what mattered’. The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were ‘more flapdoodle’. The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to require ideas to have ‘licensed’ the political class before they can be deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years, the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority.

Q. What is philistinism?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

The definition of philistinism is given in the line "philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was what mattered".

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Directions: In the following question, there are two statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You are to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the two statements.
Statements:
Some elephants are horses.
All horses are crocodiles.
Conclusions:
I. No crocodile is an elephant.
II. Some elephants are crocodiles.

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 26


Hence, only conclusion II follows.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Directions: Read the data given in the following bar-graph carefully and answer the following question.
The bar-graph shows the net profit of a multinational company ABC (in Cr) from 2001-2002 to 2008-2009.

Q. What is the ratio of the number of years having more net profit than the average profit to the number of years having lesser net profit than the average profit of the company?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Average of the net profit of the company = Rs. 1740 Cr
Therefore,
Number of years having more net profit than total average = 3
Number of years having lesser net profit than total average = 5
Therefore,
Required ratio = 3/5 = 3 : 5
Hence, it is the required result.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Directions: Read the given passage carefully and answer the following question:
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage, the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based: It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task, therefore, is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

Q. Which of the following statements best describe(s) the major challenge faced in the implementation of international conservation policies?

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

The answer can be inferred from the lines: 'Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts'. Here, 'international approaches' refers to the international conservation policies. So, option 2 is the correct answer.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Directions: Choose the correct alternative that will complete the series below.
DEB, IJG, NOL, ?, XYV

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

The first letters of the consecutive terms follow a sequence of +5, the second letters follow a sequence of +5 and the third letters also follow a sequence of +5.
D + 5 = I, I + 5 = N, N + 5 = S, S + 5 = X
E + 5 = J, J + 5 = O, O + 5 = T, T + 5 = Y
B + 5 = G, G + 5 = L, L + 5 = Q, Q + 5 = V
So the required letters will be STQ.

APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).
Premises:
A. Some dancers are physically fit.
B. Some singers are dancers.
Conclusions:
1. Some singers are physically fit.
2. Some dancers are singers.
3. Some physically fit persons are dancers.
4. Some physically fit persons are singers.

Detailed Solution for APSET Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

From (b), it can be concluded that some dancers are singers.
Now, if we consider (a), we can draw that some physically fit are dancers.
So, conclusions 2 and 3 follow.

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