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EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 Free Online Test 2026


Full Mock Test & Solutions: EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 (130 Questions)

You can boost your EMRS 2026 exam preparation with this EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 (available with detailed solutions).. This mock test has been designed with the analysis of important topics, recent trends of the exam, and previous year questions of the last 3-years. All the questions have been designed to mirror the official pattern of EMRS 2026 exam, helping you build speed, accuracy as per the actual exam.

Mock Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 180 minutes
  • - Total Questions: 130
  • - Analysis: Detailed Solutions & Performance Insights
  • - Sections covered: General Awareness, Reasoning Ability, Knowledge of ICT, Teaching Aptitude, Domain Knowledge, General English, General Hindi, English

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EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

The correct answer is A.
Explanation

  • ​Let's analyze each capital and its corresponding country:
    • KhartoumEthiopia (Incorrect)
      • Khartoum is the capital of Sudan, not Ethiopia.
      • The capital of Ethiopia is Addis Ababa.
    • DublinIreland (Correct)
      • Dublin is the capital of Ireland.
    • NaypyidawMyanmar (Correct)
      • Naypyidaw is the capital of Myanmar (formerly Burma).
    • OttawaCanada (Correct)
      • Ottawa is the capital of Canada.
  • Correct Answer: a (Khartoum is not the capital of Ethiopia, it is the capital of Sudan).

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

Who among the following succeeded Samudragupta as the next ruler of the Gupta dynasty?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

The correct answer is Chandragupta II.
Explanation

  • Chandragupta ll succeeded Samundragupta as the next ruler of the Gupta dynasty.
  • Chandragupta II was also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya. He was the son of Samudragupta and the grandson of Chandragupta I.
  • He was deeply interested in art and culture.
  • Mahrauli Inscription/ Garuda Pillar was established by Chandragupta-II of the Gupta dynasty in honour of Lord Vishnu
  • He had 9 gems (Navratna) in his court which are described below:

Other Related Points

  • Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prasasti) was issued by Samudragupta and was composed by Harisena.
  • It is written in very simple and refined Sanskrit in Champu kavya style. It lists the achievements of Samudragupta.
  • It mentions that Samudragupta defeated 9 kings in the North, 12 Kings in the South.
  • Another term used by Harisena for him is Kaviraja.
  • Samudragupta also assumed the title of Vikramanka.
  • Samudragupta is also called Napoleon of India.
  • Samudragupta was the fourth king of the Gupta dynasty and the successor to "Chandragupta-I".
  • Samudragupta is known as the greatest king of the Gupta dynasty and a valiant warrior and patron of the arts.
  • Chandragupta-I became king after his father Ghatotkacha (320 AD).
  • The capital of Samudragupta Gupta's empire was "Pataliputra".
  • Vishnugupta was the last important ruler of the Gupta dynasty.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

The Jagannath Temple in Puri depicts which Indian classical dance form?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

The correct answer is Odissi.
Explanation

  • Odissi is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Odisha in eastern India.
  • The Jagannath Temple in Puri is one of the most famous pilgrimage sites for Hindus and is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, an incarnation of Lord Vishnu.
  • The temple is known for its annual Rath Yatra festival.
  • Odissi dance is an integral part of the rituals and traditions of the Jagannath Temple.
  • The temple has a dedicated dance hall called the Natamandira, where Odissi performances are held during festivals and other special occasions.
  • Odissi is characterized by its graceful movements, intricate footwork, and expressive gestures.
  • It is known for its emphasis on the tribhangi posture, where the body is bent in three places - the head, torso, and knees.
  • Odissi has a rich history and has evolved over the centuries, incorporating elements from other dance forms and cultural traditions.
  • It is recognized as one of the eight classical dance forms of India.

Other Related Points

  • Kuchipudi is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
    • It is known for its fast-paced footwork and dramatic storytelling.
  • Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Tamil Nadu.
    • It is known for its intricate hand gestures and facial expressions.
  • Kathak is a classical dance form that originated in northern India.
    • It is known for its fast footwork and complex rhythmic patterns.
  • While these dance forms are not directly associated with the Jagannath Temple in Puri, they are important part of India's rich cultural heritage and have their own unique styles and traditions.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

The concept of 'Basic Structure of the Constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in the case of

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The correct answer is Keshvanand Bharti vs State of Kerala - 1973.
Explanation

  • Basic Structure of the Constitution
    • There is no mention of the term “Basic Structure” anywhere in the Constitution of India.
    • The idea that the Parliament cannot introduce laws that would amend the basic structure of the constitution evolved gradually over time and in many cases.
    • The idea is to preserve the nature of Indian democracy and protect the rights and liberties of the people.
    • This Basic Structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution helps to protect and preserve the spirit of the constitution document.
    • It was the Kesavananda Bharati case that brought this doctrine into the limelight.
      • It held that the “basic structure of the Indian Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment”.
      • The judgment listed some basic structures of the constitution as:
        • Supremacy of the Constitution
        • Unity and sovereignty of India
        • A democratic and republican forms of government
        • Federal character of the Constitution
        • Secular character of the Constitution
        • Separation of power
        • Individual freedom
  • Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
    • This was a landmark case in defining the concept of the basic structure doctrine.
    • The SC held that although no part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, was beyond the Parliament’s amending power, the “basic structure of the Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment.”
    • The judgment implied that the parliament can only amend the constitution and not rewrite it. The power to amend is not the power to destroy.
    • This is the basis in Indian law in which the judiciary can strike down any amendment passed by Parliament that is in conflict with the basic structure of the Constitution.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

Given below is a statement followed by two possible reasons numbered I and II. Read the statement carefully and decide which of the two explain(s) the event/observation/information given in the statement.
Statement: Even though sugar is added in most of the food items cooked, it is not good for health. Reasons:
I. Sugar adds more taste into any food being cooked.
II. Sugar is the most consumed material in the country

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Given statement: Even though sugar is added in most of the food items cooked, it is not good for health.
Given reasons:
I. Sugar adds more taste into any food being cooked. → Possible
The given reasons related to why it is added in most of the food items, therefore is related and valid.
II. Sugar is the most consumed material in the country → Not Possible
The given reason is about consumption but doesn't explains why it is not good for health, therefore is invalid.

Thus, Only I is a possible reason.
Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

Q is the daughter of P. P is the father of R. R is the wife of S. T is the son of S. How is Q related to T?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Decoding symbols for Family Tree:

According to the given information Family Tree Representation:

Q is the daughter of P, and P is the father of R. This means Q and R are siblings, and P is their father. Q is female, R is female (wife of S).
R is the wife of S. T is the son of S. This means R is the mother of T.
Q is the sister of R, and R is the mother of T.
Q is the sister of T's mother.
Thus, Q is the Mother's sister (Aunt) of T.
Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4"

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct ?
Assertion (A): Moon cannot be used as a satellite for communication.
Reason (R): Moon does not move in the equatorial plane of the earth.
Choose your answer from the options given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 7

The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation

  • Assertion: Moon cannot be used as a satellite for communication - True as Moon is very far away from Earth (the orbital time period is approximately 27.3 days), also it does not have an equatorial orbit nor have a polar orbit.
  • Reason (R): Moon does not move in the equatorial plane of the earth - True and that's why it cannot be used as a satellite for communication.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

In M.S Word Thesaurus tool is used for?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

  • In addition to the spell checking and grammar checking tools that Microsoft Word offers, there is also the Word thesaurus we can take advantage of to improve our documents
  • Using the thesaurus, you can find synonyms (different words with the same meaning) and antonyms (words with the opposite meaning)
  • In Microsoft Office Word you can look up a word quickly if you right-click anywhere in your document, and then click Synonym on the shortcut menu

Command to use Thesaurus tool ( shortcut key: shift + F7).

Important Points Other helpful commands used in MS word.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

Windows 7 _______ edition has the fewest features and is most commonly used on computers with limited capabilities.

Detailed Solution: Question 9

The correct answer is Starter.
Explanation

  • Windows 7 Starter Edition is the version that has the fewest features and abilities.
  • This edition of Windows 7 was specifically designed for entry-level PC users in emerging markets who couldn't afford more advanced versions. The idea was to provide a more affordable option for users who primarily needed basic functions.
  • Features such as HomeGroup (create & join), Aero Glass transparency features, and several others aren't available in Starter Edition. It only supports up to 2 GB of RAM, and you can't switch between different themes or personalize your desktop background.
  • That's why it's most commonly used on old or less powerful computers with limited capabilities.
  • As of January 2020, Microsoft is no longer supporting Windows 7.
  • Microsoft released a new Windows 11 in 2021 with many new features.

Other Related Points

  • About Microsoft:
    • Founder - Bill Gates and Paul Allen.
    • Founded on - 4 April 1975.
    • CEO - Satya Nadela.
    • Chairperson - John W. Thompson.
    • Headquarters - Washington DC.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

CD-ROM is a kind of______.

Detailed Solution: Question 10

The correct answer is Optical disc.
Important Points

  • Compact Disc Read-Only Memory, a CD-ROM is an optical disc that contains audio or software data whose memory is read-only.
  • An optical disc is an electronic data storage medium that can be written to and read from using a low-powered laser beam.
  • Originally developed in the late 1960s, the first optical disc, created by James T. Russell.
  • Optical Disc includes CDs, DVDs, and Blu-ray discs. This allows you to play music or watch movies using prerecorded discs.

Other Related Points

  • A magnetic Disk is a type of secondary memory that is a flat disc covered with a magnetic coating to hold information.
    • It is used to store various programs and files. The polarized information in one direction is represented by 1, and vice versa. The direction is indicated by 0.
    • Hard disks, zip disks, and floppy disks are common examples of magnetic disks.
  • A magneto-optical disc is a rewritable disc that makes use of both magnetic disk and optical technologies.
    • Magneto-optical disks are seldom manufactured and used due to the advent of flash drives and DVD/CD drives.
    • It is capable of having high data intensity using a magnetic read/write head and a laser.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Which describe the aims of formative assessment?
(a) Judging the worth of a program while the program activities are in progress.
(b) Identifying the specific learning error that needs to be corrected.
(c) Providing the student with feedback regarding his or her success or failure in attaining the instructional objectives.
(d) Focusing on the outcome and not on the process.

Detailed Solution: Question 11

  • Assessment is the systematic basis for making inferences about the learning and development of students.
  • It is the process of defining, selecting, designing, collecting, analyzing, interpreting, and using information to increase students' learning and development.

Explanation

  • Formative assessment:
    • It is also known as formative evaluation, formative feedback, or assessment for learning, including diagnostic testing.
    • It is a range of formal and informal assessment procedures conducted by teachers during the learning process.
    • It is conducted to know the mastery in content.
    • The purpose is to monitor the learning progress of the learner.
    • It helps the learner to actively and continuously engage in learning in a non-threatening and supportive environment.
    • Effective formative assessment strategies involve asking students to answer well-thought-out, higher-order questions such as “why” and “how.” Higher-order questions require more in-depth thinking from the students and help the teacher discern the level and extent of the students' understanding.
    • It provides a chance for the learner to reflect on their performances and scope for improvement.
    • It provides feedback to students and teachers for effective learning.
    • It does not focus on the outcome but on the process of learning.
    • Examination, assignments, projects, quizzes, and competitions, group discussions are some of the techniques used in formative evaluation.
    • Examples of formative assessments include asking students to: draw a concept map in class to represent their understanding of a topic; submit one or two sentences identifying the main point of a lecture; turn in a research proposal for early feedback.

Thus, the correct solution is (a), (b) and (c) i.e. option 1.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

An identifying characteristic feature of creative children is that

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Creative children are those who demonstrate a natural ability to think in innovative and imaginative ways, and who have a strong inclination towards creative expressions.
Explanation

  • Creative children often exhibit independent thinking, which means they are not limited by pre-existing ideas and are willing to explore new possibilities.
  • They are often curious, imaginative, and open to new experiences, which allows them to think outside the box and come up with innovative ideas.
  • This independent thinking also makes them less likely to conform to norms, as they are not bound by traditional or conventional ways of thinking.

Thus, it is concluded that An identifying characteristic feature of creative children is that they are independent in their thinking.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of good teaching?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Teaching is intimate contact between a more mature personality and a less mature one which is designed to further the education of the latter.
Explanation

  • Characteristics of Good Teaching are as follows:
    • It provides desirable information.
    • It creates self-motivation for learning.
    • The students remain active in good teaching.
    • It focuses on selected information.
    • It is based on democratic ideals.
    • It should create value in students.
    • It is based on activity.
    • It is directional in nature.
    • It is based on the cooperation of the teacher and students.
    • It is based on the previous knowledge of the teacher.
    • It is progressive.
    • It is planned with a definite aim.
    • It includes all sorts of teachers' performances and teaching methods.
    • It enhances the potential of the students.
    • The teacher works as a philosopher, friend, and director.
    • The teacher's classroom behavior includes both direct and indirect behavior.
    • It reflects the harmony between the teacher and the students.

Hence, we conclude that Good teaching is not value-based, is not a characteristic of good teaching.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

What is the primary objective of teaching?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

The correct answer is Transmitting knowledge.
Explanation

  • The primary objective of teaching is to transmit knowledge to students. This includes both factual knowledge and conceptual knowledge. Teachers help students to understand the world around them and to develop the skills they need to succeed in life.
  • The other options are incorrect. Disciplining students is important, but it is not the primary objective of teaching. Promoting competition among students can be counterproductive, as it can lead to students feeling stressed and anxious. Encouraging creativity and innovation is important, but it is not the primary objective of teaching.
  • Here are some other objectives of teaching, in addition to transmitting knowledge:
    • Developing critical thinking skills
    • Fostering a love of learning
    • Preparing students for the workforce
    • Shaping character and values
    • Promoting social and emotional skills

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

Essay questions are commonly used to assess students. What is the biggest drawback of these types of questions?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

Essay type test is known as a long answer test. The main advantage of essay questions is that they can measure complex learning outcomes of higher-order learning objectives and this use is not confined to recall of facts only. The second advantage of such a question (especially extended response type) is its emphasis on the integration and application of thinking and problem-solving skills. A third advantage is its ease of construction.
Explanation

  • The limitations of essay questions are not less severe.
    • The most serious limitation is the lack of objectivity and reliability. Though many a time this unreliability occurs because of the absence of clearly defined intent of questions, proper framing, a clearly defined scoring rule scheme, and proper training in scoring. Being a subjective test, it can't yield the same or nearly the same score, irrespective of the person who scores it.
    • The second limitation may be attributed to the time required for scoring. Ironically, most of the suggestions for improving the scoring of essay-type questions require more time for conscientious scoring.
    • The third limitation of such questions is the limited coverage of the subject matter or course content. Inadequate coverage makes an essay-type question ineffective for the purpose of proper evaluation.

Thus, it can be concluded that Essay questions lack objectivity and reliability.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

One of the following is NOT among the fundamental principle guiding education according to NEP 2020.

Detailed Solution: Question 16

NEP 2020 is the third education policy in the history of independent India after the policy of 1968 and the second policy of 1986.
Explanation

  • "Language lessons have no correspondence with other subjects" is NOT among the fundamental principles guiding education according to India's National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
  • NEP 2020 emphasizes the importance of integrating education across subjects, encouraging interdisciplinary learning, and breaking down the strict partitions of subjects.
  • It underlines that language instruction shouldn't be standalone but should have relevance and links to understanding in other subjects, helping students better comprehend and use language as a holistic tool for learning.

Hint

  • NEP 2020's principles:
    • Achieving foundational literacy and numeracy by grade 3 is one of the major goals outlined to ensure that all students reach basic proficiency levels.
    • NEP 2020 encourages integrating arts and sciences to promote holistic, multidimensional education.
    • Emphasis on conceptual understanding rather than rote memorization is a significant aspect of the new policy to foster meaningful learning.

Hence, 'language lessons have no correspondence with other subjects' is NOT among the fundamental principle guiding education according to NEP 2020.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

A teacher has instructed his students to prepare a slide presentation on a given topic. Student are to include pictures, graphics, media clips and links to resource. What competencies will students exhibit at the completion of this project?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

There are various teaching strategies a teacher can adopt while teaching. A teacher can assign projects or slide presentations for teaching topics.
Explanation

  • Project work is an educational method where students work individually or in small groups to analyze and develop “real-life” problems or tackle a present-day theme within a preset time limit. Here, the teacher has instructed students to prepare a slide presentation on the media topic.
  • Following competencies students exhibit at the completion of the project:-
    • Students learn about the media.
    • They recognize the media's strategies to inform and persuade.
    • It develops creativity among students through the use of pictures, graphs, media clips.
    • They learn about how the media works.

Thus, it is concluded that students will exhibit the competencies of recognizing media's strategies to inform and persuade at the completion of this project.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

A language teacher wants her students to write for an authentic audience and purpose. What would be the best writing task to achieve this?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

A writing task refers to a specific assignment or activity that requires individuals to compose written text for a particular purpose or objective.
Explanation

  • The best writing task to achieve this would be "Students write a letter to the principal expressing their opinion on a school-related issue".
  • In this task, the audience (the principal) and the purpose (expressing opinion on a school-related issue) are clearly defined and authentic.
  • Writing to an actual person about a real-life issue within their school allows students to practice and apply their writing skills in a meaningful and authentic context.
  • It enhances their motivation and engagement as they feel that their voices matter and could possibly lead to real-world changes.
  • In addition, this task encourages critical thinking and problem-solving skills as students have to formulate their own opinions on a particular issue.

Hence, the best writing task to achieve this would be "Students write a letter to the principal expressing their opinion on a school-related issue".
Hint

  • Writing answers for chapter questions encourages comprehension but the audience isn't authentic.
  • Writing a movie review could involve an authentic audience, but may lack a direct purpose.
  • Writing on 'My school' may lack a clearly defined audience and purpose.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Overall, the passage positions Daruwalla as

Detailed Solution: Question 19

The correct answer is an active critic of political and social realities.
Explanation
  • The passage repeatedly highlights Daruwalla’s engagement with riots, borders, communal tensions, injustice, and political decisions subjects that indicate critique rather than passive description.
  • His background in law enforcement and focus on moral interrogation and political insight show he actively examines and criticizes social and political realities.
  • The passage contrasts him with romantic or purely lyrical poets and emphasizes that he 'exposes' suffering instead of aestheticizing it  a hallmark of an active critic.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

Which work is mentioned as part of Daruwalla’s oeuvre?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

The correct answer is Under Orion.
Explanation
  • The passage explicitly lists 'Under Orion' among Daruwalla’s works.
  • Other works mentioned include 'Winter Poems' and 'The Keeper of the Dead', confirming the reference to his oeuvre.
  • The other options ('The Golden Gate', 'Night of the Scorpion', 'A River') are not mentioned in the passage.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Malice

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The correct answer is Sympathy.
Explanation

  • The word "Malice" means the desire to harm someone or ill will. It is the intention or desire to do evil. 
    • Example: His actions were driven by pure malice, intending to ruin her reputation.
  • "Sympathy" refers to feelings of pity and compassion for someone else's misfortune. It is the opposite of malice as it represents kindness and understanding rather than ill will.
    • Example: She expressed her sympathy by helping the family during their tough time.
  • Hence, the antonym of 'Malice' is 'Sympathy.'

Other Related Points

  • Animosity: Strong hostility or dislike towards someone.
    • Example: Their animosity towards each other was evident during the debate.
  • Resentment: Bitter indignation at having been treated unfairly.
    • Example: She felt deep resentment after being excluded from the team.
  • Antipathy: A deep-seated feeling of aversion or dislike.
    • Example: He had a strong antipathy towards dishonest people.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

Select the word that has the same meaning (SYNONYM) as the underlined word in the given sentence.
Almost as wide as he was tall, he had a voracious appetite for food and drink and a rollicking personality to match.

Detailed Solution: Question 22

The correct answer is Insatiable
Explanation

  • The word "Voracious" means having a strong, insatiable appetite for something, particularly food or drink, or an eager desire for an activity. 
    • Example: He was a voracious reader, devouring books one after another.
  • "Insatiable" refers to something that cannot be satisfied or fulfilled, often used in the context of hunger or desire. 
    • Example: Her insatiable curiosity led her to explore different cultures and languages.
  • Both "voracious" and "insatiable" share the connotation of an intense and unquenchable appetite or desire.

Other Related Points

  • Vehement: Showing strong and passionate intensity in emotions or actions.
    • Example: She made a vehement argument against the new policy.
  • Imminent: About to happen or occur very soon.
    • Example: The dark clouds signaled that a storm was imminent.
  • Venerable: Commanding respect because of age, wisdom, or character.
    • Example: The venerable professor was honored for his years of service to the university.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
EVIDENT

Detailed Solution: Question 23

The correct answer is Indistinct.
Explanation

  • The word "Evident" means something that is clear or obvious to the mind or eye. 
    • Example: It was evident that she was not interested in the conversation.
  • "Indistinct" refers to something that is not clear or sharply defined; vague or blurry.
    • Example: The indistinct shapes in the fog made it hard to see where we were going.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Evident' is 'Indistinct'.

Other Related Points

  • Obvious: Easily perceived or understood; clear and apparent.
    • Example: It was obvious that he was upset after the meeting.
  • Irritable: Having or showing a tendency to be easily annoyed or made angry.
    • Example: He became irritable when he was tired.
  • Stubborn: Having or showing dogged determination not to change one's attitude or position on something.
    • Example: She was too stubborn to admit that she was wrong.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Directions: Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idioms/proverbs:
Ill at ease

Detailed Solution: Question 24

The correct answer is Restless.
Explanation

  • The idiom "ill at ease" means feeling uncomfortable or awkward in a situation. 
    • Example: She felt ill at ease during the formal dinner because she didn't know anyone there.
  • "Restless" refers to the inability to stay still or calm, often due to anxiety or boredom.
    • Example: He was restless the night before his big presentation, unable to sleep properly.

Other Related Points

  • Worthless: Having no real value or use.
    • Example: The old, broken chair was considered worthless by the new owners.
  • Listless: Lacking energy or enthusiasm.
    • Example: After working all day, she felt listless and unable to do anything else.
  • Sleepless: Unable to get any sleep.
    • Example: He had a sleepless night worrying about the upcoming exam.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा विकल्प सही विलोम-युग्म नहीं है I

Detailed Solution: Question 25

दिए गए विकल्पों में विलोम-युग्म 'प्रवर-प्रवृत्त' सही नहीं है।

  • प्रवर का अर्थ है 'वंश, कुल' तथा प्रवृत्त का अर्थ है 'किसी काम में लगा हुआ, तत्पर, उन्मुख'
  • अतः सही विकल्प 'प्रवर-प्रवृत्त' है।

अन्यसंबंधित बिंदु

  • अन्य विकल्प

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

Select the synonym of the given word.
entice

Detailed Solution: Question 26

The correct answer is beguile.
Explanation

  • The word "entice" means to attract or tempt by offering pleasure or advantage.
    • Example: The salesman tried to entice the customers with special discounts and offers.
  • "Beguile" means to charm or enchant someone, sometimes in a deceptive way.
    • Example: She beguiled the audience with her captivating voice and charming personality.

Other Related Points

  • Dissuade: To persuade someone not to take a particular course of action.
    • Example: He tried to dissuade her from leaving the job by offering her a raise.
  • Repulse: To drive back by force or to cause someone to feel intense distaste and aversion.
    • Example: The bad smell repulsed everyone in the room.
  • Entreat: To ask someone earnestly or anxiously to do something.
    • Example: She entreated him to stay a little longer.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Precarious

Detailed Solution: Question 27

The correct answer is Reliable.
Explanation

  • The word "Precarious" means something that is not securely held or in position; dangerously likely to fall or collapse; dependent on chance; uncertain.
    • Example: The ladder was in a precarious position, and I was afraid it might fall.
  • "Reliable" refers to something or someone that can be trusted or depended upon; consistently good in quality or performance. 
    • Example: John is a reliable employee who always completes his tasks on time.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Precarious' is 'Reliable'.

Other Related Points

  • Colossal: Extremely large or great.
    • Example: The statue was of colossal size, towering over the park.
  • Luminous: Emitting or reflecting light; glowing; shining.
    • Example: The luminous stars lit up the night sky.
  • Doubtful: Feeling uncertain about something; not known with certainty.
    • Example: It is doubtful whether we will reach on time due to the heavy traffic.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

Which of the following can be inferred from this passage?

Detailed Solution: Question 28

The correct answer is Biases against women continue in the workplaces.
Explanation

  • Explanation: The passage discusses the significant challenges faced by women in the workforce, particularly in terms of societal and employer biases. It mentions that despite having the same educational qualifications and work experience as men, women continue to be discriminated against in workplaces due to these prejudices. This aligns with option 3, which suggests that biases against women persist in the workplace.
  • Why the other options are incorrect:
    • Women are struggling to learn how to write: While the passage mentions that a large number of women in India cannot write a simple sentence, it does not suggest that women are struggling to learn how to write as a primary issue. It highlights a broader educational gap, not specifically a struggle with writing.
    • More women are studying to be graduates: The passage does discuss the high number of female graduates in India, particularly in STEM fields. However, the key focus is not on the increase in graduate numbers but on the low rate of employment among these graduates.
    • Women prefer to study through non-formal modes: The passage does not mention any preference for non-formal modes of study. It mainly focuses on the low employment rate and the challenges women face despite high levels of formal education.
  • In summary, option 3 best reflects the inference from the passage, as it highlights the ongoing discrimination against women in the workplace, which is a central issue discussed in the text. Options 1, 2, and 4 do not align as closely with the main themes of the passage.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

Which of the following phrases suggests action to be taken

Detailed Solution: Question 29

The correct answer is Way forward.
Explanation

  • Explanation: The phrase "way forward" in the passage suggests a solution or action that should be taken to address the issue of the low rate of women's employment despite high education. The passage emphasizes the need to critically analyze the challenge and look for a possible way forward, indicating a call for action to improve the situation.
  • Why the other options are incorrect:
    • Far from achieving: This phrase indicates a current status of being far from achieving a goal but does not suggest any action to be taken. It highlights the problem rather than offering a solution.
    • Remain true across other fields: This phrase discusses the consistency of the issue across various fields, but it does not imply any action or steps to be taken. It is a descriptive statement rather than a call to action.
    • Tops the world: This phrase simply states a fact about India’s position in producing female graduates in STEM but does not suggest any action or solution to the problem discussed in the passage.
  • In summary, option 2 best represents the phrase that suggests action, as it directly refers to finding a way forward to address the challenges outlined in the passage. Options 1, 3, and 4 focus on describing the problem rather than offering a solution or action to be taken.

EMRS TGT English Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

Identify the segment in the sentence that contains a grammatical error.
Responsible for overseeing the team's progress and delivering on key milestones, the project manager is the one whose ultimately accountable for the project's success.

Detailed Solution: Question 30

The correct answer is 'the project manager is the one whose ultimately accountable for the project's success.'
Explanation

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'the project manager is the one who is ultimately accountable for the project's success' should be used instead of 'the project manager is the one whose ultimately accountable for the project's success.'
  • In the sentence provided, "who is" is the correct choice, not "whose."
  • This is because "who is" is used to introduce a relative clause that identifies a person or entity. In this case, it refers to the project manager, who is responsible for the project's success.
  • "Whose" is used to indicate possession or ownership, so it would not be appropriate in this context.

Correct Sentence: Responsible for overseeing the team's progress and delivering on key milestones, the project manager is the one who is ultimately accountable for the project's success.

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