Bank Exams Exam  >  Bank Exams Tests  >  IBPS RRB Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024  >  English Language Test - 2 - Bank Exams MCQ

English Language Test - 2 - Bank Exams MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test IBPS RRB Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 - English Language Test - 2

English Language Test - 2 for Bank Exams 2024 is part of IBPS RRB Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 preparation. The English Language Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Bank Exams exam syllabus.The English Language Test - 2 MCQs are made for Bank Exams 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for English Language Test - 2 below.
Solutions of English Language Test - 2 questions in English are available as part of our IBPS RRB Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 for Bank Exams & English Language Test - 2 solutions in Hindi for IBPS RRB Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for Bank Exams Exam by signing up for free. Attempt English Language Test - 2 | 30 questions in 20 minutes | Mock test for Bank Exams preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study IBPS RRB Clerk Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 for Bank Exams Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
English Language Test - 2 - Question 1

Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required' as the answer.

Radhika danced in the college function elegantly yesterday.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 1

The correct answer is danced elegantly in the college function.
Key Points
The adverb elegantly should be used right after the verb danced. Adverbs of manner must be placed next to the verb
to convey the intended meaning and form a grammatically correct sentence.
Thus the correct sentence is Radhika danced elegantly in the college function yesterday.
Additional Information
If all 3 adverbs- adverbs of manner, time, and place are present in a single sentence, their correct order will be: 1(Adverb of Manner)--2(Adverb of place)--3(Adverb of time)

English Language Test - 2 - Question 2

Directions: In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked as (A), (B), (C), and (D). These words may or may not be placed in the correct order. Four options with different arrangements of these words have been provided. Mark the option with the correct arrangement as the answer. If no rearrangement is required, mark option (5) as your answer.

For a month now, an unknown(A) superhero has danger(B) swooped through the city streets saving(C) people from mysteriously(D).

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 2

The correct answer is 'B-D.'
Key Points
The given sentence talks about an unknown superhero who has in a deliberately enigmatic manner moved rapidly through the city streets saving people from danger.
Let us explore the meaning of the highlighted words:

  • Unknown - Not famous or familiar to other people. (जो जाना-माना या परिचित न हो, अप्रसिद्घ या अपरिचित)
  • Danger - A cause or likely cause of harm or injury. (ख़तरा, संकट)
  • Saving - To keep somebody or something safe from death, harm, loss, etc. (किसी को बचाना, रक्षा करना)
  • Mysteriously - In a way that is difficult or impossible to understand, explain, or identify. (रहस्‍यमय ढंग से)

Thus, (B) and (D) must be interchanged.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
Correct Sentence: For a month now, an unknown superhero has mysteriously swooped through the city streets saving people from danger.

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
English Language Test - 2 - Question 3

In the following question, parts of a sentence have been jumbled and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly by selecting the correct option.

P. are averse to thinking of / Q. so common that people now / R. corruption in India has become / S. public life with it

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 3

The correct answer is RQPS.
Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.
  • An adverb is a word that modifies (describes) a verb, an adjective, another adverb, or even a whole sentence. Adverbs often end in -ly, but some look exactly the same as their adjective counterparts e.g. She spoke softly.
  • Part Q starts with the adverb 'so', so we can say that it has been used to modify something. Here, 'so' means to a very great extent or degree i.e. something is too common.
  • Auxiliary verb 'are' here in part P signifies that there will be a subject for it. Thus, we cannot start the sentence with either of them.
  • R must come at the beginning as it has both the subject (corruption) and the finite verb (has become) of the sentence.
  • Next will come Q as it has the starting point, i.e. the conjunction (that), for the subordinating clause. Thus, RQ becomes a pair and comes at the beginning of the sequence.
  • We can see that only in the fourth option RQ comes at the beginning.
  • Thus, the correct order is RQPS.

Correct sentence: “Corruption in India has become so common that people now are averse to thinking of public life with it.”

English Language Test - 2 - Question 4

Direction: Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct. select 'No correction required' as your answer.

She will not attend the meeting until she is asked to.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 4

Key Points

  • The underlined word "until" indicates a condition that must be met for her to attend the meeting.
  • "Unless" serves the same purpose as "until...to" in this context, introducing the condition that must be fulfilled for her attendance.
  • "Unless" effectively conveys the meaning that she will not attend the meeting if the condition of being asked to attend is not met.
  • Hence, the correct phrase is 'unless'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4.'
Additional Information

  • "Expect" means to anticipate or await something, but it does not fit the conditional structure of the sentence. It changes the meaning to imply anticipation rather than a condition for attendance.
  • "Even with" is used to indicate despite something, but it doesn't fit the context of the sentence. It changes the meaning and doesn't convey the conditionality required for the sentence.
  • "Even except" is not a commonly used phrase and does not fit the structure or meaning of the sentence. It doesn't convey the intended condition for attendance.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 5

In the following question, two columns are given, containing three phrases each. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a correct sentence. If none of the phrases make a correct sentence, mark ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 5
  • A and E these two fragments can be combined together to form a sentence both meaningful and grammatically correct.
  • A talks about the Anti Corruption Act and E talks about government officials taking bribes.
  • B and F can also be combined in order to form a meaningful statement both contextually and grammatically correct. This pair can be taken as correct.
  • B talks about the TV industry and F talks about the lifetime of a show.
  • C and D can also be combined in order to form a meaningful statement both contextually and grammatically correct. This pair can be taken as correct.
  • C talks about food business and D talks about the complexities in the same.

Thus, option 4 is the right answer.

English Language Test - 2 - Question 6

In the following question, two columns are given, containing three phrases each. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a correct sentence. If none of the phrases make a correct sentence, mark ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 6
  • If we take the pair A-F, it makes a sentence that is contextually alright.
  • However, there is an error in part F.
  • 'to have noted' is not correct to use in this context as this is perfect infinitive and is used to denote some action that had occurred before another action.
  • It should have been 'to note' implying that it was surprising to note that so many people were present in a book fair in the book fair when e-books are so common. Hence, this pair is eliminated.
  • The pair C-E does not fit with each other contextually and is thus eliminated.
  • In the pair B-D, there is a grammatical error.
  • The subject 'MSMEs' is plural but the corresponding pronoun 'it' is singular. It must be replaced with 'they'. Also, for subject-verb agreement, 'does' must be replaced with 'do'.

Hence, Option 5 is the correct answer.

English Language Test - 2 - Question 7

In the following question, two columns are given, containing three phrases each. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a correct sentence. If none of the phrases make a correct sentence, mark ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 7

Key Points

  • A and E form a pair that makes a contextually and grammatically correct sentence.
  • A talks about the use of social media and E talks about how it should be used and what should be avoided.
  • All other options share no link with each other and cannot form a meaningful sentence.

Thus, option 1 is the right answer.
Additional Information
C-D cannot be joined as each part is contrary in idea to the other.
Marijuana: a psychoactive (mind-altering) drug

English Language Test - 2 - Question 8

Direction: The given sentence is divided into four parts: A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark E i.e. No error as your answer.
The Brain is composed (A)/ of many different regions (B)/ which interact with every other (C)/ so that it can function properly. (D)/ No error (E)

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 8

Key Points

  • The phrase "The brain is composed of" is grammatically correct.
  • The part "many different regions" correctly describes the composition of the brain.
  • The error lies in the phrase "interacting with every other." It should be "interacting with each other" to convey the proper meaning of mutual interaction.
  • "Each other" is used to indicate interaction between two or more entities, whereas "every other" typically implies alternation or selection of one from each pair or group.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Which interact with every other', i.e. this is the erroneous part.
Correct sentence: "The Brain is composed of many different regions which interact with each other so that it can function properly."

Additional Information
Certainly! Here are examples of each phrase used in a sentence:

  • Each other:
  • Example- "Sara and Jack looked at each other during the meeting, silently communicating their shared frustration."
  • In this example, "each other" indicates the mutual action between Sara and Jack.
  • Every other:
    • "In the race, John finished first, while Mary finished third, meaning they passed each other every other lap."
  • Here, "every other" suggests the laps alternated between John and Mary passing each other.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 9

Direction: The given sentence is divided into four parts: A, B, C, and D. Choose the part that contains an error as your answer. If the sentence is error-free, mark E i.e. No error as your answer.
Global warming is making (A)/ threatening changes in our world, (B)/ and we should prefer green energy (C)/ than conventional sources of energy. (D)/ No Error(E)

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 9

Key Points

  • The part 4 of the given sentence is incorrect.
  • Here, 'to' will be used instead of 'than'.
  • As a general rule, "After prefer/preferable, we use a 'to-infinitive', not an infinitive without to when we compare two things or actions"
  • Let's have a look at the example of the given rule:
    • I prefer tea to coffee.
  • Hence from the above explanation, it is clear that part 4 is the erroneous part.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'than conventional sources of energy' i.e., This is the erroneous part.
Correct sentence: Global warming is making threatening changes in our world, and we should prefer green energy to conventional sources of energy
Additional Information

  • Option 1 is correct and error-free.
  • Option 2 is correct and error-free.
  • Option 3 is correct and error-free
  • The same rule is followed for the word 'Marry'.
    • Example- She is married to Victor.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 10

Name the famous oil company mentioned in the passage.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 10

Key Points

  • According to the line of the passage, Two other major oil companies, ConocoPhillips and Phillips 66, had already suffered investor revolts over climate inaction in recent weeks.
  • By the bold words, the name of the companies are revealed.

Thus, the right answer is option 4.

English Language Test - 2 - Question 11

Why are the plans of oil companies criticised?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 11

Key Points

  • According to the line of the passage, Oil company climate plans have been criticised for not including all of their products, moving too slowly and being overly reliant on carbon offsets.
  • By the above-mentioned bold line, the answer is clear i.e. option 3.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 12

Determine a suitable title for the passage.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 12

Key Points

  • Climate change is the main topic of the passage as everyone is just concern about it for the future.
  • Option 1 cannot be the answer as nothing is mentioned in the passage regarding any concerns of oil companies.
  • Option 2 cannot be the answer as there is no discussion about the reasons for climate change.
  • Option 3 cannot be the answer as this passage is not politically inclined, so this option is not the answer.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 13

What is the antonym of the word 'stark'?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 13

Key Points

  • Stark- severe or extreme, simple or obvious
  • dubious- feeling doubt or not feeling certain

Thus we can see that Dubious is the appropriate antonym of the word Stark.
Additional Information

  • absolute- very great or to the largest degree possible
  • bodacious- very large or important
  • sheer- used to emphasize how very great
  • genuine- If something is genuine, it is real and exactly what it appears to be
English Language Test - 2 - Question 14

Give the meaning of the word 'reliant'.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 14

Key Points

  • Reliant- have the dependency on something of someone
    • Eg- He's completely reliant on his wheelchair to get about.
  • Accountable- Someone who is accountable is completely responsible for what they do
    • Eg- She is accountable only to the managing director.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 15

In the question, one sentence is given and four words are given in bold denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to decide which of the following is inappropriate in context. If all the words are appropriate in the context then mark ‘All correct’ as your answer.

While the term “workaholic” (A) generally (B) means that people enjoy their work, it can also (C) imply that they feel forced (D) to do it.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 15

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the term “workaholic” is appropriately used in the context of people who are highly dedicated to their work.
  • The word "generally" accurately describes the common understanding or usual implication of the term “workaholic”.
  • "Imply" is correctly used to indicate that the term can also suggest another meaning, which is feeling forced to work.
  • "Forced" is suitably used to convey the idea of compulsion or obligation to work.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.
Correct sentence: While the term “workaholic” generally means that people enjoy their work, it can also imply that they feel forced to do it.
Additional Information

  • Option A: "workaholic" is a term that refers to someone who works compulsively. It is correct in this context.
  • Option B: "generally" means usually or in most cases. It fits well in the sentence to describe the common perception of the term “workaholic”.
  • Option C: "imply" is used to suggest or indicate something indirectly. It is correctly used to show that being a workaholic can also mean feeling forced to work.
  • Option D: "forced" means compelled or obliged. It accurately conveys the additional implication of the term “workaholic” in this sentence.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 16

In the question, one sentence is given and four words are given in bold denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to decide which of the following is inappropriate in context. If all the words are appropriate in the context then mark ‘All correct’ as your answer.

People use social media to vent (A) about everything from customer (B) service to politics, but the downside (C) to this is that our feeds often resonate (D) an endless stream of stress.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 16

Key Points

  • The word 'resonate' is incorrect in the context of the sentence.
  • In this context, the correct word should be 'generate' or 'produce'.
  • The term 'resonate' means to produce or be filled with a deep, full, reverberating sound, which does not fit well with the idea of creating an endless stream of stress.
  • Using the correct term would make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.
Correct sentence: People use social media to vent about everything from customer service to politics, but the downside to this is that our feeds often generate an endless stream of stress.
Additional Information

  • Vent (A): To express strong emotions, often anger or frustration, about something.
  • Customer (B): A person who purchases goods or services from another; a client.
  • Downside (C): The negative aspect of something.
  • Resonate (D): To produce or be filled with a deep, full, reverberating sound, which is not suitable in the given context.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 17

In the question, one sentence is given and four words are given in bold denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to decide which of the following is inappropriate in context. If all the words are appropriate in the context then mark ‘All correct’ as your answer.

Apart from its tremendous (A) role in the development (B) of tourism in Ontario province (C) in Canada and Northern part of the US, Niagara Falls became a significant (D) source of energy.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 17

Key Points

  • The word tremendous (A) is appropriate as it describes something very great in amount, scale, or intensity, which fits the context of the sentence.
  • The word development (B) is appropriate as it refers to the process of growing or improving, which is suitable for describing the growth of tourism.
  • The word province (C) is appropriate as it correctly identifies a principal administrative division of Canada.
  • The word significant (D) is appropriate as it means sufficiently great or important to be worthy of attention, which fits the context of describing the importance of Niagara Falls as a source of energy.

Therefore, the correct answer is All are correct.
Additional Information

  • Option A: Tremendous means very great in amount, scale, or intensity. It is appropriate to describe the significant role in tourism development.
  • Option B: Development refers to the process of growing or improving. It is suitable in the context of tourism growth.
  • Option C: Province is a principal administrative division, especially in Canada. It is correct in the context of Ontario.
  • Option D: Significant means sufficiently great or important to be worthy of attention. It fits describing the importance of Niagara Falls as an energy source.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 18

In the question, one sentence is given and four words are given in bold denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to decide which of the following is inappropriate in context. If all the words are appropriate in the context then mark ‘All correct’ as your answer.

Dinosaurs first appeared (A) during the Triassic period, although the exact origin (B) and timing of the evolution (C) of dinosaurs is the subject of active (D) research.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 18

Key Points

  • The sentence provided is about the appearance and evolution of dinosaurs during the Triassic period.
  • The word "appeared" (A) is appropriate as it correctly indicates the emergence of dinosaurs in history.
  • The word "origin" (B) is suitable as it refers to the beginning or source of dinosaurs.
  • The word "evolution" (C) is appropriate as it describes the process through which dinosaurs developed over time.
  • The word "active" (D) is correct as it describes ongoing research in the field of paleontology.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.
Correct sentence: Dinosaurs first appeared during the Triassic period, although the exact origin and timing of the evolution of dinosaurs is the subject of active research.
Additional Information

  • Appeared (A): This term is correctly used to denote the emergence of dinosaurs during the Triassic period.
  • Origin (B): This term accurately refers to the beginning or source of the dinosaurs' existence.
  • Evolution (C): The term is fitting as it describes the process of development and diversification of dinosaurs over time.
  • Active (D): This term is suitable to describe ongoing and current research in the field of dinosaur evolution.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 19

In the following question, two columns are given, containing three phrases each. A phrase from the first column may or may not connect with a phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. There are five options, four of which display the sequence(s) in which the phrases can be joined to form a correct sentence. If none of the phrases make a correct sentence, mark ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 19

Key Points
Let's join the sentences to give a contextually and grammatically meaningful sentence.
The correct sequences are:

  • A tries to define a theory, whose next part is given only by F, which gives a formal definition. So, A-F
  • B talks about energy, which is referred to by the pronoun 'it' in D. So, B-D
  • C talks about object, which is related to 'that object' in E. So, C-E
  • Out of these, only A-F is expressed in the given options.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

English Language Test - 2 - Question 20

A sentence/part of the sentence is emboldened. Five alternatives are given to the emboldened part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and choose the option corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the option corresponding to “no improvement required”

In Europe, Heidelberg Cement makes a bolded climate pledge.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 20

Key Points

  • The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect usage of the word "bolded" instead of "bold".
  • "Bolded" is not commonly used, and "bold" is the appropriate adjective here.
  • The correct phrase should be "makes a bold climate pledge," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.
Correct Sentence: "In Europe, Heidelberg Cement makes a bold climate pledge."
Additional Information

  • makes a bold climate pledge – This phrase is grammatically correct and conveys the intended meaning clearly.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 21

Choose the synonym of the word 'Prestigious'.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 21

Key Points

  • The word 'Prestigious' means Inspiring respect and admiration; having high status.
    • Example: She won a highly prestigious award.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
    • Disreputable - Not considered to be respectable in character or appearance.
      • Example: Don't go to the disreputable place of entertainment.
    • August - Respected and impressive.
      • Example: She was in august company.
    • Obscure - Not important or well-known.
      • Example: There are many minor and obscure poets in the age of Elizabeth.
    • Seedy - Sordid and disreputable.
      • Example: We were staying in a seedy hotel close to the red light district.
    • Minor - Lesser in importance, seriousness, or significance.
      • Example: She is known in Italy for a number of minor roles in films.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 2.
Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Prestigious' are "August, Esteemed, Reputable".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Prestigious' are "Disreputable, Obscure, Minor".
English Language Test - 2 - Question 22

Choose the antonym of the word 'Extolled'.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 22

Key Points

  • The word 'Extolled' means To praise enthusiastically.
    • Example: She was extolled as a genius.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
    • Hymned - The praise.
      • Example: He was much hymned after his death.
    • Exalted - To think or speak very highly of someone or something.
      • Example: The manager exalted many of his friends.
    • Eulogized - To praise highly.
      • Example: Leaders from around the world eulogized the Egyptian president.
    • Censured - To express severe disapproval of someone or something; criticized.
      • Example: The manager was severely censured for negligence.
    • Ballyhooed - To praise or publicize extravagantly.
      • Example: Each company ballyhooed its product as though it were the most outstanding in all creation.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 4.
Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Extolled' are "Censured, Criticized, Reproved".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Extolled' are "Hymned, Exalted, Eulogized".
English Language Test - 2 - Question 23

Choose the antonym of the word 'Vehemently'.

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 23

Key Points

  • The word 'Vehemently' means In a forceful, passionate, or intense manner; with great feeling.
    • Example: The three prisoners have vehemently protested their innocence from day one.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the given options:-
    • Indolently - In a way that shows no real interest or effort.
      • Example: The parents sat indolently reading the papers while their children played.
    • Feverishly - In a frenetically excited or energetic manner.
      • Example: They worked feverishly to meet the deadline.
    • Obstinately - In a way that is unreasonably determined.
      • Example: He obstinately denied everything.
    • Stubbornly - In a manner that shows a dogged determination not to change one's attitude or position on something.
      • Example: She stubbornly refuses to admit the truth.
    • Zealously - With great energy or enthusiasm in pursuit of a cause or objective.
      • Example: He is zealously competing for this promotion opportunity.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 1.
Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Vehemently' are "Indolently, Casually, Desultorily".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Vehemently' are "Feverishly, Obstinately, Stubbornly".
English Language Test - 2 - Question 24

In this question, a sentence (in bold) from the passage has been divided into five parts (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If there is no error, the answer is 'No error'. Ignore the error in punctuation if any.

It appears that while Everest and Waugh both (A)/ extolled him for his exceptional mathematical abilities,(B)/ his relations with the colonial administration (C)/ was far from cordial. (D)/ No error (E)

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 24

Key Points

  • In the fourth part of the given sentence, the singular form of the verb 'was' is incorrect.
  • In the given sentence, the subject 'relations' is a plural subject.
  • We know that a plural subject always takes a plural verb.
  • The plural form of the verb 'were' should be used with the plural subject 'relations'.
  • Therefore, the plural form of the verb 'were' should be used in place of the singular form of the verb 'was'.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
Correct sentence: It appears that while Everest and Waugh both extolled him for his exceptional mathematical abilities, his relations with the colonial administration were far from cordial.
Additional Information

  • Subjects and verbs must agree with one another in number (singular or plural).
  • Thus, if a subject is singular, its verb must also be singular; if the subject is plural, its verb must also be plural.
English Language Test - 2 - Question 25

When did Radhanath calculate exactly the height of Peak XV?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 25

Key Points

  • The first sentence of the third paragraph says "It was during the computations of the northeastern observations that Radhanath had calculated the height of Peak XV at exactly 29,000 ft (8839 m), but Waugh added an arbitrary two feet because he was afraid that the Sikdar’s figure would be considered a rounded number rather than an accurate one.''
  • From the above sentence, we can say that Radhanath calculates exactly the height of Peak XV during the computations of the northeastern observations.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 3.

English Language Test - 2 - Question 26

What does the author tries to infer in the said line ''So much so, that he once stopped his transfer to another department''?

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 26

Key Points

  • The second sentence of the second paragraph says ''Even as seven other Bengali ‘computers’ worked alongside him, Radhanath soon showed his superior skills in mathematics and became Everest’s favorite colleague'' and the third sentence of the second paragraph says "So much so, that he once stopped his transfer to another department.''
  • From the above sentences, we can say that the author tried to infer a sign of favoritism in the said line ''So much so, that he once stopped his transfer to another department''.

Hence, the only possible answer is option 1.

English Language Test - 2 - Question 27

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. felt in the chest or

B. heartburn is a burning sensation

C. along with difficulty

D. throat after eating

E. swallowing and the presence of a fluid in the throat

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 27

Key Points

  • First is B as it establishes the subject i.e. heartburn. B is the only opening segment that can lead to the formation of a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
  • Next is A as it tells where the sensation is felt.
  • D follows A as it further elaborates A.
  • Next is C as it tells more about the symptoms.
  • Last is E as it mentions in which aspect the person experiences difficulty while suffering from heartburn.

Correct sentence- Heartburn is a burning sensation felt in the chest or throat after eating, along with difficulty swallowing and the presence of a fluid in the throat.

English Language Test - 2 - Question 28

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. greenhouse gases raise the

B. therefore the amount of

C. water vapour in the air

D. may lead to forming more clouds.

E. surface temperature and

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 28

Key Points

  • First is A, as it establishes the subject, i.e., greenhouse gases. A is the only opening segment that can lead to the formation of a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
  • Next is E, as it tells what is raised by the gases.
  • B follows E as it further elaborates on the effects of greenhouse gases.
  • Next is C, as it tells which substance also increases, i.e., water vapour.
  • The Last is D, as it contextually follows C.

Correct Sentence- Greenhouse gases raise the surface temperature and therefore the amount of water vapour in the air may lead to forming more clouds.

English Language Test - 2 - Question 29

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. people recover

B. from psychological trauma or

C. physical injury, according to

D. preliminary evidence

E. dancing may help

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 29
  • First is E as it establishes the subject i.e. dancing. E is the only opening segment that can form a meaningful and correct sentence.
  • Next is A as it tells 'who' benefits from dancing.
  • B follows A as it mentions what people can recover from with the help of dancing.
  • Next is C as it elaborates B.
  • Last is D as it tells what the statement/finding is based on.

Correct sentence- Dancing may help people recover from psychological trauma or physical injury, according to preliminary evidence.

English Language Test - 2 - Question 30

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. the Earth’s

B. climate response

C. scientists have

D. their understanding of

E. dramatically improved

Detailed Solution for English Language Test - 2 - Question 30

Key Points

  • First is C as it establishes the subject i.e. scientists. C is the only opening segment that can form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
  • Next is E as it contextually follows E by stating what these scientists have done i.e. they have dramatically improved something.
  • D follows E as it tells what the scientists have improved i.e. their understanding of something.
  • Next is A as it tells what this understanding is related to.
  • Last is B as it elaborates A.

Therefore, the correct answer is CEDAB.
Correct sentence- Scientists have dramatically improved their understanding of the Earth’s climate response.

31 docs|49 tests
Information about English Language Test - 2 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for English Language Test - 2 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for English Language Test - 2, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for Bank Exams

Download as PDF

Top Courses for Bank Exams