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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - GRE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test GRE Mock Test Series 2024 - GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 for GRE 2024 is part of GRE Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the GRE exam syllabus.The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 MCQs are made for GRE 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 below.
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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 1

One element, which may not justify violence itself but which __________ its use, is the belief that death in a sacred cause is the proper end of life.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 1
The sentence talks about an element that doesn't justify violence itself but does something to its use. This element is the belief that death, if for a sacred cause, can be considered a proper end of life. The structure and reasoning of the sentence implies that the element is trying to justify the use of violence. In other words, justify can be a good fill-in for the sentence.

Now, let us look at the meaning of the verbs in the options.

A. incriminates – to make (someone) appear guilty of a crime or wrongdoing

B. valorizes – to give or ascribe value or validity to

C. indicts – to formally accuse of or charge with a crime

D. abrogates – to abolish by authoritative action

E. rescinds – to take away

'Valorizes,' which means to give validity to something, is the correct answer. 'Incriminates,' 'indicts,' and 'abrogates' are opposite to what the context requires. 'Rescinds' does not go with the intended meaning of the sentence.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 2

Many surgeons continue to advocate (i) __________ analgesic treatment despite the fact that clinical studies and meta-analyses have failed to demonstrate (ii) __________ that such treatment reduces postoperative pain more effectively than one started after surgery.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 2
The phrase 'Many surgeons continue to advocate (i) __________ analgesic treatment' suggests that Blank (i) denotes a type of analgesic treatment.

Further down this sentence, we see that '(i) __________ analgesic treatment' is compared with 'treatment started after surgery.'

For two things to be compared, they must be unique or opposite to one another.

This means, '(i) __________ analgesic treatment' is not started after surgery. Therefore, either this treatment is started before the surgery or during the surgery.

Thus, 'Blank (i)' should be filled with a word that either means something like 'pre-surgery' or 'during-surgery'.

With this idea in mind, we evaluate the three options for Blank (i):

A. ameliorative - this means 'that which soothes pain [or another negative condition] or makes it more bearable'. This word is a synonym of 'analgesic' and doesn't carry any connotation of time (pre - or during -). Hence, we can reject this choice.

B. incipient - this means 'beginning to exist'. The phrase 'incipient analgesic treatment' would mean 'analgesic treatment that is only just starting or beginning to exist.' The opposite of 'incipient treatment' would be 'fully-developed treatment'. Therefore, this word too doesn't convey the meaning that we are looking for.

C. preemptive - this means 'that which is done ahead in time to prevent a possible bad event from happening.' So, 'preemptive analgesic treatment' would mean 'analgesic treatment that is started before the surgery or pain occurs. In this sense, it conveys the opposite of the phrase 'analgesic treatment started after the surgery.' This word fits in our intuited meaning of Blank (i).

Let is now find out the correct option for Blank (ii).

A simpler version of the question statement is:

"Many surgeons continue to advocate X despite the fact that [ABC] have failed to demonstrate (ii) __________ that X is any better than Y."

The key words in the above sentence is 'despite'. This is a contrast word. So, it indicates that the belief of the surgeons is not supported by ABC.

So, [ABC] have failed to demonstrate __________ that X is as good as the surgeons think it to be.

The possible words that can fill Blank (ii) are: clearly, definitively, beyond doubt.

With these words in mind, we'll evaluate the answer choices for Blank (ii):

D. dispassionately - this word means 'calmly or impartially'. Clearly, it doesn't fit the context here and can be rejected.

E. unequivocally - it means 'clearly, unmistakably'. This word fits in our intuited meaning of Blank (ii).

F. intractably - it means 'stubbornly, unmanageably.' To prove or demonstrate something 'Stubbornly/unmanageably' doesn't make any sense and so, this option too can be rejected.

The complete sentence is:

Many surgeons continue to advocate preemptive analgesic treatment despite the fact that clinical studies and meta-analyses have failed to demonstrate unequivocally that such treatment reduces postoperative pain more effectively than one started after surgery.

The correct answer are C and E.

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*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 3

Tuesday's contrasting administration rhetoric about the war on terrorism underscores a problem that has __________ ordinary citizens for months.

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 3

The sentence implies that the administration rhetoric about the war on terrorism highlights a problem that has done something to the ordinary citizens. Since the sentence talks about a "problem," the "something" being talked about should be a negative word. Words such as "troubled" or "affected" could be good fill-ins.

Now, let us look at the meaning of the words in the options.

A. obviated – to have anticipated and prevented (something, such as a situation) or made (an action) unnecessary

B. exalted – to have elevated by praise or in an estimation

C. evinced – revealed the presence of (a quality or feeling)

D. whipsawed – subjected to two difficult situations or opposing pressures at the same time

E. victimized – singled (someone) out for cruel or unjust treatment

Both "whipsawed" and "victimized" fit in the blank well. "Exalted" is positive and therefore does not fit in the blank. "Obviated," "evinced," and "impugned" are unrelated to the meaning of the sentence and therefore do not fit in the blank correctly.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 4

The Narmer Palette is one of a few surviving artifacts from the Nile Valley that are so iconic and so rich in information that they can act as __________ of certain aspects of ancient Egyptian culture as a whole.

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 4

The sentence talks about the Narmer Palette, which is so rich and iconic, that it acts like "something" of the certain aspects of ancient Egyptian culture. The word "reflection" could be a good fill-in. However, the use of the phrase "as a whole" indicates that the Narmer Palette is a miniature version of the ancient Egyptian culture.

Now, let us look at the meaning of the words in the options.

A. microcosms – communities, places, or situations regarded as encapsulating in miniature the characteristics of something much larger

B. antitheses – persons or things that are the direct opposite of someone or something else

C. epitomes – persons or things that are perfect examples of a particular quality or type

D. antipodes – the direct opposites of something

E. zeniths – culminating points

"Microcosms" and "epitomes" fit the blank well. "Antitheses" and "antipodes" are opposite to the meaning implied in the sentence. "Zenith" and "tyros" are completely unrelated to what the sentence implies, therefore the two can be ruled out.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 5

The High Court rejected the appeal and MPs were tasked with getting the details of their expenses ready for publication but with certain __________.

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 5

The sentence talks about MPs being tasked by the High Court with getting the details of their expenses ready for publication. However, there is a caveat attached to this task. The MPs need to publish these details in a certain way. "Modifications" or "changes" could both be good fill-ins for the blank.

Now, let us look at the meaning of the words in the options.

A. compurgation – acquittal from a charge or accusation obtained by statements of innocence given by witnesses under oath

B. ostentation – the pretentious or showy display of wealth and luxury, designed to impress

C. redaction – the process of editing text for publication

D. recension – the revision of a text

E. affectation – a studied display of real or pretended feeling

"Redaction" and "recension" both are words that mean to make changes to a text before it is published; they both fit the blank well. "Compurgation," "ostentation," "affectation," and "repugnance" are all unrelated to the meaning of the sentence.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 6

Directions: After reading the passage, read and respond to the questions that follow by selecting the best choice for each one.

Statins are a class of drugs that work to decrease the level of cholesterol in the blood. They are able to perform this function by effectively blocking the cholesterol-producing enzyme in the liver. In recent years, statins have increased in utility and popularity. Although a certain amount of cholesterol is imperative for the human body to function, an elevated level can cause a precarious situation in the body. Cholesterol affixes itself to arteries, lining them and inhibiting blood flow. Since less blood can travel through those encumbered arteries, the blood flow to the heart is adversely affected. Scientists have found that the walls of arteries in the body can become inflamed from this plaque buildup. In many instances, the end result of this decreased blood supply and inflammation is a heart attack sometimes a fatal one. In other cases the blood supply to the brain is compromised by the plaque buildup, often causing a stroke. Decreased blood flow to the legs can cause leg pains or cramps. In short, arterial plaque buildup is never a healthy situation.

Statins diminish the amount of cholesterol generated by the body. Although the drugs are not always able to reduce the amount of plaque that may already be clogging arteries, they can slow the production of new plaque. The drugs are also able to stabilize the plaques that are already present and make them less likely to cause problems in the body.

Lowered cholesterol does not guarantee that a heart attack won’t occur, but statin use will lower the risk for most patients. Not everyone who has a heart attack has high cholesterol levels, but most do have plaque formations on their arteries. It should be noted that the plaque is not always formed by high levels of cholesterol in the blood.

Statins are generally prescribed by doctors for people with elevated cholesterol levels. As the mean weight of the American population has risen, so has the number of individuals with high cholesterol. Millions of men and women in this country are prescribed statins in an effort to decrease the amount of cholesterol in their blood. Remarkably, these effects can be seen in as little as two weeks after beginning a statin regime.

Q. Which of the following is suggested about the American population?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 6

The correct answer is (C). The article says that the average weight of Americans has risen and so have their cholesterol levels. Higher levels are partially due to improper eating habits. The other responses can not be inferred from what is presented in the article.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 7

Albert Baldwin Wood, who invented the first screw pump in 1913, later designed a 14-foot pump. There was (i) __________: Disease rates fell because (ii) __________ floodwater could be pumped out faster before mosquitoes had a chance to breed there and (iii) __________.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 7
The sentence talks about Albert Baldwin Wood's invention of water pump and the implication it had. The context of the sentence gives ample hints for the second and the third fill-in. Disease rates fell because a particular kind of floodwater (contaminated?) could be removed before the mosquitoes could breed and do something else. Blank (ii) precedes floodwater, so it's clear that the second fill-in is an adjective on the lines of polluted or contaminated. This is because we are talking about disease rates. Let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (ii).

D. fascistic - Having or relating to extreme right-wing, authoritarian, or intolerant views or practices

E. fetid - Smelling extremely unpleasant

F. macabre - Disturbing because concerned with or causing a fear of death

The use of the words disease rate and floodwater suggests that 'fetid' is the correct answer. 'Fascistic' and 'macabre' are both unrelated to the context of the sentence.

Coming to the next blank, we require a verb that goes with mosquitoes and breed. Let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (iii).

G. obviate - Remove (a need or difficulty)

E. proliferate - Increase rapidly in number; multiply

F. dwindle - Diminish gradually in size, amount, or strength

Mosquitoes breed and multiply in number in stagnant water. 'Proliferate', which means to multiply, is the correct answer. 'Obviate' and 'dwindle' are opposite to the meaning intended in the sentence.

Now, we look at the first blank. Though it seems that there is not enough context for the first blank, the fill-in can be chosen based on the idea expressed by the rest of the sentence. The use of the colon after the first blank indicates that the part after the colon is a description or definition of the first fill-in. Let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (i).

A. lagniappe - Something given as a bonus

B. avarice - Extreme greed for wealth or material gain

C. recidivism - The tendency of a convicted criminal to reoffend

'Avarice' and 'recidivism' are both unrelated to the meaning expressed in the sentence. 'Lagniappe' is the correct answer as the invention of the water pump provided a bonus of decreasing disease rates.

The complete sentence is:

Albert Baldwin Wood, who invented the first screw pump in 1913, later designed a 14-foot pump. There was lagniappe: Disease rates fell because fetid floodwater could be pumped out faster before mosquitoes had a chance to breed there and proliferate.

The correct answers are A, E and H.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 8

That __________ politicians might adopt Franklin's distinction between appearance and reality to become __________ confidence men did not seem to __________ George.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 8
The sentence talks about a kind of politicians who might adopt Franklin's distinction between appearance and reality. In doing so, the politicians would become a certain kind of confidence men. This fact did not seem to do something to (affect?) George.

We can deduce from the sentence that the politicians adopt Franklin's distinction to become a certain kind of men – that is, to derive an advantage. Let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (i).

A. incorrigible - (of a person or their behavior) not able to be changed or reformed

B. peevish - Having or showing an irritable disposition

C. wily - Skilled at gaining an advantage, especially deceitfully

'Wily' fits perfectly in the blank. 'Incorrigible' is opposite to the context implied in the sentence. 'Peevish' seems unrelated.

For the second blank, we require a word that implies an advantage that the politicians will have after adopting Franklin’s distinction. Let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (ii).

D. flagitious - (of a person or their actions) criminal; villainous

E. inscrutable - not readily investigated, interpreted, or understood

F. dubious - Not to be relied upon; suspect

Both 'flagitious' and 'dubious' are negative qualities that the politicians wouldn't want to have. To be inscrutable men is an advantage that they would like to have. Therefore, 'inscrutable' is correct.

Reading the sentence makes it clear that we require a verb for the third blank-in. 'Affect' can be a good fill-in. Let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (iii). The use of does not seem to suggests that the effect could be negative.

G. occlude - Stop, close, or obstruct (an opening, orifice, or passage)

H. tranquillize - have a calming or sedative effect on

I. discommode - Cause (someone) trouble or inconvenience

'George’ is the object of the verb. Since 'occlude' does not take up a person as object, it can be ruled out. 'Tranquilize' means to have a positive effect; it does not go well with the intended meaning. 'Discommode' is the correct answer as it fits perfectly to imply trouble or rattle someone (George here).

The complete sentence is:

That wily politicians might adopt Franklin's distinction between appearance and reality to become inscrutable confidence men did not seem to discommode George.

The correct answers are C, E and I.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 9

British Prime Minister Winston S. Churchill, in characteristically vivid prose, described postwar Europe as "a rubble heap, a (i) __________, a breeding ground of (ii) __________ and hate."

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 9
The sentence talks Winston S. Churchill's statement description of postwar Europe. The use of the phrases "rubble heap" and "breeding ground" imply that both the fill-ins must be negative words. Also, since the sentence talks about the description being vivid, the fill-ins must paint a picture.

Now, let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (i).

A. alcazar – a Spanish palace or fortress of Moorish origin

B. donjon – the great tower or innermost keep of a castle

C. charnel – a building or vault in which corpses or bones are piled

Both "alcazar" and "donjon" mean opposite to what the sentence implies. "Charnel," which means a burial ground, is the correct option.

Coming to the next blank, we require a noun that fits after the phrase "breeding ground" and has a negative meaning.

Now, let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (ii).

D. pestilence – a fatal epidemic disease, especially bubonic plague

E. ascendancy – occupation of a position of dominant power or influence

F. plenitude – an abundance

"Pestilence," which means "a disease" is the correct answer as it fits well before "hate" and works well after the phrase "breeding ground." "Ascendency" and "plenitude" are positive words that mean wealth and abundance and therefore do not fit the blank.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 10

Before the Parliament met, Richard executed a formal deed of (i) __________, renouncing all royal rights, and absolving all his people from homage, (ii) __________ and allegiance, and declaring himself worthy to be (iii) __________.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 10
The sentence talks about Richard executing a formal deed because of which he renounced all his royal rights and freed his people from various obligations. He then declared himself something (to be removed from his position, perhaps?)

Let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (i).

A. myrmidon – a follower or subordinate of a powerful person

B. abdication – an act of renouncing the throne

C. prepotency – having power or influence greater than others

The use of the word "renounce" suggests that "abdication" is the correct answer. "Myrmidon" is unrelated and "prepotency" is opposite to the meaning of the sentence.

Coming to the next blank, we require a noun that goes well with homage and allegiance. Loyalty could be a good fill-in here. Let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (ii).

D. fealty - formal acknowledgement of loyalty to a lord

E. inconstancy – not faithful and dependable

F. brio - vigor or vivacity of style or performance

"Fealty," which means loyalty, is the correct answer. "Inconstancy" is opposite to the meaning implied in the sentence. "Brio" is unrelated to the meaning implied in the sentence.

Now, we look at the third blank. Since Richard executed a formal deed, relinquishing all royal rights and freeing his people from all obligations, he was free to step down or to have himself dethroned or demoted.

Let us look at the meaning of the words in the options for blank (iii).

G. succored – to be given assistance or aid to

H. deposed – remove from office suddenly

I. slighted – insult (someone) by treating or speaking of them without proper respect

"Succored" and "slighted" are both unrelated to the meaning expressed in the sentence. "Deposed" is the correct answer as the revolutionary is removed from his duty after he executed the deed.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 11

The recent Gallup results state that, "Millennials often __________ from job to job without staying in one place too long — they're 'the job-hopping generation'."

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 11

The sentence talks about Gallup results which state that millennials do not stick to one job for long and keep hopping from one job to another. The phrase "without staying in one place too long" hints us that the fill-in must be a verb that means to move quickly from one place to another. The word "hop" can be a good fill-in.

Now, let us look at the meaning of the verbs in the options.

A. flit – to pass quickly or abruptly from one place or condition to another

B. vacillate – to waver between different opinions or actions; be indecisive

C. swerve – to change or cause to change direction abruptly

D. cull – to select from a group

E. rankle – to cause anger, irritation, or deep bitterness

Both 'flit' and 'swerve' fit in the blank well. 'Vacillate' is close as it means to move, but the movement can be thought to be back and forth between two places or conditions. 'Cull,' 'rankle,' and 'tack' are unrelated to the meaning of the sentence and therefore do not convey the correct meaning.

 

 

The correct answers are A and C.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 12

Any talk of composite culture for a country as diverse as India is not only untrue but also dangerous, for it tends to weaken national unity and encourages __________ tendencies.

[ Note: Select 2 answer choices ]

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 12

The sentence states that India is a diverse country and should not be thought to have one composite (unified) culture as it is not only untrue but also encourages some type of tendencies. The phrase "not only untrue but also dangerous, for it tends to weaken national unity" implies that these tendencies are harmful and negative for the country. The fill-in could be a word that implies something that breaks or divides.

Now, let us look at the meaning of the adjectives in the options.

A. separatist – relating to the idea of separating a certain group of people from a larger body on the basis of ethnicity, religion, or gender

B. fissiparous – Inclined to cause or undergo division into separate parts or groups

C. portentous – of momentous significance

D. rapacious – aggressively greedy or grasping

E. sycophantic – behaving or done in an excessively obedient or attentive way in order to gain advantage

'Separatist' and 'fissiparous' both fit in the blank. 'Portentous' and 'rapacious' are unrelated to the context of the sentence. 'Sycophantic' and 'obsequious' both mean the same, but they are opposite to what the sentence implies.

The correct answers are A and B.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 13

Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.

In Gilavia, the number of reported workplace injuries has declined 16 percent in the last five years. However, perhaps part of the decline results from injuries going unreported: many employers have introduced safety-incentive programs, such as prize drawings for which only employees who have a perfect work-safety record are eligible. Since a workplace injury would disqualify an employee from such programs, some employees might be concealing injury, when it is feasible to do so.

Q. Which of the following, if true in Gilavia, most strongly supports the proposed explanation?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 13
The question asks what would support the claim that the decline in reported workplace injuries in Gilavia may be the result of incentives for workers to not report those

injuries that they can conceal. If the number of injuries that cannot be concealed such as injuries requiring immediate emergency care—has not declined in the same period, that could help bolster the claim that the decline in overall reported injuries may be a result of concealable injuries going unreported rather than an actual decline in workplace injuries in general, so Choice A is correct.

If employers have to provide financial compensation to employees injured on the job, employees would have an incentive to report injuries. More reported injuries would not support the author’s argument, making Choice B incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the fact that some injuries that cannot be concealed do not result in lost time or changed responsibilities has nothing to do with whether concealable injuries are going unreported. While a decline in dangerous occupations could well result in a decrease in workplace injuries, this fact would challenge the author’s argument, not support it, so Choice D is incorrect. Similarly, if employers with safety incentive programs do not see any drop in reported injuries compared to employers

without such programs, the author’s argument would be weakened, not supported, making Choice E incorrect.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 14

Directions: Compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices. A symbol that appears more than once in a question has the same meaning throughout the question.

Q. y < −6

Quantity A : y

Quantity B : 5

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 14
You are given that y is a number that is less than −6. Since −6 is less than −5, it follows that y is less than −5. Thus the correct answer is Choice B.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 15

Directions: Compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices. A symbol that appears more than once in a question has the same meaning throughout the question.

Q. x is an integer and 23 < x < 27.

Quantity A : The median of the five integers 23, 24, 26, 27, and x.

Quantity B - 25

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 15
You are given that x is an integer that is greater than 23 and less than 27. So x could be 24, 25, or 26. If x = 24, the median of the five integers 23, 24, 26, 27, and x is 24. Similarly, if x = 25, the median of the five integers is 25, and if x = 26, the median of the five integers is 26. So the median of the five integers is 24, 25, or 26. Thus the median of the five integers could be less than, equal to, or greater than 25. The correct answer is Choice D.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 16

Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. If x and y are integers and which of the following could be the value of y?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 16
To simplify the equation , divide the numerator and

denominator of the fraction by 39 to get . From the simplified equation, you can see that x is an integer if and only if y is a factor of (2)(4)(5)(7)(11). To answer the question, you need to check each of the answer choices until you find the one that is a factor of (2)(4)(5)(7)(11).

Choice A: 15. Since 15 = (3)(5) and 3 is not a factor of (2)(4)(5)(7)(11), neither is 15.

Choice B: 28. Since 28 = (4)(7) and both 4 and 7 are factors of (2)(4)(5)(7)(11), so is 28.

You can check the other choices to confirm that none of them is a factor of (2)(4)(5)(7)(11). The correct answer is Choice B.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 17

Directions: Questions are based on the following data. For these questions, select a single answer choice unless otherwise directed.

Q. Which of the following is closest to the percent of Internet users in Europe who were in countries other than Germany, France, Britain, Italy, and Spain?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 17
The distribution of Internet users in Europe is given in the bar graph. In the graph, the countries in Europe other than Germany, France, Britain, Italy, and Spain are grouped into two areas: Eastern Europe and Rest of Europe. According to the graph, there were approximately 1.9 million users in Eastern Europe and 6.3 million users in Rest of Europe. Thus the number of users in these two areas combined was approximately 1.9 + 6.3, or 8.2 million.

From the title of the bar graph, the total number of Internet users in Europe was 27.3 million. Therefore the number of users in the two areas combined, expressed as a percent of all users in Europe, is about (8.2 / 27.3) (100%), or approximately 30%. The answer choice that is closest is 30%. The correct answer is Choice A.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 18

Directions: Questions are based on the following data. For these questions, select a single answer choice unless otherwise directed.

Q. Approximately what was the range of the numbers of Internet users in the seven areas of Europe shown in the bar graph?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 18
The range of the numbers of Internet users in the seven areas of Europe shown in the bar graph is equal to the greatest of the seven numbers minus the least of the seven numbers. Of the seven areas, Rest of Europe had the greatest number of users, approximately 6.3 million, and Spain had the least number of users, approximately 0.7 million. So the range was approximately 6.3 − 0.7, or 5.6 million. The answer choice that is closest is 5.5 million. The correct answer is Choice B.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 19

Directions: Questions are based on the following data. For these questions, select a single answer choice unless otherwise directed.

Q. Based on the information given, which of the following statements about Internet use in year X must be true?

Indicate all such statements.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 19

Each statement needs to be evaluated separately

Statement A. According to the circle graph, 51% of Internet users worldwide were in the United States. Since 51% is greater than 1/2 Statement A must be true.

Statement B. According to the bar graph, the number of Internet users in Eastern Europe, approximately 1.9 million, was greater than the number in Spain, approximately 0.7 million. However, since the bar graph does not give any information about the distribution of users in the individual countries in Eastern Europe, Statement B may or may not be true.

Statement C. According to the bar graph, Germany and France together had about 12 million Internet users. Since there were 27.3 million users in Europe and 12 is greater than 1/3 of 27.3, Statement C must be true. The correct answer consists of Choices A and C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 20

Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. The interior dimensions of a rectangular tank are as follows: length 110 centimeters, width 90 centimeters, and height 270 centimeters. The tank rests on level ground. Based on the assumption that the volume of water increases by 10 percent when it freezes, which of the following is closest to the maximum height, in centimeters, to which the tank can be filled with water so that when the water freezes, the ice would not rise above the top of the tank?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 20
Let x be the maximum height, in centimeters, to which the tank can be filled with

water, so that when the water freezes, the ice will not rise above the top of the tank. Based on the assumption that the volume of water increases by 10 percent when it freezes and the fact that the length and width of the tank will not change, the maximum height of the ice is 1.1x centimeters. Since the height of the tank is 270 centimeters, it follows that 1.1x = 270, or, to the nearest whole number, x = 245. The correct answer is Choice D.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 21

Directions: Compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices. A symbol that appears more than once in a question has the same meaning throughout the question.

Q. N = 824x, where x is a positive integer.

Quantity A: The number of possible values of the units digit of N.

Quantity B: 4

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 21
Note that the units digit of a product of positive integers is equal to the units digit of

the product of the units digits of those integers. In particular, since 824. is a product of x integers, each of which is 824, it follows that the units digit of 824x is equal to the units digit of 4.. Also, the units digit of 4x is equal to the units digit of the product (4)(units digit of 4x−1).

The following table shows the units digit of 4x for some values of x, beginning with x = 2.

From the table, you can see that the units digit of 4x alternates, and will continue to alternate, between 4 and 6. Therefore, Quantity A, the number of possible values of the units digit of 824x, is 2. Since Quantity B is 4, the correct answer is Choice B.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 22

Directions: Compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices. A symbol that appears more than once in a question has the same meaning throughout the question.

Q. x > 0 and x ≠ 1.

Quantity A : (2x−4)(3x2)

Quantity B : 24x / 4x2

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 22
The two quantities can be simplified as follows.

Quantity A: (2x−4)(3x2) = 6 / x2

Quantity B: 24x / 4x2 = 6 / x

So comparing Quantity A with Quantity B is the same as comparing 6 / x2 with 6 / x.

Since you are given that x > 0 and x ≠ 1, and the quantities to be compared involve fractions and exponents, it is reasonable to consider two cases: 0 < x < 1 and x > 1.

Case 1: 0 < x < 1. If x is a number that satisfies 0 < x < 1, then x2 < x. Therefore 6 / x2 > 6 / x and Quantity A is greater than Quantity B.

Case 2: x > 1. If x is a number that satisfies x > 1, then x2 > x. Therefore 6 / x2 >< 6 / x and Quantity B is greater than Quantity A.

In one case Quantity A is greater, and in the other case Quantity B is greater. Thus the correct answer is Choice D.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 23

Directions: Compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices. A symbol that appears more than once in a question has the same meaningthroughout the question.

Q. Quantity A: The length of a leg of an isosceles right triangle with area R.

Quantity B: The length of a side of a square with area R.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 23
In an isosceles right triangle, both legs have the same length. The area of an isosceles right triangle with legs of length x is equal to x2 / 2. The area of a square with sides of

length s is s2. Since you are given that an isosceles right triangle and a square have the same area R, it follows that x2 / 2 = s2 and so x = √2s.

Since √2 is greater than 1, the length of a leg of the triangle is greater than the length of a side of the square. The correct answer is Choice A.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 24

Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. If j and k are even integers and j < k, which of the following equals the number of even integers that are greater than j and less than k?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 24
Since j and k are even integers, it follows that k = j + 2n for some integer n. Consider the sequence of even integers from j to k.

j, j + (2)(1), j + (2)(2), j + (2)(3), . . . , j + (2)(n − 1), j + 2n

Note that there are n − 1 integers in the sequence between j and k, and these are the even integers greater than j and less than k. Therefore the answer is n − 1, but the answer must be given in terms of j and k. Since k = j + 2n, you have n = k - j/2 and so

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 25

Directions: Questions are based on the following data. For these questions, select a single answer choice unless otherwise directed.

Q. In the winter, 2/3 of the cardinal sightings, 1/2 of the junco sightings, and 1/4 of the sparrow sightings were in January. What fraction of the total number of sightings of these three bird species in the winter were in January?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 25
The total number of sightings of cardinals, juncos, and sparrows in the winter was 30 + 12 + 20, or 62. In the question, you are given that 2/3 of the 30 cardinal sightings, ½ of the 12 junco sightings, and ¼ of the 20 sparrow sightings were in January. Therefore the number of sightings of these three bird species in January was , or 31, which accounted for 31/62 or ½, of the total number of sightings of these three bird species in the winter. Thus the correct answer is Choice C.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 26

Directions: Questions are based on the following data. For these questions, select a single answer choice unless otherwise directed.

Q. For which of the following bird species is the standard deviation of the numbers of sightings shown for the four seasons least?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 26

Recall that the standard deviation of the numbers in a list is a measure of the spread of the numbers about the mean of the numbers. The standard deviation is directly related to the differences |x − m| between the mean m and each number x in the list. The smaller the differences, the smaller the standard deviation. Thus to answer the question, look at the values of |x − m| for each of the five bird species in the answer choices and determine which species has the smallest values.

Choice A, Cardinal. For cardinals, the numbers of sightings are 30, 18, 11, and 20. The mean is approximately 20. Therefore the differences between the mean and the four numbers in the list are approximately 10, 2, 9, and 0.

Choice B, Junco. For juncos, the numbers of sightings are 12, 0, 0, and 6. The mean is approximately 5. Therefore the differences between the mean and the four numbers in the list are approximately 7, 5, 5, and 1.

Choice C, Robin. For robins, the numbers of sightings are 6, 12, 28, and 18. The mean is 16, and the differences between the mean and the four numbers in the list are 10, 4, 12, and 2.

Choice D, Sparrow. For sparrows, the numbers of sightings are 20, 19, 23, and 22. The mean is 21, and the differences between the mean and the four numbers in the list are 1, 2, 2, and 1.

Choice E, Wren. For wrens, the numbers of sightings are 0, 18, 30, and 12. The mean is 15, and the differences between the mean and the four numbers in the list are 15, 3, 15, and 3.

Consider how consistently small the differences are for the numbers of sightings of sparrows as compared to the differences for the other four species. From this you can judge that the numbers of sightings of sparrows has the least standard deviation. Thus the correct answer is Choice D.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 27

Directions: Questions are based on the following data. For these questions, select a single answer choice unless otherwise directed.

Q. Which of the following is closest to the average (arithmetic mean) number of cardinal sightings for the 4 seasons?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 27
The average (arithmetic mean) number of cardinal sightings for the 4 seasons is 30 + 18 + 11 + 20 / 4 = 79/4, or 19.75. Of the answer choices given, 20 is closest to 19.75. Thus the correct answer is Choice E.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 28

Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. A group of 5,000 investors responded to a survey asking whether they owned stocks and whether they owned bonds. Of the group, 20 percent responded that they owned only one of the two types of investments. If r is the number of investors in the group who owned stocks but not bonds, which of the following represents the number of investors in the group who owned bonds but not stocks, in terms of r?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 28
Twenty percent of the 5,000 investors that responded to the survey said they owned either stocks or bonds, but not both. So the number of investors in that group is 0.20)(5,000), or 1,000. Given that r members of that group owned stocks but not bonds, the number of investors in that group who owned bonds but not stocks is 1,000 − r. Thus the correct answer is Choice B.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 29

Directions: Select all the answer choice.

Q. For a certain probability experiment, the probability that event A will occur is 1/2 and the probability that event B will occur is 1/3 Which of the following values could be the probability that the event A∪ B (that is, the event A or B, or both) will occur?

Indicate all such values.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 29

Since you know that the probability of event A is 1/2 and the probability of event B is 1/3 but you are not given any information about the relationship between events A and B,

you can compute only the minimum possible value and the maximum possible value

of the probability of the event A ∪ B.

The probability of A ∪ B is least if B is a subset of A; in that case, the probability of A ∪ B is just the probability of A, or 1/2

The probability of A ∪ B is greatest if A and B do not intersect at all; in that case, the probability of A ∪ B is the sum of the probabilities of A and B, or 1/2 + 1/3 = 5/6.

With no further information about A and B, the probability that A or B, or both, will occur could be any number from 1/2 to 5/6 of the answer choices given, only 1/2 and 3/4 are in this interval. The correct answer consists of Choices B and C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 30

Directions: Select a single answer choice.

Q. Of the students in a school, 20 percent are in the science club and 30 percent are in the band. If 25 percent of the students in the school are in the band but are not in the science club, what percent of the students who are in the science club are not in the band?

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 4 - Question 30
You are given that 20% of the students are in the science club, 30% are in the band, and 25% are in the band but are not in the science club. You need to determine what percent of the students who are in the science club are not in the band. The information can be represented in a Venn diagram as follows.

From the Venn Diagram, you can see that the 30% who are in the band consists of 25% who are in the band but not in the science club, and 5% who are in both the band and the science club. Then you can see that the 20% who are in the science club consists of 5% who are in both the science club and the band, and 15% who are in the science club but not in the band, as shown in the revised Venn diagram below.

Thus 15% / 20% (100%), or 75%, of the students in the science club are not in the band. The correct answer is Choice E.

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