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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - GRE MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test GRE Mock Test Series 2024 - GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 for GRE 2024 is part of GRE Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 questions and answers have been prepared according to the GRE exam syllabus.The GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 MCQs are made for GRE 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 below.
Solutions of GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 questions in English are available as part of our GRE Mock Test Series 2024 for GRE & GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 solutions in Hindi for GRE Mock Test Series 2024 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for GRE Exam by signing up for free. Attempt GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 | 54 questions in 118 minutes | Mock test for GRE preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study GRE Mock Test Series 2024 for GRE Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 1
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. The new scientific __________ presented a complete __________, accounting even for the most __________ details in addition to many macroscopic phenomena, though the final certainty of the system remained to be determined.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 1
The easiest blank in this question is the final one. There is a contrast between "macroscopic" and the third blank. Phenomena that are "macroscopic" are large enough to be seen with the unaided eye—with no instruments. In contrast to this, something "minute" is small—like miniature or the prefix "mini-." (Note, the word is pronounced "my-noot." This might help you to memorize it and not confuse it with the measurement of time, "minute.")

The first blank is relatively easy to fill in as well. Since the "final certainty of the system remained to be determined," this meant that the scientific discovery was not complete. A "theory" is a conjectural explanation, not necessarily complete. This is the best first choice. Finally, since this theory attempts to provide all of the details of the world—from top to bottom (or, better, from little to big)—it provides a complete "ontology"—that is, a complete theory of "being."

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 2
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. Harvey believed that it was a __________ maxim that one should listen to one’s __________, for all such people were not merely geriatric products of a former age but were indeed the __________ heirs of much experience.

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 2
The best two clues in this sentence are "all" and "geriatric." The latter adjective describes people who are elderly. (Think of a "geriatric nurse" who cares for the elderly.) Thus, the people in question are "elders." This is slightly better than "seniors." Also, "seniors" is paired with words that do not work for this sentence. Since "all" such people are experienced, it is understandable that Harvey believed that they were universally (or everywhere and by everyone) believed to be worthy of being heard. Finally, be the recipients of experience would make one wise. To be "sagacious" is to have such wisdom. (Think of the related word "sage," meaning a wise person.)
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GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 3
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Directions: Refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.

Tocqueville, apparently, was wrong. Jacksonian America was not a fluid, egalitarian society where individual wealth and poverty were ephemeral conditions. At least so argues E.

Pessen in his iconoclastic study of the very rich in the United States between 1825 and 1850. Pessen does present a quantity of examples, together with some refreshingly intel ligible statistics, to establish the existence of an inordinately wealthy class. Though active in commerce or the professions, most of the wealthy were not self-made but had inherited family fortunes. In no sense mercurial, these great fortunes survived the financial panics that destroyed lesser ones. Indeed, in several cities the wealthiest one percent constantly increased its share until by 1850 it owned half of the community’s wealth. Although these observations are true, Pessen overestimates their importance by concluding from them that the undoubted progress toward inequality in the late eigh teenth century continued in the Jacksonian period and that the United States was a class-ridden, plutocratic society even before industrialization.

Q. According to the passage, Pessen indicates that all of the following were true of the very wealthy in the United States between 1825 and 1850 EXCEPT:

Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 3
For this question, you are to identify the one statement that CANNOT be correctly attributed to Pessen. Therefore, you must first determine which of the statements given can be attributed to Pessen. According to the passage, Pessen maintains all of the following: there was a class of “inordinately wealthy” Americans (Choice A); in some places that class “constantly increased its share” (Choice B); its members were “active in commerce or the professions” (Choice C); and “these great fortunes survived the financial panics that destroyed lesser ones” (Choice E). However, Pessen also maintains, in contradiction to Choice D, that “most of the wealthy were not self-made but had inherited family fortunes.” Therefore, Choice D is correct.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 4
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Directions: Refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.

Tocqueville, apparently, was wrong. Jacksonian America was not a fluid, egalitarian society where individual wealth and poverty were ephemeral conditions. At least so argues E.

Pessen in his iconoclastic study of the very rich in the United States between 1825 and 1850. Pessen does present a quantity of examples, together with some refreshingly intel ligible statistics, to establish the existence of an inordinately wealthy class. Though active in commerce or the professions, most of the wealthy were not self-made but had inherited family fortunes. In no sense mercurial, these great fortunes survived the financial panics that destroyed lesser ones. Indeed, in several cities the wealthiest one percent constantly increased its share until by 1850 it owned half of the community’s wealth. Although these observations are true, Pessen overestimates their importance by concluding from them that the undoubted progress toward inequality in the late eigh teenth century continued in the Jacksonian period and that the United States was a class-ridden, plutocratic society even before industrialization.

Q. Which of the following best states the author’s main point?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 4
It is important to realize that although most of the passage is devoted to describing Pessen’s study, the author’s main point is to criticize the conclusion Pessen draws. Choices A, C, and D omit any reference to the author’s critical evaluation of Pessen’s study, and hence are not statements of the author’s main point. Choice B is also incorrect. Because Pessen criticizes Tocqueville and the author criticizes Pessen, it might seem that the author’s main point is to defend Tocqueville’s analysis. However, the passage does not indicate that Tocqueville’s analysis is definitive. Choice E is correct. According to the first paragraph, Pessen challenges Tocqueville’s view, but according to the second paragraph, Pessen’s conclusions are incorrect.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 5
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Ginger had always impressed me as a very able woman, but it was not until she experienced personal difficulties that I realized how truly _____ she is.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 5

The sentence indicates that Ginger is an impressive woman, and suggests that tribulations made her even more so. Therefore, the correct answers are C) capable and D) formidable. Self-absorbed, which means preoccupied with oneself, would not make sense. Apathetic, which means showing no interest, does not make sense. Defenseless, which means incapable of defending oneself, does not fit the context of the sentence. Lethargic, which means sluggish or apathetic, does not make sense.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 6
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Michael was completely unprepared for notoriety when his bestselling memoir of life in Hollywood in the 1960s _____ him to fame.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 6

The sentence indicates that Michael's memoir caused him to become famous and notorious, and suggests that it happened suddenly. Therefore, the correct choices are A) catapulted and E) thrust. Debunked, which means to expose the falseness of something, does not make sense. Disoriented, which means confused, does not make sense. Ambulated, which means to have walked for moved about, might fit in the context of the sentence, but there is no other choice which means the same thing. Acknowledged, which means to recognize as being good or important, does not make sense.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 7
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As a teacher of young children, I always find the last few days before summer vacation trying, because the students are especially _____.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 7

One would expect that most young children become excited as summer break nears. Therefore, the two correct choices are A) restive and C) unruly, both of which mean uncontrollable or disorderly. Coordinated does not make sense in the context of the sentence. Ingenious, which means clever, does not fit the context of the sentence. Abnormal, which means deviating from what is normal, does not make sense. Charitable, which means relating to the assistance of those in need, does not make sense.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 8
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Over the course of his life, Clif has worked in the circus, flown planes as a stunt pilot, and had a number of other _____ jobs.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 8

Since working in the circus and flying as a stunt pilot are each unusual jobs, the correct answer choices are A) unorthodox and D) unconventional. Commonplace and ordinary each mean unremarkable and do not fit the context of the sentence. Flamboyant might appear to be correct, but there is not another choice which has the same meaning. Charming, which means pleasant or attractive, is incorrect.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 9
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Directions: Refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.

The evolution of intelligence among early large mammals of the grasslands was due in great measure to the interaction between two ecologically synchronized groups of these animals, the hunting carnivores and the herbivores that they hunted. The interaction resulting from the differences [Line 5] between predator and prey led to a general improvement in brain functions; however, certain components of intelligence were improved far more than others.

The kind of intelligence favored by the interplay of increasingly smarter catchers and increasingly keener escapers is defined by attention — that aspect of mind carrying consciousness forward from one moment to the next. It ranges from a passive, [Line 10] free-floating awareness to a highly focused, active fixation. The range through these states is mediated by the arousal system, a network of tracts converging from sensory systems to integrating centers in the brain stem. From the more relaxed to the more vigorous levels, sensitivity to novelty is increased. The organism is more awake, more vigilant; this increased vigilance results in the apprehension of ever more subtle signals [Line 15] as the organism becomes more sensitive to its surroundings. The processes of arousal and concentration give attention its direction. Arousal is at first general, with a flooding of impulses in the brain stem; then gradually the activation is channeled. Thus begins concentration, the holding of consistent images. One meaning of intelligence is the way in which these images and other alertly searched information are used in the context [Line 20] of previous experience. Consciousness links past attention to the present and permits the integration of details with perceived ends and purposes.

The elements of intelligence and consciousness come together marvelously to produce different styles in predator and prey. Herbivores and carnivores develop different kinds of attention related to escaping or chasing. Although in both kinds of [Line 25] animal, arousal stimulates the production of adrenaline and norepinephrine by the adrenal glands, the effect in herbivores is primarily fear, whereas in carnivores the effect is primarily aggression. For both, arousal attunes the animal to what is ahead. Perhaps it does not experience forethought as we know it, but the animal does experience something like it. The predator is searchingly aggressive,inner-directed, tuned by [Line 30] the nervous system and the adrenal hormones, but aware in a sense closer to human consciousness than, say, a hungry lizard’s instinctive snap at a passing beetle. Using past events as a framework, the large mammal predator is working out a relationship between movement and food, sensitive to possibilities in cold trails and distant sounds — and yesterday’s unforgotten lessons. The herbivore prey is of a different mind [Line 35] . Its mood of wariness rather than searching and its attitude of general expectancy instead of anticipating are silk-thin veils of tranquillity over an explosive endocrine

system.

Q. The author refers to a hungry lizard (line 31) primarily in order to
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 9
Choice C is correct. The “hungry lizard’s instinctive snap” is contrasted with the mammal’s higher level of awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect. The example of the hungry lizard provides a contrast; it does not demonstrate a similarity or extend the author’s argument. Choices D and E are incorrect. Brutality is not mentioned in the passage as a characteristic of predators, and there is no suggestion that all animals lack consciousness.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 10
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Directions: Refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.

The evolution of intelligence among early large mammals of the grasslands was due in great measure to the interaction between two ecologically synchronized groups of these animals, the hunting carnivores and the herbivores that they hunted. The interaction resulting from the differences [Line 5] between predator and prey led to a general improvement in brain functions; however, certain components of intelligence were improved far more than others.

The kind of intelligence favored by the interplay of increasingly smarter catchers and increasingly keener escapers is defined by attention — that aspect of mind carrying consciousness forward from one moment to the next. It ranges from a passive, [Line 10] free-floating awareness to a highly focused, active fixation. The range through these states is mediated by the arousal system, a network of tracts converging from sensory systems to integrating centers in the brain stem. From the more relaxed to the more vigorous levels, sensitivity to novelty is increased. The organism is more awake, more vigilant; this increased vigilance results in the apprehension of ever more subtle signals [Line 15] as the organism becomes more sensitive to its surroundings. The processes of arousal and concentration give attention its direction. Arousal is at first general, with a flooding of impulses in the brain stem; then gradually the activation is channelled. Thus begins concentration, the holding of consistent images. One meaning of intelligence is the way in which these images and other alertly searched information are used in the context [Line 20] of previous experience. Consciousness links past attention to the present and permits the integration of details with perceived ends and purposes.

The elements of intelligence and consciousness come together marvelously to produce different styles in predator and prey. Herbivores and carnivores develop different kinds of attention related to escaping or chasing. Although in both kinds of [Line 25] animal, arousal stimulates the production of adrenaline and norepinephrine by the adrenal glands, the effect in herbivores is primarily fear, whereas in carnivores the effect is primarily aggression. For both, arousal attunes the animal to what is ahead. Perhaps it does not experience forethought as we know it, but the animal does experience something like it. The predator is searchingly aggressive, inner-directed, tuned by [Line 30] the nervous system and the adrenal hormones, but aware in a sense closer to human consciousness than, say, a hungry lizard’s instinctive snap at a passing beetle. Using past events as a framework, the large mammal predator is working out a relationship between movement and food, sensitive to possibilities in cold trails and distant sounds — and yesterday’s unforgotten lessons. The herbivore prey is of a different mind [Line 35] . Its mood of wariness rather than searching and its attitude of general expectancy instead of anticipating are silk-thin veils of tranquillity over an explosive endocrine

system.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that in animals less intelligent than the mammals discussed in the passage
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 10
Choice A is correct. In lines 18 - 20, the author defines intelligence in terms of an animal’s use of past experience. In the context of the entire passage, it can be inferred that 94 more intelligent animals, such as the grassland mammals discussed, are better able to use past experience to help them survive than less intelligent animals are. Choice B is incorrect. The second paragraph of the passage indicates that attention is more highly focused in animals of greater, rather than less, intelligence. Choices C, D, and E are incorrect. The author does not discuss muscular coordination as an element in intelligence, gives no indication that in less intelligent species there is less need for competition, and does not discuss how a proper ratio of prey to predator is established.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 11
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Directions: Refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.

The evolution of intelligence among early large mammals of the grasslands was due in great measure to the interaction between two ecologically synchronized groups of these animals, the hunting carnivores and the herbivores that they hunted. The interaction resulting from the differences [Line 5] between predator and prey led to a general improvement in brain functions; however, certain components of intelligence were improved far more than others.

The kind of intelligence favored by the interplay of increasingly smarter catchers and increasingly keener escapers is defined by attention — that aspect of mind carrying consciousness forward from one moment to the next. It ranges from a passive, [Line 10] free-floating awareness to a highly focused, active fixation. The range through these states is mediated by the arousal system, a network of tracts converging from sensory systems to integrating centers in the brain stem. From the more relaxed to the more vigorous levels, sensitivity to novelty is increased. The organism is more awake, more vigilant; this increased vigilance results in the apprehension of ever more subtle signals [Line 15] as the organism becomes more sensitive to its surroundings. The processes of arousal and concentration give attention its direction. Arousal is at first general, with a flooding of impulses in the brain stem; then gradually the activation is channelled. Thus begins concentration, the holding of consistent images. One meaning of intelligence is the way in which these images and other alertly searched information are used in the context [Line 20] of previous experience. Consciousness links past attention to the present and permits the integration of details with perceived ends and purposes.

The elements of intelligence and consciousness come together marvelously to produce different styles in predator and prey. Herbivores and carnivores develop different kinds of attention related to escaping or chasing. Although in both kinds of [Line 25] animal, arousal stimulates the production of adrenaline and norepinephrine by the adrenal glands, the effect in herbivores is primarily fear, whereas in carnivores the effect is primarily aggression. For both, arousal attunes the animal to what is ahead. Perhaps it does not experience forethought as we know it, but the animal does experience something like it. The predator is searchingly aggressive, inner-directed, tuned by [Line 30] the nervous system and the adrenal hormones, but aware in a sense closer to human consciousness than, say, a hungry lizard’s instinctive snap at a passing beetle. Using past events as a framework, the large mammal predator is working out a relationship between movement and food, sensitive to possibilities in cold trails and distant sounds — and yesterday’s unforgotten lessons. The herbivore prey is of a different mind [Line 35] . Its mood of wariness rather than searching and its attitude of general expectancy instead of anticipating are silk-thin veils of tranquillity over an explosive endocrine

system.

Q. According to the passage, improvement in brain function among early large mammals resulted primarily from which of the following?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 11
Choice A is correct. It directly paraphrases the statement in lines 3–5, which describes the author’s view of the development of improved brain function in early mammals. Choice B is incorrect. It is likely that the persistence of “free-floating awareness” played a part in the animals’ survival, but there is no indication in the passage that brain function improved because of it. Choices C and D are incorrect: the passage does not discuss the relationship between mammals and reptiles or the interaction between large mammals and less intelligent species. Choice E is incorrect. Improved capacity for memory is an improvement in brain function, rather than a reason for improved brain function.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 12
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. Everyone was surprised when the corporal, normally a __________ woman, not only spoke up in the meeting, but had the __________ to tell the five-star general to his face that his last order had been __________, issued in the heat of the moment without first considering later repercussions.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 12
We know that "everyone was surprised" that the corporal "spoke up in the meeting," so for the first blank, we need an adjective that describes her normally quiet personality. Possible options include "taciturn," "laconic," and "reticent." For the second blank, we need a noun that describes the corporal critiquing the general. Of our remaining choices—"audacity," "presumption," and "dogmatism"—the first two choices fit the bill. For the last blank, we know that the general's order was given without much forethought, and need an adjective that describes this. Between "impetuous" (acting or done thoughtlessly or carelessly) and "pragmatic," (dealing with things practically and seriously) "impetuous" is the clear choice, making the answer to the question "taciturn - audacity - impetuous"
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 13
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted into the sentence, best completes the sentence.

Q. The presidential candidate slammed his hand on the lectern many times during the course of his speech. Between his wild and style, it would have been better to call this event a than a political address.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 13
The two most tempting answers are "gesticulations - bombastic - tirade" and "demeanor . . . addled - rant." Two points help to make the final determination. First, the sentence clearly notes the candidate's hand motions. This at least works in favor of the set containing "gesticulations" (hand movements). Furthermore, "addled" means confused, but "rant" indicates an angry speech; therefore, the match between the second and third term is tenuous at best. "Bombastic" and "tirade" particularly work well, giving us the correct answer.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 14
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted into the sentence, best completes the sentence.

Q. The young man was very insecure and therefore accomplished all of his tasks with great __________. He did not want to seem __________ to any of the managers, for he feared losing his job because of an apparent __________ of spirit.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 14
The most tempting wrong answer is the one that has "alacrity" as its first element. The second sentence, upon filling in the blanks without looking at the answers, clearly indicates that the young man did not wish to seem to have a lack of energy; however, the remaining content for "alacrity . . ." doesn't make sense in this context.

The key word that might cause problems in the correct answer set is "celerity." The word comes from the Latin base "celeriter," meaning quickly, rapidly, and so forth. Related words in English are "accelerate" and "decelerate." The second and third words in this set match the sense of opposition evoked between the sentences, even if "deficit" does not seems like a word that would normally be chosen.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 15
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Directions: Choose the word or set of words that best completes the following sentence.

Q. The mischievous boy tried to __________ his smug, __________ grin, but seeing the hilarious results of his prank only served to __________ his smile.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 15
You are told that the boy is "mischievous" and pulled a prank. The conjunction "but" is also a relevant clue to the context of the sentence. From this information you can infer that the boy would want to hide or conceal his grin so as not to give away the prank. The correct answer is therefore "stifle." The word "but" suggests that the boy's attempts to "stifle" his grin were not successful, so the correct answer must be that his smile was enhanced or "augmented" by seeing his prank unfold. To provide additional help, "complacent" means lazy, careless; "amplify" means enhance; "diminish" means take away from, reduce in importance; "cantankerous" means grumpy; "serene" means peaceful; "demonize" means portray as evil; "remedy" means fix; "harmonize" means coordinate, make something fit with something else; "whimsical" means silly or quirky; "antagonize" means annoy, make angry; "contentious" means debatable; "admonish" means chastise, tell off.
*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 16
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Directions: Refer to the following passage. After reading the passage, read and respond to each question selecting the best answer choice for each one.

For hot desert locations with access to seawater, a new greenhouse design generates freshwater and cool air. Oriented to the prevailing wind, the front wall of perforated cardboard, moistened by a trickle of seawater pumped in, cools and moistens hot air blowing in. This cool, humidified air accelerates plant growth; little water evaporates from leaves. Though greenhouses normally capture the heat of sunlight, a double-layered roof, the inner layer coated to reflect infrared light outward, allows visible sunlight in but traps solar heat between the two layers. This heated air, drawn down from the roof, then mixes with the greenhouse air as it reaches a second seawater-moistened cardboard wall at the back of the greenhouse. There the air absorbs more moisture before being cooled off again when it meets a seawater-cooled metal wall, which causes moisture in the air to condense. Thus distilled water for irrigating the plants collects.

Q. It can be inferred that the greenhouse roof is designed to allow for which of the

following?

[For the following question, consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply.]
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 16

All three choices are correct. This question asks the reader which of the three effects listed in the answer choices are intended as part of the design of the greenhouse roof.

Choice A is correct: the purpose of the double-layered roof is to trap solar heat before it gets inside the greenhouse proper.

Choice B is correct: the coating on the inner layer of the roof allows visible sunlight into the greenhouse.

Choice C is correct: the last two sentences of the passage describe how heated air from the roof is drawn down to mix with greenhouse air, resulting in the collection of distilled water for irrigation purposes.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 17
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Always a _____ man, Richard had no patience with his brother’s get-rich-quick schemes and often advised him to settle down with a respectable career.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 17

The sentence indicates that Richard does not approve of his brother's scheming, and suggests that Richard is quite different. Therefore, the correct answers are B) practical and E) pragmatic. Fatuous, which means dull or stupid, does not fit the context of the sentence. Insipid, which means dull or flavorless, does not fit the context of the sentence. Florid, which means flushed or red-faced, does not make sense. Reckless, which means irresponsible, does not fit the context of the sentence.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 18
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A ten-year comparison between the United States and the Soviet Union in terms of crop yields per acre revealed that when only planted acreage is compared, Soviet yields were equal to 68 percent of United States yields. When total agricultural acreage (planted acreage plus fallow acreage) is compared, however, Soviet yield was 114 percent of United States yield.

Q. From the information above, which of the following can be most reliably inferred about United States and Soviet agriculture during the ten-year period?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 18
If crop yield per planted acre was less in the Soviet Union than it was in the United States, yet crop yield per total (planted plus fallow) agricultural acreage was greater in the Soviet Union than it was in the United States, the percentage of the total acreage that was left fallow must have been lower in the Soviet Union than in the United States. Therefore, Choice A is the correct answer. Since the information provided in the paragraph is given in terms of yield per acre, no conclusion can be drawn about actual acreage, so Choices B, C, and D are all incorrect. Similarly, it is impossible to determine the total volume of crops produced in the Soviet Union, so Choice E is incorrect.
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 19
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Compare the two quantities if x < />
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 19
Begin by noticing that Quantity B can be rewritten in a simpler form as 2(x − 3)2. Doing so enables a quick and direct way to compare the quantities.

Notice that when x = 4, Quantity A is: 5(4 − 3) = 5, and Quantity B is: 2(4 − 3)2 = 2. When x = 3, Quantity A is: 5(3 − 3)=0, but Quantity B is: 2(3 − 3)2 = 0. Because the first case shows Quantity A > Quantity B, but the second case shows Quantity A = Quantity B, the relationship cannot be determined.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 20
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Compare the quantities
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 20

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 21
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Length Of Unemployment for Workers in Region X for Two Industries, 2003

Q. If one of the workers in the manufacturing and service industries who were unemployed for at least 1 week will be randomly selected, what is the probability that the person selected will be a service industry worker who was unemployed for 26 weeks or more?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 21
The probability that the person selected will be a service industry worker who was unemployed for 26 weeks or more is equal to the following fraction.

the number of service industry workers who were unemployed 26 weeks or more / the number of workers in the two industries who were unemployed at least 1week

The number of workers in the two industries who were unemployed for at least 1 week is the sum of the total numbers of workers represented by the two graphs, or 10 million + 8 million = 18 million.

According to the graph for the service industry, the number of workers who were unemployed for 26 weeks or more is 9% of 8 million, or 0.72 million. Therefore, the desired probability is

0.72 million / 18 million = 72 / 1800 = 0.04. The correct answer is Choice A.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 22
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Length Of Unemployment for Workers in Region X for Two Industries, 2003

Q. The ratio of the number of manufacturing industry workers who were unemployed for 5 to 10 weeks to the number of service industry workers who were unemployed for 5 to 10 weeks is closest to which of the following?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 22
According to the graphs, the number of manufacturing industry workers who were unemployed for 5 to 10 weeks is 20% of 10 million, or 2 million; and the number of service industry workers who were unemployed for 5 to 10 weeks is 16% of 8 million, or 1.28 million. Thus, the ratio of the two numbers is 2 to 1.28.

To answer the question, you must now determine which of the answer choices is closest to the ratio 2 to 1.28. A good way to compare ratios is to express each ratio as a fraction and then as a decimal, and then to compare the decimals. The ratio 2 to 1.28 can be expressed as the fraction 2/1.28, which is equal to the decimal 1.5625.

Now look at the answer choices. As you go through the answer choices, keep in mind that you are trying to determine which is closest to 1.5625.

Choice A: 5 to 4 can be expressed as 5/4, which is equal to 1.25.

Choice B: 6 to 5 can be expressed as 6/5, which is equal to 1.2.

Choice C: 3 to 2 can be expressed as 3/2, which is equal to 1.5. Note that this ratio is close to 1.5625.

Choice D: 5 to 2 can be expressed as 5/2, which is equal to 2.5.

Choice E: 7 to 6 can be expressed as 7/6, which is approximately equal to 1.17.

Of the five choices, the ratio in Choice C is closest to 1.5625. The correct answer is Choice C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 23
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Length Of Unemployment for Workers in Region X for Two Industries, 2003

Q. In the circle graphs, the degree measure of the central angle of the sector representing the number of workers unemployed for 11 to 14 weeks is how much greater in the manufacturing industry graph than in the service industry graph?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 23

Recall that in a circle graph, the degree measure of the central angle of a sector representing n percent of the data is equal to n percent of 360°.

The degree measure of the sector representing the number of workers unemployed for 11 to 14 weeks is 10% of 360°, or 36°, for the manufacturing industry graph and is 5% of 360°, or 18°, for the service industry graph. Since 36° − 18° = 18°, the measure of the central angle of that sector in the manufacturing industry graph is 18° greater than the measure of the central angle of the corresponding sector in the service industry graph. The correct answer is Choice b.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 24
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Which of these points satisfy the given system of inequalities:

(A) (2, 1)

(B) (3, 3)

(C) (2, 2)

(D) (2, 3)

(E) (2, 4)

(F) (1, 3)
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 24
Begin by rewriting each of the linear inequalities in slope-intercept form, then graph each inequality to determine the solution set.

Revising the first inequality: Multiply both sides by −2 (remember to switch the direction of the inequality any time you multiply or divide by a negative value):

, which becomes

−5 + y > −2x , or y > −2x + 5, a dotted line passing through (0,5) with a slope of −2 and the solution set shaded above the dotted line (not including the values along the dotted line).

Revising the second inequality: Subtract 5 from both sides to give:

y ≥ 3x − 5, a bold line passing through (0, −5) with a slope of 3 and the solution set shaded above the bold line (including the values along the bold line).

The quadratic inequality:

y < −="" (x="" −="" />2 + 4 graphs as a dotted line parabola that curves downward with a vertex at the point (2, 4) and the solution set shaded below the dotted line.

After graphing each of the inequalities, it can be seen that the only points that satisfy each are (2, 2) and (2, 3).

Notice that (2, 1) is not a valid solution because it lies along the dotted line. Here is what the graph would look like:

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 25
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Compare the two quantities if m = 1/2:
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 25
Substitute the value m = 1/2 into each quantity and compare the resulting values

Quantity A: , which becomes

Quantity B: , which becomes

Quantity A < quantity="" />

Note: You’ll notice that we followed PEMDAS (order of operations) and dealt with the exponent first when finding the answer for Quantity B.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 26
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Directions: Compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices. A symbol that appears more than once in a question has the same meaning

throughout the question.

Q. x + y = −1

Quantity A: x

Quantity B: y
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 26
One way to approach this question is to plug in values for one of the variables and determine the corresponding value for the other variable.

One way to plug in: Plug in easy values. For example, you can plug in x = 0 and find that the corresponding value of y is −1; then you can plug in y = 0 and find that the corresponding value of x is −1. Since in the first case x is greater than y and in the second case y is greater than x, the correct answer is Choice D, the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

A second way to plug in: If you prefer to always plug in values of x to determine corresponding values of y, you can begin by writing the equation x + y = -1 as y = -x - 1 . Writing it in this form makes it easier to find the corresponding values of y.

You can start by plugging in the value x = 0. For this value of x, the corresponding value of y is y = -1, and therefore, x is greater than y. If you continue plugging in a variety of values of x, some negative and some positive, you will see that sometimes x is greater than y and sometimes y is greater than x.

So for some values of x and y that satisfy the equation, x is greater than y; and for other values, y is greater than x. Therefore, the relationship between the two quantities x and y cannot be determined from the information given, and the correct answer is Choice D.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 27
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Bob looked at the type of food that 150 animals ate. The pets under the “Others” category consume 3 kinds of feed: Feed A, Feed B, and Feed C.

A total of 2/3 of the pets in this category consume A, 13 consume B, and 1/3 consume C, with some of these pets consuming mixed types of feeds.

If 2 pets feed on both A and B, 1 pet feeds on both A and C, and no pets feed on all three, how many pets exclusively feed on each of the brands (A, B and C)? Use the Venn diagram in the “Reading Aid” attachment.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 27
Let’s first calculate how many pets fall under the “Others” category.

20% of 150:

0.20⋅150 = 30

Then, we calculate the number of pets consuming the 3 types of feeds:

A: 2/3⋅30 = 20

B: 1/3⋅30 = 10

C: 1/3⋅30 = 10

Now, since there are 30 total pets and none were counted three times, that means that 10 must have been counted twice.

This leaves 7 pets in the overlap area for B and C

We can use the given Venn diagram, or we may perform calculations to find out how many pets feed on each brand exclusively:

A: 20 – 2 – 1 = 17

(we subtracted 2 pets that feed both on A and B, and 1 pet that feeds on both A and C)

B: 10 – 2 − 7 = 1

C: 10 – 1 − 7 = 2

The correct choice is “A: 17 pets, B: 1 pet, and C: 2 pets”.

Note: Double check that there are 30 total pets: 17 in A, 1 in B, 2 in C, 1 in C and A, 2 in A and B, and 7 in B and C = 17 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 2 + 7 = 30

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 28
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Directions: Compare Quantity A and Quantity B, using additional information centered above the two quantities if such information is given. Select one of the following four answer choices. A symbol that appears more than once in a question has the same meaning

throughout the question.

Q. Quantity A:The slope of line k

Quantity B: The slope of line ℓ
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 28
Note that the slope of each of the lines is positive, since each line rises as it goes to the right. Since the slopes of both lines are positive and line k rises faster (or is steeper) than line ℓ, line k has the greater slope, and the correct answer is Choice A.

You can also use the definition of the slope to arrive at the correct answer. Slope can be defined as the ratio of “rise” to “run” between any two points on a line, where the rise is the vertical distance between the points and the run is the horizontal distance, and the slope is respectively positive or negative depending on whether the line rises or falls when viewed from left to right. Because both lines pass through point P on the y-axis, they have the same rise from P to the x-axis. However, line ℓ intersects the x-axis at a greater value than line k. Thus, the run of line ℓ from the y-axis to the x-intercept is greater than the run of line k. When the slope is expressed as a ratio, both lines have the same numerator (rise), but line ℓ has a greater denominator (run). The greater denominator results in a lesser fraction and a lesser slope for line ℓ. Therefore, the correct answer is Choice A.

*Multiple options can be correct
GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 29
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Directions: For the following question, select all the answer choices that apply.

Q. In the xy-plane, line k is a line that does not pass through the origin. Which of the following statements individually provide(s) sufficient additional information to conclude that the slope of line k is negative?

Indicate all such statements.
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 29

For questions involving a coordinate system, it is often helpful to draw a figure to visualize the problem situation. If you draw some lines with negative slopes in the xy-plane, such as those in the figure below, you see that for each line that does not pass through the origin, the x- and y-intercepts are either both positive or both negative. Conversely, you can see that if the x- and y-intercepts of a line have the same sign then the slope of the line is negative.

You can use this fact to examine the information given in the first two statements. Remember that you need to evaluate each statement by itself.

Choice A states that the x-intercept is twice the y-intercept, so you can conclude that both intercepts have the same sign, and thus the slope of line k is negative. So the information in Choice A is sufficient to determine that the slope of line k is negative.

Choice B states that the product of the x-intercept and the y-intercept is positive. You know that the product of two numbers is positive if both factors have the same sign. So this information is also sufficient to determine that the slope of line k is negative.

To evaluate Choice C, it is helpful to recall the definition of the slope of a line passing through two given points. You may remember it as “rise over run.” If the two points are (a, b) and (r, s), then the slope is b −s / a− r. Choice C states that the product of the quantities (a − r) and (b − s) is negative. Note that these are the denominator and the numerator, respectively, of b −s / a− r the slope of line k. So you can conclude that (a − r) and (b − s) have opposite signs and the slope of line k is negative. The information in Choice C is sufficient to determine that the slope of line k is negative. So each of the three statements individually provides sufficient information to conclude that the slope of line k is negative. The correct answer consists of Choices A, B, and C.

GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 30
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The company at which Mark is employed has 80 employees, each of whom has a different salary. Mark’s salary of $43,700 is the second-highest salary in the first quartile of the 80 salaries. If the company were to hire 8 new employees at salaries that are less than the lowest of the 80 salaries, what would Mark’s salary be with respect to the quartiles of the 88 salaries at the company, assuming no other changes in the salaries?
Detailed Solution for GRE Mock Test (New Pattern) - 7 - Question 30
In this question you are told that Mark’s salary is the second-highest in the first quartile. From this you can conclude that the word quartile refers to one of the four groups that are created by listing the data in increasing order and then dividing the data into four groups of equal size. When the salaries of the 80 employees are listed in order, the 20 lowest salaries (that is, the salaries in the first quartile) are the first 20 salaries in the list. Since Mark’s salary is the second-highest in the first quartile, 18 salaries in that quartile are lower than his, and one salary in that quartile is higher than his. After the salaries of the 8 new employees are added, there are 26 salaries that are lower than Mark’s. The lowest 22 of those would be in the first quartile of the 88 salaries, and the remaining 4 (salaries 23 to 26) would be in the second quartile, followed by Mark’s salary. This puts Mark at the fifth-lowest salary in the second quartile. The correct answer is Choice E.
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