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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test HPPSC HPAS Mock Test Series 2024 - HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10

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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

Consider the following regions of ancient Indian history:

1. Kosala

2. Magadha

3. Gandhara

4. Avanti

5. Panchala

Which of the above was/were the ‘Mahajanapadas’?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 1

Mahajanapadas - The Mahajanapadas were the set of sixteen kingdoms that existed in ancient India. About 2500 years ago, some janapadas or states became more important than other states and were known as mahajanapadas. Some of the Mahajanapadas were Magadha, Gandhara, Kuru, Kamboja, Kosala, Panchala,

Vajji, Kashi etc.

Most mahajanapadas had a capital city, many of these were fortified. This means that huge

wall of wood, brick or stone were built around them.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 2

Sangam texts cover the social evolution of Tamil people. In this context, which of the following statements given below is/are not correct?

1. The narrative texts show that early Tamil people were primarily pastoral.

2. No reference to trade and economic activities has been made in these texts.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 2
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. As Sangam Literature can be divided into two groups, Pathinenkilkanakku (narrative) and Patinenkilkanakku (deductive). Patinenmelkannakku is the older set of works from 200 to 100 BC whereas Patinenkilkanakku refers to a collection of 18 works from 100 to 500 AD. The narrative portion consists of heroic poetry, perpetual war and cattle raids. They show that early Tamil people were primarily pastoral. The narrative Sangam texts give some idea of the state formation in which the army, the taxation system and judiciary arose in rudimentary form.

Statement 2 is not correct. Poems included in the Tamil Sangam anthologies often illuminate social and economic relationships, suggesting that while there were differences between rich and poor, those who controlled resources were also expected to share them.

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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 3

Consider the following statements:

  1. Ajivikas were fatalists who believed that everything was predetermined.

  2. Lokayatas were materialists who rejected the authority of the Vedas.

  3. Makkhali Gosala was an Ajivika teacher and Ajita Kesakambalin was a lokayata teacher.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 3
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Ajivikas was one of the heterogeneous sects developed in pre-Mauryan times. The followers of the Ajivikas were described as fatalists: those who believe that everything is predetermined.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Lokayatas were usually described as materialists. They rejected the notion of an afterworld, karma, liberation (moksha), the authority of the sacred scriptures, the Vedas, and the immortality of the self.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Makkhali Gosala was an Ajivika teacher and Ajita Kesakambalin was a lokayata teacher.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 4

Which of the following steps were taken by rulers in the medieval times to earn support of their subjects?

  1. Declaring their close relationship with god through titles like “Shadow of God”.

  2. Constructing public buildings like markets and water tanks.

  3. Offering patronage to the learned and pious people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 4
All the statements are correct

As each new dynasty came to power, kings wanted to emphasize their moral right to be rulers. They took following steps in this regard - Constructing places of worship provided rulers with the chance to proclaim their close relationship with God, especially important in an age of rapid political change. Temples and mosques were constructed because they were places of worship and were meant to demonstrate the power, wealth and devotion of the patron.

The largest temples were all constructed by kings. These temples served a miniature model of the world ruled by the king and his allies. As they worshipped their deities together in the royal temples, it seemed as if they brought the just rule of the gods on earth. For instance, in Rajarajeshvara temple, an inscription mentions that it was built by King Rajarajadeva for the worship of his god, Rajarajeshvaram. Thus, the king took the god’s name because it was auspicious and he wanted to appear like a god -through the rituals of worship in the temple one god (Rajarajadeva) honoured another (Rajarajeshvaram).

Persian court chronicles described the Sultan as the “Shadow of God”. For instance, an inscription in the Quwwat al-Islam mosque explained that the God chose Alauddin as a king as he had the qualities of Moses and Solomon, the great lawgivers of the past.

Rulers also offered patronage to the learned and pious, and tried to transform their capitals and cities into great cultural centers that brought fame to their rule and their realm.

Kings were expected to care for their subjects, and by making structures for their use and comfort, rulers hoped to win their praise.

Between the eighth and the eighteenth centuries kings and their officers built two kinds of structures:

  • The first were forts, palaces, garden residences and tombs – safe, protected and grandiose places of rest in this world and the next;

  • The second were structures meant for public activity including temples, mosques, tanks, wells, caravanserais and bazaars.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni

  1. He entrusted a scholar, Al-Biruni to write an account of the subcontinent.
  2. Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni was a contemporary of Rajendra I.
  3. The Chahamana ruler Prithviraja III defeated an Afghan ruler named Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 5
  • Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni, Afghanistan He ruled from 997 to 1030, and extended control over parts of Central Asia, Iran and the north-western part of the subcontinent.
  • He raided the subcontinent almost every year – his targets were wealthy temples, including that of Somnath, Gujarat.
  • Sultan Mahmud was also interested in finding out more about the people he conquered, and entrusted a scholar named Al-Biruni to write an account of the subcontinent.
  • Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni was a contemporary of Rajendra I. During his campaigns in the subcontinent he attacked the temples of defeated kings and looted their wealth and idols.
  • The best-known Chahamana ruler was Prithviraja III (1168-1192), who defeated an Afghan ruler named Sultan Muhammad Ghori in 1191, but lost to him the very next year, in 1192. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 6

With reference to the Indus Valley Civilization, which one of the following statements is not correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 6
  • The archaeological findings at the Indus Valley sites indicate a tradition of burying the dead bodies in pits. The dead bodies in some cases were buried along with the pottery and ornaments indicating a belief that these could be used in the afterlife.
  • The Indus Valley people had established trade relations with the contemporary Mesopotamians. The Mesopotamian literature refers to trade with a region called Meluha which is identified with the region occupied by the Indus Valley civilization. These texts mention the products from Meluhha: carnelian, lapis lazuli, copper, gold, and varieties of wood.
  • The Indus valley people used a standard system of weights and measures. The lower denominations of weights were binary (1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, etc. up to 12,800), while the higher denominations followed the decimal system. The weights were made of stone called chert.
  • The Indus Valley people were aware of gold and gold ornaments have been discovered at the Indus Valley sites. It is believed that the gold was procured from the south. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
     
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 7

With reference to Medieval India, consider the following pairs :

Q. How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 7
  • Iltutmish organized his trusted nobles or officers into a group of "Forty. Iltutmish established the 'Group of Forty' Turkan-i-Chahalgani. These were Turkish amirs (nobles) who advised and helped the Sultan administer the Sultanate. After the death of Iltutmish, this group assumed great power in its hands. For a few years, they decided to select Sultans one after the other. Balban finally eliminated the group. Turkan-i-Chahalgani was is organised by Qutbuddin Aibak. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
  • Balban ruled in an autocratic manner and worked hard to elevate the position of the Sultan, and he did not allow any noble to assume great power. He even formulated the theory of kingship. Balban maintained a magnificent court. He refused to laugh and joke in the court and even gave up drinking wine so that no one may see him in a non-serious mood. He also insisted on the court's ceremony of sijada (prostration) and paibos (kissing of the monarch's feet). Hence, Iltutmish has not insisted on the ceremony of sijada. Therefore, Balban insisted on paibos (kissing the monarch's feet) in the court. So, Pair 2 is not correct, and Pair 3 is correct.
  • Jalaluddin Khalji laid the foundation of the Khalji dynasty. Alauddin Khalji was Jalaluddin's ambitious nephew and son-in-law. He helped his uncle in his struggle for power and was appointed Amir-i-Tuzuk (Master of Ceremonies). Alauddin Khalji has made an important policy initiative on Market Regulations. Alauddin set up three different markets for different commodities in Delhi. These markets were the grain market (Mandi), cloth market (Sarai Adl) and the market for horses, enslaved people, cattle, etc. And to ensure the implementation, Alauddin appointed a superintendent Shahna-i-Mandi, who an intelligence officer assisted. Apart from Shahna-i-Mandi, Alauddin received daily market reports from two independent sources, braid (intelligence officer) and munhiyans (secret spies). So, Pair 4 is correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 8

Consider the following pairs with reference to the cultural History of India :

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 8
  • Mrichchhakatika is a ten-act Sanskrit drama attributed to Sudraka and is generally thought to have lived sometime between the 2nd century BC and the 5th century AD. The play is set in the ancient city of Ujjain during the reign of king Pataka. The main story is that of a noble that a young Brahmin Charudatta falls in love with a wealthy courtesan, vasantasena. So, Pair (1) is not correct.
  • Mahakavi Kalidasa is a great Indian poet of the 5th century AD. He was one of the greatest Sanskrit poets in the world. He belonged to the Gupta period. He had written three plays, i.e., Malavikagnimitra, Abhigyanashakuntalam and Vikramorvasiyam. These three plays became so famous that they made Kalidasa one of the legends. He has also written some epic poems, i.e., Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava. Some of the other poems of Kalidasa are Ritusamhara and Meghaduta. So, Pair (2) is correct.
  • Vishakhadatta, the author of a rare semi-historical play called Mudrarakshasa, apparently was a courtier at the Gupta court. Mudrarakshasa is a political drama that narrates the ascent of king Chandragupta Maurya to power in India. His play dramatizes the political principles expounded in the book Arthasastra by Kauᒷilya, who appears as the play's hero. So, Pair (3) is not correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 9

Which of the following statements is/are correct about the currency reforms of Muhammad-Bin-Tughlaq?

1. Token currency was introduced for the first time ever in the history during his reign.

2. He introduced a bronze coin with the same value as the silver tanka.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 9
  • Another step which Muhammad-Bin- Tughlaq took at this time was the introduction of the ‘token currency’. Since money is merely a medium of exchange, all countries in the world today have token currencies - generally paper currency, so that they do not have to depend upon the supply of gold and silver. There was a shortage of silver in the world in the fourteenth century. Moreover, Qublai Khan of China had already successfully experimented with a token currency.

  • A Mongol ruler of Iran, Ghazan Khan, had also experimented with it. Muhammad Tughlaq decided to introduce a bronze coin which was to have the same value as the silver tanka. Specimen of this coin has been found in different parts of India, and can be seen in museums. The idea of a token currency was a new one in India and it was difficult to induce the traders, as well as the common man to accept it.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 10

In the context of mural paintings in ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. Paintings at the Kanchipuram temple were patronised by the Pallavas.

2. Paintings at Jaina caves in Sittanavasal were patronised by the Pandyas.

3. Mural painting as an art declined during the reign of the Cholas.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 10
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. Paintings at the temple at Kanchipuram were patronised by the Pallava king Rajasimha. Painting of Somaskanda here – only traces remain – large, round face. Increased ornamentation was a notable feature of these paintings. Paintings at Jaina caves in Sittanavasal were patronised by the Pandyas. When the Pandyas came to power, they too patronised art.

Thirumalapuram caves and Jaina caves at Sittanavasal are some of the surviving examples. However, mural painting as an art did not decline during the reign of the Cholas. In fact, the Cholas were known for their patronage of the arts. They patronised both Hindu and Jain temples and these temples are renowned for their beautiful paintings and sculptures. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 11

Who established the “Atmiya Sabha” a precursor in the socio-religious reforms in Bengal?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 11
  • Raja Ram Mohan Roy established the “Atmiya Sabha” a precursor organization in the socio-religious reforms in Bengal in the year 1814 in Kolkata.

  • It was a philosophical discussion circle where debates and discussions were held leading to the ideas for social reforms.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 12

Consider the following statements:

1. In 1863, Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service.

2. The Indian Police Act, 1861, created a setup for an All India Police.

3. The 1853 Charter Act ended the Company’s patronage, enjoining recruitment to be through an open competition.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 12
Option (b) is the correct answer Statement 1 is incorrect. In 1863, Satyendra Nath Tagore became the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service. Statement 2 is incorrect. The British did not create an All-India Police. The Police Act, 1861 presented the guidelines for a police setup in the provinces.

Statement 3 is Correct. The 1853 Charter Act ended the Company’s patronage, enjoining recruitment to be through an open competition henceforth. But the examination was held in England in English language, based on classical learning of Greek and Latin. The maximum permissible age was gradually reduced from 23 (in 1859) to 22 (in 1860) to 21 (in 1866) and to 19 (1878).

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 13

With reference to Colonial powers in India, arrange the following treaties in chronological order:

  1. Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle

  2. Treaty of peace of Paris

  3. Treaty of Ryswick

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 13
Option c is correct
  • Treaty of Ryswick: In July 1697 the treaty brought to an end the Nine Years War, in which Louis XIV's France faced a grand coalition of England, the Dutch, and Spain. Louis agreed to return most of his territorial acquisitions or réunions made since Nijmegen, but retained the important fortress town of Strasbourg.

    • The Dutch were allowed to garrison barrier fortresses in the Spanish Netherlands. In India Pondicherry was restored to French by Dutch.

    • The treaty, negotiated with much difficulty, lasted only four years before the War of the Spanish Succession broke out.

  • Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle: It was signed between British and French in 1748 after first Carnatic war. Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle 1748 was negotiated largely by Britain and France with the other powers following their lead, ending the War of the Austrian Succession (1740–48).

    • The treaty was marked by the mutual restitution of conquests, including the fortress of Louisburg on Cape Breton Island, Nova Scotia, to France; Madras in India, to England.

  • Treaty of peace of Paris: The Treaty of Paris of 1763 ended the French and Indian War/Seven Years’ War between Great Britain and France, as well as their respective allies.

    • In the terms of the treaty, France gave up all its territories in mainland North America, effectively ending any foreign military threat to the British colonies there. In India Pondicherry, Karaikal and other French possessions were returned to the French on condition that they should not fortify them and it ended the third Carnatic war in 1763.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 14

Consider the following statements with respect to Simon Commission:

  1. All the members of the Commission were Englishmen.

  2. The Commission was appointed to go into the question of further constitutional reforms in British India.

  3. The Simon Commission report recommended dominion status for British India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 14
  • In November 1927, the British Government appointed the Indian Statutory Commission, known popularly after the name of its Chairman as the Simon Commission, to go into the question of further constitutional reform. It was formed by the Conservative Government of Britain. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • All the members of the Commission were Englishmen. This announcement was greeted by a chorus of protest from all Indians. What angered them most was the exclusion of Indians from the Commission and the basic notion behind this exclusion that foreigners would discuss and decide upon India's fitness for Self government. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • At its Madras Session in 1927, presided over by Dr. Ansari, the National Congress decided to boycott the Commission 'at every stage and in every form.' The Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress decision.

  • The action began as soon as Simon Commission landed at Bombay on 3 February 1928. That day, people were out on the streets participating in black-flag demonstrations. In Madras, T. Prakasam symbolized the defiant spirit of the occasion by baring his chest before the armed policemen. In Lucknow, Khaliquzzaman executed the brilliant idea of floating kites and balloons imprinted with the popular slogan ‘Go Back Simon’ over the reception organized in Kaiserbagh by the taluqdars for members of the Commission.

  • In Lucknow, Jawaharlal and Govind Ballabh Pant were beaten up by the police. But the worst incident happened in Lahore where Lala Lajpat Rai, the hero of the Extremist days and the most revered leader of Punjab, was hit on the chest by lathis on 30 October and succumbed to the injuries on 17 November 1928. It was his death that Bhagat Singh and his comrades were seeking to avenge when they killed the white police official, Saunders, in December 1928.

  • The Simon Commission report contained no mention of the Dominion Status and was in other ways also a regressive document. It disappointed national leaders including moderates.

Hence statement 3 is not correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

Consider the following pairs :
Places  - Historical events
1. Varanasi - Annie Besant established the Central Hindu College
2. Mathura - A temple dedicated to Mother India was inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi.
3. Bardoli - Withdrawal of Non Cooperation Movement
4. Lucknow - An armed robbery was organized by ten revolutionaries of the Hindustan Republic Association
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 15

In 1898, Annie Besant established a Central Hindu College near Town Hall, Varanasi, to impart religious, moral instructions and secular education. In 1910, she was supposed to set up a university and while this did not happen, in 1911, in collaboration with Madan Mohan Malviya and others, the Central Hindu College became the nucleus of Banares Hindu University. So, Pair 1 is correct.
The 'Bharat Mata Mandir, or Bharat Mata temple, is dedicated to Mother India and was constructed by Babu Shiv Prasad Gupta between 1918 and 1924. It is located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. Mahatma Gandhi inaugurated the 'Bharat Mata Mandir temple on October 25, 1936. Hence, the temple is not located in Mathura. So, Pair 2 is not correct.
The Non - Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi was an expression of the growing resentment of all classes of the Indian people against oppressive British rule. Gandhi took up three specific points on which the movement was initiated:

  • the Khilafat wrong,
  • the Punjab wrong,
  • Swaraj.

On February 04, 1922, The volunteers marched through the streets of Chauri Chaura village of Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces, shouting slogans of Gandhi and the Khilafat. As the crowd grew larger and fiercer, the cops retreated inside the police station. The protestors doused the building in kerosene and set it on fire. Twenty-three policemen were killed, and 228 people were brought to trial in the incident, out of which 19 were sentenced to death. This event marked the end of the non-cooperation movement. The Congress Working Committee met at Bardoli in February 1922 and resolved to stop all activity that led to breaking of the law and to get down to constructive work, instead, which was to include popularisation of khadi, national schools, and campaigning for temperance, for Hindu-Muslim unity and against untouchability. So, Pair 3 is correct.
The Hindustan Republic Association (HRA) was founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, and Sachin Sanyal to organize an armed revolution to overthrow the colonial  Government and establish in its place the Federal Republic of United States of India.
Under the leadership of Chandra Shekhar Azad, the name of the Hindustan Republic Association (HRA) was changed to the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), an Indian revolutionary organization.
Kakori Conspiracy, also called Kakori Conspiracy Case or Kakori Train Robbery, was a train robbery at Kakori, a village near Lucknow, in 1925. An armed robbery was organized by ten revolutionaries of the Hindustan Republic Association, an organization that aimed to achieve independence through revolution.
So, Pair 4 is correct.
 

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 16

Consider the following pairs:
Organisation   :    Associated  member

1. The Bombay Presidency Association : Badruddin Tyabji
2. Madras Mahajan Sabha                     : Subramaniya Aiyer
3. The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha  : Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 16
  • The Bombay Presidency Association was started by Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozshah Mehta and K.T. Telang in 1885. It was founded in response to Lytton's reactionary policies and the Ilbert Bill controversy. The association has always had cordial relations with the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha. The Bombay Presidency Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, the Madras Mahajana Sabha, and the Indian Association of Calcutta sent a joint deputation to England in September 1885 to present India's case to the British electorate. It championed Indian interests and also hosted the first meeting of the Indian National Congress in Bombay at the end of 1885. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. 
  • The Madras Mahajan Sabha was founded in 1884 by M. Viraraghavachari, B. Subramaniya Aiyer and P. Anandacharlu. The Mahajana Sabha held its first conference between 29 December 1884 and 2 January 1885. It demanded fundamental rights of Indians such as national freedom and other common social issues for the welfare of our fellowmen since 1884. In September 1885, the Sabha in collaboration with the Bombay Presidency Association and the Indian Association sent a delegation to England. On April 22, 1930, the Sabha organized the Salt Satyagraha movement in Madras' George Town, Esplanade, High Court, and Beach areas. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched. 
  • The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha was formed in 1836 by associates of Raja Rammohan Roy. Raja Ram Mohan Roy died in 1833. Prasanna Kr. Thakur, Kalinath Chowdhury, Dwarakanath Tagore, and others were the associates of Raja Rammohan Roy who founded the Bangabhasa Prakasika Sabha in 1836. The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha is regarded as the earliest political organisation in India. It sought to increase the association of Indians in the administration, the spread of education, pushing forward Indian demands to the British parliament. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 17

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Pitt's India Act, 1784?
1. The Board of Control was established.
2. The orders of the Board of Control became binding on the Court of Directors.
3. The number of members in the Governor General's Council was reduced.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 17
  • The Pitt’s India Act, 1784 also called the East India Company Act, 1784 was passed by the British Parliament to correct the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773.
  • Provisions:
    • This act resulted in dual control of British possessions in India by the British government and the Company with the final authority resting with the government.
    • A Board of Control consisting of six members was constituted to take care of civil and military affairs, and would include one of the Secretary of State (Board President), the chancellor of the exchequer and four privy councillors. Hence statement 1 is correct.
    • The Governor-General’s council’s strength was reduced to three from four members. One of the three would be the Commander-in-Chief of the British Crown’s army in India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    • The orders of the board became binding on the Court of Directors, which was required to send all its letters and dispatches to the board for its perusal. Hence statement 2 is correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Karachi Session of 1931?
1. The Congress met in this Session to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
2. For the first time, Congress defined what Swaraj would mean for the masses.
3. The Resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme were passed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 18

The Congress met at Karachi in March, 1931, to endorse the Gandhi- Irwin or the Delhi Pact. The Karachi Session became memorable for its Resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme. Even though the Congress had, from its inception, fought for the economic interests, civil liberties and political rights of the people. This was the first time that the Congress defined what Swaraj would mean for the masses.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded by Mahatma Gandhi.
2. Gandhiji‟s Harijan campaign included promotion of education, cleanliness and hygiene.
3. After the Poona Pact, Gandhiji decided to commence an „Untouchability Prevention Movement‟.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 19

Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded by Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhiji‘s Harijan campaign included a programme of internal reform by the Harijans: promotion of education, cleanliness and hygiene, giving up the eating of carrion and beef, giving up liquor and the abolition of untouchability among themselves. After the Poona Pact, Gandhiji decided to commence an ̳Untouchability Prevention Movement‘

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 20

Arrange the following events into chronological order

1. The Communist Party of India (CPI) was formed in Tashkent by M.N. Roy.

2. Hindustan Republican Association/Army was founded in Kanpur by Ram Prasad Bismil and others.

3. Chittagong Armoury Raid was conducted under the banner of Indian Republican Army- Chittagong Branch led by Surya Sen.

4. Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were Hanged.

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 20
Option (a) is the correct answer.

● The Communist Party of India (CPI) was formed in Tashkent (Current capital of Uzbekistan) by M.N. Roy in 1920.

● Hindustan Republican Association/Army was founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee and Sachin Sanyal.

● Chittagong Armoury Raid was conducted in April 1930 under the banner of Indian Republican Army- Chittagong Branch led by Surya Sen and 64 other activists.

● The Revolutionary leaders Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were hanged by Colonial Rulers on March 23, 1931.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:

1. Forest area is the area notified and recorded as the forest land irrespective of the existence of trees.

2. Forest cover is the area occupied by forests with canopy.

3. Both the forest area and forest cover are based on the records of State Revenue Department.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 21
According to state records, the forest area covers 23.28 per cent of the total land area of the country. It is important to note that the forest area and the actual forest cover are not the same.
  • According to India’s State of Forest Report 2011, the actual forest cover in India is only 21.05 per cent. Of the forest cover, the share of dense and open forests is 12.29 and 8.75 per cent respectively. Both forest area and forest cover varies from state to state. Lakshadweep has zero percent forest area; Andaman and Nicobar Islands have 86.93 per cent. Most of the states with less than 10 percent of the forest area lie in the north and northwestern part of the country.

  • These are Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Delhi. Most of the forests in Punjab and Haryana have been cleared for cultivation. States with 10-20 per cent forest area are Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.

  • In Peninsular India, excluding Tamil Nadu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Goa, the area under forest cover is 20-30 per cent. The northeastern states have more than 30 percent of the land under forest. Hilly topography and heavy rainfall are good for forest growth.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 22

With reference to the process of Denudation, consider the following statements:

  1. Frost is an agent of Erosion.

  2. Wind is an agent of both weathering and erosion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 22
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Weathering and erosion are processes by which rocks are broken down and moved form their original location. They differ based on whether a rock's location is changed: weathering degrades a rock without moving it, whileerosion carries rocks and soil away from their original locations. Weathering often leads to erosion by causingrocks to break down into smaller pieces, which erosive forces can then move away.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Frost is an agent of weathering and not erosion because frost does not move away or cut through the underlying surface and do not move rocks or matter from one location to another.

Statement 2 is correct. Wind is an agent of both weathering and erosion. Both air and water contain some amount of chemical which when exposed to surface of rocks starts chemical weathering.

While wind blows it also carries the lighter weathered materials with it. A strong wind can also erode the surface and transport it somewhere else.

Knowledge Base: Denudation is the general lowering and levelling of the earth’s surface.

The denudation process occurs in four phases namely weathering, erosion, transportation and deposition. Rain, frost and wind are the agents of weathering. Rivers, ice, wind and waves are agents of erosion.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 23

Consider the following statements with respect to Tsunami:

  1. They are caused by the vertical displacement of oceanic plates.

  2. The speed of the Tsunami wave depends on the depth of the water.

  3. The impact of the Tsunami wave is less in the mid-ocean compared to the coast.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 23
  • Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause the sea-floor to move abruptly resulting in sudden displacement of ocean water in the form of high vertical waves are called tsunamis. Earthquakes cause tsunami by causing a disturbance of the seafloor. Thus, earthquakes that occur along coastlines or anywhere beneath the oceans can generate tsunami. But the sense of displacement is also important. Tsunami are generally formed when an earthquake causes vertical displacement of the seafloor. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon the depth of water. It is more in the shallow water than in the ocean deep. As a result of this, the impact of tsunami is less over the ocean and more near the coast where they cause large-scale devastations. Therefore, a ship at sea is not much affected by tsunami and it is difficult to detect a tsunami in the deeper parts of sea. It is so because over deep water the tsunami has very long wave-length and limited wave-height. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.

  • When a tsunami enters shallow water, its wave-length gets reduced and the period remains unchanged, which increases the wave- height. Sometimes, this height can be up to 15m or more, which causes large-scale destructions along the shores.

  • After reaching the coast, the tsunami waves release enormous energy stored in them and water flows turbulently onto the land destroying port-cities and towns, structures, buildings and other settlements.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 24

With reference to the world population, consider the following statements:

  1. The world population crossed the one billion mark in the first half of the 17th century.

  2. At present, Africa has the highest growth rate of population among all the continents.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 24
  • The current population of the world is nearing 8 billion. It has grown to this size over centuries. In the early periods' population of the world grew very slowly. It is only during the last few hundred years that the world population has increased at an alarming rate.

  • After the evolution and introduction of agriculture, the population began to grow slowly but steadily. Around 1750, at the dawn of the Industrial Revolution, the world population was 550 million.

  • The world population exploded in the eighteenth century after the Industrial Revolution. Technological advancement achieved so far helped in the reduction of the birth rate and provided a stage for accelerated population growth.

  • As a consequence, the world population reached 1 billion in the early 19th century. Thus, it took millions of years for the human population to reach the 1 billion mark. In contrast, it took only 12 years for the world population to reach 7 billion from 6 billion. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

  • The growth rates of the continents of the world are:

    • Africa - 2.49 %

    • Oceania - 1.31% (Australia, New Zealand, and other island nations)

    • Asia - 0.86%

    • South America - 0.83%

    • North America - 0.77%

    • Europe - 0.06%

  • At 2.49 per cent, Africa has the highest growth rate of population among all the continents. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 25

Consider the following pairs: Relief Features Physiographic division

1. Karewas : Kashmir Himalayas

2. Barchans : Great Himalayan range

3. Bugyals : Great Indian Desert

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 25
  • Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. The Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • The extension of the Peninsular plateau can be seen as far as Jaisalmer in the West, where it has been covered by longitudinal sand ridges and crescent-shaped sand dunes called barchans. To the northwest of the Aravali hills lies the Great Indian desert. It is a land of undulating topography dotted with longitudinal dunes and barchans. This region receives low rainfall below 150 mm per year; hence, it has an arid climate with low vegetation cover. It is because of these characteristic features that this is also known as Marusthali. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  • Dehradun is the largest of all the duns with an approximate length of 35-45 km and a width of 22-25 km. In the Great Himalayan range, the valleys are mostly inhabited by the Bhotias. These are nomadic groups who migrate to ‘Bugyals’ (the summer grasslands in the higher reaches) during the summer months and return to the valleys during winter. The famous ‘Valley of flowers’ is also situated in this Region. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 26

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 26
  • Atlas Mountains
    • Mountain range across the north-western stretch of Africa extending about 2,500 km (1,600 mi) through Algeria, Morocco and Tunisia. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
    • The highest peak is Toubkal (4,165 metres) in southwestern Morocco.These mountains were formed when Africa and Europe collided.
  • Alps:
    • The mountains were formed as the African and Eurasian tectonic plates collided. Extreme folding caused by the event resulted in marine sedimentary rocks rising by thrusting and folding into high mountain peaks such as Mont Blanc (4,810 m) (French–Italian border). Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
    • NOTE: Mount Elbrus is the highest mountain in Europe. Its summit is 18,510 feet (5642 meters) above sea level and it is located in Russia.
  • Andes:
    • The Andes is the longest continental mountain range in the world. The Andes is the world’s highest mountain range outside of Asia with an average height of 4000 m. The highest peak is Mount Aconcagua
    • NOTE: World’s highest volcanoes are in the Andes. Ojos del Salado (6,893 m) (active volcano) on the Chile-Argentina border is the highest volcano on earth. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding alluvial soil

1. It is majorly found in northern plains of India.

2. Khadar soil is known as old alluvial soil.

3. Bangar soil is more fertile than kadar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 27
Option (a) is the correct answer.

This is the most widely spread and important soil. The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. As we move inland towards the river valleys, soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size. In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse. Such soils are more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai. Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile. Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated. Soils in the drier areas are more alkaline and can be productive after proper treatment and irrigation.

Statement 1 is correct. Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri rivers.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Soils are also described on the basis of their age. According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar). Statement 3 is incorrect. The Bangar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules than the Khadar whereas Khadar has more fine particles and is more fertile than the Bangar.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

Consider the following statements:

  1. There are nine coastal states in India.

  2. The nodal ministries for the coastal region are the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), and Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 28

Recently, the the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India tabled a report in

Parliament on whether steps taken by the Union Environment Ministry to conserve India’s

coastal ecosystems have been successful.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Coastal regions of India provide home to 13.36% of the people of the country and thus place tremendous pressure on the resources along the coast. There are nine coastal states in the country, namely, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The nodal institutions at the national level, Ministry of

Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), and Ministry of Earth Sciences along with various stakeholder ministries and other key scientific and research

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 29

The amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface depends on:

  1. Angle of the sun’s radiation

  2. Length of the day

  3. Distance between the sun and the earth

  4. Sunspots

  5. Effects of the atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 29
  • The amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface varies due to angle of the sun’s radiation, length of the day, the distance between the sun and the earth, sunspots and effects of the atmosphere. Hence, all of the options given above are correct.

  • The solar energy radiated from the outer surface of the sun in the form of electromagnetic radiation, which travels at the speed of 3,00,000 km per second. The solar energy received at the earth’s surface is called insolation or solar radiation. The amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface varies significantly (decreases) from the equator towards poles due to certain astronomical and geographical factors viz.

    • Angle of the sun’s radiation: The angle between the rays of the sun and the tangent to the surface of the earth at a given place largely determines the amount of insolation to be received at that place.

    • Length of day: If all the other conditions are favourable and equal then the longer duration of sunshine and shorter duration of night enables the ground surface to receive a larger amount of insolation. On the other hand, the shorter the duration of sunshine and longer the period of the night, the lesser the amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface. The length of the day varies at all places except at the equator due to inclination of the earth’s axis, it’s parallelism and the earth’s rotation and revolution.

    • Distance between the sun and the earth: As per rule, the earth at the time of perihelion, when it is nearest to the sun, should receive maximum insolation while it should receive minimum insolation at the time of aphelion when the earth is at the greatest distance from the sun.

    • Sunspots: Sunspots are created in the solar outer surface due to periodic disturbances and explosions. The number of sunspots varies from year to year. The energy radiated from the sun increases when the number of sunspots increases and therefore the amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface also increases. On the other hand, the amount of insolation received at the earth’s surface decreases when the number of sunspots decreases.

    • Effects of the atmosphere: The electromagnetic solar radiation or the incoming shortwave solar radiation has to pass through a thick layer of the earth's atmosphere and hence it is partly absorbed, partly reflected and partly scattered by the atmosphere and partly transmitted to the earth’s surface.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 30

Consider the following statements with reference to the occurrence of various minerals:

  1. Metallic minerals are obtained from veins and lodes.

  2. Coal mainly occurs as alluvial deposits in the sands of valley floors.

  3. Bauxite is formed as a result of an accumulation for long periods under great heat and pressure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 10 - Question 30
  • Minerals are usually found in “ores”. The term ore is used to describe an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements. The mineral content of the ore must be in sufficient concentration to make its extraction commercially viable.

  • Minerals generally occur in these forms:

    • In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults, or joints. The smaller occurrences are called veins and the larger is called lodes. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities towards the earth’s surface. Major metallic minerals like tin, copper, zinc, and lead, etc. are obtained from veins and lodes. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

    • In sedimentary rocks, a number of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation, and concentration in horizontal strata. Coal has been concentrated as a result of long periods under great heat and pressure. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

    • Another mode of formation involves the decomposition of surface rocks, and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered material containing ores. Bauxite is formed this way. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

    • Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills. These deposits are called ‘placer deposits’ and generally contain minerals, which are not corroded by water. Gold, silver, tin, and platinum are the most important among such minerals.

    • The ocean waters contain vast quantities of minerals, but most of these are too widely diffused to be of economic significance. However, common salt, magnesium, and bromine are largely derived from ocean waters. The ocean beds, too, are rich in manganese nodules.

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