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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test HPPSC HPAS Mock Test Series 2024 - HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 for HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) 2024 is part of HPPSC HPAS Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) exam syllabus.The HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 MCQs are made for HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 below.
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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

This temple is built in Chalukyan Style on the Prabhas Pattan or Veraval Port of Gujrat. It was raided by Mahmud of Ghazni and is believed to have been plundered at least 17 times. India’s first president Dr Rajendra Prasad performed the Pran Pratishtha Ceremony over here. Which is the temple being referred to in the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 1
Somnath Temple:
  • It is the first among the 12 Jyotirlingas which are symbolic representations of Lord Shiva.

  • Located at the Veraval Port or Prabhas Pattan in Saurashtra, Gujrat, the present temple is built in the Chalukyan style.

    • This Architecture is also known as the “Kailash Mahameru Prasad” style.

    • It reflects the skill of the SompuraSalats, one of Gujarat’s master masons.

  • Raids - In AD 1026, Mahmud of Ghazni first looted the temple,and then came Afzal Khan, the commander of Ala-ud-din Khilji and later Aurangzeb.

  • It is said that the temple was looted and destroyed as many as seventeen times.

  • Post Modern History - The Iron man of India, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel was instrumental in the construction of the present temple.

  • The first President of India Dr Rajendra Prasad installed the Jyotirling in the new temple on May 11, 1951.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Consider the following statements:

1. Ellora caves have monasteries associated with Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism.

2. Elephanta caves were originally a Buddhist site, later dominated by the Shaivite faith.

3. Bagh caves are associated with Jainism only.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 2
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Ellora Caves are a series of rock-cut cave monuments that are associated with Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism. The caves were constructed between the 6th and 10th centuries CE and are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The caves are renowned for their beautiful sculptures and carvings, including depictions of the Buddha, Shiva and Vishnu. Elephanta Caves are a series of rock-cut temples that are located on an island in the Arabian Sea.

The caves were originally a Buddhist site, but were later dominated by the Shaivite faith. The caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site and are known for their sculptures and carvings depicting Hindu deities, stories from the Puranas and various scenes from Hindu mythology. Bagh Caves are a series of rock-cut cave monuments that are associated with Jainism. The caves were built between the 5th and 8th centuries CE and are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The caves are renowned for their sculptures and carvings, including depictions of popular Jain figures and various scenes from Jain mythology. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

With respect of Swadesh Bandhab Samiti set up during the Swadeshi Movement, which of the following statements is correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 3
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • The Swadesh Bandhab Samiti set up by Ashwini Kumar Dutt, a school teacher, in Barisal was the most well-known volunteer organization of them all.

  • Through the activities of this Samiti, whose 159 branches reached out to the remotest corners of the district, Dutt was able to generate an unparalleled mass following among the predominantly Muslim Peasantry of the region. The samitis took the Swadeshi message to the villages through magic lantern lectures and Swadeshi songs, gave physical and moral training to the members, did social work during famines and epidemics, organized schools training in Swadeshi craft and arbitration courts.

  • By August 1906 the Barisal Samiti reportedly settled 523 disputes through eighty-nine arbitration committees.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Arrange the following bhakti saints chronologically:

  1. Narsi Mehta

  2. Basavanna

  3. Tulsidas

  4. Manikkavasagar

Select the correct answer using the code given Below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 4
  1. Narsi Mehta – 15th century CE. He was a bhakti saint from region belonging to the present-day Gujarat.

  2. Basavanna – 12th century CE. He was a bhakti saint from belonging to the present-day Karnataka.

  3. Tulsidas – 16th -17th century CE. He was a bhakti saint from belonging to the present-day Uttar Pradesh.

  4. Manikkavasagar – 9th Century CE. He was a 9th-century Tamil poet who wrote Tiruvasakam, a book of Shaiva hymns. He was a bhakti saint from belonging to the present-day Tamil Nadu.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Which of the following best describes the term ‘khatduh’ belonging to the state of Meghalaya?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Matriliny in Meghalaya Communities:

  • The Khasis, numbering about 1.39 lakh, are one of the three indigenous matrilineal communities in the northeastern State. The other two are Garos and Jaintias.

What constitutes Matriliny?

  • In this system, lineage and descent are traced through the mother’s clan, like
    • Children take the mother’s surname,
    • The husband moves into his wife’s house, and
    • The youngest daughter (khatduh) of the family is bequeathed the full share of the ancestral — or the clan’s — property. Hence option (a) and (b) are correct.
  • The khatduh becomes the “custodian” of the land.
    • She assumes all responsibility associated with the land, including taking care of aged parents, unmarried or destitute siblings.
  • Khasi marrying non-Khasi person:
    • It is mandatory for any Khasi woman who marries a non-Khasi to obtain the Khasi tribe certificate for applying for the ST certificate for her children. 
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Consider the following statements
1. Basavanna and Muhammad Bin Tughluq are contemporaries.
2. Kalidasa and Chandragupta Maurya are contemporaries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Both the statements are incorrect.

  • Basaveshwara, colloquially known as Basavanna, was a 12th-century CE Indian statesman, philosopher, poet, Lingayat saint in the Shiva-focussed bhakti movement, and a Hindu Shaivite social reformer during the reign of the Kalyani Chalukya/Kalachuri dynasty. Basava was active during the rule of both dynasties but reached the peak of his influence during the rule of King Bijjala II in Karnataka, India.
  • Mohammad ibn Tughlaq or Mohammad Bin Tughlaq was the Sultan of Delhi from 1325 to 1351. He was the eldest son of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq, the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty.
  • The true beauty and grandeur of the literature in Gupta Era can be seen in the kavyas. The greatest among all the names is Kalidasa who lived in the 4th century CE and was a contemporary of Chandragupta II. His earliest production was Ritusamhara. But earliest drama was Malvikagnimitram. Meghaduta is pioneer Dutakavya in Sanskrit literature.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

With reference to the administration during Magadhan Empire, consider the following pairs:
Person - Designation
1. Koliya - Minister
2. Kumbhaghosaka - Physician
3. Jivaka - Treasurer
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
 

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Magadhan Empire’s won were those that had larger, stronger, better armies, and this, in turn, was the result of effective political strategies of administration and control. Magadha’s gradual rise to political supremacy began with Bimbisara. The rise of Magadha to political supremacy can be reconstructed by comparing the information in the Puranic, Buddhist, and Jaina texts. The Mahavagga, a Buddhist text, speaks of Bimbisara’s administration and suggests that Bimbisara had a very large kingdom consisting of thousands of prosperous villages. Buddhist text talks of high- ranking officials known as mahamatras, who probably had executive, judicial, and military functions. Some administration members are:

  • Minister - Koliya
  • Treasurer - Kumbhaghosaka
  • Village Headmen - Gramakas
  • High-Ranking Officials - Mahamatras
  •  Physician - Jivaka
  • Flower Gatherer – Sumana.

So, Option (b) is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

With reference to Indian History, consider the following pairs :
Historical person      Known as

1. Aryadeva                   Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga                  Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni              Vaishnava scholar
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 8
  • Aryadeva, was a Mahayana Buddhist monk, a disciple of Nagarjuna and a Madhyamaka philosopher. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
  • Dignaga was an Indian Buddhist scholar and one of the Buddhist founders of Indian logic (hetu vidya). Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Dignaga’s work laid the groundwork for the development of deductive logic in India and created the first system of Buddhist logic and epistemology (Pramana).
  • Sri Ranganathamuni, popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni, was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
  • Hence Correct Answer- Option-D 
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Sangam Literature’:

1. The Sangam literature was composed by the assemblies of Tamil poets.

2. The achievements of three powerful kingdoms i.e. Chera, Chola and Pallava were praised in the Sangam works.

3. The Sangam literature was composed during the four Sangam assemblies.

Which of the statement given below is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 9
  • Sangam literature Some of the earliest works in Tamil, known as Sangam literature, were composed around 2300 years ago. These texts were called Sangam because they were supposed to have been composed and compiled in assemblies (known as sangams) of poets that were held in the city of Madurai.

  • The period in which the Sangam literature was composed is called Sangam Age. The three kingdoms Chera, Chola and Pandya flourished during this period. There were three Sangams which created a literary movement. The Sangam literature consists of Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku and the two epics Silappathigaram and Manimegalai. Among these, the Tolkappiyam authored by Tolkappiyar was the earliest work which provides the information on Social, Economic and political conditions of the Sangam Age along with the Tamil grammar.

  • It was composed in the second Sangam. The third Sangam created Patthupattu, (Ten Idylls or poetries), Ettuthokai (The eight Anthologies), Padinenkilkanakkyu (The Eight Minor Didactic Poems), the Rural and Jivaka Chintamani etc. The Sangam literature speaks of the worship of Vishnu, Siva and Indra.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Regarding the Modhera Sun Temple, consider the following statements:

1. It is on the banks of Pushpavati River in Tamil Nadu.

2. It was built in the 11th century during the Chalukya dynasty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 10
The Ahmedabad Railway Station at Kalupur in Ahmedabad City will be developed on the theme of Modhera Sun Temple in the next five years.

Statement 1 is not correct :Modhera Sun Temple is located in Mehsana, neighbouring Ahmedabad district of Gujarat .Situated on the banks of Pushpavati River. Statement 2 is correct : Built in the 11th century during the Chalukya dynasty in honour of the Sun God, it is one of the major tourist destinations in North Gujarat.

● It is surrounded by a terra-formed garden of flowering trees and songs of birds.

● The remains of the Sun Temples at Modhera are relics of times gone by when reverence of the natural elements fire, air, earth, water and sky were at their peak sharing space with myriad manifestations of Vedic gods.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

Consider the following statements:

  1. Pherzeshah Mehta was mainly responsible for the founding of ‘The Bombay Chronicle’, an English newspaper.

  2. A Nation in making’ book is the autobiography of Surendranath Banerjea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 11
Pherozeshah Mehta is an Indian political leader, planner of the municipal charter for Bombay and founder of the English-language newspaper Bombay Chronicle. He presided over the sixth session of the Indian National Congress in 1890. He had a major role in the establishment of a Swadeshi bank i.e. the Central Bank of India.

Surendranath Banerjea is one of important moderate political leader. He founded the Indian National Association, through which he led two sessions of the Indian National Conference in 1883 and 1885, along with Anandamohan Bose. He founded a new organization named Indian National Liberation Federation in 1919. He was editor of “The Bengali” newspaper. Written in the last years of Sir Surendranath Banerjea s life, A Nation in Making is not only the autobiography of a pioneering leader in Indian politics but also a commentary on public life.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Consider the following regarding the Wood’s Despatch (1854):

1. It suggested educating only a small section of upper and middle classes in line with Macaulay’s minutes.

2. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at school level.

3. It laid stress on female and vocational education, and on teachers’ training.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 12
Option (b) is the correct answer. Statement 1 is incorrect. It asked the government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the masses. Statement 2 is correct. As per the Wood’s dispatch, the medium of instruction at the primary level was to be vernacular while at the higher levels it would be English.

Statement 3 is correct. It highlighted female education, vocational education and teachers training KB) Other recommendations: It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at bottom, followed by Anglo- Vernacular High Schools and an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

● It laid down that the education imparted in government institutions should be secular.

● It recommended a system of grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Delhi durbar of 1877?

  1. It was announced by Lord Canning.

  2. Indian states were to be treated as parts of single charge of British Crown.

  3. The Queen’s proclamation issued in Delhi’s Durbar promised equal and impartial protection under law to all Indians, besides equal opportunities in government services irrespective of race or creed.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 13
Option d is correct
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Delhi durbar of 1877 was not announced by Lord Canning. It was largely an official event not a popular occasion with mass appeal like 1903 and 1911.It was organized by Lytton, The then Viceroy of India. Lord Canning announced Queen’s proclamation at a durbar at Allahabad in 1858 according to which, the era of annexations and expansion had ended and the British promised to respect the dignity and rights of the native princes.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian states were henceforth to recognize the paramountcy of the British crown and were treated as parts of a single charge as a part of Queen’s proclamation announced at durbar held at Allahabad in 1858 and not the 1877 Delhi Durbar.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Queen’s proclamation of 1858 promised equal and impartial protection under law to all Indians, besides equal opportunities in government services irrespective of race or creed. It was also promised that old Indian rights, customs and practices would be given due regard while framing and administering the law.

  • The Delhi durbar of 1877 gave a new title” Qaisar-I-Hind, the Empress of India to British monarch- Queen Victoria. Delhi durbar was held 3 times in the old Mughal capital of Delhi, first in 1877, and then again in 1903 and 1911.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

Though the Portuguese were the first to arrive in India, they were incapable of maintaining a trade monopoly in the East for a long because

  1. Its merchants enjoyed more power than its landed aristocrats.

  2. Portuguese lagged behind in the development of shipping as compared to other European powers.

  3. They followed a policy of religious intolerance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 14
  • By the 18th century, the Portuguese in India lost their commercial influence, though some of them still carried on trade in their individual capacity and many took to piracy and robbery. The decline of the Portuguese was brought about by several factors.

    • The local advantages gained by the Portuguese in India were reduced with the emergence of powerful dynasties in Egypt, Persia, and North India and the rise of the turbulent Marathas as their immediate neighbors. (The Marathas captured Salsette and Bassein in 1739 from the Portuguese).

    • The population of Portuguese was less than a million, its Court was autocratic and decadent, its merchants enjoyed much less power and prestige than its landed aristocrats. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

    • They followed a policy of religious intolerance. The religious policies of the Portuguese, such as the activities of the Jesuits, gave rise to political fears. Their antagonism for the Muslims apart, the Portuguese policy of conversion to Christianity made Hindus also resentful. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    • The earlier monopoly of knowledge of the sea route to India held by the Portuguese could not remain a secret forever; soon enough the Dutch and the English, who were learning the skills of ocean navigation, also learned it and outshined the Portuguese. They lagged behind in the development of shipping as compared to other European powers. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • As new trading communities from Europe arrived in India, there began a fierce rivalry among them. In this struggle, the Portuguese had to give way to the more powerful and enterprising competitors. The Dutch and the English had greater resources and more compulsions to expand overseas, and they overcame the Portuguese resistance.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

With reference to Modern Indian history, which among the following events happened earliest ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Gandhi founded the All-India Village Industries Association in Wardha in 1934. Jamnalal Bajaj has donated considerable land and buildings to the All-India Village Industries Association. Gandhi organized the first All-India Village Industries Exhibition in Indore in 1935.

  • Gandhiji started experiments in rural lifestyles, such as the revival of village crafts and agro-processing industries, village cleanliness, diet reforms, etc., so that villages could be developed as ideal surroundings to live in. So, Option (a) is not correct.
  • On 30 September 1932, Gandhi founded the All India Anti Untouchability League to remove untouchability in the society, which was later renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh ("Servants of Harijan Society") Harijan Sevak Sangh is a non-profit organization founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932 to eradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan or Dalit people and uplifting the Depressed Class of India. So, Option (b) is not correct.
  • The federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry was established in 1927. FICCI is the largest and oldest apex business organization in India. Its history is closely interwoven with India's struggle for independence, industrialization, and emergence as one of the most rapidly growing global economies. A non-government, not-for-profit organisation, FICCI is India's business and industry voice. From influencing policy to encouraging debate, engaging with policy makers and civil society, FICCI articulates the views and concerns of industry. It serves its members from the Indian private and public corporate sectors and multinational companies, drawing its strength from diverse regional chambers of commerce and industry across states, reaching out to over 2,50,000 companies. So, Option (c) is not correct. 
  • On his return from South Africa, Gandhi's first Ashram in India was established in the Kochrab area of Ahmedabad on 25 May 1915. Gandhi's Kochrab Ashram was located near the city of Ahmedabad in the state of Gujarat. This ashram was a major center for students of Gandhian ideas to practice satyagraha, self- sufficiency, and Swadeshi, work for the upliftment of the poor, women, and untouchables, and to promote better public education and sanitation. The ashram was organized based on human equality. So, Option(d) is correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Consider the following statements about Sawai Jai Singh:
1. He erected observatories at Delhi, Ujjain and Kolkata.
2. He drew up a set of tables, entitled Zij Muhammadshahi, to enable people to make astronomical observations.
3. He had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Sawai Jai Singh of Amber erected observatories at Delhi, Jaipur, Ujjain, Varanasi and Mathura. He drew up a set of tables, entitled Zij Muhammadshahi, to enable people to make astronomical observations. He had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit as also several works on trigonometry and Napier’s work on the construction and use of logarithms.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Which of the following reforms was/were undertaken during the reign of Lord Dalhousie?
1. Introduction of the “Non – Regulation System” for the newly acquired territories.
2. Guarantee System for providing guaranteed return on investment to the railway companies.
3. The ports of India were thrown open to the commerce of the world.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

Reforms under Lord Dalhousie –

  • Dalhousie’s territorial acquisition transformed the map of India. His greatest achievement was the moulding of the new provinces into a modern centralized state. For the newly acquired territories, he introduced the centralized control called the “Non-Regulation System”.
  • Under this system, a Commissioner was appointed for a newly acquired territory. In 1853, he penned his Railway Minute, formulating the future policy of railways in India. He started the “Guarantee System” by which the railway companies were guaranteed a minimum interest of 5% on their investments.
  • The government retained the right of buying the railways at the end of the period of contract. The ports of India were thrown open to the commerce of the world. Free- trade principles were becoming a passion with the Englishmen of the mid-nineteeth century. The harbours of Karachi, Bombay and Calcutta were developed and a large number of light- houses were constructed.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

With reference to the agrarian reforms undertaken by the Congress Ministries in the brief period of 28 months‟ rule in the Provinces during 1937-39, consider the following statements:
1. There was a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure by completely abolishing the Zamindari.
2. Most of these benefits went to the statutory and the occupancy tenants, while the sub-tenants did not gain much. 3. Agricultural labourers did not benefit, as they had not been mobilized.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 18

The Agrarian Reforms – There were certain basic constraints due to which the Congress Ministries could not undertake a complete overhaul of the agrarian structure by completely abolishing the Zamindari. These constraints were –
(i) The Ministries did not have adequate powers.
(ii) There were inadequate financial resources, as a lion‘s share was appropriated by the Government of India.
(iii) Strategy of class adjustments was another hurdle, since the Zamindars, etc., had to be conciliated and neutralized.
(iv) There was constraint of time, since the logic of the Congress politics was confrontation and not co-operation with colonialism.
(v) War clouds had started hovering around 1938.
(vi) The reactionary Second Chamber (The Legislative Council), dominated by the landlords, moneylenders and capitalists in the United Provinces, Bihar, Bombay, Madras and Assam, had to be conciliated, as its support was necessary for the legislations.
(vii) The agrarian structure was too complex. In spite of these constraints, the Congress Ministries managed to legislate a number of laws relating to land reforms, debt relief, forest grazing fee, arrears of rent, land tenures, etc. But, most of these benefits went to the statutory and the occupancy tenants, while the sub-tenants did not gain much. Agricultural labourers did not benefit, as they had not been mobilized

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Which among the following were the social reforms undertaken by the Congress Ministries in the brief period of 28 months‟ rule in the Provinces during 1937-39?
1. Measures for the welfare of the Harijans taken in temple entry.
2. Attention given to the primary, technical and higher education.
3. Encouragement given to the indigenous enterprises.
4. Efforts taken to develop planning through the National Planning Committee, set up under the Congress President Subhash Bose in 1938.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

The Social Welfare Reforms undertaken by the Congress Ministries in the brief period of 28 months’ rule in the Provinces during 1937-39 – Prohibition imposed in certain areas. Measures for the welfare of the Harijans taken – temple entry, use of public facilities, scholarships, an increase in their numbers in government services and police, etc. Attention given to the primary, technical and higher education, and to public health and sanitation. Encouragement given to Khadi through subsidies and other measures. Prison reforms undertaken. Encouragement given to the indigenous enterprises. Efforts taken to develop planning through the National Planning Committee, set up under the Congress President Subhash Bose in 1938.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Who among the following is/are associated with the Permanent Settlement System in India?
1. John Shore
2. James Grant
3. Thomas Monroe
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Lord Hastings approved the Ryotwari System of land revenue introduced in the Madras Presidency by Sir Thomas Munroe. Cornwallis, at the time of his appointment, was instructed by the Directors to find a satisfactory and permanent solution to the problems of the land revenue system, in order to protect the interests of both the Company and the cultivators. It obliged the Governor- General to make a thorough enquiry into the usages, tenures and rents prevalent in Bengal. The whole problem occupied Lord Cornwallis for over 3 years and after a prolonged discussion with his colleagues, like Sir John Shore and James Grant, he decided to abolish the Annual Lease System and introduce a decennial (Ten years) settlement, which was subsequently declared to be continuous. This System was known as the Permanent Settlement System.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Consider the following statements about retreating monsoon:

1. It begins when the low-pressure trough over the northern plains starts moving southwards.

2. It is associated with wet weather in North India and rains in eastern part of Peninsula.

3. It is characterized by wind blowing from Northeast to Southwest.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 21
  • Statement 1 is correct. The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons. By the end of September, the southwest monsoon becomes weak as the low-pressure trough of the Ganga plain starts moving southward in response to the southward movement of the sun. By the beginning of October, the low pressure covers northern parts of the Bay of Bengal and by early November, it moves over Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. By the middle of December, the centre of low pressure is completely removed from the Peninsula. The retreating Southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the ‘October heat’. In the second half of October, the mercury begins to fall rapidly, particularly in northern India. The weather in the retreating monsoon is dry in north India but it is associated with rain in the eastern part of the Peninsula. Here, October and November are the rainiest months of the year. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Statement 3 is correct because during the winter monsoon or retreating monsoon, the ITCZ moves southward, and so the reversal of winds from Northeast to South and southwest, takes place.

    So, option B is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Which of the following is/are the main objective of the ‘National Water Grid Project’?

  1. Linking of major rivers of India.

  2. Hydropower generation.

  3. To accelerate groundwater recharge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 22
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Features of national water grid:

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Inter-Linking of Rivers programme aims to connect various surplus rivers with deficient rivers.

  • The idea is to divert excess water from surplus regions to deficient regions to help improve irrigation,

  • Increase water for drinking and industrial use, and mitigate drought and floods to an extent.

  • It is a large-scale engineering proposal for the management of water resources in India by the interlinking of the Indian rivers through networks of reservoir and canals.

  • Redistribution of water

  • Statement 2 is correct. Hydropower generation Irrigation Facilities

Statement 3 is incorrect. Groundwater recharge is not one of the explicitly stated objectives of the National water grid project.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

  1. A Lunar eclipse occurs only when the sun and the moon are located on opposite sides of the Earth.

  2. If the Moon's orbit around the Earth is not tilted compared to the Earth's orbit, Lunar eclipse would occur every month.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 23
  • An eclipse is partial or total obstruction of light from a celestial body as it passes through the shadow of another celestial body. On the earth we are familiar with two types of eclipses i.e., solar eclipse and lunar eclipse.

  • Solar Eclipse: When the moon comes exactly between the earth and the sun it obstructs a part or whole of the sun and a partial or total solar eclipse occurs. A solar eclipse will occur only if the sun and the moon are on one side of the earth. Usually we have partial solar eclipse but total or full solar eclipse also occurs, although at varying intervals of time depending on the position of the sun, the earth and the moon.

  • Lunar Eclipse: Lunar eclipse occurs when the earth comes between the sun and the moon i.e. lunar eclipse will occur only if the sun and the moon are located on the opposite side of the earth. It usually occurs at full moon. Depending upon the position of the moon during its revolution around the earth, we can have partial or total lunar eclipse. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • One might wonder that why we don’t have a lunar eclipse every month as the moon orbits Earth. It’s true that the moon goes around Earth every month, but it doesn’t always get in Earth’s shadow. The moon’s path around Earth is tilted compared to Earth’s orbit around the sun. The moon can be behind Earth but still get hit by light from the sun. But if the Moon's orbit around the Earth is not tilted compared to the Earth's orbit, Lunar eclipse would occur every month. Hence statement 2 is correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of minerals across various continents:

  1. Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.

  2. Africa is the world’s largest producer of diamonds and gold.

  3. Antarctica does not have the presence of mineral deposits in commercial quantities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 24
Distribution of Minerals:
  • Asia: China and India have large iron ore deposits. The continent produces more than half of the world’s tin. China, Malaysia, and Indonesia are among the world’s leading tin producers. China also leads in the production of lead, antimony, and tungsten. Asia also has deposits of manganese, bauxite, nickel, zinc, and copper.

  • Europe: Europe is the leading producer of iron-ore in the world. The countries with large deposits of iron ore are Russia, Ukraine, Sweden, and France. Minerals deposits of copper, lead, zinc, manganese, and nickel are found in eastern Europe and European Russia.

  • North America: The mineral deposits in North America are located in three zones:

    • the Canadian region north of the Great Lakes,

    • the Appalachian region and

  • the mountain ranges of the west.

  • Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium, and copper are mined in the Canadian Shield Region, coal in the Appalachian region. Western Cordilleras have vast deposits of copper, lead, zinc, gold, and silver.

  • South America: Brazil is the largest producer of high-grade iron ore in the world. Chile and Peru are leading producers of copper. Brazil and Bolivia are among the world’s largest producers of tin. South America also has large deposits of gold, silver, zinc, chromium, manganese, bauxite, mica, platinum, asbestos, and diamond. Mineral oil is found in Venezuela, Argentina, Chile, Peru, and Columbia.

  • Africa: Africa is rich in mineral resources. It is the world’s largest producer of diamonds, gold, and platinum. South Africa, Zimbabwe, and Zaire produce a large portion of the world’s gold. The other minerals found in Africa are copper, iron ore, chromium, uranium, cobalt, and bauxite. Oil is found in Nigeria, Libya, and Angola. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Australia: Australia is the largest producer of bauxite in the world. It is a leading producer of gold, diamond, iron ore, tin, and nickel. It is also rich in copper, lead, zinc, and manganese. Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie areas of western Australia have the largest deposits of gold. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Antarctica: The geology of Antarctica is sufficiently well known to predict the existence of a variety of mineral deposits, some probably large. The significant size of deposits of coal in the Transantarctic Mountains and iron near the Prince Charles Mountains of East Antarctica is forecasted. Iron ore, gold, silver, and oil are also present in commercial quantities. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

With reference to River Cities Alliance (RCA), consider the following statements:

1. The alliance is open to only those cities which are situated across the river Ganga.

2. It is a collaborative effort between the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and the National Institute for Urban Affairs (NIUA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 25
  • Recent Context: The Driving Holistic Action for Urban Rivers (DHARA) Conference was organized recently by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) in Pune.
    • DHARA is the annual meeting of the members of the River Cities Alliance (RCA).
    • It provides a platform to co-learn and discuss solutions for managing local water resources.
    • One of the thrust areas of the Urban 20 (U20) Initiative is to promulgate urban water security and DHARA 2023 is in sync with U20 as healthy rivers are vital to enhancing overall water security.
  • About River Cities Alliance (RCA)
    • It is a collaborative effort between the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and the National Institute for Urban Affairs (NIUA). Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • It is launched by the Ministry of Jal Shakti along with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
    • River Cities Alliance started with 30 cities in 2021 and currently has 95 cities as members across India.
    • The Alliance is open to all river cities of India. Any river city can join the Alliance at any time. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
    • The Alliance focuses on three broad themes Networking, Capacity Building, and Technical Support.
    • It is a dedicated platform for river cities in India to ideate, discuss and exchange information for sustainable management of Urban Rivers such as:
      • Minimizing their water footprint,
      • Reducing impacts on river and water bodies,
      • Capitalizing on natural, intangible, architectural heritage and associated services and
      • Develop self-sufficient, self-sustainable water resources through recycling, and reuse strategy.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Consider the following statements :

1. The westernmost point of India is located in the Jamnagar district of Gujarat.

2. The actual distance of north-south (latitudinal) extent of India is greater than its east-west (longitudinal) extent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 26
  • The mainland of India extends from Kashmir in the north to Kanyakumari in the south and Arunachal Pradesh in the east to Gujarat in the west.
  • India’s territorial limit further extends towards the sea up to 12 nautical miles (about 21.9 km) from the coast.
  • Guhar Moti is the westernmost point of India. It is a small village located in the Kutch district of Gujarat. The northernmost point of India is located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas, near Indira Col, Siachen Glacier. The easternmost point is Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Our southern boundary extends up to 6°45' N latitude in the Bay of Bengal. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is roughly about 30 degrees. Whereas the actual distance measured from north to south extremity is 3,214 km, and that from east to west is only 2,933 km. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • This difference is based on the fact that the distance between two longitudes decreases towards the poles whereas the distance between two latitudes remains the same everywhere.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

1. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are separated by the Ten Degree channel.

2. Most of the islands in Andaman and Nicobar are submarine mountains with some of volcanic origin.

3. Islands of Lakshadweep group are primarily coral islands and atolls.

4. Minicoy is separated by 8-degree channel from Maldives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 27
  • India, apart from many small islands, has two main archipelagos- Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal, and the Lakshadweep islands in Arabian sea. The Bay of Bengal island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These are situated roughly between 6°N-14°N and 92°E -94°E. The two principal groups of islets include the Ritchie’s archipelago and the Labyrinth island. The entire group of islands is divided into two broad categories – the Andaman in the north and the Nicobar in the South, separated by the Ten-degree channel. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains.The only volcano in India, Barren Island, is located in Andaman and Nicobar. It is an active volcano and had last erupted in 2017. It also has a mud volcano situated in Baratang island, these mud volcanoes have erupted sporadically, with recent eruptions in 2005 believed to have been associated with the 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake.

  • Statement 2 is correct. Islands of Lakshadweep in the Arabian sea are located off the coast of Kerala. The main archipelago is separated from Minicoy by the 9-degree channel. Minicoy in turn is separated from Maldives by the 8-degree channel. Lakshadweep islands are made of coral deposits and there are many atolls. Statement 3 and 4 are correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Consider the following statements regarding Coral Bleaching:

  1. It refers to the paling of a coral’s colour.

  2. It is caused due to an increase in density of zooxanthellae in reefs.

  3. Very high temperature may cause Coral Bleaching.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 28
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is correct. Bleaching refers to the paling of coral colour. It occurs when the density of zooxanthellae residing inside the reefs declines as the colour is given by the zooxanthellae.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. When the bleaching of corals occurs, they usually lose around 60-90 percent of their zooxanthellae, and each zooxanthellae may lose around 50-80 percent of its photosynthetic pigments.

  • If the stress-causing bleaching is not too severe and if it decreases with time, the affected corals usually regain their symbiotic algae within several weeks or a few months.

  • If the loss of zooxanthellae is prolonged i.e., if the stress continues and depleted zooxanthellae populations do not recover, the coral host eventually dies.

  • Statement 3 is correct. Corals come under stress due to sudden change in temperature, water salinity or excess nutrients. Thus, very high temperature can cause coral bleaching.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

Consider the following statements with respect to the Mercalli scale and Richter scale:

  1. Mercalli scale is linear whereas the Richter scale is logarithmic.

  2. The Mercalli scale measurement is based on the observation of the earthquake's effect on the earth's surface and Richter scale's measurement is based on the amplitude of Seismic waves.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 29
  • Earthquakes are tremors which are produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth. The severity of an earthquake can be expressed in terms of both intensity and magnitude. Intensity is based on the observed effects of ground shaking on people, buildings, and natural features. It varies from place to place within the disturbed region depending on the location of the observer with respect to the earthquake epicenter. Magnitude is related to the amount of seismic energy released at the hypocenter of the earthquake. It is based on the amplitude of the earthquake waves recorded on instruments which have a common calibration.

  • Both statements are correct: Mercalli scale is a seismic intensity scale used for measuring the intensity of shaking produced by an earthquake. It measures the effects of an earthquake at a given location. It measures the intensity of an earthquake by observing its effect on people, the environment and the earth’s surface. It is a linear measurement.

  • Richter scale is a quantitative measure of an earthquake’s magnitude (size). The earthquake’s magnitude is determined using the logarithm of the amplitude (height) of the largest seismic wave calibrated to a scale by a seismograph. The Richter Scale measures the energy released by an earthquake using a seismograph.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding Demographic Transition Theory:

  1. In the first stage there is an expansion of the population due to high fertility.

  2. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - Question 30
  • Demographic Transition Theory tells us that the population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate society.

  • It has four stages:

    • The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology.

      • Thus though the fertility rate is high mortality rate is also high and there is no scope for population expansion in this stage. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

    • In the second stage, fertility remains high but mortality falls rapidly due to improvements in health facilities and other socio-economic improvements. As a result, there is an expansion of the population.

    • In the third stage, fertility falls rapidly but mortality falls slowly which leads to slow population growth compared to the second stage. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly or may even decline. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know-how, and deliberately controls the family size. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • Developed countries like the USA, Canada, western European nations are believed to be in the last stage.

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