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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - HPPSC HPAS (Himachal Pardesh) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test HPPSC HPAS Mock Test Series 2024 - HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6

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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 1

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Shankaracharya?

1. Shankaracharya wrote the commentaries on the Upanishads and the Bhagavad Gita.

2. His philosophical views came to be known as Advaita Vedanta.

3. Shankaracharya expounded that ultimate reality is one, it being the Brahman.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 1
  • Shankaracharya wrote the commentaries on the Upanishads, Brahmasutras and the Bhagavad Gita.

  • Shankaracharya’s discourse or his philosophical views came to be known as Advaita Vedanta. Advaita literally means non-dualism or belief in one reality.

  • Shankaracharya expounded that ultimate reality is one, it being the Brahman.

  • According to the Vedanta philosophy, ‘Brahman is true, the world is false and self and Brahman is not different, Shankaracharya believed that the Brahman is existent,unchanging, the highest truth and the ultimate knowledge.

  • He also believed that there is no distinction between Brahman and self. The knowledge of Brahman is the essence of all things and the ultimate existence. Ramanuja was another well-known Advaita scholar.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 2

With reference to Sangam Age, consider the following statements:

1. First Sangam was held at Kapadapuram.

2. No literary work of this Second Sangam is available.

3. History of the Sangam age is reconstructed from literary works of the Third Sangam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 2
Recently, TamilNadu has sent soil samples for a project relating to the new Parliament building.

Statement 1 is not correct: According to Tamil legends, there were three Sangams held in ancient South India popularly called Muchchangam. The first Sangam is believed to be held at Madurai, attended by gods and legendary sages. No literary work of this Sangam is available.

Statement 2 is not correct: The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram, only Tolkappiyam survived this. Statement 3 is correct: The third Sangam was also held at Madurai. A few of these Tamil literary works have survived and are useful sources to reconstruct the history of the Sangam period

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HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 3

Which of the following sites are identified as a Neolithic Sites?

  1. Daojali Hading

  2. Paiyampalli

  3. Kurnool caves

  4. Inamgaon

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 3
Chalcolithic Site - Inamgaon

List of Neolithic Sites;

  • Koldihwa

  • Mahagara

  • Mehrgarh

  • Paiyampalli

  • Hallui

  • Burzahom

  • Chirand

  • Daojali Hading

Megalithic Sites;

  • Adichamallur

  • Brahmagiri

Paleolithic Sites;

  • Kurnool caves

  • Hunsgi

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 4

Which of the following sites are identified as a Neolithic Sites?

  1. Daojali Hading

  2. Paiyampalli

  3. Kurnool caves

  4. Inamgaon

Select the correct answer using the code given Below.

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 4
Chalcolithic Site - Inamgaon

List of Neolithic Sites;

  1. Koldihwa

  2. Mahagara

  3. Mehrgarh

  4. Paiyampalli

  5. Hallui

  6. Burzahom

  7. Chirand

  8. Daojali Hading

Megalithic Sites

  1. Adichamallur

  2. Brahmagiri

Paleolithic Sites

  1. Kurnool caves

  2. Hunsgi

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 5

Consider the following statements regarding the duty of the Muqtis
1. The holders of iqta were called as Muqti.
2. The duty of the muqtis was to lead military campaigns.
3. The duty of the muqtis was to maintain law and order in their iqtas.
4. Muqtis collected the revenues of their assignments as salary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 5

All the above statements are correct.

  • Khalji and Tughluq monarchs appointed military commanders as governors of territories of varying sizes.
  • These lands were called iqta and their holder was called iqtadar or muqti.
  • The duty of the muqtis was to lead military campaigns and maintain law and order in their iqtas.
  • In exchange for their military services, the muqtis collected the revenues of their assignments as salary.
  • They also paid their soldiers from these revenues.
  • Control over muqtis was most effective if their office was not inheritable and if they were assigned iqtas for a short period of time before being shifted.
  • These harsh conditions of service were rigorously imposed during the reigns of Alauddin Khalji and Muhammad Tughluq.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding the sculptures of medieval India:
1. One of the common features of sculptures of both Pallava and Chola dynasties was an eternal struggle between the forces of good and evil, in which the good ultimately triumphed.
2. Gajsurasamaharamurti, a Chola masterpiece shows the great goddess Durga in a fierce battle demon.
3. Pallava sculptures show females in a submissive manner with thinner features as compared to their male counterparts. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 6
  • Statement 1 is correct: Aits from Pallava and Chola dynasties represent the eternal struggle between the forces of good and evil, in which the good ultimately triumphs.
  • Statement 2 is not correct: The mighty Cholas who succeeded the Pallavas and ruled over South India from the 9th to 13th centuries A.D. created the great temples at Thanjavur, Gangai Kondo Cholapuram, Darasurama, which are a veritable treasure house of their art. A good example of Chola craftsmanship
  • in the 11th century is the relief carving of Siva as Gajsurasamaharamurti. The irate god is engaged in a vigorous dance of fierce ecstasy after having killed the elephant demon, who has given so much trouble to the rishis and his devotees. The hide of the demon is spread aloft by the god, using it as a sort of cover. Devi stands at the lower right corner as the only awe-struck spectator of the divine act of retribution.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Pallava style concerns itself with a tall and slender physiognomical form. The thin and elongated limbs emphasize the tallness of the figure. The female figures are much lighter in appearance, with their slender waists, narrow chests, and shoulders, smaller breasts, sparse ornaments and garments, and generally submissive attitudes. The figure sculpture of the Pallavas is natural in pose and modelling. The front of the torso is almost flat, and the ornamentations are simple in high relief. Yet it is infused with a certain amount of vigor and fluid grace. A great masterpiece is the carving from Mahabalipuram showing the great goddess Durga engaged in a fierce battle with the buffalo-headed demon aided by their respective armies. Riding on her lion she is rushing at the powerful demon with great courage. He is moving away, yet watching for a moment to attack.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 7

With reference to Vijayanagara Empire,which one of the following is the correctchronological order of the ruling dynasties?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 7
  • The Vijayanagara Empire was based in the Deccan Plateau region of South India. It was established in 1336 by the brothers Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty. The Sangama dynasty ruled between 1336 – 1485 CE. The Sangama dynasty was founded by Harihara I and Bukka. Their father had been taken prisoner in 1327 by Muhammad bin Tughluq. They founded Vijayanagara in 1336.The Saluva dynasty ruled between 1485 – 1505 CE. The Saluva dynasty was created by the Saluvas, who by historical tradition were natives of the Kalyani region of northern Karnataka in modern India. The Tuluva dynasty ruled between 1491 – 1570 CE. Krishna Dev Raya was an important ruler of this dynasty. Tuluva is the name of the third ruling dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire. The dynasty traces its patrilineal ancestry to Tulu-speaking Nagavamshi Kshatriyas.The Aravidu dynasty ruled between 1542 – 1646 CE. Its founder was Tirumala Deva Raya, whose brother Rama Raya had been the masterful regent of the last ruler of the previous dynasty.
    • At Talikota in 1565, the ruler Rama Raya was killed. Though the Vijaynagar kingdom continued to exist for almost a hundred more years. Its size decreased and the Rayas no longer remained important in the politics of South India.
  • Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 8

With reference to Medieval texts, which of the following is/are not an autobiography ?
1. Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri
2. Ain-e Akbari
3. Qanun-i-Humayuni
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 8
  • Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri, (or) Jahangir-nama, the memoirs of Jahangir, tells about his great interest in arts and his efforts to achieve scientific correctness in rendering flora and fauna that interested the Emperor the most. It was written in the Persian language. Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri is an Autobiography of Jahangir. So, Option (1) is not correct.
  • The Ain-i-Akbari, or the "Administration of Akbar," is a 16th-century detailed document recording the administration of the Mughal Empire under Emperor Akbar, written by his court historian, Abul Fazl, in the Persian language. The main purpose of Ain-i-Akbari was to record information about the people and society during the Mughal regime and to give detailed accounts of the organisation of the court, administration and army. Abul Fazl wrote a three-volume history of Akbar’s reign, titled Akbar Nama.
    • The first volume dealt with Akbar’s ancestors,
    • The second volume recorded the events of Akbar’s reign and
    • The third volume is the Ain-i Akbari. It deals with Akbar’s administration, household, army, revenues and the geography of his empire. It also provides rich details about the traditions and culture of the people living in India. The most interesting aspect of the Ain-i Akbari is its rich statistical details about things as diverse as crops, yields, prices, wages and revenues. In the Ain-i Akbari, the Mughal Empire is presented as having a diverse population consisting of Hindus, Jains, Buddhists and Muslims and a composite culture. So, Option (2) is correct.
  • Qanun –i-Humayuni was composed in 1534 CE by Khvandamir, one of the officials under Humayun's patronage. It is about the Work on the Rules and Ordinances Established by the Emperor Humayun and on Some Buildings Erected by His Order. It is not an Autobiography. So, Option (3) is correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 9

Consider the following pairs:

1. Dadu Dayal: Madhya Pradesh

2. Ravi Das: Punjab

3. Bhagat Pipa: Bihar

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 9
Bhagat Pipa was a Rajput prince born in Gagron, Jhalawar. He was a prince who renounced his throne in the search of spiritual solace and said that one should search within for God. He said that one's inner self has a relation with God. Bhagat Pipa shared same views as Guru Nanak. Bhagat Pipa’s hymns are included in the Guru Granth Sahib. He settled in near Kutch, Gujarat. Ravi Das was a mystic saint poet during the 15th and 16th century. He came from a shudra family which worked with dead animals’ skins to produce leather products and very much known in India as untouchables. He was one of the disciples of bhakti saint poet Ramananda. His devotional songs are included in Guru Granth Sahib. Panch Vani text of Dadupanthi tradition also includes numerous poems of Ravidas. He was born and died in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 10

Which of the following archaeological sites belong to the Palaeolithic age?

1. Kurnool caves

2. Bhimbetka caves

3. Deojali hading

4. Chirand

5. Hunsgi

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 10
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Archaeologists call the earliest period Palaeolithic. It comes from two Greek words, ‘paleo’ meaning old, and ‘lithos’, meaning stone. This period extends from 2 million years ago to about 12,000 years ago. This time period is divided into the lower, middle and the upper Palaeolithic.

This period covers 99% of human history. Some of the most important Palaeolithic sites are Bhimbetka, Hunsgi, Kurnool caves. The period between 12,000 years ago until about 10,000 years ago, is called a Mesolithic period. Stone tools found during this age are called microliths. The next age, from about 10,000 years ago, is called a Neolithic age. Daojali heading and Chirand are Neolithic sites. Some other Neolithic sites are Burzahom (Kashmir), Mehrgarh, Koldhihwa, Mahagara, Hallur, Paiyampalli.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 11

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Fifth Report’ by East India Company:

  1. It was in relation to the activities and the administration of the East India Company in India.

  2. It was submitted to the Governor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 11
  • Statement 1 is correct: A report that was submitted to the British Parliament in 1813. It was the fifth of a series of reports on the administration and activities of the East India Company in India. Often referred to as the Fifth Report. Since, the Company established its rule in Bengal in the mid-1760s, its activities were closely watched and debated in England. Many opposed to the monopoly that the East India Company had over trade with India and China. These groups wanted a revocation of the Royal Charter that gave the Company this monopoly.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: It was published by a select committee on the affairs of the East India Company of the British Parliament. It was submitted to the British Parliament and not the Governor General of India. There was no such post as of 1813.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 12

Which Union Ministry identified and published poems, writings and publications that were banned by the British Government?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 12
The Ministry of Culture is the nodal ministry for the 75-week-long Amrit Mahosav celebrations. It has identified poems, writings and publications that the British government banned and put them as catalogue, which has been published on the website by the National Archives of India. These works are in nine regional languages Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Marathi, Kannada, Odia, Punjabi, Sindhi, Telugu, Tamil and Urdu.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 13

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the People’s uprisings during British era?

  1. Increasing number of intermediary revenue collectors, tenants, moneylenders caused the exploitation of common people and gave rise to uprisings.

  2. These uprisings were very stubborn in nature and were not pacified by concessions.

  3. Destruction of indigenous industry is also a causative factor for people’s uprising.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 13
Option c is correct
  • Statement 1 is correct: Exploitation of rural society increased with the growth of intermediary revenue collectors, tenants, moneylenders and thus gave rise to civil uprisings like civil uprisings in Gorakhpur, Basti and Bahraich due to involvement of English officers as izaradars (revenue farmers in Awadh

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: These uprisings were not so obstinate and were often pacified through concessions by the authorities like Ho and Munda Uprisings where British agreed to the demand of Chhotanagpur as their area and deployed force there

  • Statement 3 is correct: Destruction of indigenous industry led to migration of workers from industry to agriculture, increasing the pressure on land/ agriculture and resulted in civil Uprisings.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 14

Consider the following passage:

The Governor-General abolished the Dual System introduced by Robert Clive. He also abolished the system of dastaks, or free passes, and regulated the internal trade. He set up the Calcutta Madrasah for the study and teaching of Muslim law and related subjects. He also introduced a uniform system of pre-paid postage system.

The above passage refers to which of the following Governors-General?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 14
  • When Warren Hastings assumed the administration of Bengal in 1772, he found it in utter chaos. Therefore, Warren Hastings realized the immediate need for introducing reforms.

  • Reforms under Warren Hastings:

    • The East India Company decided to act as Diwan and to undertake the collection of revenue by its own agents. Hence, the Dual System introduced by Robert Clive was abolished.

    • After the abolition of the Dual System, the responsibility of collecting the revenue fell on the shoulders of the Company. For that purpose, a Board of Revenue was established at Calcutta to supervise the collection of revenue.

    • Warren Hastings felt the necessity of reorganizing the judicial system. Each district was provided with a civil court under the collector and a criminal court under an Indian Judge.

    • Warren Hastings abolished the system of dastaks, or free passes, and regulated the internal trade.

    • In 1781, Warren Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrasah for the study and teaching of Muslim law and related subjects.

    • He also introduced a uniform system of pre-paid postage system.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 15

Consider the following statements with reference to the Nagpur Satyagraha of 1923 :
1. It was held under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. People from different parts of the nation came to Nagpur.
3. The satyagrahis were encouraged to hoist the national flag without resisting arrest or retaliating against police.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 15
  • The Nagpur Satyagraha of 1923 is the Flag Satyagraha, also called the Jhanda Satyagraha. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel led it at Nagpur in the year 1923. Hence, it was not held under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Jamnalal Bajaj, Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, and Vinoba Bhave organized the revolt thousands of people from different regions, including from south of the Princely state of Travancore, traveled to Nagpur and other parts of the Central Provinces that is the present states like Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh to participate in civil disobedience. Therefore, people from different parts of the nation came to Nagpur. So, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The satyagrahis were encouraged to hoist the national flag without resisting arrest or retaliating against police, even though the British government deployed a heavy police force. They ignored the probable danger and they were even ready to sacrifice their lives and hoisted the flag in Victoria Town Hall, Jabalpur. And after that, flags were hoisted at several places across the country. So, Statement 3 is correct.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 16

Consider the following statements about Sati system in Modern India:
1. Dayabhag system law practiced in Bengal made widow’s successor to husband's property.
2. Mrityunjaya Vidyalankar, a Sanskrit scholar at the Fort William College, argued against Sati.
3. Sati was banned during the term of Governor General Lord Auckland.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 16

Sati System – 

  1. Mrityunjaya Vidyalankar, a sanskrit scholar who was associated with the Supreme Court at Calcutta, wrote against the Sati system. He is considered to be one of the first to write against Sati system. (Even before Raja Rammohun Roy). On the recommendation of William Carey, Mrityunjaya was appointed as head pundit in Bangla Department at the Fort William College. 
  2. Some scholars believe that the rise of Sati system in 17th and 18th century in Bengal was because Dayabhaga system of Hindu Personal Law followed there. The Dayabhaga system gave the widow greater rights to inherit the deceased husband’s property as well as her father’s property. This induced male member of the husband’s family to force the widow to commit suicide. 
  3. Sati was banned in 1829 during the term of Governor General William Bentick.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 17

He laid the foundation of a new monastic order at Baranagar. He believed that the real cause of India's downfall  as neglect of masses and poverty. He emphasised on two kinds of knowledge: Secular knowledge to improve their economic condition and Spiritual knowledge to infuse in them faith in themselves. Who is he?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 17

Swami Viveknanda –

  • Born in Kolkata in 1863, he was known as Narendra Nath Datta in his pre-monastic life. He was a disciple of Sri Ramakrishna Parmahansa and a major force in the revival of Hinduism in India. He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains as the one that he gave in Chicago in 1893 (Parliament of the World Religions)
  • He established a new monastic order in Baranagar in Kolkata and went to explore India. During his travels, he was deeply moved by appalling poverty and backwardness of the masses. He was the first religious leader who highlighted that real cause of India’s downfall was the neglect of masses and highlighted the immediate need to provide food and other necessities. He emphasised on improved methods of agriculture, village industries etc.
  • According to him, the crux of problem of poverty in India was because of centuries of oppression, downtrodden masses had lost faith in their capacity to improve their lot. Therefore, it was necessary to infuse faith in their own capacities. Vivekanand believed that principle of Atman i.e. doctrine of potential divinity of soul, taught in Vedanta could ameliorate the condition of the poor people. Thus, the masses needed two kinds of knowledge: secular knowledge to improve their economic condition and spiritual knowledge to infuse in them faith in themselves.
  • He formed the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 “to set in motion a machinery which will bring noblest ideas to the doorstep of even the poorest and the meanest.” In 1899, he established the Belur Math, which became his permanent abode. He also wrote books like Karma yoga, Jnana yoga, Raja Yoga etc.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Simon Commission?
1. It was formed on the basis of the provision of the Government of India Act, 1919.
2. The Secretary of State for India, Lord Stanley Baldwin, was responsible for the appointment of the Simon Commission.
3. The Hindu Mahasabha and the majority faction of the Muslim League, under Jinnah, decided not to boycott the Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 18
  • The Government of India Act, 1919, had a provision that a Commission would be appointed 10 years from the date to study the progress of the governance scheme and suggest new steps. An all-White, seven-member Indian Statutory Commission, popularly known as the Simon Commission (after the name of its Chairman, Sir John Simon), was set up by the British government under Stanley Baldwin‘s Prime Ministership in 1927.
  • The Commission was to recommend to the British government whether India was ready for further constitutional reforms and along what lines. Although the constitutional reforms were due only in 1929, the Conservative Government, then in power in Britain, feared defeat by the Labour Party and, thus, did not want to leave the question of the future of Britain‘s most priced colony in ―irresponsible Labour hands‖.
  • The Conservative Secretary of State for India, Lord Birkenhead, was responsible for the appointment of the Simon Commission. What angered the Indians the most was the exclusion of the Indians from the Commission and the basic notion behind the exclusion that the foreigners would discuss and decide upon India‘s fitness for self-government. This notion was seen as a violation of the principle of self- determination and as a deliberate insult to the self-respect of the Indians. The Congress Session in Madras (December, 1927), meeting under the Presidency of M.A. Ansari, decided to boycott the Commission ―at every stage and in every form‖. Meanwhile, Nehru succeeded in getting a snap resolution passed at the Session, declaring ―Complete Independence‖ as the goal of the Congress. Those who decided to support the Congress call of boycott of the Simon Commission included the liberals of the Hindu Mahasabha and the majority faction of the Muslim League under Jinnah.
  • The Muslim League had two sessions in 1927 – one under Jinnah at Calcutta, where it was decided to oppose the Simon Commission and another at Lahore under Muhammad Shafi, who supported the government. Some others, such as the Unionists in Punjab and the Justice Party in the south, decided not to boycott the Commission.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding the Nehru Report:
1. It was the first major attempt by the Indians to draft a Constitutional Framework for the country.
2. The Report was based on the recommendation by a Sub-Committee under the Chairmanship of Jawahar Lal Nehru.
3. The Report confined itself to British India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 19

The Nehru Report – As an answer to Lord Birkenhead‘s challenge, an All Parties Conference met in February, 1928, and appointed a Sub-Committee under the Chairmanship of Motilal Nehru to draft a Constitution. This was the first major attempt by the Indians to draft a Constitutional Framework for the country. The Committee included Tej Bahadur Sapru, Subhash Bose, M.S. Aney, Mangal Singh, Ali Imam, Shuab Qureshi and G.R. Pradhan as its members. The Report was finalized by August, 1928. The recommendations of the Nehru Committee were unanimous except in one respect – while the majority favoured the ―Dominion Status‖ as the basis of the Constitution, a section of it wanted ―Complete Independence‖ as the basis, with the majority section giving the latter section liberty of action. Main Recommendations – The Nehru Report confined itself to British India, as it envisaged the future link-up of British India with the princely states on a federal basis. For the Dominion it recommended:
(i) The Dominion Status on the lines of self-governing dominions as the form of government desired by the Indians (much to the chagrin of the younger, militant section – Nehru being prominent among them).
(ii) Rejection of separate electorates which had been the basis of the constitutional reforms so far. Instead, a demand for joint electorates with reservation of seats for the Muslims at the Centre and in the Provinces where they were in minority (and not in those where the Muslims were in majority, such as Punjab and Bengal) in proportion to the Muslim population there with a right to contest additional seats.
(iii) Linguistic provinces.
(iv) 19 fundamental rights, including equal rights for the women, right to form unions and universal adult suffrage.
(v) Responsible government at the Centre and in the Provinces.
(vi) Full protection to cultural and religious interests of the Muslims. (vii) Complete dissociation of the state from religion.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 20

With reference to a leader of the Indian National Movement, consider the following  statements:
1. He was chosen as the first Secretary of the Native Press Association formed in the 1870s.
2. He became a member of the Imperial Legislative Assembly in 1921.
3. He cleared the Imperial Civil Service (ICS) but was not allowed to work in the administration.
Who among the following has been described in the statements given above?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 20
  • Surendranath Banerjea (1848-1925) was born on 10 November 1848 in Calcutta. He graduated from Calcutta University in 1868 and proceeded to England to compete for the Indian Civil Services. He cleared the Imperial Civil Service (ICS) but was not allowed to work in the administration. He was declared disqualified by the British. 
  • He was the first to familiarize an Indian audience with Giuseppe Mazzini (1805-1872), the pioneer of Italian unification. Banerjea was the first leader to use material from Indian and foreign histories to instil a sense of patriotism in his audience. On his return to India in June 1875, Banerjea began his new career as a Professor of English. In 1876 he founded the Indian Association. He was among the earliest leaders who attempted to forge all India links among the political associations in different parts of India. 
  • The Indian Association of Calcutta tried to open branches in the other two presidencies with a view to sending a joint petition to the British parliament on the eve of the renewal of the Company's Charter. The Native Press Association was founded by the Indian journalists in the 1870s and Surendranath Banerjea was chosen as its first secretary. The Indian Association organised a National conference in Calcutta in 1883 and another was scheduled in December 1885. He became a member of the Imperial Legislative Assembly in 1921 and was knighted the same year.
  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 21

Arrange the following mountain passes from west to east:

1. Karakoram Pass

2. Pir panjal

3. Niti Pass

4. Palghat

5. Nathu la

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 21

The prominent mountain passes of India are:

  1. Nathu La Pass: Located in Sikkim it is a border trade post between India and China.

  2. Shipki La Pass:It is in Himachal Pradesh and is also a trade post between India and China. It is located through Sutlej Gorge.

  3. Jelep La Pass: This pass links Sikkim to Lhasa in Tibet autonomous region of China. It passes through the Chumbi valley which was in the news due to Dokhlam stand-off.

  4. Khardung La: It links Leh to Siachen. It is the highest motorable pass in the country..

  5. Bara-Lacha La: This pass links Himachal Pradesh to Ladakh, connecting Manali with Leh.

  6. Lipu Lekh: This pass connects Uttarakhand with Tibet autonomous region of China. Mansarovar pilgrims travel through this pass. It is also a border trade post between India and China.

  7. Niti Pass: This pass joins Tibet ARC with Uttarakhand.

  8. Rohtang Pass:It is located on eastern Pir Panjal Range and connects Kullu valley with Lahaul and Spiti valley of Himachal Pradesh.

  9. Bomdi-La: The Bomdi-La pass connects Arunachal Pradesh with Lhasa, in Tibet ARC.

  10. Dihang pass: Located in Arunachal Pradesh, this pass provides connectivity with Myanmar.

  11. Diphu pass: This pass also connects Arunachal Pradesh with Myanmar. It remains open all round the year and is hence important for trade and transportation.

  12. oji La: It connects Srinagar with Kargil and Leh. Beacon Force of Border Road Organization is responsible for clearing and maintaining this pass.

  13. Senkotta Gap: It is located in the Western Ghats and connects Madurai in Tamil Nadu with Kottayam in Kerala.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 22

Consider the following statements related to GOAL initiative:

  1. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

  2. It connects underprivileged young tribal women with expert mentors in the areas of business, fashion and arts to learn digital and life skills.

  3. It includes digital mentoring of young tribal girls.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 22
Option (c) is the correct answer.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. Ministry of Tribal Affairs’ partners Niti Aayog and Facebook for Second Phase of Goal.

  • Statement 2 is correct. GOAL connects underprivileged young tribal women with senior expert mentors in the areas of business, fashion and arts to learn digital and life skills.

  • It aims at inspiring, guiding and encouraging tribal girls from across India to become village-level digital young leaders for their communities. Launched in March 2019.

  • Statement 3 is correct. In the second phase of the program, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Facebook together will digitally mentor 5000 young women in India’s tribal dominated districts.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 23

"Tall and coarse grass with long roots, short and deciduous trees and renewed foliage and flower in the rainy season.”

Which of the following climatic region does the above vegetation relate to?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 23
  • The Savanna landscape is typified by tall grass and short trees. The trees are deciduous, shedding their leaves in the cool, dry season to prevent excessive loss of water through transpiration, e.g. acacias.

  • The grass is tall and coarse, growing 6 to 12 feet high. The elephant grass may attain a height of even 15 feet. The grass tends to grow in compact tufts and has long roots which reach down in search of water.

  • The vegetative luxuriance reaches its peak in the rainy season when trees renew their foliage and flower. Due to the presence of trees along with the luxuriant tall grass this landscape is also known as 'parkland' or 'bush-veld'. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

  • In tropical monsoon forests, the ecosystems which develop are very similar to the true rainforests which develop in equatorial climates, but are more open, less luxuriant & contains far fewer species. The natural vegetation of tropical monsoon land depends on the amount of summer rainfall. Trees are normally deciduous, because of the marked dry period, during which they shed their leaves to withstand drought.

  • China Type climate supports luxuriant vegetation. The lowlands carry both evergreen broad-leaved forests and deciduous trees. On the highlands, are various species of conifers such as pines and cypresses which are important softwoods. Perennial plant growth is not checked by either a dry season or a cold season.

  • Steppes occur in temperate climates, which lie between the tropics and polar regions. A steppe is a dry, grassy plain. Steppes are semi-arid, meaning they receive 25 to 50 centimetres (10-20 inches) of rain each year. This is enough rain to support short grasses, but not enough for tall grasses or trees to grow. Many kinds of grasses grow on steppes, but few grow taller than half a meter.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 24

Which of the following statements correctly explains the term 'physiological density'?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 24
  • The density of population is defined as the ratio of the total number of people per unit area of land. It is a crude measure of human and land relationships. To get a better insight into the human-land ratio in terms of pressure of population on total cultivable land, the physiological and the agricultural densities should be found out which are significant for a country like India having a large agricultural population.

  • Physiological density refers to the number of people per unit area of net cultivable land. It is a basic indicator of a country's food-producing capability and the human pressures placed upon it.

    • Physiological density = total population / net cultivated area

    • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

  • Agricultural density refers to the total number of agricultural population per unit area of net cultivable area. Here Agricultural population includes cultivators and agricultural labourers and their family members.

    • Agricultural density = total agricultural population / net cultivable area

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 25

 With reference to the Danube River, consider the following statements:

1. It is the most international river in the world.

2. It is the longest River in Europe.

3. Major tributaries include the Tisza, Drava, Sava, Inn, and Prut rivers.

How many statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 25

Statement 1 is correct: Crossing through ten countries and draining some 817,000 km² and the territory of 18 countries, the Danube is the most international river in the world.

  • Flowing from Germany’s Black Forest to the Danube Delta in Romania and Ukraine and the Black Sea, the Danube is Europe’s only major river which flows west to east, from Central to Eastern Europe Statement 2 is not correct: The Danube is the longest river of the European Union and Europe’s second-longest after the Volga.
  • The European Commission now recognizes the Danube as the “single most important non oceanic body of water in Europe” and a “future central axis for the European Union”.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Major tributaries of the Danube include the Tisza, Drava, Sava, Inn, and Prut rivers. 
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 26

With reference to the Yamuna River, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The river flows through the states of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh only.

2. It is the right bank tributary of the river Ganga.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 26

Statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.

  • The Yamuna rises on the slopes of the Bandarpunch massif in the Great Himalayas near Yamunotri in Uttarakhand.
  • The river flows through the state of Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and  the Union Territory of Delhi.
  • The important tributaries of the Yamuna River are Tons, Chambal, Hindon, Betwa and Ken.
  • Yamuna is the  right bank tributary of river Ganga.
HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 27

Consider the following statements:

1. Tea plantations requires well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.

2. The tea plant grows in tropical and subtropical climates.

3. In India, it is practiced only in Assam, hills of Darjeeling, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 27
  • Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost- free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 28

Which of the following is the best description of the term ‘peneplain’:

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 28
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Peneplains are irregular structure which is reduced to low lying structure by the action of agents of erosion like rain, rivers, ice, winds etc.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 29

Consider the following statements:

  1. There is slight flattening of the earth at the equator and slight bulging at the poles.

  2. On any given day, the position of the Earth's magnetic poles moves by a few meters.

  3. The polarity of the Earth's magnetic field has remained the same since the formation of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 29
  • While the Earth appears to be round when viewed from the vantage point of space, it is actually closer to an ellipsoid. It is slightly flattened at the North and the South Poles and bulge in the middle. Its equatorial radius is 6378 km, but its polar radius is 6357 km - in other words, the Earth is slightly flattened. This is due to the centrifugal force created by the earth’s constant rotation. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • The magnetic poles of the earth are not fixed on the surface but wander quite a bit. The pole in the Northern Hemisphere seems to be moving northwards in geographic latitude by about 10 kilometers per year, but the motion is only an average. On any given day, it moves erratically by many tens of meters because of changes in the currents inside earth's core, as well as the influence of electrical currents in the ionosphere, and the changing space environment due to solar storms and winds. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • By dating the rocks on either side of the Mid Oceanic Ridge in the Atlantic Ocean, geologists discovered that the polarity of the Earth's field changes over the course of thousands of years. They are called Polarity Reversals. There have been about 170 of these reversals during the last 76 million years according to geological evidence. We are currently living during a period that has been called the Brunhes Magnetic Chron when the South Magnetic Pole is in the Northern Hemisphere. During the previous Matumaya Magnetic Chron, the North Magnetic Pole was in the Northern Hemisphere. Presently, Earth's magnetic field is weakening in strength by 5% every 100 years. It may be near zero in another few thousand years at this rate. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 30

Consider the following statements regarding footloose industries:

  1. Footloose industries enjoy relatively a free choice of location.

  2. These industries are generally polluting industries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for HPPSC HPAS Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 6 - Question 30
  • The footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors such as resources or transport. Therefore these industries enjoy a relatively free choice of location. Diamonds and computer chips are some examples of footloose industries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  • Footloose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight loss, or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. Hence, access to raw material is not an important factor influencing the location of footloose industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.

  • They produce in small quantities and also employ a small labor force. These are generally not polluting industries. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

  • The reason for the growth of footloose industries lies in the rapid development of highly sophisticated products requiring a great deal of scientific research and development. Footloose industries enable quick product improvement of their products to suit the market demand.

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