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Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Indian Army Nursing Assistant MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test Series 2024 - Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 for Indian Army Nursing Assistant 2024 is part of Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Indian Army Nursing Assistant exam syllabus.The Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 MCQs are made for Indian Army Nursing Assistant 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 below.
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Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

One coolie takes 1 minute to raise a suitcase through a height of 2 m but the second coolie takes 30 s to raise the same suitcase to the same height. The powers of two coolies are in the ratio of [NEET Kar. 2013]

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 1

(t1 = 1 minute; t2 = 30 second given)

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

Two identical particles move towards each other with velocity 2v and vrespectively. The velocity of centre of mass is  [AIEEE 2002]

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 2

 

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Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Both earth and moon are subject to the gravitational force of the sun. As observed from the sun, the orbit of the moon

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 3

Concept:

Newton's law of gravitation: The force of attraction between any objects in the universe is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

  • The force acts along the line joining the two bodies.
  • The gravitational force is a central force that is It acts along the line joining the centers of two bodies.
  • It is a conservative force. This means that the work done by the gravitational force in displacing a body from one point to another is only dependent on the initial and final positions of the body and is independent of the path followed.


 

  • The moon revolves around the earth in a circular orbit (not perfectly circular). Sun exerts a gravitational force on both, the earth and moon. The major force acting on the moon is due to the gravitational force of attraction of the sun and earth and the moon is not always on the line joining the sun and earth. 
  • Two forces acting on the moon have different lines of action or the forces are not central, so it's motion will not be strictly elliptical.

Hence, option (2) is the correct answer.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

The angle of contact for the liquid which wets the walls of the vessel is

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 4

When liquid molecules are attracted strongly to themselves and weakly to those of solids, it costs lots of energy to create liquid-solid surface and liquid then does not wet the solid.
For Example: Mercury molecules (which make an obtuse angle with glass) have a strong force of attraction between themselves and a weak force of attraction toward solids. Hence, they tend to form drops. 
On the other hand, water molecules make acute angles with glass. They have a weak force of attraction between themselves and a strong force of attraction toward solids. Hence, they tend to spread out.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

 The given graph corresponds to which equation?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 5

In the given graph temperature remains constant with variation in volume. So the process is isothermal and PV = constant.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 6

What is the formula of rust?

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 7
Who is credited with the discovery of the neutron?
Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 7
The neutron was discovered by James Chadwick in 1932 through experiments involving beryllium and paraffin. Chadwick's discovery was a significant contribution to our understanding of atomic structure.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

Fatty foods become rancid due to the process of

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 8

When the food containing fats and oils starts giving unpleasant taste and smell due to oxidation, then the food becomes rancid.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

Law of conservation of mass can be derived from which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 9

The postulates of Dalton’s Atomic theory that is the result of the law of conservation of mass in the relative numbers and kinds of atoms are constant in a given compound. Atoms cannot be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

The substance that pollute the natural substance is called

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 10

The substances that pollute the natural substances like air, water and soil are called pollutant. Exhaust from industries and vehicular emission are some common pollutants.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

What shape is the HNO3 molecule in its gaseous state?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 11

In the gas state, the nitric acid molecule has a triangular planar shape with a steric number of 3 no lone pairs of electron. There are two major resonance forms of nitric acid.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

What is the process of losing electrons known as?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 12

Oxidation is the loss of electrons during a chemical reaction.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 13

'Litmus', a natural dye, is an extract of which of the following?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 13
Litmus', a natural dye extracted from Lichen which is a composite organism emerges from algae.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other carbon atoms, resulting in the formation of:

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 14

Carbon can form bonds with other carbon atoms, leading to the formation of allotropes. Allotropes are different forms of the same element with varying structural arrangements. Examples of carbon allotropes include diamond, graphite, and fullerenes.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 15
What kind of pesticides are used to destroy unwanted vegetation, including weeds and woody plants?
Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 15
Herbicides are pesticides used to destroy unwanted vegetation, including various types of weeds, grasses, and woody plants.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

The atom with the given atomic number Z=17, and the atomic mass A=35.5 is

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 16

The element with atomic number(Z) 17 & mass number (A) 35 is chlorine = 

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 17

(A): Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
1 mole of Zn produces 2 g of H2
0.5 mole of Zn will produce 1 g of H2
(B): C70H22
Molar mass - 862
Mass of atoms = 862/6.023 x 1023 = 1.43 x 10-21 g
(C): 70 g of CI2 = 6.023 x 1023 molecules
35.5 g of CI2 = 3.01 x 1023 molecules
(D): Molar mass of SO2 = 64 = 1 mole
64 g of SO2 = 6.023 x 1023 molecules

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

A positive overlap is same as ________

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 18

A positive overlap results in bond formation. When 2 p-orbitals are in phase, both the positive lobes overlap, thus creating a positive overlap and result in the bond formation, thus it is called in-phase overlap.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 19

When sodium hydroxide reacts with aluminium metal:

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 19
Sodium aluminate and hydrogen gas are formed when sodium hydroxide reacts with aluminium metal.

2NaOH + 2Al + 2H2O ⇨ 2NaAlO2 + 2H2

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Which of the following compounds is used as an antiseptic and disinfectant?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 20

Ethanol is commonly used as an antiseptic and disinfectant. It has antimicrobial properties and is effective in killing bacteria and viruses.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 21

When secreting cell acting on nearby targeting cell by discharging a ligand and receptor of this ligand present of targeting cell, then this type of signaling is called-

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 21


In paracrine signaling, signaling cell and target cell both differ.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 22

From which part of the alimentary canal does chemical digestion begins?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 22
Chemical digestion involves enzymes. In the mouth, chemical digestion is initiated when the food comes in contact with saliva, which is secreted by salivary glands. It contains salivary amylase which begins the digestive process by breaking down starch and converting it into maltose. Chemical digestion then further continues in stomach and then finally in the small intestine.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 23

Which of the following flies at low heights?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 23
  • Sparrow flies at low heights.
  • Sparrow flies at 46 km/h
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Respiration in aquatic animals occurs by

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 24

Aquatic animals use gills for respiration.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

In case of heat stroke, what should be done immediately?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 25

Heat stroke is the most serious form of heat injury and is considered a medical emergency. It can kill or cause damage to brain and other internal organs. It results from prolonged exposure to high temperatures usually in combination with dehydration which leads to failure of the body's temperature control system. In case of heat stroke, one should immediately rehydrate the person with a solution of salt, sugar and lime juice or juice of an unripe mango. This will replenish salt and water that the person has lost through sweating.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults are deficiency diseases of:

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 26

Deficiency Diseases: Rickets and Osteomalacia


Rickets is a deficiency disease that occurs in children, while osteomalacia is a similar condition that affects adults. Both of these conditions are caused due to a deficiency of Vitamin D.


Causes:

  • Rickets and osteomalacia occur when the body does not get enough Vitamin D.

  • Vitamin D is essential for the body to absorb calcium and phosphorus from the diet. Without sufficient Vitamin D, the body cannot maintain proper levels of these minerals, leading to the development of rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.

  • The primary cause of Vitamin D deficiency is a lack of exposure to sunlight, which is necessary for the body to produce Vitamin D.

  • Inadequate dietary intake of Vitamin D-rich foods, such as fatty fish, egg yolks, and fortified dairy products, can also contribute to the development of these deficiency diseases.


Signs and Symptoms:

  • Rickets in Children:

    • Bowed legs

    • Delayed growth

    • Delayed tooth formation

    • Softening and weakening of bones



  • Osteomalacia in Adults:

    • Widespread bone pain

    • Muscle weakness

    • Fragile bones

    • Easily fractured bones




Treatment and Prevention:

  • Treatment for rickets and osteomalacia involves correcting the Vitamin D deficiency:

  • Supplementation with Vitamin D supplements

  • Increased exposure to sunlight

  • Consuming foods rich in Vitamin D

  • Prevention can be achieved by:

  • Ensuring adequate sun exposure

  • Including Vitamin D-rich foods in the diet

  • Regularly monitoring Vitamin D levels


Therefore, the correct answer is B: Vitamin D.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Lack of which vitamin in the diet can lead to night blindness?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 27

Vitamin A is essential for proper vision. Its deficiency can lead to a condition called night blindness, where individuals have difficulty seeing in low light conditions.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 28

Find out the wrong statement from the following

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 28
Explanation:
The wrong statement from the options given is option D: None of the above.
Reasoning:
Let's analyze each statement to find the wrong one:
A: White revolution is meant for an increase in milk production.
- This statement is correct. The White Revolution, also known as Operation Flood, was a dairy development program in India that aimed to increase milk production through the adoption of modern techniques and technology.
B: Blue revolution is meant for an increase in fish production.
- This statement is correct. The Blue Revolution is a term used to describe the sustainable development and management of water resources for fisheries and aquaculture. It focuses on increasing fish production through various measures.
C: Increasing food production without compromising with environmental quality is called sustainable agriculture.
- This statement is correct. Sustainable agriculture refers to the practice of producing food in an environmentally friendly and socially responsible manner. It aims to increase food production while minimizing the negative impacts on the environment.
D: None of the above.
- This statement is incorrect. As explained above, all the statements mentioned in options A, B, and C are correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is option D: None of the above.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Weeds affect the crop plants by

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 29

Weeds affect the crop plants by:

Killing of plants in the field before they grow:
- Weeds can outcompete crop plants for sunlight, water, and nutrients, leading to the death of young crop plants before they can establish and grow.

Dominating the plants to grow:
- Some aggressive weed species can grow rapidly and form dense stands, dominating the available space and resources, which hinders the growth and development of crop plants.

Competing for various resources of crops (plants) causing low availability of nutrients:
- Weeds compete with crop plants for nutrients, water, and space. This competition can result in limited availability of essential resources for the crop plants, leading to stunted growth, reduced yields, and overall poor crop health.

All of these:
- Weeds can have a combined impact on crop plants, including killing young plants, dominating available space, and competing for vital resources. This comprehensive effect can severely affect crop productivity, quality, and economic value.

In conclusion, weeds can have a detrimental impact on crop plants by killing young plants, dominating growth space, and competing for essential resources. It is crucial for farmers to implement effective weed management strategies to minimize the negative effects of weeds and ensure optimal crop growth and productivity.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 30

By the time food reaches the large intestine only water and roughage are left. It is here that most water is absorbed and stool is created. What is the approximate length of the large intestine?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 2 - Question 30
Approximate Length of the Large Intestine:
The large intestine, also known as the colon, is the final part of the digestive system. It plays a crucial role in absorbing water and electrolytes, forming and storing feces, and eliminating waste from the body.
To answer the question regarding the approximate length of the large intestine, we can consider the following points:
1. Anatomy of the Large Intestine:
- The large intestine is divided into four main parts: the cecum, colon, rectum, and anal canal.
- The colon is further divided into several sections, including the ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon.
2. Length of the Large Intestine:
- The total length of the large intestine varies among individuals.
- On average, the large intestine is approximately 1.5 meters long.
- The length can range from 1.2 meters to 1.8 meters.
3. Absorption of Water and Formation of Stool:
- The large intestine absorbs the majority of water from the remaining undigested food material.
- This absorption process helps in the formation of stool, as water content is reduced and the feces become more solid.
Therefore, the correct answer is D: 1.5 m, as it represents the approximate length of the large intestine.
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