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Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Indian Army Nursing Assistant MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test Series 2024 - Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 for Indian Army Nursing Assistant 2024 is part of Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 questions and answers have been prepared according to the Indian Army Nursing Assistant exam syllabus.The Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 MCQs are made for Indian Army Nursing Assistant 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 below.
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Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

The earth, radius 6400 km, makes one revolution about its own axis in 24 hours. The centripetal acceleration of a point on its equator is nearly -

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 1

The time period of earth’s rotation is,
T = 24 h = 86400 s
Angular velocity, ω = 2π/T
Radius of earth, r = 6400 km
=> 6.4 x 106 m
Now, centripetal acceleration = ω2r
=> (2π/T)2r = 0.034 m/s2

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

A body A of mass M while falling vertically downwards under gravity breaks into two parts; a body B of mass  M and, a body C of mass M. The centre of mass of bodies B and C taken together shifts compared to that of body A towards 

 [AIEEE 2005]

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 2

Since there is no different external force applied to the individual particles, the centre of mass remains same and does not shift.

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Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

Newton's law of gravitation is called universal law because: 

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 3

Concept 

  • : Newton's law of gravitation states 
  • "Every particle of matter in the universe attracts every other particle with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centres."

Explanation 

Newton's law of gravitation can be represented mathematically as: F = G x (m1 x m2/ r2)

Where:

  • F is the force of attraction between the two bodies.
  • m1 and m2 are the masses of the two bodies.
  • r is the distance between the centres of the two bodies.
  • G is the gravitational constant, a proportional constant that in the SI system is approximately 6.674 x10-11N(m/kg)2.
  • So, if you have two bodies with masses m1 and m2, and they are separated by a distance r, then the force of gravity between them is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them,
  • Real-world applications of this law include everything from explaining the motion of planets in our solar system to the rolling of a ball down a hill. It's one of the cornerstones of classical physics and is essential in understanding the larger structure of the universe.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

The property by virtue of which the free surface of a liquid at rest behaves like an elastic stretched membrane tending to contract so as to occupy minimum surface area is known as

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 4

The property by virtue of which the free surface of a liquid at rest behaves like an elastic stretched membrane tending to contract so as to occupy minimum surface area is known as surface tension. By the definition of surface tension.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

Kelvin- Planck statement states that

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 5

It works on the principle that no machine is 100% efficient. For instance if taking an ideal machine into consideration, work can be completely converted to heat. Now if the conditions are reversed, all heat cannot be converted to equal amount of work until and unless backed up by an external force.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

Which is a method to prevent rust?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 6

1. Galvanisation

Explanation: Galvanisation is a process used to prevent rusting by coating iron or steel with a layer of zinc. The zinc layer acts as a protective barrier, preventing moisture and oxygen from reaching the metal surface and causing rust.

  • Sedimentation and crystallization are unrelated to rust prevention.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

Which of the following is an example of a mixture?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 7

A mixture is formed when two or more substances are physically combined without any chemical bonding between them. Sand and water represent a mixture of two distinct substances mixed together without a chemical reaction.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

When copper sulphate solution reacts with iron metal, copper metal is formed. This reaction comes under which of the following category?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 8

CuSO4 + Fe --------> FeSO4 + Cu

When iron metal placed in copper sulphate solution, iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution which is blue in colour to from iron sulphate solution which is green in colour and copper metal ( reddish deposit formed on iron metal) . Iron displaces copper because iron is more reactive then copper

The type of reaction involved is Single Displacement reaction.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 9

Which of the following statements is true about the law of conservation of mass?

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Which one is not an organic waste?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 10

Vegetable peels, cotton cloths and paper are organic wastes as obtained from plants. DDT is insecticide that used to kill insects and pests prepared in laboratory.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

What is the correct order of reactivity of group 16 elements?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 11

Oxygen is the most reactive group 16 element. Its reactivity is only slightly less than the most reactive elements, halogens. Sulphur is also very reactive particularly at high temperatures which helps in the cleavage of S-S bonds present in S8 molecules. However, as we move down the group, the reactivity decreases, i.e., O > S > Se > Te > Po.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

In a redox reaction, the substance that gains electrons is called the _______.

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 12

The substance that gains electrons in a redox reaction is called the oxidizing agent.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 13

An aqueous solution of NaCl is:

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 13
NaCl is a neutral salt formed by the reaction between strong acid HCl and strong base NaOH. The reaction occurs as follows.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

Which of the following compounds is responsible for the characteristic smell of rotten eggs?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 14

Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) is responsible for the characteristic smell of rotten eggs. It is a toxic gas produced by the decomposition of organic matter containing sulfur.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 15
What is the primary role of petroleum oils when used as an insecticide?
Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 15
Petroleum oils, when used as an insecticide, primarily work by smothering and suffocating insects, disrupting their ability to breathe and survive.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

The energy associated with the first orbit in the hydrogen atom is -2.18 x 10−18 J/atom. What is the energy associated with the fifth orbit?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 16

Energy for any n shell = -2.18 x 10−18 )/n'2 (') stands for raise to the power of therefore, E associated with 5 orbit = -2.18 x 10−18/52 = -2.18 × 10-18/25 = -218 × 10-20/25 = -8.72 x 10-20J/atom

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

How many atoms in total are present in 1 kg of sugar?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 17

One molecule of sugar (C12H22O11) = 45 atoms
Number of moles of sugar = 1000/342 = 2.92
Number of molecules = 2.92 x 6.023 x 1023
= 17.60 x 1023
molecules Number of atoms = 45 x 17.60 x 1023 
= 7.92 x 1025 atoms

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

What is the electronic configuration of carbon in it’s excited state?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 18

Electronic configuration: Electronic configuration is the distribution of the electrons in orbitals of atoms using some basic principles like the Pauli exclusion principle and the Aufbau principle.

Ground state:

  • The ground state is the state of lower energy occupied by an electron in an atomic orbital.
  • The ground state is a highly stable state.

For Carbon:

  • The atomic number of carbon is 6.
  • The ground state electronic configuration of neutral carbon atom is 1s22s22p2

Excited state:

  • The excited state is the state of higher energy occupied by an electron in an atomic orbital.
  • The excited state is a less stable state.
  • The excited-state electronic configuration of a carbon atom is 1s22s12p3 i.e, the one electron from the 2s orbital gets excited to the 2p orbital by absorbing some energy.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Aqueous solution of sodium chloride turns

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 19

Aqueous solution of NaCl is neutral and therefore, does not change the colour of either red or blue litmus.

 

 

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

What is the IUPAC name for CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 20

The IUPAC name for CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3 is butane. Butane is an alkane with four carbon atoms in a continuous chain.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

Which one of the following is true in breast cancer cells that involve the BRCA 1 gene?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 21

Mutations in the BRCA 1 gene, a breast tumor supressor gene, are the major cause of breast cancer. In most breast cancers involving this gene, deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis proceeds, indicating that the G1-S checkpoint is not affected; however, the mutated cells cannot control the transition between G2 and M. Moreover, the mutated cells have abnormal centrosome numbers, and their nuclear division does not proceed normally, leading to aneuploidy and genetic instability of the daughter cells.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 22

Lymph can be defined as

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 22
  • Lymph is a colorless fluid, containing specialized lymphocytes, which are responsible for the immune responses of the body.

  • Lymph is also an important carrier for nutrients, hormones, etc. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the intestinal villi. Lymph lacks RBCs and platelets.

  • Lymph contains white blood cells. So option (d) is correct.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 23

Which of the following is a water bird?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 23
  • Cranes live on all continents except Antarctica and South America.
  • Cranes construct platform nests in shallow water, and typically lay two eggs at a time.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 24

The non-living thing among the following is

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Neha lives in a hostel and has six roommates. Out of them four fell ill. Which of them can make Neha fall ill?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 25

Cold is a communicable disease thus, it may spread from Swati to Neha and other roommates also. Anaemia, scurvy, and allergy are non- communicable diseases.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 26

Which of the following nutrient is responsible for strengthening muscles, bones,and teeth?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 26
Answer:
The nutrient responsible for strengthening muscles, bones, and teeth is Minerals. Here's a detailed explanation:
Minerals:
- Minerals are essential nutrients that our body needs in small amounts for various functions.
- They play a vital role in maintaining overall health and well-being.
- Certain minerals, such as calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium, are particularly important for the strength and health of muscles, bones, and teeth.
Calcium:
- Calcium is a mineral that is crucial for the development and maintenance of strong bones and teeth.
- It is also involved in muscle contraction, nerve function, and blood clotting.
- Adequate calcium intake is essential for preventing conditions like osteoporosis and tooth decay.
Phosphorus:
- Phosphorus is another mineral that works closely with calcium to maintain bone health.
- It is a key component of DNA, RNA, and ATP, which are essential for energy production and muscle function.
- Together with calcium, phosphorus helps strengthen bones and teeth.
Magnesium:
- Magnesium is involved in over 300 biochemical reactions in the body, including muscle and nerve function.
- It helps regulate calcium levels, promoting proper muscle contraction and bone formation.
- Adequate magnesium intake is important for maintaining strong muscles, bones, and teeth.
Conclusion:
Minerals, such as calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium, are responsible for strengthening muscles, bones, and teeth. Including foods rich in these minerals in your diet, such as dairy products, leafy greens, nuts, and seeds, can help ensure you are getting enough of these essential nutrients for optimal musculoskeletal health.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

Lack of which vitamin can cause a disease called scurvy?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 27

Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of vitamin C. Vitamin C is important for collagen synthesis, which is a protein found in connective tissues. Its deficiency leads to symptoms such as fatigue, swollen gums, and delayed wound healing.

Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

Identify the group containing only pulse crops

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 28

To identify the group containing only pulse crops, we need to analyze the options given and determine which group consists entirely of pulse crops. Let's break down each option and identify the pulse crops in each group:
Option A:
- Pea
- Lentil
- Soya bean
- Green gram
Option B:
- Pigeon pea
- Sunflower
- Mustard
- Black gram
Option C:
- Green gram
- Pigeon pea
- Wheat
- Sorghum
Option D:
- Pea
- Lentil
- Sorghum
- Mustard
Analysis:
- Pulse crops are a type of legume that are rich in protein and are commonly used as food sources.
- Pea, lentil, soya bean, and green gram are all pulse crops.
- Sunflower, mustard, wheat, sorghum, and black gram are not pulse crops.
Conclusion:
The group containing only pulse crops is Option A: Pea, lentil, soya bean, and green gram.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 29

Continuous use of fertilisers can destroy soil fertility because

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 29
Continuous use of fertilisers can destroy soil fertility because:
1. Organic matter is not replenished:
- Fertilisers primarily provide essential nutrients to plants, but they do not replenish organic matter in the soil.
- Organic matter, such as decomposed plant and animal materials, is crucial for maintaining soil fertility.
- It improves soil structure, water-holding capacity, nutrient retention, and provides a habitat for beneficial soil organisms.
2. Microbes in the soil are harmed:
- Continuous use of fertilisers can negatively impact the microbial population in the soil.
- Soil microbes play a vital role in nutrient cycling, decomposition of organic matter, and maintaining soil health.
- Fertilisers can alter the microbial community composition and reduce the diversity and activity of beneficial soil microbes.
3. Soil becomes hard:
- Excessive use of fertilisers can lead to the accumulation of salts in the soil, causing soil salinization.
- Salinization can result in the hardening of the soil, making it difficult for plant roots to penetrate and access water and nutrients.
- This can impede plant growth and decrease soil fertility over time.
Conclusion:
Continuous use of fertilisers without replenishing organic matter can lead to a decline in soil fertility. The absence of organic matter and the harm caused to soil microbes can disrupt nutrient cycling and reduce the overall health of the soil. Additionally, excessive fertiliser use can contribute to soil salinization, resulting in soil hardening and reduced plant growth. It is therefore important to adopt sustainable soil management practices that incorporate organic matter additions and minimize excessive reliance on fertilisers to maintain long-term soil fertility.
Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 30

Human beings are warm-blooded creatures. This means that for the body systems to function, the body temperature must remain constant. What is the average body temperature of a human being in Celsius?

Detailed Solution for Indian Army Nursing Assistant Mock Test - 9 - Question 30
Explanation:
The average body temperature of a human being is 37°C. This temperature is often referred to as the normal body temperature. It is important for the body temperature to remain constant in order for the body systems to function properly.
Reasoning:
The body temperature of a human being needs to remain constant in order for the body systems to function properly. If the body temperature deviates too much from the normal range, it can lead to various health problems.
Options:
A: 25°C - This temperature is too low and not within the normal range for a human body temperature.
B: 32°C - This temperature is also too low and not within the normal range for a human body temperature.
C: 37°C - This temperature is the correct answer. It is the average body temperature of a human being.
D: 42°C - This temperature is too high and not within the normal range for a human body temperature.
Conclusion:
The correct answer is option C: 37°C. This is the average body temperature of a human being.
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