JPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 8 - JPSC (Jharkhand) MCQ

• Kinnal village in Karnataka is known for its unique variety of handcrafted toys and religious idols.
  • Kinnal (also spelled Kinhal) toys date back to the 15^th and 16^th centuries during which time it was patronized by the rich kings of the Vijayanagara empire and then later by the nawab of Koppal. Hence pair one is correctly matched.
  • The exquisite carvings on the Hampi chariot as well as the famous mural paintings in the Pampapateshwara Temple are all believed to be the artwork of Kinhal craftsmen. Passed down from generations and having survived several centuries, the wooden toys of Kinnal have been accorded a GI (Geographical Indication) considering the fact that the craft is exclusive and native to this part of the state. o Kinnal idols known for their bright paint and vibrant colours are usually in the form of Gods, animals, wooden panels, murals and even masks.
  • The idols are handmade and the entire process is elaborate and quite a laborious task. The wood used in making the idols is of a tree locally known as “Ponki marra” that grows in and around Kinnal. The characteristic feature of this wood is that it is soft and lightweight and hence amenable to sculpting.
• Etikoppaka is a small village on the banks of Varaha River at a distance of 64 kms away from the Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh. The name Etikoppaka is synonymous with the beautiful wooden artifacts and lacquer colours.
  • The toys are made with lacquer color and are traditionally known as Etikoppaka toys or Etikoppaka Bommalu. The village is very famous for its toys made of wood. The toys are also called lacquer toys because of the application of lacquer coating. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • The toys are made out of wood and are coloured with natural dyes derived from seeds, lacquer, bark, roots and leaves. The wood used to make the toys is soft in nature and the art of toy making is also known as Turned wood Lacquer craft.
  • While making the Etikoppaka toys, lac, a colourless resinous secretion of numerous insects, is used. The already prepared vegetable dyes are further mixed to the lac, during the process of oxidation. After this process, the end product obtained is rich and colored lacquer. The lac dye is used for decorating the Etikoppaka toys, which are exported all over the world.
  • Etikoppaka toys are granted GI tag status in India.
• Laiphadibi dolls are the traditional cloth dolls of the Meitei people of Manipur. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
  • Today, the tradition of making Laiphadibi at home has suffered a decline. The dolls made by professionals have striking features. The faces are mostly round, probably inspired by the notion that rounded faces are the epitome of beauty.
  • The eyes and brows are sewn with black thread, which is also used to simulate long luscious hair, and the nose and lips are stitched with red. The face is made of plain white cloth and the head stuffed with rags.
  • The outstretched hands and torso of the laidhibi are made of straw. These dolls have no legs and stand on their potloi (ornamental lower dress)

Humayun tomb:

• The grandness of Mughal architecture began with the construction of Humayun’s tomb and its design by Mirak Mirza Ghiyas from Persia. He brought with him Persian craftsmen to work on the tomb. This tomb is the earliest specimen of a garden enclosure and is raised on an arcaded sandstone platform. It was built in 1565 A.D. nine years after the death of Humayun, by his senior widow Bega Begam. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Inside the walled enclosure, the most notable features are the garden squares (Chahar bagh) with pathways and water channels, centrally located well proportional mausoleum topped by a double dome. There are several graves of Mughal rulers located inside the walled enclosure and from here in 1857 A.D; Lieutenant Hudson captured the last Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah II.
• It has an irregular octagon plan with four long sides and chamfered edges. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is surmounted by a 42.5 m high double dome clad with marble flanked by pillared kiosks (chhatris) and the domes of the central chhatris are adorned with glazed ceramic tiles. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Schools of Buddhism

• Mahayana:
  • It is one of the two main schools of Buddhism.
  • The term Mahayana is a Sanskrit word that literally means "Great Vehicle".
  • It believes in the heavenliness of Buddha and Idol worship of Buddha and Bodhisattvas embodying Buddha Nature.
  • It originated in northern India and Kashmir and then spread east into Central Asia, East Asia, and some areas of Southeast Asia.
  • Buddhist schools embedded in China, Korea, Tibet, and Japan belong to the Mahayana tradition.
• Hinayana
  • Literally Lesser vehicle, also known as Abandoned Vehicle or Defective vehicle. It believes in the original teaching of Buddha or the Doctrine of elders.
  • It does not believe in Idol worship and tries to attain individual salvation through self-discipline and meditation.
  • Theravada is a Hinayana sect.
• Theravada
  • It is the most ancient branch of extant Buddhism today.
  • It remains closest to the original teachings of the Buddha.
  • Theravada Buddhism developed in Sri Lanka and subsequently spread to the rest of Southeast Asia. It is the dominant form of religion in Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• Vajrayana
  • Vajrayana means “The Vehicle of the Thunderbolt”, also known as tantric Buddhism.
  • Established in Tibet in 11th CE
  • It believes that salvation can be attained by acquiring magical powers called vajra. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • It is grounded on esoteric elements and a very complex set of rituals compared with the rest of the Buddhist schools.
  • Tara is the chief divinity of this sect. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It was popular in eastern India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Much importance is given to the role of the guru called Lama who has mastered the philosophical and ritual traditions. There is a long lineage of lamas. The Dalai Lama is a well-known Tibetan Lama.

• During the medieval period, Many works of Sanskrit were translated into Persian. The integration process continued in the music field under Firoz Shah Tughlaq. Under Firoz shah Tughlaq, the Indian classical work 'Ragadarpan' was translated into Persian. Musical gatherings spread from the abodes of the Sufis to the palaces of nobles. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Zain-ul-Abidinwas a great scholar of Persian, Sanskrit, Tibetan and Arab languages and patronized the Sanskrit and Persian scholars. Under his patronage, the Mahabharat and Kalhana’s Rajatarangini were translated into Persian, and many Persian and Arabic works were translated into Hindi. He was a poet and wrote poetry under the pen name ‘Qutb’. Rajatarangini is an epic poem (mahakavya) in Sanskrit, running into nearly 8000 verses spread over eight books or sections. It was composed in 1148-1150 in Kashmir, India, by the poet, Kalhana, who was a member of the ancient Indian learned class of brahmans. The Rajatarangini is an account of the many royal dynasties that ruled the ancient kingdom of Kashmir from its mythical origins down till the poet’s own time. It gained iconic stature ever since 19^th and 20^th-century scholars labeled it as the first work of history to be found in the entire corpus of Sanskrit literature. So, Statement 2 is correct.

• Under Sher Shah, the local administrative structure of the Delhi Sultanate was followed with certain changes. The village headmen who were made responsible for the goods stolen within the area under their control became vigilant. The welfare of the peasants was a prime concern. Sher Shah believed the king is ruined when the peasant is ruined. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Sher shah was to set up a strong administrative system. He was the one who experimented with forming a bureaucracy under a centralized despotism occurred. He made his government highly centralized just like sultanate period. He followed a flexible revenue system. The land was surveyed, and revenue was settled according to the fertility of the soil. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
• During his short rule, Sher Shah had little time to build new cities and palaces. He started building laterelhi, which later came to be known as PuranaQila (Old Fort). He built his own mausoleum in Sasaram. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Akbar provided a systematic and centralized system of administration which contributed to the empire's success and introduced the Mansabdari system. The nobles, civil and military officials combined into one service, with each officer receiving the title of Mansabdar. Mansabdar rank was divided into Zat and Sawar. The former (Zat) determined the number of soldiers each Mansabdar received, ranging from 10 to 10,000. The latter (Sawar) determined the number of horses under a Mansabdar. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Mansabdari was a unique system devised by the Mughals in India. The Mansabdari system diversified the ethnic base of his nobility. The Mughal privileged class consisting of zamindars and nobles led an ostentatious life. The nobles were Mansabdars who received jagirs or land grants as payment according to their ranks. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• The salary of a Mansabdar was fixed in cash but was paid by assigning him a jagir (an estate from which he could collect money instead of his salary), which was subjected to regular transfers. The rank of Mansabdar was not hereditary, and immediately after the death of a Mansabdar, the jagir was resumed by the state. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Jizya is a tax levied and collected per head by Islamic states on non-Muslim subjects living in their land. This tax applied especially to followers of Judaism, Christianity, and Zoroastrianism, who were tolerated in the practice of their religion because they were “peoples of the book.” So, Statement 1 is correct.
• In India, Qutb-ud-din Aibak imposed jizya on non-Muslims for the first time. Jizya tax is imposed because of certain erring factions from among the People of the Book (Ahl al-Kitab; non-Muslim groups such as Christians and Jews recognized in the Quran as possessing a divine scripture) who violate their own religious and ethical principles. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
• Firuz Shah Tughlaq (1351–1388) favoured orthodox Islam and imposed jizya, a head tax on non- Muslims, which even the Brahmins were compelled to pay. Yet Firuz shah Tughlaq did not prohibit the building of new Hindu temples and shrines. Jizya was abolished by the Mughal ruler Akbar in the 16^th century but was re-introduced by Aurangzeb in the 17^th century. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Adnyapatra, also pronounced as ‘Ajnapatra’, is a royal edict on the principles of Maratha policy written in Modi Marathi by Ramchandra Pant Amatya, who served on the Council of 8 (Ashta Pradhan) as the Finance Minister (Amatya) to Maratha King Shivaji, with the intention to guide Shivaji’s grandson Sambhaji II. It is supposed to be the formal documentation of Shivaji’s ideals, principles, and policies of state administration.
• Adnyapatra is a script of about 7000 words in Modi Marathi. It is divided into two sections. The first section comprises the first two chapters which give a brief narration of the achievements of Shivaji and his sons in building and preserving the Maratha Empire. The second section comprises seven chapters in which he discusses the principles of state policy and various aspects of administration he had learned while working with Shivaji.
• Modi was a script used to write Marathi for an estimated 700 years. The script was used for war correspondence and secret socio political conversations between Marathas. • Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Statement Analysis:

• Statement 1 is correct: It is a final carbon-rich solid material and residual waste material extracted from oil refining. It is a spongy, solid residue from oil distillation that can be burned for fuel similar to coal.  
• Statement 2 is Correct: It releases toxic gases like carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, mercury, arsenic, chromium, nickel, and hydrogen chloride after burning.    
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It is high in calorific value and easy to transport and store.

Context – The Union government of India permitted the import of pet coke for making graphite anode material for lithium-ion batteries.

Statement Analysis:

• Statement 1 is Correct: Kavach System is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system. Kavach was developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) under Indian Railway (IR) in collaboration with Medha Servo Drives Pvt Ltd, HBL Power Systems Ltd and Kernex Microsystems.
• Statement 2 is Correct: It is a set of electronic devices and Radio Frequency Identification devices installed in locomotives, in the signalling system as well the tracks, that talk to each other using ultra-high radio frequencies to control the brakes of trains and also alert drivers, all based on the logic programmed into them.
• Statement 3 is Correct: The system can alert the loco pilot, take control of the brakes and bring the train to a halt automatically when it notices another train on the same line within a prescribed distance. The device also continuously relays the signals ahead to the locomotive, making it useful for loco pilots in low visibility.

Context – It was in news due to the recent train accident in Odisha

Hindu Missionary Society –

• It was established by Gajananrao Vaidya in Bombay. Its objective was to perform 'Sudhi' that is convert people of other faiths and admit them into Hindu fold. It concentrated on bringing back to Hindu fold people who had converted to other religions.
• Anjuman-i-Punjab – It founded in Lahore in 1865 by the distinguished linguist, Dr Gottlieb Wilhelm Leitner. It was a voluntary society which aimed at the development of “vernacular literature” and dissemination of popular knowledge through this medium. Its actual activities spanned a wide range of educational forums and social issues, including encouragement of Vedic and Unani medicine, a mushaira or poetical symposium, newspaper journalism, a free public library, a system of private primary schools, lecture series and publication of literary works in Indian languages.
• It also started an Oriental school and was instrumental in the establishment of the Panjab University College. This college was converted into Panjab University which was the outcome primarily of the labours of the Anjuman.

• The policy of financial devolution during the British colonial rule was initiated by Lord Mayo (1869- 1872) and continued further by Lord Ripon (1880-1884).
• In 1877 the provincial governments were given the control of expenditure on financial services like excise, land revenue reforms, law and justice etc., and also handed over some specified sources of revenue (e.g., excise, license fee etc.) from their respective provinces.
• In 1882 a system of 'Divided Heads' was introduced i.e., income from subjects like Excise, Stamps, Forests etc. was divided in equal proportion among the Central and Provincial governments. The system of "Divided Heads' remained operative till it was modified by the Government of India Act, 1919. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Governor General Lord Ripon is regarded as the father of local self-government in India. His resolution of 1882 on local self-government is significant in this regard. It provided for
  • The development of local bodies advocated improving the administration.
  • The policy of administrating local affairs through urban and rural local bodies charged with definite duties and entrusted with suitable sources of revenues.
  • Non-officials to be in majority in these bodies, who could be elected if the officials thought that it was possible to introduce elections
  • Non-officials to act as chairpersons to these bodies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Official interference to be reduced to the minimum

• The Madras Native Association was established in 1852 as a platform for educated Indians to protest against any injustice on the part of the British. It was the first Indian political organization in the Madras Presidency.
• It was set up as a branch of the British Indian Association of Calcutta. The Madras Association also sent a petition to the Parliament on the eve of the passing of the Charter Act of 1853 making demands similar to that of the British Indian Association and the Bombay Association right from its inception was worked by some officials, possessed very little vitality, had hardly any hold upon the public mind and languished into obscurity after 1857.
• The British Indian Association of Calcutta was formed in 1851 through the merger of the Landholders’ Society and the Bengal British India Society.
• Other important political association in Madras was the Madras Mahajan Sabha founded in 1884 by M. Viraraghavachari, B. Subramaniya Aiyer and P. Anandacharlu.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct: Tukaram Bhaurao Sathe later came to be known as Annabhau Sathe was born in a Dalit family on August 1, 1920 in Maharashtra’s Wategaon village in Satara district.

• He belonged to the Matang community among Dalits.
• He was a social reformer, writer and folk poet of Maharashtra.
• He is also known as a pioneer of dalit literature.

Statement 2 is not correct: He was influenced by the communist ideology and is often known as the ‘Maxim Gorky of Maharashtra’, having been inspired by the Russian writer-activist’s work, as well as the Russian Revolution. Statement 3 is correct: Literary Contributions: In 1939, he wrote his first ballad ‘Spanish Povada’.

• Several of his works like ‘Aklechi Goshta,’ ‘Stalingradacha Povada,’ ‘Mazi Maina Gavavar Rahili,’ ‘Jag Badal Ghaluni Ghav’ were popular across the state.
• His ‘Bangalchi Hak’ (Bengal’s Call) on the Bengal famine was translated into Bengali and later presented at London’s Royal Theatre.
• He dedicated his most famous novel Fakira to Dr Ambedkar.

Odisha’s Special Development Councils (SDCs) initiative
About:

• In a significant move towards preserving, promoting, and popularising tribal culture while also continuing with the development process, the Odisha government launched the Special Development Councils (SDCs) initiative in 2017. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect.
• This is an active effort to preserve the culture and heritage of 62 tribes in the State under one umbrella while keeping economic development on course in the regions.
• The scheme, which covered nine tribal-dominated districts and 60 lakh tribal households in 117 blocks, has now been expanded to 23 districts covering more than 84 lakh tribal people.
  • SDC’s model: In this model, important cultural markers that are a reflection of tribal identity are identified and promoted.
    • Language:
    • Language is recognised as an important marker of culture.
    • As Odisha is a land of over 22 diverse tribal languages, the focus is on the use and propagation of these languages.
    • Over 21 tribal proficiency centres have been established.
    • These have modules to educate frontline workers like ASHA workers and non-Odia speakers about tribal culture and dialect.
    • Sacred Groves:
    • More than 4,500 sacred groves that were close to vanishing from the village landscape are now being conserved.
    • These groves hold immense cultural and conservational value for the tribal population, as they are considered to be inhabited by the gods. Resource extraction in these groves is strictly prohibited.
    • More than 4,730 sacred groves are under protection in nine districts, and 1,609 tribal cultural clubs have been set up.
    • Artisan ID cards: Œ Artisan ID cards have been issued to over 40,000 tribal artisans. Hence statement 2 is correct
    • This initiative not only preserves culture, but also enables employment opportunities.
    • Tribal Resource Centres:
    • To ensure an efficient transfer of knowledge, more than 50 Tribal Resource Centres have been constructed in Sundargarh district. More are coming up in the remaining districts

Statement 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.

• The Yamuna rises on the slopes of the Bandarpunch massif in the Great Himalayas near Yamunotri in Uttarakhand.
• The river flows through the state of Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and  the Union Territory of Delhi.
• The important tributaries of the Yamuna River are Tons, Chambal, Hindon, Betwa and Ken.
• Yamuna is the  right bank tributary of river Ganga.

In News : A study just published in the journal Climate and Atmospheric Science reported a sharp change in the potential for cyclones to form over the Arabian Sea during the late 1990s.

• The word Cyclone is derived from the Greek word Cyclos meaning the coils of a snake.
• It was coined by Henry Peddington because the tropical storms in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea appear like coiled serpents of the sea
• The air circulates inward in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere.
• Cyclones are given many names in different regions of the world – They are known as typhoons in the China Sea and Pacific Ocean; hurricanes in the West Indian islands in the Caribbean Sea and Atlantic Ocean; tornados in the Guinea lands of West Africa and southern USA.; willy willies in north-western Australia and tropical cyclones in the Indian Ocean.

• General / normal condition: Every year in winter, strong westerly winds circle around the pole high up in the stratosphere. This is called the stratospheric polar vortex and it circulates around cold air high over the Arctic.
• Sudden stratospheric warming (SSW):
  • During an SSW, in some years, the polar vortex breaks down / weakens temporarily or even reverses to flow from east to west. The cold air then descends very rapidly in the polar vortex and this causes the temperature in the stratosphere to rise very rapidly (adiabatic heating), as much as 50°C over only a few days, hence the term sudden stratospheric warming. This is so high up that we don’t feel the ‘warming’ ourselves. However, usually, a few weeks later, we can start to see knock- on effects on the jet stream, which in turn affects our weather lower down (in the troposphere). Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • As the cold air from high up in the stratosphere disperses, it can affect the shape of the jet stream as the cold air sinks from the stratosphere into the troposphere. It is this change in the jet stream that causes our weather to change.
  • SSWs are natural fluctuations in the atmosphere and are not caused by climate change. The SSW is not regular and it happens around six times a decade in the northern hemisphere, but only one has ever been observed in the southern hemisphere. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Adiabatic heating:
  • When a parcel of air descends, the pressure on the parcel increases. Because of this increase in pressure, the parcel's volume decreases and its temperature increases as work is done on the parcel of air, thus increasing its internal energy, which manifests itself by a rise in the temperature of that mass of air.

• The Yamuna, the westernmost and the longest tributary of the Ganga, has its source in the Yamunotri glacier on the western slopes of the Banderpunch range (6,316 km). It joins the Ganga at Prayag (Allahabad).
• The Ghaghara originates in the glaciers of Mapchachungo. After collecting the waters of its tributaries – Tila, Seti and Beri, it comes out of the mountain, cutting a deep gorge at Shishapani. It joins the Ganga a few kilometers down the stream of Chhapra in Bihar.
• The Gandak comprises two streams, namely Kaligandak and Trishulganga. It enters the Ganga plain in the Champaran district of Bihar and joins the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna.
• The Gomati river originates in Mainkot in Madhotanda, about 30 km, 3 km east of the Pilibhit town in Uttar Pradesh at an elevation of 185 m. The river flows through an incised valley southwards through the districts of Sitapur, Lucknow, Barabanki, Sultanpur, and Jaunpur before meeting the Ganga river at Kaithi, District-Ghazipur.

• All meridians are of equal length. Thus, it was difficult to number the meridians. Hence, all countries decided that the count should begin from the meridian which passed through Greenwich, where the British Royal Observatory is located. This meridian is called the Prime Meridian. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Its value is 0° longitude and from it, we count 180° eastward as well as 180° westward.
• It is, however, interesting to note that 180° East and 180° West meridians are on the same line. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Prime Meridian and 180° meridian divide the earth into two equal halves, the Eastern Hemisphere and the Western Hemisphere. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Therefore, the longitude of a place is followed by the letter E for the east and W for the west.

• Winds drive ocean currents in the upper 100 meters of the ocean’s surface. However, ocean currents also flow thousands of meters below the surface. These deep-ocean currents are driven by differences in the water’s density, which is controlled by temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline). This process is known as thermohaline circulation. The thermohaline circulation is sometimes called the ocean conveyor belt, the great ocean conveyor, or the global conveyor belt.
• The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is a large system of ocean currents that carry warm water from the tropics northwards into the North Atlantic. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The AMOC is a large system of ocean currents, like a conveyor belt, driven by differences in temperature and salt content – the water’s density. As warm water flows northwards it cools and some evaporation occurs, which increases the amount of salt. Low temperatures and a high salt content make the water denser, and this dense water sinks deep into the ocean. The cold, dense water slowly spreads southwards, several kilometers below the surface. Eventually, it gets pulled back to the surface and warms in a process called “upwelling” and the circulation is complete. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• This global process makes sure that the world’s oceans are continually mixed, and that heat and energy are distributed around the earth. This, in turn, contributes to the climate we experience today.
• Climate models suggest that the AMOC will weaken over the 21st Century as greenhouse gases increase. This is because as the atmosphere warms, the surface ocean beneath it retains more of its heat. Meanwhile, increases in rainfall and ice melt mean it gets fresher too. All these changes make the ocean water lighter and so reduce the sinking in the ‘conveyor belt’, leading to a weaker AMOC. So the AMOC is very likely to weaken, but it’s considered very unlikely that large, rapid changes in the AMOC, as seen in past times, will happen in the 21st century. Hence statement 3 is correct.

• The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, the Government of India, and the US Agency for International Development (USAID) announced the launch of a new program, “Trees Outside Forests in India”. The move will enhance carbon sequestration, support local communities, and strengthen the climate resilience of agriculture. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• This initiative with a monetary component of USD 25 million dollars will bring together farmers, companies, and private institutions in India to rapidly expand tree coverage outside of traditional forests by 28 lakh hectares. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • Through agroforestry, or integrating trees into farming systems, the program will improve the resilience of farming systems while increasing the income of farmers.
• The program will also use innovative financing models and leverage India’s private sector to promote tree- based enterprises, helping to create sustainable markets and improve rural economies and livelihoods, with the potential to benefit more than 13 million people.
• The program will be implemented by a consortium led by the Center for International Forestry Research (CIFOR) and World Agroforestry (ICRAF), in seven states including Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Odisha, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, and Uttar Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Red soils are also found in parts of Odisha and Chhattisgarh and the southern parts of the middle Ganga plain. The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. Fine-grained red and yellow soils are normally fertile, whereas coarse-grained soils found in dry upland areas are poor in fertility. They are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus. The Laterite soils develop in areas with high temperatures and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compounds are left behind. The Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrive well in high temperatures. These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation. So, Option (b) is not correct.
• Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. They are depositional soils transported and deposited by rivers and streams. These soils are formed of deposits of silt and sand brought down by the rivers flowing from the Himalayas and the Great Indian plateau. Alluvial soil being young or immature, the soils lack profile development.

• Laterite has been derived from the Latin word 'Later,' which means brick. The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperatures and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like cashew nuts. Red sandy loam, lateritic soils and coastal sands with slightly acidic pH are best for cashew. Cashew is a tropical plant and can thrive even at high temperatures. The laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam. The crops which are generally grown are rice, millet, and sugarcane on lowland and tropical plantations such as rubber, coffee and tea on uplands. So, Pair 1 is correct, and Pair 4 is not correct.
• Wheat can be grown in various soils, but well-drained, fertile loamy and clayey loamy soil is best suited for wheat cultivation. Plain areas are well suited for wheat production and grow in black and alluvial soil. They contain an adequate proportion of minerals like potash, phosphoric acid, and lime. So, Pair 2 is correct.
• Millets are also coarse grains and less sensitive to soil deficiencies. Millets are a group of highly variable small-seeded grasses. Jowar, bajra and ragi are important millets grown in India. Millets can be grown on less fertile and sandy soils, Red soils, and in an inferior alluvial or loamy soil. So, Pair 3 is correct.

• Rapid warming in the Arabian Sea results in widespread extreme rains over the Western Ghats and central India since warming induces increased fluctuations in the monsoon winds, with ensuing episodes of enhanced moisture transport from the Arabian Sea towards the Indian subcontinent. The warming of the Arabian sea results from positive Indian Ocean dipole. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• El Nino Modoki brings only fewer cyclones to the Bay of Bengal because one of the two descending limbs of the Walker Cell is over the western Pacific and Bay of Bengal. The descending limb causes dry conditions and is not conducive to cyclone formation. On the other hand, the ascending limb of the Walker Cell brings rain. Also, an El Nino Modoki creates stronger divergence over the western Pacific and Bay of Bengal compared to El Nino. Divergence (opposite of convergence) means surface winds move away from each other, resulting in low relative vorticity (rotational flow of winds). These conditions are not conducive for cyclones. This explains why the Bay of Bengal region has fewer cyclones during an El Nino Modoki. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Option (a) is correct:

• The Green Energy Corridor Project aims at synchronizing electricity produced from renewable sources, such as solar and wind, with conventional power stations in the grid.
• For evacuation of large-scale renewable energy, Intra State Transmission System (InSTS) project was sanctioned by the Ministry in 2015-16. It is being implemented by eight renewable-rich states of Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
• The project is being implemented in these states by the respective State Transmission Utilities (STUs). The revised target of the project is to install approx. 9700 ckm transmission lines and substations of a total capacity of approx. 22600 MVA to be completed by December 2020.
• The purpose is to evacuate over 20,000 MW of large-scale renewable power and improvement of the grid in the implementing states. The Central grant is disbursed in two instalments to the STUs: a) 70% advance on the award of contract, and b) balance 30% after successful commissioning and three months of performance testing.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the
• membership varies from 1 to 31. In US, on the other hand, the principle of equality of representation of states in the Upper House is fully recognised. Thus, the American Senate has 100 members, two from each state. This principle is regarded as a safeguard for smaller states.
• Statement 2 is correct: Even in the limited sphere of authority allotted to them, the states do not have exclusive control. The Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject of the State List if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest. This means that the legislative competence of the Parliament can be extended without amending the Constitution. Notably, this can be done
   

Option (b) is correct:
Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes two provisions:

• Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
• Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint. Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted two laws [the River Boards Act (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956)]. The River Boards Act provides for the establishment of river boards for the regulation and development of inter-state river and river valleys. A river board is established by the Central government on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley. The decision of the tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal under this Act.

Amendment to the Constitution requires two different kinds of special majorities:

• in the first place, those voting in favor of the amendment bill should constitute at least half of the total strength of that House.
• Secondly, the supporters of the amendment bill must also constitute two-thirds of those who actually take part in voting.
• Both Houses of Parliament must pass the amendment bill separately in this same manner (there is no provision for a joint session). For every amendment bill, this special majority is required.
• In the Rajya Sabha, there are 245 members. Therefore, any amendment must be supported by a minimum of 123 members. Even if only 150 members are present at the time of voting, the amendment bill must get the support of 123 out of them.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution- making. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor committees.
  • Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
  • Provincial Constitution Committee - Sardar Patel. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
  • Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar o Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas - Sardar Patel.
    • This committee had the following five sub-committees:
    • Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee - J.B. Kripalani ▪ Minorities Sub-Committee - H.C. Mukherjee
    • North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub- Committee -Gopinath Bardoloi
    • Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee - A.V. Thakkar
    • North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee8a
  • Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  • States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.