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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - OPSC OCS (Odisha) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test OPSC OAS Mock Test Series 2024 - OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 is part of OPSC OAS Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the OPSC OCS (Odisha) exam syllabus.The OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 MCQs are made for OPSC OCS (Odisha) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 below.
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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 1

What significant role did U.U. Lalit assume at K.R. Mangalam University?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 1

U.U. Lalit joined K.R. Mangalam University as an Eminent Jurist and Distinguished Professor, contributing his extensive legal expertise to the School of Legal Studies. His appointment highlights the institution's commitment to enhancing its academic stature in legal education.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 2

Which underwater canyon was recently uncovered by scientists in Israel?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 2

The underwater canyon named Eratosthenes was discovered near Cyprus by Israeli scientists. This geological feature is significant as it sheds light on ancient geological events, providing insights into the history of the Mediterranean Sea during the Messinian Event.

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OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 3

What does the International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation aim to address?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 3

The International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation focuses on raising awareness and combating violence against women and girls. This UN-sponsored day emphasizes the need for actions to eradicate FGM and promote gender equality by 2030.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 4

What award did REC Limited receive at The Asset Triple A Awards for Sustainable Finance 2024?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 4

REC Limited secured the Best Green Bond - Corporate Award, recognizing its commitment to sustainable finance through the issuance of $750 million in Green Bonds. This achievement marks a significant milestone for India in the global green finance landscape.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 5

What historic event took place on February 6, 1819?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 5

On February 6, 1819, Singapore was discovered by Sir Thomas Stamford Raffles, marking the beginning of its development as a significant trading port and eventually a major global city.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 6

Who was honored with the 'Shankar Smriti Award'?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 6

Ishwari Prasad Namboodiri was honored with the 'Shankar Smriti Award', recognizing his contributions in a specific field. This award is a testament to the impact of individuals who promote cultural and social values.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 7

What is the purpose of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Bill, 2024?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 7

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Bill, 2024 aims to amend existing legislation to enhance regulations for the prevention and control of water pollution, reflecting a proactive approach to environmental protection.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 8

Which notable astronaut made history by hitting a golf ball on the Moon?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 8

Alan Shepard became the first person to hit a golf ball on the Moon during the Apollo 14 mission in 1971. This event is a fascinating intersection of sports and space exploration, showcasing human ingenuity and the spirit of adventure.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 9

What does ULLAS Mela focus on?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 9

The ULLAS Mela is organized to spotlight various National and State-level activities under the ULLAS-Nav Bharat Saksharta Karyakram, highlighting initiatives aimed at improving education and literacy across India.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 10

Who is the current Chief Justice of Uttarakhand?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 10

Justice Ritu Bahri was appointed as the first woman Chief Justice of Uttarakhand High Court. Her appointment represents a significant milestone for gender representation in the judiciary in India.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 11

What notable record did Oleg Kononenko set?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 11

Oleg Kononenko set the world record for the most time spent in space, surpassing 878 days. This achievement underscores the advancements in human spaceflight and the endurance required for long-term missions.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 12

What was the first year the International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation was observed?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 12

The International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation was first introduced in 2003 as part of international efforts to raise awareness and combat this harmful practice, highlighting the ongoing struggle for women's rights worldwide.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 13

What is the significance of the canyon named Eratosthenes?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 13

The Eratosthenes canyon is significant because it provides valuable insights into ancient geological events that occurred around 5.5 million years ago, helping scientists understand historical changes in sea levels and salinity in the Mediterranean.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 14

Which Indian state ranks second according to the BW Legal World Law School Rankings 2022?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 14

K.R. Mangalam University secured the second position in Haryana according to the BW Legal World Law School Rankings 2022, which reflects its reputation and quality in legal education.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 15

Consider the following statements regarding the Jagannatha cult:

1. JagannathisconsideredasaformofKrishna.

2. One of the most important rulers of the Ganga Dynasty, king Anantavarman erected a temple for Purushottama Jagannatha at Puri.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 15
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Jagannatha cult is located at Puri, Orissa. Jagannatha literally means Lord of the world, which is a name for Vishnu. So, this cult is associated with Lord Vishnu. Jagannatha is considered to be a part of a triad along with his brother Balabhadra and sister Subhadra. Jagannatha temple is considered as one of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites in India, the other three being- Badrinath (Uttarakhand), Dwarka and Rameswaram (Tamil Nadu). It is believed by Vaishnavite Hinduism that visiting these sites will help achieve Moksha.

Statement 2 is correct. In the 12th century, one of the most important rulers of the Ganga dynasty, Anantavarman, decided to erect a temple for Purushottama Jagannatha at Puri. Subsequently, in 1230, king Anangabhima III dedicated his kingdom to the deity and proclaimed himself as the ‘deputy’ of the god.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 16

Ibn Battuta, the famous Muslim explorer who came to India during regime of Mohammad Bin Tughlaq, belonged to which country?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 16
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan explorer and scholar who is known for his extensive travels and accounts of his journeys. He was born in 1304 in the city of Tangier and began traveling at a young age, eventually visiting over 44 modern countries on three different continents. During his travels, he served as a judge, lawyer, and diplomat, and wrote detailed accounts of the places he visited and the people he met. He is known for his extensive travels, accounts of which were published in the Rihla. Battuta is considered one of the greatest travelers of all time. He came to India during the regime of Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 17

With reference to Miniature paintings in mediaeval India, consider the following statements:

1. Miniatures are small-sized paintings, generally Done in watercolour on cloth or paper.

2. Basohli andKangra are famous forMiniature paintings.

3. Basohli paintings had soft colours and a lyrical theme.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 17
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. Basohli and Kangra are famous for Miniature paintings. Basohli painting is characterised by bold intense colours and a vigorous style, while Kangra paintings are known for their delicate lines, lyrical theme and soft colours. The earliest known paintings in the hills (c. 1690) are in the Basohli idiom, a style that continued at numerous centres until about the mid-18th century. Its place was taken by a transitional style sometimes referred to as pre-Kangra, which lasted from about 1740 to 1775. During the mid-18th century, a number of artist families trained in the late Mughal style apparently fled Delhi for the hills in search of new patrons and more settled living conditions. The influence of late Mughal art is evident in the new Kangra style, which appears as a complete rejection of the Basohli school. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 18

With reference to ‘Mirabai’, consider the following statements:

1. She was a Rajput Princess.

2. She attracted a large sect of people who became her followers.

3. Her songs are sung by lower caste people in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 18
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Mirabai (c. fifteenth-sixteenth centuries) is perhaps the best-known woman poet within the bhakti tradition. Biographies have been reconstructed primarily from the bhajans attributed to her, which were transmitted orally for centuries.

Statement 1 is correct. According to sources, she was a Rajput princess from Merta in Marwar who was married against her wishes to a prince of the Sisodia clan of Mewar, Rajasthan. She defied her husband and did not submit to the traditional role of wife and mother, instead recognising Krishna, an avatar of Vishnu, as her lover.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Although Mirabai did not attract a sect or group of followers, she has been recognised as a source of inspiration for centuries. Statement 3 is correct. Her songs continue to be sung by women and men, especially those who are poor and considered “low caste” in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 19

‘Nath literature’ is associated with which of the following languages:

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 19
Option (c) is the correct answer. Nath literature is related to the Bengali language. Early Bengali literature is divided into two categories- One is indebted to Sanskrit and the other is independent of it. The first includes translations of the Sanskrit epics, the Mangal Kavyas (auspicious poems, dealing with local deities) and Bhakti literature such as the biographies of Chaitanyadeva, the leader of the Vaishnava bhakti movement. The texts belonging to this category are easier to date, as several manuscripts have been found indicating that they were composed between the late 15th and mid18th centuries. The second includes Nath literature such as the songs of Maynamanti and Gopichandra, stories concerning the worship of Dharma Thakur, and fairy tales, folk tales and ballads. The texts belonging to the second category were circulated orally and cannot be precisely dated. They were particularly popular in eastern Bengal, where the influence of Brahmanas was relatively weak. The Naths were ascetics who engaged in a variety of yogic practices.
OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding agriculture during Mughal Period:

1. The rulers encouraged only the production of food crops.

2. Agriculture was largely rain-fed.

3. Peasant ownership of land was unknown.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 20
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Though, majorly food crops were grown, the rulers encouraged production of commercial crops like cotton, sugarcane and oilseeds.

Statement 2 is correct: The agriculture remained largely rain-fed, though many nahrs were also built.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Cultivation was based on the principle of individual ownership. Peasant lands were bought and sold in the same way as the lands of other property owners.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 21

Which of the following statements is not correct with reference to the Government of India Act, 1919:

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 21
Option (b) is incorrect. The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced dyarchy in the provinces i.e., the distinction between Reserved and Transferred Subjects, which indeed was a substantial step towards transfer of power to the Indian people. In The Government of India Act, 1935, Dyarchy in the provinces was abolished and provinces were given autonomy, i.e., the distinction between Reserved and Transferred Subjects was abolished and full responsible government was established, subject to certain safeguards. In this act, Dyarchy was introduced at the centre.
OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 22

As per recent government data, how many tigers died in the last three years in India?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 22
According to data presented by the Union Minister of State for Environment in the Lok Sabha, India lost 329 tigers in the last three years due to poaching, natural and unnatural causes. It also added that 125 people have been killed in tiger attacks in this period. Around 307 elephants have died in this period due to poaching, electrocution, poisoning and train accidents. Out of them, 222 elephants died due to electrocution in the last three years.
OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 23

Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding The Charter Act of 1833:

1. A sum of one lakh rupees was to be set aside for the revival, promotion and encouragement of literature, learning and science among the natives of India, every year.

2. Christian missionaries were permitted to come to India and preach their religion.

3. No Indian citizen was to be denied employment under the Company on the basis of religion, colour, Birth or descent.

Select the correct answer using the code given Below:

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 23
Option (a) is the correct answer. Statement 1 is incorrect. It was the Charter Act of 1813 in which a sum of one lakh rupees was to be set aside for the revival, promotion and encouragement of literature, learning and science among the natives of India, every year. (This was an important statement from the point of State’s responsibility for education.) Statement 2 is incorrect. It was the Charter Act of 1813 in which Christian missionaries were permitted to come to India and preach their religion.

Statement 3 is correct. Under the Charter Act of 1833, no Indian citizen was to be denied employment under the Company on the basis of religion, colour, birth, descent, etc. Although the reality was different, this declaration formed the sheet-anchor of political agitation in India. KB) Other provisions of Charter Act of 1813: In England, local businessmen were pressuring the British government to end the Company’s monopoly over trade in India in spirit of laissez-faire and the continental system by Napoleon by which the European ports were closed for Britain.

The 1813 Act sought to redress these grievances—

● The Company’s monopoly over trade in India ended, but the Company retained the trade with China and the trade in tea.

● The Company was to retain the possession of territories and the revenue for 20 years, without prejudice to the sovereignty of the Crown. (Thus, the constitutional position of the British territories in India was defined explicitly for the first time.)

● Powers of the Board of Control were further enlarged. Charter act of 1833: Governor-General of Bengal was made Governor-General of India. William Bentinck was the first Governor- General of India.

● The lease of 20 years to the Company was further extended. Territories of India were to be governed in the name of the Crown.

● The Company’s monopoly over trade with China and in tea also ended.

● A law member was added to the governor-general’s council for professional advice on law-making.

● The administration was urged to take steps to ameliorate the conditions of slaves and to ultimately abolish slavery. (Slavery was abolished in 1843.)

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 24

With reference to Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan, consider the following statements:

1. He had an alliance with the Muslim League till independence was achieved.

2. He founded the Khudai Khidmatgar ("Servants of God") movement in 1929.

3. He was opposed to partition and demanded the creation of an independent state of Pashtunistan.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 24
Option (b) is the correct answer. Statement 1 is incorrect. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan was a Pashtun independence activist who worked to end the rule of the British Raj in India. He was a political and spiritual leader known for his nonviolent opposition; he was a lifelong pacifist and devout Muslim. A close friend of Mohandas Gandhi, Bacha Khan was nicknamed the "Frontier Gandhi". He was in alliance with Mahatma Gandhi and the Indian National Congress and this alliance lasted till India’s independence.

Statement 2 is correct. Bacha Khan's goal came to be the formulation of a united, independent, secular India. To achieve this end, he founded the Khudai Khidmatgar ("Servants of God"), commonly known as the "Red Shirts" (Surkh Pōsh), during the 1920s. The Khudai Khidmatgar was founded on a belief in the power of Gandhi's notion of Satyagraha, a form of active non-violence as captured in an oath.

Statement 3 is correct. Bacha Khan strongly opposed the proposal for the partition of India, siding with the Indian National Congress. When the Indian National Congress declared its acceptance of the partition plan without consulting the Khudai Khidmatgar leaders, he felt deeply betrayed and hurt by this, telling the Congress, "you have thrown us to the wolves." In June 1947, Khan and other Khudai Khidmatgars declared the Bannu Resolution, demanding that the Pashtuns be given a choice to have an independent state of Pashtunistan, composing all Pashtun territories of British India, instead of being made to join Pakistan. However, the British Raj refused to comply with the demand of this resolution.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 25

This act provided for the establishment of an All India Federation with provincial autonomy. Fourteen percent of the total population under British India got voting rights under this act. But this act could not satisfy the nationalist aspiration. Congress condemned this act as “Totally disappointing”.

Which of the following acts has been described in the above paragraph?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 25
Option (b) is the correct answer.

The Government of India Act, 1935:

● The Act provided for the establishment of an All India Federation and a new system of government for the provinces on the basis of provincial autonomy.

● The federation was to be based on the union of the provinces of British India and the Princely States (States).

● There was to be a bicameral federal legislature in which the States were given disproportionate weightage.

● The representatives of the States were not to be elected by the people, but Appointed directly by the rulers.

● Only 14 percent of the total population in British India was given the right to vote.

● The Governor-General and the Governors were to be appointed by the British Government and were to be responsible to it.

The Act could not satisfy the nationalist aspiration for both political and economic power to continue to be concentrated in the hands of the British Government, foreign rule was to continue as before, only a few popularly elected ministers were to be added to the structure of British administration in India. The Congress condemned the Act as “totally disappointing,”

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 26

Which of the following was the main objective behind introducing the Rowlatt Act?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 26
Option (a) is the correct answer. The Rowlatt Act: The Government of India was ready with repression during and even after the First World War. Throughout the war, repression of nationalists had continued. The revolutionaries had been hunted down, hanged and imprisoned.

Many other nationalists such as Abul Kalam Azad had also been kept behind bars. The Government now decided to arm itself with more far-reaching powers, which went against the accepted principles of rule of law, to be able to suppress those nationalists who would refuse to be satisfied with the official reforms. For this reason, in March 1919, the Government passed the Rowlatt Act even though every single Indian member of the Central Legislative Council opposed it.

Three of them, Mohammed Ali Jinnah, Madan Mohan Malaviya and Mazhar-ul-Huq resigned from their membership of the Council. This Act authorised the Government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law. The Act would thus also enable the Government to suspend the right of Habeas Corpus which had been the foundation of civil liberties in Britain.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 27

With reference to the various approaches to Human Development, consider the following statements:

  1. The Welfare approach to human development advocates that the level of income reflects the level of freedom enjoyed by an individual.

  2. The Basic needs approach ignores the aspect of human choices in human development.

  3. Capability approach is based on building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 27
  • Basic Needs Approach: This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • Capability Approach: This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education, and access to resources is the key to increasing human development. Hence statement 3 is correct.

  • Income Approach: This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys. The higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

  • Welfare Approach: This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary, and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximizing expenditure on welfare.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 28

Chennai is often called the 'Detroit of India'. In this context, Detroit is famous for and has in common with Chennai which of the following industries?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 28
  • General Motors, Ford Motor Company, and Chrysler Stellantis North America are often referred to as the "Big Three", being the largest automakers in the United States of America. All three have their headquarters in the Detroit area.

  • Chennai is nicknamed "The Detroit of India", with more than one-third of India's automobile industry being based in the city. Chennai is also referred to as the ‘Detroit of India’ with the Indian operations of Ford, Hyundai, Renault, and Nissan headquartered in the city and BMW having an assembly plant on the outskirts. Chennai accounts for 35% of the country’s automobile component industry and 60 percent of the country’s automotive exports.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 29

What is common to the places known as Ambala, Mhow, Udhampur?

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 29
Some towns and cities specialize in certain functions and they are known for some specific activities, products, or services. However, each town performs a number of functions. On the basis of dominant or specialized functions, Indian cities and towns can be broadly classified as follows:
  • Industrial towns: Industries constitute the prime motive force of these cities such as Mumbai, Salem, Coimbatore, Modinagar, Jamshedpur, Hugli, Bhilai, etc.

  • Commercial towns: Towns and cities specializing in trade and commerce are kept in this class. Kolkata, Saharanpur, Satna, etc. are some examples.

  • Garrison Cantonment towns: These towns emerged as garrison towns such as Ambala, Jalandhar, Mhow, Babina, Udhampur, etc.

    • Ambala: It is a city and a municipal corporation in the Ambala district in Haryana. It has a large Indian Army and Indian Air Force presence within its cantonment area. Ambala separates the Ganges River network from the Indus River network and is surrounded by two rivers – Ghaggar and Tangri – to the north and to the south.

    • Mhow: Mhow, officially Dr. Ambedkar Nagar, is a cantonment in the Indore district in the Madhya Pradesh state of India.

    • Babina: Babina is a cantonment town in Jhansi district in the state of Uttar Pradesh.

    • Udhampur: Udhampur is a city and a municipal committee in the Udhampur district in the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Named after Raja Udham Singh, it serves as the district capital and the Northern Command headquarters of the Indian Army. Hence option (c) is the correct answer

  • Administrative towns and cities: Towns supporting administrative headquarters of higher order are administrative towns, such as Chandigarh, New Delhi, Bhopal, Shillong, Guwahati, Imphal, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Jaipur Chennai, etc.

OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 30

Which of the following parameters is/are taken into account while calculating the Human Poverty Index?

  1. Household income

  2. Adult literacy rate

  3. Number of small children who are underweight

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for OPSC OAS Prelims Paper 1 Practice Test - 2 - Question 30
  • The Human Poverty Index (HPI) was an indication of the poverty of a community in a country, developed by the United Nations to complement the Human Development Index (HDI) and was first reported as part of the Human Deprivation Report in 1997. In 2010, it was supplanted by the UN's Multidimensional Poverty Index.

  • The Human Poverty Index measures shortfalls in Human Development. It is a non-income measure. Hence option 1 is not correct.

  • Parameters that are taken into account while calculating HPI are:

    • The probability of not surviving till the age of 40

    • The adult illiteracy rate

    • The number of people who do not have access to clean water

    • The number of small children who are underweight. Hence option 2 and option 3 are correct.

  • Since 1990, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has been publishing the Human Development Report every year. This report provides a rank-wise list of all member countries according to the level of human development. The Human Development Index and the Human Poverty index are two important indices to measure human development used by the UNDP.

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