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Practice Test - NEET MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test 4 Months Preparation for NEET - Practice Test

Practice Test for NEET 2024 is part of 4 Months Preparation for NEET preparation. The Practice Test questions and answers have been prepared according to the NEET exam syllabus.The Practice Test MCQs are made for NEET 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Practice Test below.
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Practice Test - Question 1

electromagnetic induction i.e currents can be induced in coils (Select the best)

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 1

Explanation:for electromagnetic induction magnet and coil both may move but relative motion between must be present

Practice Test - Question 2

Damping in galvanometers is based oUpdate Questionn

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 2

Explanation : The coil of galvanometer is wound on a light metal frame. When the coil and frame rotate in the field of the permanent magnet, the eddy current set up in the frame oppose the motion so that the coil returns to zero quickly.

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Practice Test - Question 3

Predict the polarity of the capacitor in the situation described by fig.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 3

Explanation:A will become positive with respect to B because current  indused is in clockwise direction

Practice Test - Question 4

An ac generator consists of 8 turns of wire, each of area A=0.0900m2 , and the total resistance of the wire is 12.0Ω. The loop rotates in a 0.500-T magnetic field at a constant frequency of 60.0 Hz. Maximum induced emf is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 4

e = NBAω = NBA2πn = 8 x 0.5 x 0.09 x 2 x 3.14 x 60 = 136V

Practice Test - Question 5

Heat is supplied to the gas, but its internal energy does not increase. What is the process involved?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 5

From the first law of thermodynamics dQ = dU + dW, so clearly for the isothermal expansion or compression of a real gas where u = f(T) from the first law dU = 0 which means that the entire heat supplied is converted into work but from the second law of thermodynamics we find that in no process can the entire heat supplied can  be converted into work hence in reality some fraction of heat supplied is always used to increase the internal energy of the system.

Practice Test - Question 6

Which of the following are the extensive variables?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 6

Extensive variable →H (enthalpy), E (Internal energy) and Mass. Since these variables depend on the amount of substance or volume or size of the system.

Practice Test - Question 7

What is not true for a cyclic process?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 7

As work is a path function rather than a state function, we can easily say that work can often be graphically represented as the area under the PV graph. And as cyclic processes are represented as closed shapes on PV graph it is obvious that they have non zero area and thus work done is non zero.

Practice Test - Question 8

In an adiabatic process internal energy of gas

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 8

From the first law of thermodynamics,
we know, dU = dQ - dW ; (work done BY the system is considered +ve)
For an adiabatic process, dQ = 0, and hence, dU = -dW
For an ideal gas expansion, we see that work done
BY the system is +ve (recall the sign convention for work done), i.e., dW > 0.
Therefore, dU is less than 0, and thus, the internal energy decreases.

Practice Test - Question 9

Find the final temperature of one mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature to t K.The gas does 9 R joules of work adiabatically. The ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 4/3.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 9

TInitial  = t K
Work, W = 9R
Ratio of specific heats, γ = C/ Cv = 4/3
In an adiabatic process, we have
W = R(TFinal – Tinitial) / (1-γ)
9R = R (TFinal – t) / (1 – 4/3)
TFinal – t = 9 (-1/3) = -3
TFinal  = (t-3) K

Practice Test - Question 10

Give the name of the following compound:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 10

The correct answer is option D(None of the above)
The given compound is 4-Bromo-3methylheptanal

Practice Test - Question 11

The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO4 is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 11

Practice Test - Question 12

Give IUPAC names of the following compound:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 12

This is 1-phenyl propan-1-one.

Practice Test - Question 13

Propanamide on treatment with bromine in an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide gives:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 13

Practice Test - Question 14

We can obtain ethylamine by Hoffmann bromamide reaction. The amide used in this reaction is:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 14

The correct answer is option C
CH3​CH2​CONH2​ (A)⟶ CH3​ − CH2 ​− NH2​ (B)⟶ ​CH3​ − CH2 ​− OH
In the above sequence A & B respectively are Br2​/KOH and HNO2
The first step is Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction in which an amide (propanamide) is converted to an amine  (ethylamine) containing one carbon atom less. The reagent A is bromine in presence of KOH. In the second step, aliphatic primary amine (ethyl amine) reacts with nitrous acid (reagent B) to form aliphatic primary alcohol (ethyl alcohol).
 

Practice Test - Question 15

 Nitro compounds are reduced to amines. The catalyst that is preferred is:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 15

Fe + HCl is preferred due to the following reasons:
- Scrap iron i.e Fe is cheap and commercially easily available
- FeCl2 formed will get hydrolysed and release HCl, so, HCl which is required in the reaction will be produced by itself
- Hence only small amount of HCl is required to initiate the reaction.

Practice Test - Question 16

Aniline can be prepared by:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 16

Aniline is prepared commercially by the catalytic hydrogenation of nitrobenzene or by the action of ammonia on chlorobenzene. The reduction of nitrobenzene can also be carried out with iron borings in aqueous acid. A primary aromatic amine, aniline is a weak base and forms salts with mineral acids.

Practice Test - Question 17

 is a tertiary amine having IUPAC name as:

Practice Test - Question 18

The phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross is​

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 18

Because it produces produced nine plants with round, yellow seeds, three plants with round, green seeds, three plants with wrinkled, yellow seeds and one plant with wrinkled, green seeds.therefore the ratio is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

Practice Test - Question 19

A pure tall and a pure dwarf plant were crossed and produced offspring. Offspring were self crossed.Then find out the ratio between true breeding tall to true breeding dwarf ?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 19

As true tall breeding and true dwarf breeding is seen only a single time in F2 generation, and the remaining are hybtid tall...so the ratio becomes 1 : 2 : 2 : 1.

But 1 : 1 is the ratio for only true tall breeding and true dwarf breeding in F2 generation.

Practice Test - Question 20

The gene which controls many characters is called

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 20

A single gene may have two or more phenotypic expressions. The multiple phenotypic effect of a single gene is called pleiotropism. Hence the gene associated with this phenomenon is called Pleiotropic gene.

Practice Test - Question 21

Heterozygous purple flower is crossed with recessive white flower. The progeny has the ratio:

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 21

Practice Test - Question 22

Mating of an organism to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is homozygous or heterozygous for a character under consideration is called

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 22

 Test cross is across made to identify hidden recessive alleles in an individual of unknown genotye. This individual is crossed with one that is homozygous for the allele being investigated (i.e., a homozygous recessive). The homozygous recessive individual may be the parent of the individual being investigated.

Practice Test - Question 23

How many structural genes are present in a lac operon?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 23
  • A lac operon consists of one regulatory gene (i) and three structural genes (z, y and a).
  • The “i” in regulatory gene is derived from the word “inhibitor”.
Practice Test - Question 24

What does the structural gene (y) of a lac operon code for?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 24

The structural gene (z) of the lac operon codes for β-galactosidase. It is responsible for the hydrolysis of polysaccharides. The ‘y’ genes code for permease. It increases the permeability of a cell to β-galactosidase. The ‘a’ genes code for transacetylase.

Practice Test - Question 25

What does A & B represent?

   

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 25

In figure above, A represent helicase and B represents single strand binding protein. These structures are formed during semiconservative replication of DNA.

Practice Test - Question 26

Evolution is

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 26

Evolution is the gradual change of race due to variation is course of time. It is the history and development of race along with variations. Evolution is a continuous process and takes millions of years to evolve a new species.

Practice Test - Question 27

Which theory explains the origin of universe?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 27

Origin of universe is explained by big bang theory. According to this theory, whole universe was concentrated into single sphere. Due to same unknown region, there was explosion in it that forms different galaxies still moving away from each other.

Practice Test - Question 28

According to abiogenesis life originates from ______.

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 28

According to abiogenesis theory of origin of life, life originated from non-living matter like gases, inorganic substance and water at particular temperature and pressure.

Practice Test - Question 29

Which ape is closely related to the man?

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 29
  • Chimpanzee is closely related to man. DNA content and DNA matching are the same in both.
  • This similarity is more than 99% with chimpanzee whereas 94% with a gibbon.
Practice Test - Question 30

Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by

Detailed Solution for Practice Test - Question 30

Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by number of offspring the individual produce in particular niche. More the viable offspring formed the more fit the organism in that surrounding.

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