RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA Exam  >  RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA Tests  >  RRB NTPC Mock Test Series 2025  >  RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA MCQ


Test Description

30 Questions MCQ Test RRB NTPC Mock Test Series 2025 - RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 is part of RRB NTPC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA exam syllabus.The RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 MCQs are made for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 below.
Solutions of RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 questions in English are available as part of our RRB NTPC Mock Test Series 2025 for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA & RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 solutions in Hindi for RRB NTPC Mock Test Series 2025 course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA Exam by signing up for free. Attempt RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 | 40 questions in 20 minutes | Mock test for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study RRB NTPC Mock Test Series 2025 for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 1

Gross National Product is obtained from the Gross Domestic Product by adjusting it for:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 1

The correct answer is option D
Key Points

  • Gross National Product (GNP) is the total value of all finished goods and services produced by a country's citizens in a given financial year, irrespective of their location. It is defined as follows:
  • GNP = GDP + Factor income earned by the domestic factors of production employed in the rest of the world – Factor income earned by the factors of production of the rest of the world employed in the domestic economy. Hence option D is correct.
  • Hence, GNP = GDP + Net factor income from abroad
  • Net factor income from abroad = Factor income earned by the domestic factors of production employed in the rest of the world – Factor income earned by the factors of production of the rest of the world employed in the domestic economy.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 2

Which of the following river is a west flowing river in India?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 2

The correct answer is Periyar river.
Key Points
River Periyar:

  • It is the longest river in the state of Kerala.
  • It is also known as "The lifeline of Kerala".
  • It originates in the Western Ghats.
  • It empties or drains into the Arabian Sea.
  • Muthirapuzha River, Mullayar River, Cheruthoni River are the few major tributaries of the Periyar river.

Additional Information

1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 3

Who launched 'Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)’ platform on the National Unity Day?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 3

The Correct Answer is Narendra Modi.

In News

  • Prime Minister launches 'Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)’ platform on the National Unity Day.

Key Points

  • The Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi launched 'Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)’ platform for youth of the country on October 31st, at Kartavya Path on the National Unity Day.
  • In a momentous decision on October 11, 2023, the Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, gave its approval for the establishment of an autonomous body known as "Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)."
  • 'Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)’ is envisioned as a pivotal, technology-driven facilitator for youth development and youth-led development, with the overarching goal of providing equitable opportunities to empower the youth in realizing their aspirations and contributing to the creation of a “Viksit Bharat” (developed India), across the entire spectrum of the Government.
  • It envisions a framework where the youth of our country can seamlessly connect with programs, mentors, and their local communities.
  • This engagement is designed to deepen their understanding of local issues and empower them to contribute to constructive solutions.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 4
Mughal Emperor ______ permitted the English East India company to establish their factory in 1613 at Surat.
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 4

The Correct Answer is Jahangir.

Key Points

  • Mughal Emperor Jahangir permitted the English East India Company to establish their factory in 1613 at Surat.
  • The British East India Company came to India for trading in spices, an important commodity in Europe back then and as it was used to preserve meat.
  • Apart from this, they primarily do trading in silk, cotton, indigo dye, tea, and opium.
  • Mughal emperor Jahangir granted a Farman to Captain William Hawkins permitting the English to erect a factory at Surat in 1613.
  • In 1615, Thomas Roe, the Ambassador to James I, got an imperial Farman from Jahangir for doing trading and establish factories all across the Mughal empire.
  • In 1616, the company established its first factory in the south in Masulipattanam.
  • Soon, the Vijaynagara Empire will also give the company permission to open a factory in Madras and the British company started to eclipse out the other European trading companies in their rising power.
  • The 'East India Company' was formed in 1600.

Additional Information

  • Jahangir was born to Maryam-uz-Zamani and Akbar on August 30, 1569.
  • He was named Sultan Muhammad Salim after Shaikh Salim Chishti of Fatehpur Sikri.
  • Akbar called him Sheik Babu.
  • After his coronation, he assumed the title of Nur-ud-din Muhammad Jahangir Badshah Ghazi.
  • Jahangir was the only surviving son of Akbar who after his father’s death ascended the throne in 1604, at the age of 34 years.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 5
The process of water being lost from the leaves of the plants from the pores is known as
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 5

The correct answer is Transpiration.

Key Points

Transpiration:

  • It is the process by which water leaves the body of a living plant and reaches the atmosphere as water vapour.
  • Transpiration is measured by a phytometer.

Additional Information Evaporation:

  • It is the process in which a liquid changes to the gaseous state at the free surface below the boiling point through the transfer of heat energy.
  • Evaporimeter measures evaporation.

Evapotranspiration:

  • It is the process by which water is transferred from the land to the atmosphere by evaporation from the soil and other surfaces and by transpiration from plants.
  • It can be measured by an instrument called a Lysimeter.

Precipitation:

  • It is condensed water vapours that fall to the earth.
  • Most precipitation occurs as rain, but also snow, hail, fog drip, graupel, and sleet.

Run-off :

  • It is defined as the part of the water cycle that flows over land as surface water instead of being absorbed into the ground water or evaporated.
  • Run-off is that part of precipitation that appears in uncontrolled surface streams, rivers drain, or sewers.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 6
In which country the Eastern Economic Forum, 2023 to be held?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 6

The Correct Answer is Russia.

In News

  • Shri Sarbananda Sonowal leaves for Russia to represent India at the Eastern Economic Forum, 2023 to be held in Vladivostok.

Key Points

  • The Union Minister of Ports, Shipping & Waterways and Ayush, Shri Sarbananda Sonowal left for Russia to represent India at the Eastern Economic Forum which is being held at the Russian port city of Vladivostok.
  • Shri Sonowal will also address stakeholders meet for the ‘Eastern Maritime Corridor’ to operationalise Chennai-Vladivostok route as an alternative trade route.
  • The 8th Eastern Economic Forum 2023 is taking place on 10–13 September 2023 in Vladivostok on the Far Eastern Federal University (FEFU) campus.
  • The Eastern Economic Forum is a key international platform for establishing and strengthening ties within the Russian and global investment communities, and for comprehensive expert evaluation of the economic potential of the Russian Far East, the investment opportunities it offers, and business conditions within advanced special economic zones.
  • The Eastern Economic Forum was established by decree of the President of the Russian Federation Vladimir Putin in 2015 to support the economic development of Russia’s Far East and to expand international cooperation in the Asia-Pacific region.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 7

Ghiyasuddin Balban (1265-1286 AD), ruler of the Slave dynasty, took up the title of __________.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 7

The correct answer is Zil-Ilahi (Shadow of God).

Key Points

  • Ghiyas-ud-din Balban was the first Muslim ruler to formulate the ‘theory of kingship’ similar to the ‘theory of the divine right of the kings'.
  • Balban lived and ruled from 1266 AD to 1287 AD.
  • Balban himself was a member of Chalisa or Chahalgani but he broke the power of Chahalgani and restored the prestige of the crown.
  • He created a strong centralized army and established the military department Diwan-i-Arz.
  • He ordered the separation of military affairs from the finance department (Diwan‑i‑Wazarat).
  • He declared the sultan as representative of God on Earth. Persian court model influenced Balban’s conception of kingship. He took up the title of Zil-i-Ilahi (a shadow of God) and impressed upon the people that the king was the deputy of God (Niyabat-i-Khudai).
  • He insisted on the Iranian ceremonies of sijda and paibos.
  • He was a patron of Persian literature and showed special favor to Amir Khusro.

Additional Information

  • Qutubuddin Aibak constructed two mosques, Quwwat-ul- Islam in Delhi and Adhai din ka Jhonpra in Ajmer. He also began the construction of Qutub Minar, in honor of the famous Sufi Saint, Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki.
  • Shamsuddin Iltutmish was the slave of Qutubuddin Aibak and occupied the throne of Delhi in 1211 AD after deposing Aram Bakhsh.
  • Alauddin introduced the system of Dagh (the branding of the horse) and Chehra (descriptive role of soldiers).
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 8

Who returned the 'Knighthood' title to the British Government in reaction against Jalianwala Bagh Massacre?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 8

The correct answer is ​Rabindranath Tagore.

Key Points

Jalianwala Bagh Massacre

  • Rabindranath Tagore returned the Knighthood title to the British government to protest against the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre in which 379 innocent people died at the hands of the British army.
  • 13 April 1919, marked a turning point in the Indian freedom struggle.
  • It was Baisakhi that day, a harvest festival popular in Punjab and parts of north India.
  • Local residents in Amritsar decided to hold a meeting that day to discuss and protest against the confinement of Satya Pal and Saifuddin Kitchlew, two leaders fighting for Independence, and the implementation of the Rowlatt Act, which armed the British government with powers to detain any person without trial.
  • The crowd had a mix of men, women, and children.
  • They all gathered in a park called the Jallianwala Bagh, walled on all sides but for a few small gates, against the orders of the British.
  • The protest was a peaceful one, and the gathering included pilgrims visiting the Golden Temple who were merely passing through the park, and some who had not come to protest.
  • While the meeting was on, Brigadier-General Reginald Edward Harry Dyer, who had crept up to the scene wanting to teach the public assembled a lesson, ordered 90 soldiers he had brought with him to the venue to open fire on the crowd.
  • Many tried in vain to scale the walls to escape. Many jumped into the well located inside the park.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 9

___________ is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 9

The correct answer is Vishakhapatnam.

Key Points

  • The deepest landlocked and well-protected port is Vishakhapatnam, which is located on the east coast of India in the state of Andhra Pradesh. Vishakhapatnam Port is one of the major ports in India and is known for its deep draft and natural harbour.
  • It has a depth of around 17.5 meters, making it one of India's deepest ports.
  • The port is well-protected from natural calamities like cyclones and tsunamis, as it is surrounded by hills on three sides and the Bay of Bengal on the fourth side.
  • This geographical location provides natural protection to the port and makes it a safe harbour for ships.
  • Vishakhapatnam port is strategically located on India's east coast, making it an ideal port for trade with countries in Southeast Asia, Australia, and the Middle East.
  • It is also well-connected to the rest of India through a network of highways and railways.
  • The port has modern infrastructure and facilities for handling various types of cargo, including containers, crude oil, iron ore, coal, and fertilizers. It also has a dedicated berth for handling liquefied natural gas (LNG) and is the first port in India to have such a facility.

Additional Information

  • Kandla Port is located on the west coast of India in the state of Gujarat.
    • It is the largest port in India in terms of volume of cargo handled. It mainly handles dry cargo like salt, crude oil, and chemicals.
  • Mumbai Port is also located on the west coast of India in the state of Maharashtra.
    • It is one of the oldest and busiest ports in India. It mainly handles container traffic and is also a major center for shipbuilding and repair.
  • Paradwip Port is located on the east coast of India in the state of Odisha
    • . It is a major port for the export of iron ore and other minerals. It also has facilities for handling coal and other bulk cargo.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 10

In India, palm, coconut, keora, agar are the common trees of which of the following forests?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 10

The correct answer is Mangrove Forests

Key Points

Mangrove Forests

  • Found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Mud and silt get accumulated on such coasts.
  • Dense mangroves are the common varieties with roots of the plants submerged underwater.
  • The deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Krishana, the Godavari, and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation.
  • In the Ganga Brahmaputra delta, Sundari trees are found, which provide durable hard timber.
  • Palm, coconut, keora, agar, also grow in some parts of the delta.
  • Royal Bengal Tiger is the famous animal in these forests. Turtles, crocodiles, gharials, and snakes are also found in these forests.

Additional Information

Tropical Evergreen Forests:

  • These forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of the Western Ghats and the island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman, and Nicobar, upper parts of Assam, and Tamil Nadu coast.
  • They are at their best in areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall with a short dry season.
  • The trees reach great heights up to 60 meters or even above.
  • Since the region is warm and wet throughout the year, it has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds.
  • The trees, shrubs, and creepers give it a multilayered structure.
  • There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves.
  • As such, these forests appear green all the year-round

Tropical Deciduous Forests

  • These are the most widespread forests of India.
  • They are also called the monsoon forests and spread over the region receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm.
  • Trees of this forest type shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in dry summer.
  • On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.

Natural vegetation refers to a plant community, which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time. The following major types of vegetation may be identified in our country

  1. Tropical Evergreen Forests
  2. Tropical Deciduous Forests
  3. Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs
  4. Montane Forests
  5. Mangrove Forests
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 11

Name the Football Club that has recently defeated East Bengal Football Club to win the 132nd edition of Durand Cup 2023 trophy.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 11

The correct answer is Mohun Bagan Super Giant.

In News

  • Mohun Bagan SG defeated East Bengal 1-0 in the Durand Cup finals.

Key Points

  • Mohun Bagan Super Giant beat East Bengal (1-0) to win the Durand Cup 2023 trophy at the Salt Lake Stadium in Kolkata, West Bengal.
  • With this victory, Mohun Bagan SG became the first team in Durand Cup history to win 17 titles.
  • With 16 titles, East Bengal are the second-most successful team in the Durand Cup.
  • Nandhakumar Sekar wins Golden Ball.
  • David Lalhlansanga wins Golden Boot.
  • Vishal Kaith wins Golden Glove.
  • Mohun Bagan Super Giant
    • ​It is an Indian professional multi-sports club based in Kolkata, West Bengal.
    • It was founded in 1889 primarily as a football-centred club, it is one of the oldest clubs in Asia.
    • The club is most notable for its victory over the East Yorkshire Regiment in the 1911 IFA Shield final.

Additional Information

  • Kerala Blasters
    • ​It is an Indian professional football club based in Kochi, Kerala.
    • The club was established in May 2014 during the inaugural season of the Indian Super League.
  • ​Mumbai City
    • ​It is an Indian Professional football club based in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
    • It is one of the most successful clubs in ISL history.
  • Chennaiyin
    • ​It is an Indian professional football club based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
    • The club was founded in August 2014 during the inaugural season of the ISL.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 12

The PM Vishwakarma Yojana is aimed to benefit the _________

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 12

The Correct Answer is ​Artisans.

In News

  • Vishwakarma Yojana soon for artisans, says PM Modi.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi, in his Independence Day address to the nation from the ramparts of the Red Fort, announced schemes for artisans — Vishwakarma Yojana — with an allocation of around ₹13,000 crore to ₹15,000 crore to help skill development among youth who are engaged in traditional artisan works.
  • Mr. Modi also promised drones for women self-help groups (SHGs) so that it could be used for agricultural works.
  • Mr. Modi said the Centre is working with women’s SHGs with the aim of creating two crore ‘lakhpati didis’ in villages.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 13

The capital of Emperor Ashoka, the Great, who ruled India for 40 years was then known as,

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 13

The correct answer is ​Pataliputra.

Key Points

  • Ashoka the Great belonged to the Maurya Dynasty.
  • The great ruler Ashoka ruled between 273 – 232 BC.
  • This dynasty was formed by Chandragupta Maurya, in the present-day Bihar, after Defeating the Nanda dynasty ruler-Dhanananda.

Extra facts:

  • There are 14 Major Rock edicts scattered throughout India
  • Each of these edicts represents part of Ashoka's policy of Dhamma
  • They were meant to teach Ashoka's subjects various philosophical and administrative virtues like tolerance, non-violence, and kingship.

Additional Information

  • Taxila:
    • Taxila is an archaeological site containing the ruins of the Gandharan city of Takshashila, an important Vedic/Hindu and Buddhist center of learning from the 6th century BCE to the 5th century CE.
    • In 1980, Taxila has declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    • The renowned archaeologist Sir Alexander Cunningham rediscovered the ruins of Taxila in the mid-19th century.
    • It includes a Mesolithic cave and the archaeological remains of four early settlement sites, Buddhist monasteries, and a Muslim mosque and madrassa.
  • Sarnath was the capital city under the rule of Chandragupta.
  • The Mahabodhi temple in Bodh Gaya is where Gautam Buddha attained Enlightenment.
  • The temple has a Bodhi tree, under which he attained enlightenment.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • It is situated in Bodh Gaya, Bihar.
  • It is one of the holiest places of Buddhism.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 14

What is the theme of the 54th World Economic Forum Annual Meeting 2024?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 14

The correct answer is Rebuilding Trust. In News

  • Union ministers Smriti Irani, Ashwini Vaishnaw, and Hardeep Puri to represent India in WEF Davos meeting.

Key Points

  • The theme of the 54th World Economic Forum Annual Meeting, scheduled from January 15-19, 2024, is "Rebuilding Trust."
  • This annual meeting, which brings together leaders from around the world, aims to drive dialogue, cooperation, and partnerships on various global imperatives.
  • Over 60 heads of state and governments, along with political and business leaders, are expected to attend the event in Davos.
  • The meeting will address complex challenges such as climate change, conflicts, economic crises, and the impact of AI-generated deep fakes.
  • The focus on "Rebuilding Trust" reflects the need to address societal divides, geopolitical tensions, and uncertainties prevailing in the current global scenario.

Additional Information

  • Foundation and Mission:
    • The World Economic Forum (WEF) is an international non-governmental organization founded on January 24, 1971, by German engineer Klaus Schwab.
    • Its mission is to "improve the state of the world" by engaging leaders from various sectors, including business, politics, academia, and civil society, to shape global, regional, and industry agendas.
  • Governance Model:
    • The WEF promotes a multi-stakeholder governance model, emphasizing that a self-selected coalition of multinational corporations, governments, and civil society organizations (CSOs) is best suited for managing the world's affairs.
  • Funding and Membership:
    • The foundation is primarily funded by its 1,000 member multinational companies.
    • Its membership comprises leaders from business, politics, and other fields who actively contribute to the organization's initiatives.
  • Annual Meeting in Davos:
    • The WEF is renowned for its annual meeting held in Davos, Switzerland, at the end of January.
    • The Davos meeting gathers around 3,000 paying members and selected participants, including investors, business leaders, political figures, economists, celebrities, and journalists, for up to five days of discussions on global issues across 500 sessions.
  • Historical Evolution:
    • Founded in 1971 as the European Management Forum, the organization evolved and expanded its vision over the years.
    • Renamed the World Economic Forum in 1987, it transitioned from focusing solely on European business practices to providing a platform for resolving international conflicts.
    • The annual meetings have become a significant global forum for leaders to discuss and address pressing global challenges.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 15

On the banks of which river did the Vedic civilization develop?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 15

The correct answer is Saraswati

Key Points

Vedic civilization flourished along the river Saraswati.

  • Vedic civilization –
    • The Vedic Period is estimated to be from 1500 BC and 500 BC.
    • The period is divided into Early Vedic Period (1500 BC – 1100 BC) and Later Vedic Period (1100 BC - 500 BC).
    • The period is supposed to flourish after the end of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
    • The period gets its name from the Vedas, the sacred text of Hindus, from which the civilization is traced. The civilization is believed to be a group of different tribes.
    • The Bharata tribe lived around the upper regions of the river Saraswati, while the Puru tribe lived to the south of it.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 16

Which of the following pair of confluence is correct?

I. Rudra Prayag - Alaknanda and Mandakini

II. Karna Prayag - Vishnu Ganga and Dhauli Ganga

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 16

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • Prayag refers to the confluence of rivers.
  • We can see five prayags known as Panch Prayag in Uttarakhand which also have a religious significance.
  • Devprayag is the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Bhagirathi.
  • After this junction, the river is known as Ganga.
  • Vishnu Prayag
    • It is the confluence of rivers Vishnu Ganga and Dhauli Ganga
  • Nanda Prayag
    • It is the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Nandakini.
  • Karna Prayag
    • It is the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Pindar Ganga.
  • Rudra Prayag
    • It is the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini.

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 17

Which of the following Provision is a part of both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 17

The correct answer is the Protection of environment.

Key Points

Protection of the environment

  • Article 51 A (g) of the Indian Constitution
    • “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.”​
  • The Directive principles under the Indian constitution are directed toward the ideals of building a welfare state. A healthy environment is also one of the elements of the welfare state.
  • Article 48 (A) of the constitution says that
    • “the state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the country's forests and wildlife”.
  • The 42nd Amendment added this Article, 1976, and places an obligation on the State to protect the environment and wildlife.
  • While not judicially enforceable, Article 48A may become enforceable under the ambit of the right to life under Article 21.
  • Article 21
    • No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 18

The blood-vessel containing deoxygenated blood is

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 18

The correct answer is Pulmonary Artery.

Key Points

  • Concept:
    • In a closed blood circulation system three types of blood vessels are present:
    • Arteries: These carry pure oxygenated blood from the heart to different organs of the body.
    • Veins: These carry impure deoxygenated blood from body organs to the heart.
    • Capillaries: These are present in organs, and these are the vessels through which exchange takes place.
  • Explanation:

    • All the arteries carry pure blood except the pulmonary artery which carries impure blood.
    • The pulmonary artery takes impure deoxygenated blood into the lungs from the right ventricle.
    • Here the blood goes through capillaries adjacent to alveoli and becomes oxygenated as part of the respiration cycle.

Diagram showing pulmonary artery carrying deoxygenated blood to the lungs

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 19

Consider the following statements:

  1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
  2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 19

The correct answer is option C.

Key Points

P and S Waves:

  • Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth.
  • There are two types of body waves.
    • They are called P and S-waves.
  • P-waves:
    • They move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface.
    • These are also called ‘primary waves’.
    • The P-waves are similar to sound waves.
    • They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
    • P waves are characterized by a back-and-forth motion of particles parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
    • On the other hand, S waves, also known as secondary waves or shear waves, cause particles to vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, creating an up-and-down or side-to-side motion. Hence statement 2 is correct
  • S-waves:
    • They arrive at the surface with some time lag.
    • These are called secondary waves.
    • An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials.

Seismograph:

  • In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
  • P waves, also known as primary waves or compressional waves, are the fastest seismic waves and can travel through both solids and liquids.
  • They arrive at a seismograph station before the arrival of S waves, which are slower and arrive after the P waves.
  • Therefore, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves in a seismograph.

Hence statement 1 is correct

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 20

Which daily newspaper was started in Marathi by Bal Gangadhar Tilak?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 20

The correct answer is Kesari.
Kesari was started in Marathi by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Key Points
Bal Gangadhar Tilak:

  • He launched two newspapers that are the Kesari in Marathi and the Maratha in English.
  • He also organized Ganpati Festival in 1893 AD and Shivaji Festival in 1895 AD.
  • Tilak asserted: Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.
  • He was awarded the title of Lokmanya.
  • He was a part of the trio of ‘Lal-Bal- Pal’ and the extremist group.
  • He authored books The Arctic Home of Vedas and Gita Rahasya.

Additional Information

  • Bengal Gazette was started by James Augustus Hicky in the year 1780.
    • It was India's First Newspaper.
    • JA Hicky was from Ireland.
  • Harijan was started by Mahatma Gandhi in the year 1933.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 21

Union Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the country's first Nano DAP plant at which location?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 21

The Correct Answer is Gandhinagar.
In News
Amit Shah inaugurates IFFCO's nano DAP plant in Gandhinagar.

Key Points

  • Union Minister for Home and Cooperation Amit Shah inaugurated IFFCO's nano DAP (liquid) plant at Kalol in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
  • Nano urea is sprayed not on the ground but on the plants and due to this, there is zero possibility of destruction of natural elements or the earthworms present in the soil.
  • If all the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) use nano urea and nano DAP in partnership with IFFCO then very soon all lands will be ready for natural farming.
  • IFFCO has set up pan-India plants in a very modern manner boosting Make in India policy.
  • IFFCO's Kalol unit will produce about 42 lakh bottles of green technology based nano DAP which will benefit the farmers.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 22

At which place Union Minister Nitin Gadkari launches world's first 100% Ethanol-fueled car?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 22

The Correct Answer is New Delhi.
In News
Union Minister Nitin Gadkari launches world's first 100% Ethanol-fueled car in New Delhi.
Key Points

  • In a major move towards reducing carbon dioxide emission and improving fuel efficiency in vehicles, Road Transport and Highways Minister Nitin Gadkari launched the world's first 100 percent Ethanol-fueled car in New Delhi.
  • The world's first BS-VI (Stage-II), electrified flex-fuel vehicle has been launched, which can function fully on ethanol-based fuel.
  • The flex fuel is a technology that allows an engine to utilise ethanol-blended petrol or gasoline beyond 20 percent.
  • The aim is to reduce carbon footprint, improve sustainable mobility and decrease the country's dependency on traditional fuel sources.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 23

Recently In May 2023, A new book titled as ‘My Life as a Comrade’ was seen in news. It has been authored by whom ?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 23

The correct answer is K.K. Shailaja.
In News
Former CEO of the Kochi Biennale Foundation and journalist K.K Shailaja
has come up with her new book ‘My Life as a Comrade’.
Key Points

  • KK Shailaja, former health minister of Kerala, is set to publish her autobiography titled 'My Life As A Comrade' with Juggernaut Books.
  • The book is co-written with Manju Sara Rajan, former CEO of the Kochi Biennale Foundation and a journalist.
  • In her book, Shailaja writes about her life journey from a small settlement in Malabar to a Cabinet position in the State government.
  • Shailaja is a member of the PM Central Committee and is known for her effective handling of the Nipah virus outbreak in Kerala.
  • The book is expected to provide insights into Shailaja's life as a communist, her personal and political struggles, and her rise to prominence in Kerala's politics.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 24
Which part of the Indian Constitution is also called a Unique feature of the Constitution by Dr B.R. Ambedkar?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 24

The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

Key Points

  • Directive Principles of State Policy the Indian Constitution is also called by Dr B.R Ambedkar as a unique feature of the Constitution.
    • Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are mentioned in Part IV of the Indian constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
    • DPSPs are taken from the Constitution of Ireland.
    • Ambedkar described these principles as 'novel features' of the Constitution.
    • Directive Principles of State Policy aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life.
    • They also aim to establish social and economic democracy through a welfare state.

Additional Information

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called the Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32) the "Heart and Soul of the Constitution".
  • In India, the Supreme Court under Article 32 is empowered to issue writs of different types to enforce the Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Indian Constitution.
  • Thus, to make available Right to Constitutional Remedies to every citizen, provisions have been made in the Indian Constitution to issue writs.
  • Thus, the Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226 is empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • 5 Types of Writs
    • There are five types of writs in the Indian Constitution - Habeas Corpus, Certiorari, Quo-Warranto, Mandamus and Prohibition.
  • Writ of Habeas Corpus -
    • This writ literally means 'you may have the body'.
    • This writ is issued to produce a person physically before the court who has been imprisoned or detained by the law and to set him free if there is no legal justification of his detention.
    • This writ can be issued against authorities of states or organisations or individuals.
  • Writ of Certiorari -
    • This writ literally means 'to be certified'. This writ is issued by the higher court to the lower court for quashing the order already passed by the lower court or removing a suit from the lower court to the higher court for speedy disposal.
  • Writ of Quo-Warranto -
    • This writ literally means 'by what warrants' or what is your authority.
    • It is a writ issued by the Supreme Court or High Court with a view to restraining a person or authority from holding a public office to which he is not entitled. The writ requires the concerned person or authority to explain to the Court by what authority he/she holds the office.
  • Writ of Mandamus -
    • This writ literally means 'we command'. It is a judicial writ issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court as a command to an inferior court or tribunal or a person to perform a public or statutory duty.
  • Writ of Prohibition -
    • This writ is popularly known as 'Stay Order'. This writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court to stop proceeding in a case on the ground of over-stepping of jurisdiction or absence of jurisdiction.
    • It is issued before the judgement or order is made in such cases.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 25

Preet writes about an ocean that separates North America from Europe. Which ocean is it?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 25

The correct answer is Atlantic Ocean.
Key Points

  • Atlantic Ocean separates North America from Europe.
  • The Atlantic Ocean is the second-largest ocean in the world, covering an area of approximately 106.4 million square kilometers.
  • The Indian Ocean is the third-largest ocean in the world, covering an area of approximately 70.6 million square kilometers. It is located between Africa, Asia, Australia, and the Indian Ocean Islands.
  • The Arctic Ocean is the smallest ocean in the world, covering an area of approximately 14.05 million square kilometers. It is located around the North Pole and is partly covered by ice throughout the year.
  • The Pacific Ocean is the largest ocean in the world, covering an area of approximately 168.7 million square kilometers. It is located between Asia and Australia to the east and the Americas to the west.

Hence, The correct answer is option A.

RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 26

Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 26

The correct answer is A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2.

Key Points

Peptic ulcer

  • A peptic ulcer is a lesion formed on the lining of the stomach, oesophagus, or small intestine.
  • The most common causes include the bacteria Helicobacter pylori and the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
  • Helicobacter pylori is a bacteria that can enter the body and can live in the digestive tract for many years.
  • Soon or after many years they can cause sores known as ulcers.
  • Most commonly it happens due to the damage of this lining by the stomach acids.
  • Its helical shape is thought to have evolved in order to penetrate the mucoid lining of the stomach and thereby establish infection.
  • It is also called a gastric ulcer. The most common symptom of this ulcer is pain in the abdomen and this pain worsens while eating.
  • It is accompanied by vomiting, weight loss, or poor appetite.

Dengue

  • Dengue is a viral disease and is carried by mosquito vectors
  • It is a highly infectious disease and spreads very fast
  • The mosquito responsible for carrying these disease is Aedes aegypti(female)
  • Anopheles(female) is the carrier of malaria, which is a bacterial disease
  • Culex is the common house mosquito and is known to carry diseases like Encephalitis.

Elephant foot (Elephantiasis):-

  • It is a parasitic worm infection that can spread from person to person through mosquitoes.
  • It is characterized by swelling legs. Elephantiasis is also known as lymphatic filariasis.

Malaria

  • It is a disease caused by Plasmodium, a tiny Protozoan responsible for this disease.
  • Malaria is an infectious disease spread by mosquitos that affect humans.
  • It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, exhaustion, vomiting, and headaches.
  • Different species of Plasmodium (P. vivax, P. malaria, and P. falciparum) are responsible for different types of malaria.
  • Of these, malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious one and can even be fatal.
  • The most serious and fatal form of malaria is caused by Plasmodium falciparum.
  • The vector of Plasmodium is the female Anopheles mosquito which transfers the sporozoites (infectious form).
  • Plasmodium requires two hosts to complete its life cycle- human and mosquito.
  • The infected female Anopheles mosquito transfers the infectious form of Plasmodium, i.e., sporozites to the human body by biting.
  • Antimalarial drugs such as quinine and chloroquine are used to treat the disease.
  • Malaria can be prevented by killing mosquitoes by spraying DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane), BHC (benzene hexachloride), etc, and using insect repellents, mosquito nets, etc.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 27

Which is the second highest mountain in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 27

The correct answer is Kamet
Key Points
Kamet (7,756 metres):

  • ​Kamet, mountain peak of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand state, northern India,
  • It is near the border with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.
  • It is part of the Zaskar range.

Additional Information
Nanda Devi:

  • It is a part of Himalayan mountain ranges (Garhwal).
  • This is the highest peak (7816 metres) located entirely within India.
  • The Nanda Devi National Prak, located in vicinity to the peak, consists of the best high altitude flora and fauna.

Nilkantha:

  • It is a majestic peak with an elevation of 6,596 meters (21,640 feet) above sea level.
  • It is a prominent and sacred mountain in the region, and its name is derived from Lord Shiva, who is often referred to as "Nilkantha" (meaning "blue throat") in Hindu mythology.

Meru:

  • Also known as Meru Peak, is another prominent mountain in the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand, India.
  • It is often confused with Nilkantha due to their similar locations and proximity. Meru Peak is distinct from Nilkantha, and it holds great significance for mountaineers.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 28

This festival was started by the Government of Nagaland In 2000 to encourage interaction among tribes and to promote the cultural heritage of the State. Identify the festival.

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 28

The correct answer is Hornbill festival.
Key Points

  • The Hornbill festival was started by the Government of Nagaland in 2000.
  • The objective of the festival is to encourage interaction among the various tribes of Nagaland.
  • It also aims to promote and preserve the cultural heritage and traditions of the state.
  • It is sometimes referred to as the "festival of festivals" because it represents all the ethnic tribes in Nagaland.
  • The Hornbill Festival is celebrated from 1st to 10th December every year and has been highly successful.

Additional Information
Nazu festival:

  • The Nazu festival is a major celebration among the Pochury tribe of Nagaland.
  • This pre-sowing festival takes place for 10 days before the sowing season begins, typically in February.
  • It is marked by merrymaking, songs, dances, and games.

Gaan-Ngai festival:

  • Gaan-Ngai is the biggest festival of the Zeliangrong community.
  • The Zeliangrong community is a conglomeration of three tribes: Zeme, Liangmai, and Rongmei, found in North-Eastern states of India, primarily Nagaland, Manipur, and Assam.
  • This post-harvest festival happens in December/January and stretches for five days.
  • It involves various traditional rituals and colourful cultural performances.

Nuakhai festival:

  • Nuakhai is an agricultural festival celebrated primarily in the Western part of Odisha to mark the arrival of the new rice harvest.
  • It's a significant social/communal gathering where the goddesses are invoked before the first grain of new crop.
  • The new harvest is celebrated with dances, songs, and a variety of local cuisines.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 29
The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution of India, upon the recommendations of which of the following committees?
Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 29

The correct answer is Swaran Singh Committee.

Key Points

  • The Fundamental Duties of citizens were incorporated into the Constitution of India.
  • This addition was based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
  • The committee, chaired by Swaran Singh, was tasked with studying the feasibility of including Fundamental Duties.
  • The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced these Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
  • These duties emphasize the responsibilities of citizens towards the nation's integrity, harmony, and progress.

Additional Information

  • Raja Chelliah Committee:
    • The Raja Chelliah Committee was formed in 1991 to suggest tax reforms in India.
    • It focused on economic and taxation policies, aiming to improve revenue collection and promote economic growth.
    • Its recommendations led to significant changes in India's tax structure and policies.
  • Santhanam Committee:
    • The Santhanam Committee, officially known as the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, was established in 1962.
    • It aimed to examine measures to combat corruption in various government departments and organizations.
    • The committee's findings and recommendations contributed to the strengthening of anti-corruption efforts in India.
  • Kelkar Committee:
    • The Kelkar Committee, led by Vijay Kelkar, has been associated with multiple economic and financial reforms in India.
    • It has provided recommendations on fiscal policies, taxation, and economic reforms to boost growth and development.
    • The committee's reports have influenced important economic decisions taken by the Indian government.
RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 30

Who has been appointed as the new Managing Director and CEO of SBI Capital Markets as of Feb 2024?

Detailed Solution for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 - Question 30

The correct answer is Virendra Bansal
In News
​Virendra Bansal
has been appointed as the new Managing Director and CEO of SBI Capital Markets as of Feb 2024.
Key Points

  • Virendra Bansal has been appointed as the new Managing Director & Chief Executive Officer of SBI Capital Markets (SBICAPS).
  • He replaces Rajay Kumar Sinha in this role.
  • Rajay Kumar Sinha has been appointed as the Whole Time Member (Finance and Investment) of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI).
  • SBI Capital Markets is the wholly-owned subsidiary and investment banking arm of the State Bank of India (SBI).
View more questions
35 tests
Information about RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3 solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for RRB NTPC General Awareness Test - 3, EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice

Top Courses for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA

Download as PDF

Top Courses for RRB NTPC/ASM/CA/TA