TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 2 - TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) MCQ

The State government is going all out to promote the cultivation of Gloriosa superba, commonly known as flame or glory lily, the State flower of Tamil Nadu, through several subsidy schemes.

• Statement 1 is not correct: There is no such law or constitutional provision that mentions or defines the collegium system.

• Statement 2 is correct: In The Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association Vs Union of India, 1993, a nine-judge Constitution Bench overruled the decision and devised a specific procedure called ‘Collegium System’ for the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary

The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 (MGNREGA) was notified on September 7, 2005.

Statement 1 is correct. The mandate of the Act is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household to do unskilled manual work.

The Act was notified in 200 districts in the first phase with effect from February 2nd 2006 and now it has been extended all over the country. The MGNREGA has given rise to the largest employment programme in human history and is unlike any other wage employment programme in its scale.

The MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee for wage employment.There are legal provisions for allowances and compensation both in cases of failure to provide work on demand and delays in payment of wages.

Statement 2 is correct. The Act incentivises States to provide employment, as 100 per cent of the unskilled labour cost and 75% of the material cost of the programme is borne by the Centre. Thus, a centrally sponsored scheme.

MGNREGA is demand-driven and resource transfer from Centre to States is based on the demand for employment in each State.

Statement 3 is correct. Plans and decisions regarding the nature and choice of works to be undertaken, the order in which each worksite selection etc. are all to be made in open assemblies of the Gram Sabha (GS) and ratified by the Gram Panchayat.

• The Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) cards provide long-term visa-free travel and stay in India and gives the cardholders a host of privileges normally not given to a foreign national. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• With the new notification, an OCI cardholder will now have to take special permission to undertake research work. The Notification also permits OCI cardholders eligible for appearing in all-India entrance tests such as NEET for medical courses, JEE — both Main and Advanced — for engineering or any other tests. However, this will only be against any NRI or supernumerary seat that is over and above the sanctioned intake approved by the appropriate authority and government, from time to time. Hence statement 2 is correct

Swaminathan. It was started in India in 1966.

Statement 1 is correct. The rich peasants and the large landholders were the major beneficiaries of the process.

The green revolution delivered only a moderate agricultural growth (mainly a rise in wheat production) and raised the availability of food in the country, but increased polarization between classes and regions. Some regions like Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh became agriculturally prosperous, while others remained backward.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The green revolution had two other effects: one was that in many parts, the stark contrast between the poor peasantry and the landlords produced conditions favorable for leftwing organizations to organize the poor peasants. Secondly, the green revolution also resulted in the rise of what is called the middle peasant sections. These were farmers with medium size holdings, who benefited from the changes and soon emerged politically influential in many parts of the country.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends. Thus, the pardoning power of the Governor extends to the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any State law.

• Statement 2 is correct: The scope of the pardoning power of the President under Article 72 is wider than the pardoning power of the Governor under Article 161. The power differs in the following two ways:

  • The power of the President to grant pardon extends in cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial but Article 161 does not provide any such power to the Governor.

  • The President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence given is the sentence of death but the pardoning power of the Governor does not extend to death sentence cases.

    Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer

Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House. In this capacity, he enjoys the following powers:

• He advises President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament

• He recommends dissolution of Lok Sabha to the President at any time

• He announces government policies on floor of the house.

• World Hindi Day or Vishwa Hindi Divas is celebrated every year on January 10th to mark the first World Hindi Conference that was held in Nagpur on January 10 in 1975.

• In 2006, former Prime Minister Dr Manmohan Singh declared that January 10 will be observed as World Hindi Day every year.

National Hindi Divas

• India also celebrates National Hindi Divas on September 14th.

• It, however, is different from World Hindi Day as National Hindi Divas is celebrated to commemorate the adoption of Hindi as an official language of India by the

• Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

  • The Constituent Assembly of India accepted Hindi, written in Devanagari script, as the official language of India on September 14th, 1949, under Article 343 of the Indian Constitution.

Eighth Schedule

The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India. The Constitutional provisions relating to the Eighth Schedule occur in articles 344(1) and 351 of the Constitution.

Article 344(1):

• It provides for the constitution of an official language Commission by the President, which shall consist of a Chairman and such other members representing the different languages specified in the Eighth Schedule to make recommendations to the President for the progressive use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union.

Article 345:

• Official language or languages of a State subject to the provisions of Article 346 and 347.

• It would thus appear that the Eighth Schedule was intended to promote the progressive use of Hindi and for the enrichment and promotion of that language. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The migratory bird that traversed the Central Asian Flyway (CAF) is only one of the two — the other has been sighted at Jamnagar in Gujarat.

It's a medium-sized bulky wader with a straight, dark-brown bill and yellowish-brown legs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It has a striped crown with an indistinct white eyebrow. Its upperparts are grey, with dark feather tips; its underparts are white.

Its Scientific Name is Calidris tenuirostris

Its IUCN Protection Status is Endangered.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The provisions which can be amended by a Simple Majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of

Article 368:

1) Admission or establishment of new states.

2) Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.

3) Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

4) Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges etc of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.

5) Quorum in Parliament.

6) Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.

7) Rules of procedure in Parliament.

8) Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.

9) Use of English language in Parliament.

10) Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.

11) Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.

12) Use of official language.

13) Citizenship—acquisition and termination.

14) Elections to Parliament and state legislatures. 15. Delimitation of constituencies.

15) Union territories.

16) Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.

17) Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.

18) To amend the Fundamental rights and Directive principles, Special majority is required.

• The Zonal Councils are Statutory bodies established by the act of the Parliament. Each Zonal Council is headed by the Union Home Minister, Chief Ministers of all States in the zone, Administrator of each Union territory in the zone and two other ministers from each state in the zone.

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 263 President can establish Interstate Council for smooth coordination between centre and states. The Zonal Councils as mentioned above are statutory bodies created by the act of the parliament.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The State Reorganisation Act, 1956 divides the Country into five zones-Northern, Western, Central, Eastern and Southern zones. North Eastern Council Act,1971 created a separate North-Eastern Zonal Council. As per the act, there is no provision of a separate zone for the Union Territories. For example UTs like Chandigarh, Delhi belongs to Northern Zone along with states like Harayana, Punjab.

Statement 2 is correct. The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 also provides for National Council for Transgender persons (NCT). The NCT will consist of: (i) Union Minister for Social Justice & Empowerment (Chairperson); (ii) Minister of State for Social Justice (Vice- Chairperson); (iii) Secretary of the Ministry of Social Justice; (iv) one representative from ministries including Health, Home Affairs, and Human Resources Development. Other members include representatives of the NITI Aayog, and the National

Human Rights Commission. State governments will also be represented. The Council will also consist of five members from the transgender community and five experts from non-governmental organisations.

The Council will advise the central government as well as monitor the impact of policies, legislation and projects with respect to transgender persons. It will also redress the grievances of transgender persons.

• A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the President. The President can issue the removal order only after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (i.e., a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting).

• The grounds for removal are two–proved misbehavior or incapacity. Thus, a judge of a high court can be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. So, Option (a) is not correct.

• On the question of whether a member is subject to any of the general disqualifications, the president’s decision is final. However, it is not under his discretionary power because he should obtain the opinion of the election commission and act to that accordingly.

• Whereas the disqualification regarding anti-defection, under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/ Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review. So, Option (b) is correct.

• Although the chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the president (and not by the governor). The president can remove them on the same grounds and in the same manner as he can remove a chairman or a member of the UPSC. So, Option (c) is not correct.

• Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offense in all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offense against a Union Law, Punishment or sentence is by a court-martial (military court) and Sentence is a sentence of death. So, Option (d) is not correct

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added a Chapter IV-A which consist of only one Article 51-A which dealt with a Code of Ten Fundamental Duties for citizens. Fundamental duties are intended to serve as a constant reminder to every citizen that while the constitution specifically conferred on them certain Fundamental Rights, it also requires citizens to observe certain basic norms of democratic conduct and democratic behaviour because rights and duties are correlative.

Fundamental Duties

Article 51-A Says that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India-

1) to abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions;

2) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;

3) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;

4) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

5) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;

6) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;

7) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wild-life and to have compassion for living creatures;

8) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;

9) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

10) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity, so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement. Further, one more Fundamental duty has been added to the Indian Constitution by 86th Amendment of the constitution in 2002.

11) who is a parent or guardian, to provide opportunities for education to his child, or as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

• In the Berubari Union case (1960), Supreme Court recognized the significance of the Preamble. Supreme Court mentioned that assistance from Preamble could be taken in the interpretation of articles that are ambiguous or capable of more than one meaning. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• It also mentioned that Preamble shows general purposes behind several provision in the constitution and is thus a key to the minds of the makers of the constitution. However, Supreme Court specifically mentioned that the Preamble is not a part of the constitution.

• In Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It observed that Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble. The Supreme Court also held that the Preamble could be amended as long as basic features of the Constitution enshrined in the Preamble are not amended.

• In the LIC of India Case (1995) also, Supreme Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the constitution. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Correct answer-Option D

The Advocate General of a state is the highest law officer in the state.
- Eligibility criteria include:
- Being a citizen of India.

- shouldn't be more than 62 years of age
- Having been an advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years or a judicial officer for at least 10 years.

- Should be eligible to be appointed as a judge of the High Court

The Supreme Court of India was established on January 26, 1950.

Zilla Parishad is the highest-tier Panchayati Raj institution at the district level, responsible for coordination and supervision of all Panchayat Samitis within the district.

Article 32 of the Indian Constitution empowers individuals to approach the Supreme Court directly for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, making it an essential feature of the Constitution.

The President of India can refer a question of law to the Supreme Court, and it should be heard by a minimum of three judges.