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TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test TNPSC Mock Test Series 2024 - TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 for TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) 2024 is part of TNPSC Mock Test Series 2024 preparation. The TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) exam syllabus.The TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 below.
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TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

How many districts in Tamilnadu ?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

It's the most populous state in Southern India. As of 2021, the list of districts in Tamil Nadu is a total of 38 districts in Tamil Nadu.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Who is the frist state first governor of Tamilnadu ?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Sardar Ujjal Singh is the fisrt governor of tamilnadu from 14 January 1969, to 27 May 1971, 1st. He was appointed by Zakir Hussain.

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TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Which of the following book is considered as the ‘Odyssus of Tamil poetry’?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Manimekalai is a sequel of an epic ‘Silappatikaram’ written by Seethalai Saathanaar and is considered as the ‘Odyssus of Tamil poetry’.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Meenakshi Amman Temple is located in the bank of the river ?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Arulmigu Meenakshi Sundareshwarar Temple is a historic Hindu temple located on the southern bank of the Vaigai River in the temple city of Madurai, Tamil Nadu, India.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Which City is known as the Rice Bowl of Tamil Nadu ?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

Thanjavur district is known as Rice Bowl of Tamil Nadu because of its paddy cultivation activities in the Cauvery delta region.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Ekamabaranadhar temple of Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu was built by__?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Kanchipuram is known as the “city of a thousand temples. The 192 feet high temple tower of Ekamabaranadhar temple and the 100-pillar mandabam (building) in Varadaraja Perumal temple in this town are famous, and are considered marvels of the architectural techniques of the Vijayanagara dynasty.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

The earliest name of Chennai is Chennaipattinam, which referred to the town around the Fort St George in 1639-40. The place was acquired by the British from ___?

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

In which of the famous temple of Tamil Nadu, Shiva is worshipped as "Natraja"?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

In Chidambaram temple Lord Shiva is worshipped as Natraja which is dancing form of lord Shiva. It is Tamil Nadu.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

The Rapid Transit System in Tamil Nadu is located in ?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

The Chennai Metro is a rapid transit rail system in the Tamil Nadu capital city of Chennai.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Which city is also known as temple city of Tamil Nadu ?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Madurai is temple city of India, also known as the city that never sleeps, technically because of its nightlife, is supposedly said to be the second capital of Tamil Nadu. Getting its name as the temple city, it was built around the Meenakshi Amman temple.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Consider the following statements:

  1. If any minister disagrees with a cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign.

  2. The council of ministers are individually responsible to the chief minister of the state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 11
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. The principle of collective responsibility means that the cabinet decisions bind all cabinet ministers (and other ministers) even if they deferred in the cabinet meeting. It is the duty of every minister to stand by the cabinet decisions and support them both within and outside the state legislature. If any minister disagrees with a cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign. Several ministers have resigned in the past owing to their differences with the cabinet.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 164 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the governor (so state minister responsible to the governor not chief minister).

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

Consider the following statements with reference to Swaran Singh Committee:

1. It recommended the duty to pay taxes as Fundamental Duty.

2. It suggested a penalty for the non-performance of Fundamental Duties.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 12
  • In 1976, Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was set up to make recommendations about Fundamental Duties. The committee suggested the incorporation of eight Fundamental Duties in the constitution but ten fundamental duties were added to it by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

  • Some of the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee were not accepted by the government.

  • These include:

    • The parliament may provide for the imposition of penalty for non-compliance with any of the Fundamental Duties. Hence statement 2 is correct.

    • No law imposing such penalty shall be challengable in the court on grounds of infringement of Fundamental Rights or any other grounds of incompatibility with any other provision of the constitution.

    • Duty to pay taxes should also be a Fundamental Duty of the citizens. Hence statement 1 is correct.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution provides for the Right to Protest peacefully to the citizens under Article 19.

  2. Article 22 of the Constitution provides that no person can be punished for the same offence more than once.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 13
Statement 1 is correct. Article 19(1)(b) provides the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.

Article 19 – Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech etc

All citizens shall have the right

(a) to freedom of speech and expression;

(b) to assemble peaceably and without arms;

(c) to form associations or unions;

(d) to move freely throughout the territory of India;

(e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and

(f) omitted

(g) to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

Statement 2 is incorrect. It is Article 20 which provide certain rights with relation to conviction-

Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences

  • No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of the law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence

  • No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once

  • No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself

Article 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

  • No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice

  • Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in custody beyond the said period without the authority of a magistrate.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Which of the following statements in the context of the Fundamental Duties is not correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 14
  • Fundamental Duties are enforceable by law. The Parliament can provide for the imposition of appropriate punishment for noncompliance with any of the Fundamental Duty. Justice Verma Committee in 1999 identified legal provisions for the implementation of some of the Fundamental Duties.

  • Fundamental Duties help the court in determining and examining the constitutional validity of a law. In 1992, Supreme Court observed that in determining constitutionality of any law, if that law gives effect to any of the fundamental Duty then it would be considered reasonable in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) and Article 19 (Six freedoms) and such law would not be termed unconstitutional.

  • Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and not extended to foreigners. However, some of the Fundamental Rights (except Article 15, Article 16, Article 19, Article 29, Article 30) are also extended to foreigners.

  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is a fundamental duty.

  • Hence option (c) is the correct answer

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

It is a Constitutional body established under the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Which body is it?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 15
Recently, the Union Cabinet gave the 13th extension to the Justice Rohini Commission, giving it time until January 31, 2023, to submit its report.
  • National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) is a constitutional body (123rd constitutional amendment Bill 2017 and 102nd amendment 2018 in constitution to make it constitutional body) (Article 338B of the Indian Constitution)

  • According to Article 338B, It shall be the duty of the Commission—

    • to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the socially and educationally backward classes under this Constitution or under any other law for the

    • time being in force or under any order of the Government and to evaluate the working of such safeguards;

    • to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the socially and educationally backward classes;

    • to participate and advise on the socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union and any State;

    • to present to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards;

    • to make in such reports the recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union or any State for the effective implementation of those safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare and socio-economic development of the socially and educationally backward classes; and to discharge such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and development and advancement of the socially and educationally backward classes as the President may, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament, by rule specify.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

Consider the following statements with respect to Fundamental Duties:

  1. The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the erstwhile USSR constitution.

  2. The constitution says nothing about the enforcement of these duties.

  3. The enjoyment of rights is dependent on the fulfilment of duties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 16
  • The fundamental duties were not part of the original constitution. It was added in 1976 through the 42nd amendment act. Originally, ten duties were added as fundamental duties as part IV-A of the constitution which consists of article 51-A. However, in 2002, another duty was added through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.

  • The fundamental duties were added to the constitution based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee. These are inspired by the constitution of the erstwhile USSR. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • Swaran Singh committee also recommended the provisions of the punishment for non-compliance with duties. However, it was not added to the constitution. Constitution says nothing about enforcing these duties. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Fundamental Duties could be used by the courts in examining the constitutional validity of a law. Parliament can also enforce it through law.

  • Constitution does not make the enjoyment of rights dependent or conditional upon the fulfilment of duties. Hence statement 3 is not correct. This represents that the inclusion of fundamental duties has not changed the status of our fundamental rights.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Constitution of India?

  1. It restricts the exercise of power by state.

  2. Its philosophy is enshrined in its preamble.

  3. It is the exercise of political self-determination.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 17
Statement 1 is correct. Experience of state power the world over shows that most states are prone to harming the interests of at least some individuals and groups. Constitutions provide the basic rules that prevent states from turning tyrannical. It is widely agreed that one reason for having constitutions is the need to restrict the exercise of power by state.

Statement 2 is correct. Legal provisions and institutional arrangements depend upon the needs of the society and the philosophy adopted by the society. The Constitution gives expression to this philosophy. The institutional arrangements are based on a core and commonly agreed vision. That vision has historically emerged through our struggle for independence. The Constituent Assembly was the platform on which this vision was stated, refined and articulated in legal-institutional form. Thus, the Constitution becomes the

embodiment of this vision. Many people have said that the best summary of this vision or the philosophy of the Constitution is to be found in the preamble to our Constitution.

Statement 3 is correct. A constitution provides peaceful, democratic means to bring about social transformation. Moreover, for a hitherto colonized people, constitutions announce and embody the first real exercise of political self-determination.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Imposition of President’s rule in a state would be improper under which of the following situations?

  1. In case of hung assembly after general elections.

  2. Where a ministry resigns and no other party is able to form ministry commanding majority.

  3. Maladministration in the state due to allegations of corruption.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 18
  • Imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be proper in the following situations:

    • Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is, ‘Hung Assembly’. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

    • Where the party having a majority in the assembly declines to form a ministry and the governor cannot find a coalition ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.

    • Where a ministry resigns after its defeat in the assembly and no other party is willing or able to form a ministry commanding a majority in the assembly. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

    • Where a constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state government.

    • Internal subversion where, for example, a government is deliberately acting against the Constitution and the law or is fomenting a violent revolt.

    • Physical breakdown where the government wilfully refuses to discharge its constitutional obligations endangering the security of the state.

  • The imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be improper under the following situations:

    • Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly and the governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without probing the possibility of forming an alternative ministry.

    • Where the governor makes his own assessment of the support of a ministry in the assembly and recommends imposition of President’s Rule without allowing the ministry to prove its majority on the floor of the Assembly.

    • Where the ruling party enjoying majority support in the assembly has suffered a massive defeat in the general elections to the Lok Sabha such as in 1977 and 1980.

    • Internal disturbances not amounting to internal subversion or physical breakdown.

    • Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state. Hence statement 3 is correct.

    • Where the state government is not given prior warning to rectify itself except in case of extreme urgency leading to disastrous consequences.

    • Where the power is used to sort out intra-party problems of the ruling party, or for a purpose extraneous or irrelevant to the one for which it has been conferred by the Constitution.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Poshan Abhiyaan’:

  1. It was launched in year 2017.

  2. It aims to address malnutrition through convergence, use of technology and a targeted

  3. Approach.

  4. It targets to reduce stunting, under-nutrition, anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 19
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is incorrect. POSHAN Abhiyaan was launched on 8th March 2018 by the Prime Minister in Jhunjhunu.

Statement 2 is correct. POSHAN Abhiyaan to address Malnutrition through Convergence, Use of Technology and a Targeted approach.

Statement 3 is correct. The Abhiyaan targets to reduce stunting, under-nutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively.

The target of the mission is to bring down stunting among children in the age group 0-6 years from 38.4% to 25% by 2022.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution:

  1. The President can limit the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part of India.

  2. The President can issue a proclamation of a National Emergency merely on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 20
  • A proclamation of national emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part of it. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the President to limit the operation of a National Emergency to a specified part of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.

  • The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

  • In 1975, the then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi advised the president to proclaim an emergency without consulting her cabinet. The cabinet was informed of the proclamation after it was made, as a fait accompli. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced this safeguard to eliminate any possibility of the prime minister alone taking a decision in this regard.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

The ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine was propounded by the Indian Judiciary in

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 21
Option c is correct

The ‘basic structure’ doctrine is the invention of the Judiciary. It was propounded by the Indian Judiciary on 24th April 1973 in Keshavananda Bharati case.

The basic structure doctrine is an Indian judicial principle, most notably propounded by Justice Hans Raj Khanna, that the Constitution of India has certain basic features that cannot be altered or destroyed through amendments by the Parliament of India.

During the controversy between the Judiciary and the Parliament, the Parliament thought that it had the power and responsibility to make laws (and amendments) for furthering the interests of the poor, backward and the needy.

The Judiciary insisted that all this has to take place within the framework provided by the Constitution and pro-people measures should not bypass legal procedures, because, once you bypass laws even with good intentions, that can give an excuse to the power holders to use their power arbitrarily. And democracy is as much about checks on arbitrary use of power as it is about the well-being of the people.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

Which of the following bill when passed by both the Houses of the Parliament puts an obligation on the Indian President to give his/her assent?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 22
  • When a money bill is presented to the president, he may either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill but cannot return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses. So, Option (a) is not correct.

  • When a Financial bill is presented to the President, he can either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses. So, Option (b) is not correct.

  • The president must give his assent to a Constitution Amendment bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament. This is the only bill for which the President must give his assent at the first instance. So, Option (c) is correct.

  • All the ordinances issued by the president (during the recess of the Parliament) must be approved by the Parliament within six weeks after its reassembly. The Ordinance replacing bill has to follow the same procedure as the Ordinary Bill. So, Option (d) is not correct.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Consider the following statements Ayushman Bharat –Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY):

  1. It was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

  2. It will provide cashless and paperless access to services for the beneficiary at the point of service.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 23
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Statement 1 is correct. Ayushman Bharat –Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) was launched by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi in Ranchi, Jharkahnd on September 23, 2018.This is the “world’s largest government funded healthcare program” targeting more than 50 crore beneficiaries. It is launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Statement 2 is correct. PMJAY will provide cashless and paperless access to services for the beneficiary at the point of service.

PMJAY will also help reduce catastrophic expenditure for hospitalizations, which impoverishes people and will help mitigate the financial risk arising out of catastrophic health episodes.

Ayushman Bharat- Pradhan Mantri Jan ArogyaYojana (PMJAY) will provide a cover of up to Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year, for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.

Over 10.74 crore vulnerable entitled families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) will be eligible for these benefits.

PMJAY will provide cashless and paperless access to services for the beneficiary at the point of service.

PMJAY will help reduce catastrophic expenditure for hospitalizations, which impoverishes people and will help mitigate the financial risk arising out of catastrophic health episodes.

Entitled families will be able to use the quality health services they need without facing financial hardships.

When fully implemented, PMJAY will become the world’s largest fully government-financed health protection scheme. It is a visionary step towards advancing the agenda of Universal Health Coverage (UHC).

FEATURES OF THE SCHEME:

Ayushman Bharat is a progression towards promotive, preventive, curative, palliative and rehabilitative aspects of Universal Healthcare through access of Health and Wellness Centers (HWCs) at the primary level and provision of financial protection for accessing curative care at the secondary and tertiary levels through engagement with both public and private sector.

It adopts a continuum of care approach, comprising of two inter-related components: Creation of 1,50,000 Health and Wellness Centres which will bring health care closer to the homes of the people.

These centres will provide Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC), covering both maternal and child health services and non-communicable diseases, including free essential drugs and diagnostic services. The first Health and Wellness Centre was launched by the Prime Minister at Jangla, Bijapur, Chhatisgarh on 14th April 2018.

The second component is the Pradhan Mantri Jan ArogyaYojana (PMJAY) which provides health protection cover to poor and vulnerable families for secondary and tertiary care.

The Health and Wellness Centres will play a critical role in creating awareness about PMJAY, screening for non- communicable diseases, follow-up of hospitalization cases among others.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission:

  1. The constitution of India provides for its composition.

  2. The Chief Justice of a High Court can be appointed as its chairman.

  3. Its recommendations are only advisory in nature.

Which of the statements given above are Correct?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 24
  • Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the Finance Commission as a balancing wheel of Fiscal Federalism in India. It is a quasi-judicial body constituted by the President every fifth year or such earlier time as he considers necessary.

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 280 of the Constitution fixes the composition of the commission. It provides that the Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. They hold the office under the pleasure of the President and are eligible for reappointment.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament under the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951 specifies the qualifications of the Chairman and members of the Commission. As per the act, the Chairperson should be a person having experience in public affairs. So persons under the three organs of state whether Executive, Legislative or Judiciary are eligible for appointment. P. V. Rajamannar who was Chief Justice of Madras High court was Chairman of the 4th Finance Commission.

  • Statement 3 is correct: Though Finance Commission is a Quasi-Judicial body but its recommendations are not binding on the government. recommendations are only advisory in nature and it is up to the government whether to implement recommendations or not.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding princely state of Hyderabad?

  1. It was the largest of the Princely States surrounded entirely by the Indian territory.

  2. It was acceded to the Indian union by way of police action.

  3. It was the first part of India to hold an election based on universal adult franchise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 25
Before 15 August 1947, peaceful negotiations had brought almost all states whose territories were contiguous to the new boundaries of India, into the Indian Union. The rulers of most of the states signed a document called the ‘Instrument of Accession' which meant that their state agreed to become a part of the Union of India. Accession of the Princely States of Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur proved more difficult than the rest. The issue of Junagarh was resolved after a plebiscite confirmed people’s desire to join India.

Statement 1 is correct. Hyderabad, the largest of the Princely States was surrounded entirely by Indian territory. Some parts of the old Hyderabad state are today parts of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 2 is correct. Operation Polo was the code name of the Hyderabad "police action" in September 1948, by the then newly independent Dominion of India against Hyderabad State. It was a military operation in which the Indian Armed Forces invaded the Nizam-ruled princely state, annexing it into the Indian Union.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on universal adult franchise.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26
What was the key provision mentioned in Section 7(l)(b) of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 26
In Section 7(l)(b) of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, it was specified that the suzerainty of the British Crown over the Indian States would lapse. This meant that the British Crown's authority and control over the princely states would come to an end. This provision marked a significant turning point in India's struggle for independence and had far-reaching consequences for the future of the princely states.
TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
Which article of the Indian Constitution defines India as the "Union of States"?
Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 27
Article 1 of the Indian Constitution defines India as the "Union of States" and specifies the territories that constitute the Union, including states, union territories, and any territories that may be acquired by India.
TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28
Which of the following rights is NOT granted to citizens of India as per the Constitution?
Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 28
The Constitution grants citizens of India various rights, including equality of opportunity in public employment, freedom of speech, and the right to vote. However, the right to own private property is not explicitly mentioned as a constitutional right.
TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

Part III of the Indian Constitution, from Articles 12 to 35, deals with Fundamental Rights. These rights are considered essential for the protection and well-being of citizens.

TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Directive Principles of State Policy are based on the principles of:

Detailed Solution for TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Directive Principles of State Policy are based on the principles of socialism and represent the ideals to be achieved by the State for the welfare of its citizens.

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