TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 4 - TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) MCQ

Poosapati Sanjeevi Kumarswamy Raja was an Indian politician who served as the Chief Minister of Madras Presidency from 6 April 1949 to 10 April 1952 and Governor of Orissa between 1954 till 1956.

A constituency is all of the constituents of a representative.Present and Past Members of Parliament of India from Tamilnadu state. 18 Rajya Sabha members and 39 Lok Sabha members are elected.

The capital of Chola Kingdom was Uraiyaur that was famous for cotton trade and Purhar.

Jallikattu is typically practised in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu as a part of Pongal celebrations on Mattu Pongal day, which occurs annually in January.

The textile industry flourishes in the Coimbatore-Tiruppur belt in Tamil Nadu. Coimbatore is known as the “Manchester of South India” because it is a hub for the textile industry. Tirupur is also known as India’s “Banian City”. Tamil Nadu is home to 50% of India’s textile mills. The region also has clusters of knitting, weaving, and medical device manufacturing. The four major cities in Tamil Nadu that contribute to the growth of the textile industry are: Coimbatore, Tirupur, Salem, Erode.

Cauvery is longest rivr in Tamil Nadu from adjoining Karnataka where it flows for about one-third of the total length. The other rivers are Adyar, Courtaliar, South Pennar, Periyar, Vaigai and Tampreparni.

The Vainu Bappu Observatory is owned and operated by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics. It is located at Kavalur in the Javadi Hills, near Vaniyambadi in Vellore district of Tamil Nadu. It is 200 km south-west of Chennai and 175 km south-east of Bangalore.

The Tamil Nadu Mediation and Conciliation Centre, India's first Court-Annexed Mediation Centre, was inaugurated on 9th April, 2005, thus marking another significant milestone in the hoary history of the Madras High Court established on 15th August, 1862.

Madrasapattinam was a fishing village north of Fort St. George. The name Chennai from Madras was officially changed in 1996.

The Tamil Nadu Legislative Council (Abolition) Bill, 1986 was passed by both houses of the Parliament and received the assent of the president on 30 August 1986. The Act came into force on 1 November 1986 and the council was abolished.

The correct statement is: It prevents individuals from adopting hereditary titles like Maharaja.

Explanation:

Article 18 of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of titles. According to this article:

1. No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign state.
2. No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument, or office of any kind from or under any foreign state.
3. No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State.
4. No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State shall, without the consent of the President, accept any title from any foreign state.

Thus, Article 18 prevents individuals from adopting hereditary titles like Maharaja and prohibits Indian citizens from accepting any title from a foreign state. However, a foreigner holding an office of profit under an Indian state can accept emoluments with the President's prior consent.

The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is a government agency in India that functions as a repository of information on crime and criminals. It was created in 1986 by the Ministry of Home Affairs and is responsible for collecting and analyzing crime data as well as publishing reports on crime statistics.

However, the first statement is incorrect. The NCRB is not a statutory organization under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. Instead, it operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs, which is responsible for maintaining law and order in India.

• Statement a is incorrect and Statement c is correct: Citizenship is a bond/relationship between an individual and a country to which the individual owes allegiance and is entitled to protection in return. Citizenship implies a state of liberty with associated responsibilities. Certain rights, obligations, and responsibilities are granted to all citizens but are denied or only partially provided to non-citizens residing in that country. It is also about citizen-citizen relations and involves certain obligations of citizens to each other and to the society. Equality of rights and status is one of the basic rights of citizenship. It is not merely the freedom to purchase property within a country. Also, non-citizen too can purchase property upon fulfilling certain conditions.

• Statement b is incorrect: Birthright citizenship is the legal right for children born in a country to be citizens of that country. Birthright citizenship is a constitutional mandate in many countries, but nations do not require that this notion be recognized as law. Despite the number of countries that do not enforce birthright citizenship, many countries recognize birthright citizenship for anyone and everyone who is born within the country's borders. Some countries offer birthright citizenship on a conditional basis.

• Statement d is incorrect. Citizenship is not the mere entitlement of residence in a country. Citizenship refers to full and equal membership of nation state but also certain obligation and rights to citizens. Citizens expect certain rights from their state as well as help and protection wherever they may travel.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Kitchen Cabinet is an informal body consists of the Prime Minister and two to four influential colleagues in whom he has faith and with whom he can discuss every problem. It’s functions are not determined by the cabinet.

Statement 2 is correct: It helps the Prime Minister in maintaining secrecy in making decisions on important political issues.

KB) The cabinet, a small body consisting of the prime minister as its head and some 15 to 20 most important ministers, is the highest decision-making body in the formal sense. However, a still smaller body called the inner Cabinet or Kitchen Cabinet has become a real centre of power. It advises the prime minister on important political and administrative issues and assists him in making critical decisions. This informal body consists of the prime minister and two to four influential colleagues in whom he has faith and with whom he can discuss every problem. It is composed of not only cabinet ministers but also outsiders like friends and family members of the prime minister.

• In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court took a wider interpretation of Article 21 and held that the ‘right to life’ as embodied in Article 21 is not merely confined to animal existence or survival but it includes within its ambit the right to live with human dignity and all those aspects of life which go to make a man’s life meaningful, complete and worth living.

• It also ruled that the expression ‘Personal Liberty’ in Article 21 is of the widest amplitude and it covers a variety of rights that go to constitute the personal liberties of a man.

• Regarding the issue of the right to travel abroad in the case of Satwant Singh Sawhney vs D. Ramarathnam, the Supreme Court established the “expression” personal liberty takes the right of locomotion and to travel abroad.

• Supreme Court in the case of Satish Chandra Verma vs. Union of India 2019, reiterated that the right to travel abroad is a genuine and basic human right like marriage and family

  • The right to travel abroad is an important basic human right for it nourishes the independent and self-determining creative character of the individual, not only by extending his freedoms of action but also by extending the scope of his experience

• Right to reputation has been an integral part of Article 21 of the Constitution. Every individual has a right to live a dignified life. Reputation and honor are connected with dignity and thus, constitute an inalienable part of human life.

• In the recent judgment of Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, the apex court held that the reputation of an individual is a basic element under Article 21 of the Constitution

• Supreme Court in Attorney General of India v. Lachma Devi held that the direction for the public execution of the death sentence by Rajasthan High Court was unconstitutional and violative of Article 21.

• It was further made clear that death by public hanging would be a barbaric practice. Even if the crime for which the accused has been found guilty is barbaric it would be a shame on the civilized society to reciprocate the same.

• In the case of Prem Shankar v. Delhi Administration 1980, the Supreme Court struck down the rules which stated that every person who is under trial for a non-bailable offense punishable with more than three years imprisonment has to be routinely handcuffed.

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Statement 2 is correct. During India’s freedom movement, Mahatma Gandhi had strongly pleaded for decentralization of economic and political power. He believed that strengthening village panchayats was a means of effective decentralization. All development initiatives must have local involvement in order to be successful. Panchayats therefore were looked upon as instruments of decentralisation and participatory democracy.

• Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. It can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. So, Option (a) is correct.

• The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission from the president. So, Options (b) and (c) are correct.

• The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for deliberation and passage of the bill. So, Option (d) is not correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Target Olympic Podium Scheme is a flagship program of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. It has been formulated under the ambit of National Sports Development Fund (NSDF). The NSDF aims to mobilize resources from Government as well as non-government organizations and individuals to provide required support for promotion of specific sports disciplines.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme was established in 2014 in order to realize India’s Olympic medal dreams, at 2016 (Rio) and 2020 (Tokyo) Olympics.KB)

The scheme seeks support preparation of athletes so that they can win Olympic medals in 2020 and 2024 Olympics. Under the Scheme, the Department of Sports identifies athletes who are potential medal winners in 2020 / 2024 Olympics. The scheme prioritises Archery, Badminton, Boxing, Hockey, Shooting and Wrestling.

Mission Olympic Cell has also been created to assist the athletes who are selected under the TOP Scheme.

• Quo Warranto means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.

• The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office.

• Any interested person and not necessarily the aggrieved person can seek Quo Warranto writ. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform the official duties that he has failed or refused to perform.

• It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or government for the same purpose.

• The writ of mandamus cannot be issued

  • against a private individual or body. Hence statement 2 is correct.

  • to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force

  • when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory

  • to enforce a contractual obligation

  • against the president of India or the state governors

  • against the chief justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity

• Certiorari means ‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter in a case.

• It is issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law. Thus, unlike prohibition, which is only preventive, certiorari is both preventive as well as curative.

• Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting the rights of individuals.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Statement 2 is correct.

Directive Principles lists mainly three things:

• the goals and objectives that we as a society should adopt;

• certain rights that individuals should enjoy apart from the Fundamental Rights; and

• certain policies that the government should adopt.

Directive principles of State policy are Non-justiciable rights.

Difference between Justiciable and Non-Justiciable Rights–

Justiciable rights are those rights which can be enforced by the courts, such as the Fundamental Rights, constitutional rights (like Right to Property) and other legal rights.

Non-justiciable rights are those rights that cannot be enforced by the courts and hence a citizen cannot approach the court for their enforcement. These are certain rights that find mention in the Directive principles of State policy, directing the State to ensure that these are made available to the citizens through government policy.

Statement 3 is incorrect. While Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature, there are certain other rights provided in the Indian Constitution which are also justiciable in nature. Such rights are referred to as constitutional rights. For instance, Article 300-A of the Indian Constitution provides for Right to property.

Similarly, Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18.

• Option c is correct: The concept of principled distance entails a state to maintain equal distance from all religion.

• Principled distance from religion is the essence of Indian secularism. Secularism in the Indian context calls for is the maintenance of a “principled distance” between state and religion. This does not mean that the state cannot intervene in religion and its affairs, but that any intervention should be within the limitations prescribed by the Constitution.

• Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally. The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion and the state. The 42nd amendment of the Constitution of India amended the Preamble of the Constitution declaring India as a secular nation. In India secularism means the state views all religions as equal.

• Option a is incorrect: The doctrine of harmonious construction (and not principled distance) is used to avoid any inconsistency and repugnancy within a section or between a section and other parts of a statute. In case of any debate about a law, the interpretation which is consistent with all the provisions and makes the enactment consistent with the Constitution shall prevail.

• Option b is incorrect: Separation of power defines the relation between executive, legislature and judiciary. In order to prevent the misuse of power by any one branch of government, the Constitution says that each of these organs should exercise different powers. Through this, each organ acts as a check on the other organs of government and this ensures the balance of power between all three.

• Option d is incorrect: Principle of Federal Supremacy is related to the superiority of centre over states in exercise of power. Article 246 of the Indian constitution provides a system of hierarchy with Union list at the apex followed by a concurrent list and then state list i.e. when a dispute arises between the state and centre regarding the legislative competency, the union will prevail over the state. Similarly, in case of a conflict between concurrent list and state list, the former will prevail.

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner and determines his conditions of service and tenure of office. However, the State Election Commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the grounds as a judge of the High Court.

Statement 2 is correct. He appoints the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission.

However, they can be removed only by the President and not by a Governor.

Statement 3 is incorrect. He acts as the chancellor (not vice-chancellors) of universities in the state. He also appoints the vice-chancellors of universities in the state.

Statement 4 is correct. He appoints the chief minister and other ministers. They also hold office during his pleasure.

KB) Executive Powers

The executive powers and functions of the Governor are:

• All executive actions of the government of a state are formally taken in his name.

• He can make rules specifying the manner in which the Orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated.

• He can make rules for more convenient transactions of the business of a state government and for the allocation among the ministers of the said business.

• He appoints the chief minister and other ministers. They also hold office during his pleasure. There should be a Tribal Welfare minister in the states of Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha appointed by him. The state of Bihar was excluded from this provision by the 94th Amendment Act of 2006.

• He appoints the advocate general of a state and determines his remuneration. The advocate general holds office during the pleasure of the governor.

• He appoints the state election commissioner and determines his conditions of service and tenure of office. However, the state election commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of a high court.

• He appoints the chairman and members of the state public service commission. However, they can be removed only by the president and not by a governor.

• He can seek any information relating to the administration of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation from the chief minister.

• He can require the chief minister to submit for the consideration of the council of ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.

• He can recommend the imposition of constitutional emergency in a state to the president. During the period of President’s rule in a state, the governor enjoys extensive executive powers as an agent of the President.

• He acts as the chancellor of universities in the state. He also appoints the vice-chancellors of universities in the state.

• A bill contemplating the changes under Article 3 has to satisfy two conditions:

  • such a bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President;

  • before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.

• The President is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.

• Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.

• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Part III of the Constitution: Fundamental Rights

1. Right to Equality

Equality before law

• Equal protection of laws Prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth

• Equal access to shops, hotels, wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, etc.

• Equality of opportunity in public employment

• Abolition of Untouchability

• Abolition of titles

2. Right to Freedom Protection of Right to

• Freedom of speech and expression;

• Assemble peacefully;

• Form associations/ unions;

• Move freely throughout the territory of India;

• Reside and settle in any part of India;

• Practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

• Protection in respect of conviction for offences

• Right to life and personal liberty

• Right to education

• Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

3. Right against Exploitation

• Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor

• Prohibition of employment of children in hazardous jobs

4. Right to Freedom of Religion

• Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and

• propagation of religion

• Freedom to manage religious affairs

• Freedom to pay taxes for promotion of any particular religion

• Freedom to attend religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions

5. Cultural and Educational Rights

• Protection of language, culture of minorities

• Right of minorities to establish educational institutions

6. Right to Constitutional Remedies

• Right to move the courts to issue directions/ orders/ writs for enforcement of rights

• The Preamble to a Constitution embodies the fundamental values and the philosophy, on which the Constitution is based, and the aims and objectives, which the founding fathers of the Constitution enjoined the polity to strive to achieve.

• The Supreme Court in the Berubari Union case (1960) held that the “Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.”

• It further said the Preamble can be used as a guiding principle if a term in any article of the Constitution is ambiguous or has more than one meaning.

• Later in Kesavanand Bharti case (1973), the Supreme Court reversed its ruling and held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can also be amended under Article 368 of the Constitution. Preamble, therefore, is a part of the Constitution.

• The preamble states the objects of the Constitution and is not enforceable in court thus has no legal effect independently of other parts.

A constitutional case in a High Court must be heard by at least two judges.