TNPSC Prelims Paper 1 Mock Test - 7 - TNPSC (Tamil Nadu) MCQ

Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park and as Anaimalai Wildlife Sanctuary, is a protected area in the Anaimalai Hills of Pollachi and Valparai taluks of Coimbatore District

The Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) in Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari District of Tamil Nadu is one of the protected areas having diverse flora and fauna.

Subramanya Bharathi (1882-1921) also known as Mahakavi Bharathiyar was a pioneer of modern Tamil poetry. Subramanya Bharati’s songs are a part of contemporary popular culture and have featured in Tamil cinema in last many decades and also been set to music by famous composers like Illayaraja and sung by celebrated artistes like M.S. Subbulakshmi. He published his first two collections of poems Swades, Gitanga and Janmabhoomi in 1908. His entire Tamil Literature can be divided into several parts of which the most prominent are the patriotic poems and the devotional poems viz. the Kannan Pattu (collection of songs devoted to Krishna) and Kuyil Pattu (Songs of Kuyil). It was only after his death in 1921, that his literary greatness came to be more and more appreciated and the value of his works Kannan-pattu and Kuyil- pattu was fully recognized. Today, Bharathiar is a household name in Tamil Nadu and a revered poet in rest of India.

Just 3 kilometres from Yercaud Lake, the striking Kiliyur Falls in the Servaroyan hill range of Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu state.

India, Sri Lanka, Singapore are the countries that has provided Tamil language official status. Srilanka did not recognise Tamil language nor tamil people before which created internal disturbance in the country.

The holy Hindu town of Kanchipuram was the Pallava capital in the 7th and 8th centuries. The great Kailasanatha Temple was built by the ruler(Narasimhavarman II) Rajasimha (A.D.700-728) at the beginning of the 8th century.

Tamil Nadu has 32 districts out of which, 13 districts have a coastline. The 13 districts that share the coastline are Thiruvallur, Chennai, Kanchipuram, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Thiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur, Pudukottai, Ramanathapuram, Thoothukudi, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari.

Thanjavur district is called 'The Rice Bowl of Tamil Nadu' because of its agricultural activities in the delta region of river Cauvey. The temple, culture and architecture of Thanjavur are famous throughout world.

Siege of Madras refers to an important event during the 7 years war when the British and French were fighting in India for their supremacy. It was a seize of the Madras which was divided into Black Town and White town at that time. The Black town refereed to the area populated by the Indian Natives and White town referred to the area populated by British around St. Fort George. The French invaded the black town which remained unprotected. Here, they looted the houses of the natives. They advanced towards the White Town where they are resisted by the British Forces. The French were led by Thomas Arthur, Lally. When additional British force arrived Madras, the French withdrew and this was a huge setback to French.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Rights are meant to promote political democracy in the country. They prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country. Also, they protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the state.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There have been certain changes in Part III of the Constitution,however the total number of Fundamental Rights have remained the same. Article 31 i.e ‘Right to Property’ was removed and Article 21A i.e’ Right to Education’ was added to the fundamental rights. Hence, there overall number did not change.

KB) According to the Indian Constitution, there are six basic Fundamental Rights of Indian Citizens, which are right to equality, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, right to freedom, right to constitutional remedies and right against exploitation. Article 12 to 35 of the Indian Constitution covers the Fundamental Rights of the citizen of the country. Fundamental Rights enumerated in Part III of the Indian Constitution are categorized under 7 sections apart from the general segment.

Patenting in India

• A patent is an exclusive set of rights granted for an invention, which may be a product or process that provides a new way of doing something or offers a new technical solution to a problem.

• Indian patents are governed by the Indian Patent Act of 1970.

• India became a party to the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement.

• India is also a signatory to several IPR-related conventions including:

  • The Berne Convention which governs copyright,

  • The Budapest Treaty,

  • The Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property ○ The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) governs various patent-related matters.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Any member of the Parliament can be appointed to the Council of Ministers, irrespective of whether they are nominated or elected to the Parliament.

Statement 3 is correct. Constitution has put a limit on the size of the Council of Ministers to 15% of the strength of the House of the People via 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. Before the 91st Amendment Act (2003), the size of the Council of Ministers was determined according to exigencies of time and requirements of the situation.

Doctrine of purposive construction:

• It is the modern version of mischief rule. It is actually more flexible compared to literal rule and golden rule which tends to concentrate more on the meaning of individual words or phrases. This looks for the purpose of the law.

• This rule allows judges to add or ignore any of the words in the statute while interpreting in order to protect the purpose of creating that law and give fair and equal justice to everyone.

Statement 1 is correct. Constituent assembly did ratify India’s membership to the Commonwealth.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Constituent Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise.

The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) together with its sister Covenant, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), and the Universal Declaration, form the International Bill of Human Rights which is the pillar for human rights protection within the United Nations.

• Universal Declaration on Human Rights (a non-legally binding document) was adopted in 1948.

• In 1966, two separate treaties, covering almost entirely all the rights enshrined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights were adopted after approximately 20 years of negotiations ICESCR is an international human rights treaty, it creates legally binding international obligations to those States that have agreed to be bound by the standards contained in it. Hence statement 1 is correct.

• The Committee on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights is the supervisory body of the International Covenant on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights. It was established under United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) Resolution. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Statement 2 is correct. Prime Minister has to either be a Member of Parliament (i.e. either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) at the time of his appointment or become one within six months from his appointment. He does not have to be a member of Lok Sabha only.

Special Provisions relating to certain classes are class-specific and not gender-specific. The

Option is more generic and does not relate to the protection given to the girl child in the

question. So, Option (b) is not correct.

In Fundamental duties apart from providing opportunities for education to a child, no specific

provision is given to protect the interest of a girl child. So, Option (c) is not correct.

Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:

(a) Government and Parliament of India i.e. executive and legislative organs of the Union government.

(b) Government and legislature of states i.e. executive and legislative organs of state government.

(c) All local authorities i.e. municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.

(d) All other authorities i.e. statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.

Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.

According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12. High Court does not comes under article 12 of Indian constitution.

• Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

• The framers of the Constitution made the Directive Principles non-justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:

• The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them. To implement all the directive principles the newly formed independent state would require an enormous amount of financial resources and this would be a challenge to the country. Keeping in this regard they were made non-justiciable. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The presence of vast diversity and backwardness in the country would stand in the way of their implementation. The directive principles are so diverse in character and constitutional makers felt that making them justiciable may create obstacles for the newly independent country as some of the directive principles like the Uniform Civil Code were opposed by some communities. They wanted to give the state sufficient time and a place of choosing to India's future leaders implement them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Fundamental rights already have been made justiciable and making Directive principles justiciable will be meaningless. Hence statement 3 is not correct as making Directive Principles justiciable will not be meaningless and in fact making them justiciable can create a socially just and egalitarian society. They were not made justiciable for the above two reasons.

• The Constitution makers, therefore, taking a pragmatic view, refrained from giving teeth to these principles. They believed more in an awakened public opinion rather than in court procedures as the ultimate sanction for the fulfilment of these principles.

administrative officers cannot act in violation of the policies adopted by the legislature. It is the responsibility of the ministers to retain political control over the administration.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Administrative machinery in India comprises of Permanent Executive. It is not composed of the Political appointees of the government in power. India has established professional administrative machinery. At the same time, this machinery is made politically accountable. The bureaucracy is also expected to be politically neutral. This means that the bureaucracy will not take any political position on policy matters.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Other than the civil servants belonging to the State services, All India Services officers like IAS, IPS and IFS work under the supervision of the State governments but they can be removed only by the Central government.

An IAS or IPS officer is assigned to a particular State, where he or she works under the supervision of the State government. However, the IAS or IPS officers are appointed by the central government, they can go back into the service of the central government and most importantly, only the central government can take disciplinary action against them. This means that the key administrative officers of the States are under the supervision and control of the central government.

According to article 311, no person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed.

• According to article 257(1) of the Constitution, the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union, and the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for that purpose. So, Option (a) is correct.

• The executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the State is enshrined in article 257(3) of the Indian Constitution. So, Option (b) is correct.

• According to article 257(2), the executive power of the Union shall also extend to the giving of directions to a State as to the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared in the direction to be of national or military importance: Provided that nothing in this clause shall be taken as restricting the power of Parliament to declare highways or waterways to be national highways or national waterways or the power of the Union concerning the highways or waterways so declared or the power of the Union to construct and maintain means of communication as part of its functions concerning naval, military and air force works.

  Hence, it does not require prior approval from the State Government and the Union itself can do it. So, Option (c) is not correct.

• Under article 260 of the Indian Constitution, The Government of India may by agreement with the Government of any territory not being part of the territory of India undertake any executive, legislative or judicial functions vested in the Government of such territory, but every such agreement shall be subject to, and governed by, any law relating to the exercise of foreign jurisdiction for the time being in force. So, Option (d) is correct.

Parliament is not bound by the recommendations of committees. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Types of parliamentary committees:

1. Broadly, parliamentary committees are of two kinds:

• Standing Committees: They are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

• Ad Hoc Committees: They are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them. For instance, to deliberate on a particular bill.

2. Referring bill to the committee:

• Currently, it is not mandatory to refer a Bill to a Committee.

• In some Parliamentary systems like the UK, all Bills other than Money Bills are automatically referred to Committees.

• However, in India, it depends on the decision of the Speaker or Chairman, in consultation with the Minister putting forth the Bill, whether a Bill should be referred to a Committee.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:

• Admission or establishment of new states. Hence option 1 is correct.

• Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states.

• Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.

• Second Schedule–emoluments, allowances, privileges, and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.

• Quorum in Parliament.

• Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.

• Rules of procedure in Parliament.

• Privileges of the Parliament, its members, and its committees.

• Use of English language in Parliament.

• Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.

• Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court. Hence option 4 is correct.

• Use of official language. Hence option 2 is correct.

• Citizenship–acquisition and termination.

• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures. Hence option 3 is correct.

• Delimitation of constituencies.

• Union territories.

• Fifth Schedule–administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.

• Sixth Schedule–administration of tribal areas.

All States now have a uniform three tier Panchayati Raj structure:

At the base is the ‘Gram Panchayat‘. A Gram Panchayat covers a village or group of villages.

Option a is incorrect. The intermediary level is the Mandal (also referred to as Block or Taluka). These bodies are called Mandal or Taluka Panchayats. The intermediary level body need not be constituted in smaller States.

Option b is correct. At the apex is the Zilla Panchayat covering the entire rural area of the District.

Option c is correct. The amendment also made a provision for the mandatory creation of the Gram Sabha. The Gram Sabha would comprise of all the adult members registered as voters in the Panchayat area. Its role and functions are decided by State legislation.

Option d is correct. The term of each Panchayat body is five years. If the State government dissolves the Panchayat before the end of its five year term, fresh elections must be held within six months of such dissolution. This is an important provision that ensures the existence of elected local bodies. Before the 73rd amendment, in many States, there used to be indirect elections to the district bodies and there was no provision for immediate elections after dissolution.

Article 14 ensures the Right to Equality, which states that all individuals are equal before the law and are entitled to equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

The concept of a welfare state in the Indian Constitution is inspired by the Directive Principles of State Policy of Ireland.