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MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: Test: Parliament (15 Questions)

You can prepare effectively for BPSC (Bihar) Indian Polity for State PSC Exams with this dedicated MCQ Practice Test (available with solutions) on the important topic of "Test: Parliament". These 15 questions have been designed by the experts with the latest curriculum of BPSC (Bihar) 2026, to help you master the concept.

Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 20 minutes
  • - Number of Questions: 15

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Test: Parliament - Question 1

With regard to the election of Rajya Sabha members, consider the following statements:

  1. The election to Rajya Sabha is conducted by the Rajya Sabha secretariat.
  2. The provision of the election of Rajya Sabha members was borrowed from the Constitution of South Africa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Article 80 establishes Council of States. Article 330 reserves SC/ST seats in Lok Sabha but not Rajya Sabha. Article 324 vests election superintendence power in Election Commission for Parliament, state legislatures, President, and Vice-President. India borrowed from South African Constitution: amendment procedures and election to Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is correct.

Test: Parliament - Question 2

Evaluate the following statements about Indian states and their parliamentary or assembly seats:

  1. Uttar Pradesh holds the maximum number of Rajya Sabha seats.
  2. Jharkhand has the greatest number of Lok Sabha seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs).
  3. Maharashtra ranks second in the total number of Assembly seats among Indian states.

How many of the statements above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

Under Article 80 and Fourth Schedule, Rajya Sabha seats allocated based on state population. Uttar Pradesh (most populous) has 31 Rajya Sabha seats, highest among all states. Delimitation Commission 2008 determines Lok Sabha ST-reserved seats (47 total). Madhya Pradesh: 29 Lok Sabha seats, 6 reserved for STs (highest among states). Maharashtra has 288 Assembly seats (third highest); West Bengal 294 (second); Uttar Pradesh 403 (largest).

Test: Parliament - Question 3

With regard to the powers and immunities of Members of Parliament, consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India grants the members of Parliament freedom of speech inside the Indian Parliament.
  2. They are exempt from arrest in civil and criminal cases during sessions, as well as for 40 days before and after the session.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Parliamentary privileges grant MPs freedom of speech in Parliament per Article 105(1), subject to constitutional provisions and rules. Article 105(2) grants absolute immunity from civil and criminal proceedings for speech and votes within Parliament. MPs enjoy immunity from civil arrest during sessions and 40 days before and after, but not for criminal or preventive detention cases.

Test: Parliament - Question 4

With reference to the Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

  1. A joint sitting is summoned by the President under the Constitution's provisions.
  2. Joint sitting is not applicable to Constitutional Amendment Bills.
  3. No Joint sitting has been convened since the commencement of the Constitution.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Article 108 empowers President to summon joint sitting when bill rejected by one House, houses disagree on amendments, or six months elapsed without agreement. Constitutional Amendment Bills governed by Article 368, requiring separate passage with special majority—no joint sitting provision. Three joint sittings held historically: Dowry Prohibition Bill 1961, Banking Service Commission Repeal Bill 1977, Prevention of Terrorism Bill 2002.

Test: Parliament - Question 5

In India's parliamentary proceedings, during the 'Question Hour', which of the following types of questions requires an oral answer from the ministers?

1. Starred questions

2. Unstarred questions

3. Short Notice Questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 5

  • Starred questions are those for which a minister gives an oral answer in the House and the member asking the question may put supplementary questions.
  • Unstarred questions are answered in written form and do not allow supplementary questions in the House.
  • Short Notice Questions are admitted at short notice on matters of urgent public importance and are also answered orally, with an opportunity for supplementary questions.

Therefore, two types - Starred and Short Notice - require oral answers. Hence option B (2 Only two) is correct.

Test: Parliament - Question 6

Consider the following statements comparing a Censure Motion with a No-Confidence Motion:

  1. Unlike a No-Confidence Motion, a Censure Motion can be moved against an individual Minister.
  2. A Censure Motion must state the grounds for its adoption, whereas a No-Confidence Motion does not need to specify any grounds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Censure Motion is government censure form for censuring council of ministers on specific policies/actions. Requires stating reasons and can target individual/group ministers or entire council. No-confidence motion expresses legislature's government lack of confidence, forcing resignation/dissolution. Passed against entire Council only, no reason requirement. Constitution doesn't explicitly mention no-confidence motion; Article 75(3) implies collective minister responsibility to Lok Sabha. Only three NCMs resulted in actual government fall (1990, 1997, 1999).

Test: Parliament - Question 7

Referring to the procedures relating to resolutions in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

  1. A member who has moved a resolution or an amendment to a resolution may withdraw it without the House's permission.
  2. All resolutions are put to a vote and may be adopted or rejected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Resolution is self-contained proposal for House approval, discussion strictly relevant to resolution scope. Member cannot withdraw resolution except with House permission. All resolutions are substantive motions requiring vote; all motions need not be substantive. Private members' resolutions require 12 days notice; government resolutions require 7 days.

Test: Parliament - Question 8

With reference to the Deputy Speaker, evaluate the following statements:

  1. S/he can be removed by a resolution passed by an absolute majority.
  2. Whenever s/he is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, s/he automatically becomes its chairman.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

A: 1 only

Statement 1 is correct. The Deputy Speaker can be removed from office only by a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, which is an absolute majority (i.e., more than 50% of the total membership of the House at that time). Removal is effected by the House itself through this prescribed resolution.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Membership of a parliamentary committee does not by itself confer the chairmanship. Chairmanships are determined separately under the Rules of Procedure and relevant parliamentary practice - by election, by nomination, or by specific provision - and are not automatically given to the Deputy Speaker simply because the Deputy Speaker is appointed to a committee. The Deputy Speaker is not ex officio chairman of all committees to which they are made a member.

Therefore, only the first statement is correct and the second is wrong.

Test: Parliament - Question 9

In the context of the Parliament of India, what does the 'Rule of Lapse' refer to?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

Budget based on annuality principle—Parliament grants money for one financial year only. Unexpended balance expires returning to Consolidated Fund via 'rule of lapse', facilitating parliamentary financial control preventing unauthorized reserves. Creates 'March Rush'—heavy expenditure toward financial year close.

Test: Parliament - Question 10

With regard to the process of nominating members to the Rajya Sabha, evaluate the following statements:

  1. The President of India can nominate upto twenty members to the Rajya Sabha.
  2. Nominated members are not allowed to vote in the election of the President.
  3. They are not eligible to be appointed as ministers in the Union Cabinet.

How many of the statements above are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

President nominates 12 Rajya Sabha members for expertise in literature, science, art, social service. Nominated members vote in VP election but not President election. They can be appointed ministers; no constitutional bar exists despite not being directly elected.

Test: Parliament - Question 11

Within the context of India's parliamentary procedures, consider the following statements about Zero Hour:

  1. It is an informal instrument through which Members of Parliament can raise urgent matters of public importance without prior notice.
  2. It begins immediately after the Question Hour in both Houses.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

 

Detailed Solution: Question 11

Statement 1 is correct. Zero Hour is an informal parliamentary device that developed in India in the 1960s and enables Members to raise matters of urgent public importance without prior notice. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure and functions by convention.

Statement 2 is correct. By convention Zero Hour begins immediately after the Question Hour in both Houses. The precise timing, duration and whether a particular matter is admissible during Zero Hour are determined by the Speaker/Chair, since there is no statutory provision fixing its procedure.

Therefore, both statements are correct; the right choice is Both 1 and 2 (Option C).

Test: Parliament - Question 12

Which of the following categories of bills require the President's prior permission before being introduced in the legislature?

  • 1. A Union Bill involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
  • 2. A State Bill restricting trade, commerce, or intercourse within the state.
  • 3. A Union Bill for alteration of state boundaries or creation of a new state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Article 117(1): Bills involving Consolidated Fund expenditure require President's recommendation. Article 304(b): State bills imposing trade restrictions require President's sanction. Article 3: Bills creating new states, altering boundaries, renaming states require President's recommendation, referred to affected legislatures.

Test: Parliament - Question 13

How many of the motions listed below are admissible only in the Lok Sabha?

  1. 1. No Confidence Motion
  2. 2. Adjournment Motion
  3. 3. Censure Motion

Choose the correct option using the code provided below.

Detailed Solution: Question 13

Lok Sabha has special powers regarding collective responsibility and financial matters. No-Confidence Motion, Adjournment Motion, and Censure Motion admissible only in Lok Sabha. No-Confidence Motion tests ministerial confidence per Article 75(3). Adjournment Motion addresses urgent public importance. Censure Motion criticizes specific policies—all relevant only to Lok Sabha's control function.

Test: Parliament - Question 14

Consider the following qualifications:

  1. Citizen of India
  2. Not less than 25 years of age
  3. Registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.

How many of the above qualifications are mentioned in the Constitution to become a member of the Lok Sabha?

Detailed Solution: Question 14

Under Article 84 of the Constitution of India, the qualifications for becoming a member of the Lok Sabha are:

  • A person must be a citizen of India
  • A person must be not less than 25 years of age
  • The Constitution also mentions that a person should possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed by Parliament

Now, the condition “registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency” is not directly mentioned in the Constitution. It is provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which is a law made by Parliament.

Therefore:

  • Citizen of India — mentioned in the Constitution
  • Not less than 25 years of age — mentioned in the Constitution
  • Registered as an elector — not mentioned in the Constitution

Final Answer: Only two

Test: Parliament - Question 15

Upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, which of the following Bills lapses?

  1. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha.
  2. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha which originated in the Lok Sabha.
  3. A Bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the President.
  4. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 15

Bills lapse on Lok Sabha dissolution if: originating in and pending in Lower House; passed by Rajya Sabha but pending in Lok Sabha; originating and passed in Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha. Bills don't lapse if: pending in Rajya Sabha but not passed by Lok Sabha; cleared both Houses pending Presidential assent; joint sitting notified before dissolution.

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