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Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd with solutions Attempt


MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 (25 Questions)

You can prepare effectively for UPSC Current Affairs & Hindu Analysis: Daily, Weekly & Monthly with this dedicated MCQ Practice Test (available with solutions) on the important topic of "Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025". These 25 questions have been designed by the experts with the latest curriculum of UPSC 2026, to help you master the concept.

Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 30 minutes
  • - Number of Questions: 25

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Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 1

What is the key focus of Pharmacogenomics in revolutionizing drug therapy?

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Pharmacogenomics aims to customize drug therapy based on individual genetic profiles, shifting away from a universal approach to a more personalized and effective form of treatment. By analyzing how an individual's genetic makeup influences their response to medications, pharmacogenomics helps in tailoring treatments to enhance therapeutic outcomes and minimize adverse reactions, thus revolutionizing the field of drug therapy.

(Note: Pharmacogenomics is a significant advancement that emphasizes the importance of considering genetic variations in drug responses, leading to more precise and tailored treatment regimens for patients.)

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 2

Consider the following pairs related to the First-ever Individual Entitlement Survey for PVTGs and Juvenile Justice Boards:

1. PVTGs identified under Article 342(1) of the Constitution - Correct

2. Odisha has the highest number of PVTGs followed by Andhra Pradesh & Telangana - Correct

3. High Pendency rate in Juvenile Justice Boards is uniform across all states - Incorrect

4. Janjatiya Gaurav Divas is observed on Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's birth anniversary - Incorrect

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

1. PVTGs identified under Article 342(1) of the Constitution - This is correctly matched. Article 342(1) deals with the identification of Scheduled Tribes, and PVTGs are a sub-category within Scheduled Tribes, thus correctly identified under this Article.

2. Odisha has the highest number of PVTGs followed by Andhra Pradesh & Telangana - This is also correctly matched. Odisha indeed has the highest number of recognized PVTGs (13), followed by Andhra Pradesh & Telangana with 12.

3. High Pendency rate in Juvenile Justice Boards is uniform across all states - Incorrect. The pendency rate is not uniform across all states; it varies significantly. For instance, Odisha has a high pendency rate of 83%, while Karnataka has a much lower rate of 35%.

4. Janjatiya Gaurav Divas is observed on Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's birth anniversary - Incorrect. Janjatiya Gaurav Divas is observed on the birth anniversary of Birsa Munda, not Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. This day honors tribal contributions and their heritage.

Thus, only the first two pairs are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 3

What is a characteristic feature of the LCA Tejas Navy variant?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

The LCA Tejas Navy variant is specifically designed as a carrier-capable version, intended for operations on aircraft carriers. This variant is crucial for naval operations and ensures the adaptability of the Tejas aircraft for diverse military requirements.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 4

What is the primary objective of the revamped UDAN (Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik) regional air connectivity scheme proposed by the Government of India?

Detailed Solution: Question 4

The main goal of the UDAN scheme is to democratize air travel for the common citizen, aiming to enhance regional air connectivity and make air travel more affordable, especially for underserved and remote regions across the country. This initiative intends to extend the benefits of air travel to a wider section of the population, thereby boosting regional connectivity and accessibility.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 5

What is the purpose of the first-ever Individual Entitlement Survey being launched by the Central Government for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)?

Detailed Solution: Question 5

The purpose of the first-ever Individual Entitlement Survey for PVTGs is to track access to identified central welfare schemes such as MGNREGS, social security for unorganised workers, pensions, scholarships, and major welfare programs among 10 lakh PVTG households across India. This survey aims to evaluate the coverage of these schemes and ensure that the benefits reach the intended beneficiaries effectively.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 6

Consider the following statements regarding Tetrachloroethylene:

1. Tetrachloroethylene is a noncombustible chemical that is insoluble in water and evaporates quickly from water into air.

2. Prolonged exposure to Tetrachloroethylene is linked to an increased risk of liver diseases and can cause dizziness, headaches, and unconsciousness.

3. Tetrachloroethylene is primarily used in the production of pharmaceuticals and not in dry cleaning.

Detailed Solution: Question 6

- Statement 1 is correct. Tetrachloroethylene, also known as perchloroethylene, is a clear, colorless liquid that is noncombustible and insoluble in water. It is known to evaporate quickly from water into air, which makes it a volatile organic compound capable of traveling long distances in the environment.

- Statement 2 is correct. High levels of exposure to Tetrachloroethylene have been linked to serious health issues, including an increased risk of liver diseases. Other health effects can include dizziness, headaches, sleepiness, incoordination, confusion, nausea, unconsciousness, and even death.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. Tetrachloroethylene is extensively used in dry cleaning and for grease removal in both industrial and household settings, not primarily in the production of pharmaceuticals. It is a common solvent in the dry cleaning industry due to its effectiveness in removing stains and its non-flammability.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 7

Consider the following pairs:

1. Tejas Mk1A - Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA)

2. Fifth-Generation Fighter Aircraft - Stealth shaping and supercruise capability

3. Delhi's Air Crisis - Caused primarily by industrial emissions

4. Wicked Problem - Complex issue without straightforward solutions

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 7

1. Tejas Mk1A - Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA): Incorrect. The Tejas Mk1A is an enhanced version of India’s Light Combat Aircraft (LCA), not the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), which is a separate project under development.

2. Fifth-Generation Fighter Aircraft - Stealth shaping and supercruise capability: Correct. Fifth-generation fighter aircraft are characterized by features such as stealth shaping, materials to reduce radar visibility, and supercruise capability.

3. Delhi's Air Crisis - Caused primarily by industrial emissions: Incorrect. Delhi's air crisis is caused by multiple factors, including stubble burning, vehicle emissions, firecracker emissions, and industrial emissions. It is not primarily due to industrial emissions alone.

4. Wicked Problem - Complex issue without straightforward solutions: Correct. The term "wicked problem" refers to complex issues that are difficult to solve due to their interconnected and multifaceted nature, as is the case with Delhi's air pollution problem.

Two pairs (2 and 4) are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 8

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

The Individual Entitlement Survey aims to evaluate the coverage of 39 welfare schemes among 10 lakh Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) households in India.

Statement-II:

PVTGs are identified as a highly vulnerable sub-category within Scheduled Tribes with minimal access to health, education, and modern systems.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Statement-I is accurate as it reflects the purpose of the Individual Entitlement Survey, which is to assess the reach of various welfare schemes among PVTG households. Statement-II correctly describes PVTGs as a vulnerable subgroup within Scheduled Tribes with limited access to essential services like health and education. Statement-II further supports Statement-I by providing context on the vulnerable nature of the group being surveyed. Hence, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the rationale behind Statement-I.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 9

Consider the following statements regarding the Individual Entitlement Survey for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):
1. The survey aims to track access to central schemes such as MGNREGS and social security for unorganized workers among all Scheduled Tribes in India.
2. It is conducted by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs with the aid of state governments, panchayats, and NGOs.
3. After the survey, each member of the surveyed groups will receive a Universal Entitlement Card specifying eligibility for government schemes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 9


- Statement 1: This statement is incorrect. The Individual Entitlement Survey specifically targets Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), not all Scheduled Tribes. The survey evaluates the coverage of 39 welfare schemes among 10 lakh PVTG households across India.
- Statement 2: This statement is correct. The survey is indeed conducted by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs with support from state governments, panchayats, and NGOs. This collaborative approach ensures comprehensive data collection and implementation.
- Statement 3: This statement is correct. After the survey, each member of the surveyed groups will receive a Universal Entitlement Card, which specifies their eligibility for government schemes. This card aims to streamline access to various welfare benefits for PVTGs.
Thus, the correct answer is Option D: 2 and 3 Only, as only statements 2 and 3 accurately describe aspects of the Individual Entitlement Survey for PVTGs.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 10

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
Pharmacogenomics focuses on customizing drug therapies based on individual genetic profiles.

Statement-II:
The POCSO Act, 2012, is inherently gender-neutral and designed to protect all children from sexual offenses.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 10


Statement-I correctly defines pharmacogenomics as the customization of drug therapies based on individual genetic profiles, aligning with the core concept of pharmacogenomics. Statement-II accurately describes the nature of the POCSO Act, emphasizing its gender-neutral design and intent to safeguard all children from sexual offenses. However, the two statements pertain to different topics and do not have a direct explanatory relationship. Hence, while both statements are individually correct, Statement-II does not directly explain or relate to Statement-I, making option (B) the correct choice.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 11

What is the primary habitat preference of the Indian Pond Heron?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

The Indian Pond Heron primarily favors a variety of shallow aquatic habitats, which can be either fresh or saltwater, and may be natural or human-made. These herons are often seen standing still at the water's edge, waiting patiently to catch their prey.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 12

What was a significant outcome of the 30th UN Climate Conference (COP30) held in Belem, Brazil?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

The 30th UN Climate Conference (COP30) held in Belem, Brazil, resulted in a significant outcome where a dedicated roadmap to combat deforestation was introduced. This initiative aims to mobilize resources for forest conservation, foster cross-border cooperation to combat illegal logging, and provide support systems for forest and indigenous communities. This underscores a strong political commitment to tackle global deforestation, highlighting the importance of prioritizing forest protection, biodiversity conservation, and indigenous rights in climate actions.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 13

Consider the following pairs:

1. Pharmacogenomics - Tailors cancer treatment based on genetic makeup of tumors

2. POCSO Act - Gender-specific legislation aimed at protecting children

3. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) - Provides early childhood education and nutrition in India

4. International Day of Care and Support - Established to promote only paid care work globally

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 13

1. Pharmacogenomics - Tailors cancer treatment based on genetic makeup of tumors: This pair is correctly matched. Pharmacogenomics involves customizing cancer treatments based on the genetic profile of both the tumor and the patient. This is a key application of pharmacogenomics in oncology to improve treatment efficacy and reduce adverse effects.

2. POCSO Act - Gender-specific legislation aimed at protecting children: This pair is incorrectly matched. The POCSO Act is designed to be gender-neutral, as it applies to all children regardless of the gender of the perpetrator. The legislative intent supports protection for all children and does not use gender-specific language.

3. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) - Provides early childhood education and nutrition in India: This pair is correctly matched. ICDS is a major program in India that offers early childhood education, nutrition, and health care services to children under six years of age, as well as pregnant women and lactating mothers.

4. International Day of Care and Support - Established to promote only paid care work globally: This pair is incorrectly matched. The International Day of Care and Support was adopted to emphasize the recognition, redistribution, and appropriate valuation of both unpaid and paid care work. It aims to highlight the importance of care work globally, not just paid care work.

Only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, so the correct answer is Option B: Only two pairs.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 14

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:
The Tejas Mk1A is an enhanced version of India's Light Combat Aircraft (LCA), designed to improve combat capability, survivability, and ease of maintenance over the earlier Mk1 variant.

Statement-II:
The LCA Tejas Programme was initiated in 1984 by the Government of India to replace the aging MiG-21 fleet and is overseen by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Detailed Solution: Question 14


Statement-I correctly describes the enhancements and purpose of the Tejas Mk1A, highlighting its advancements over the previous Mk1 variant. Statement-II accurately provides information about the initiation of the LCA Tejas Programme in 1984 and its objective to replace the aging MiG-21 fleet under the oversight of the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA). Statement-II explains the context and background of the Tejas Mk1A mentioned in Statement-I, making both statements correct and logically connected.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 15

Consider the following statements:

1. The record trade deficit of $41.68 billion in October is primarily due to the imposition of a 50% tariff by the U.S., which has severely impacted India's export sectors.

2. The increase in India’s trade deficit is attributed to a significant rise in gold and silver imports, driven by economic uncertainties.

3. India’s agricultural procurement system is efficient and supports effective crop diversification, reducing dependency on imports for pulses and edible oils.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 15

1. Statement 1 is correct. The record trade deficit of $41.68 billion reported in October is indeed largely due to the imposition of a 50% tariff by the U.S., which has significantly affected India’s export sectors, particularly those where the U.S. was a major market.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The increase in the trade deficit is attributed to a rise in gold and silver imports, which has been driven by economic uncertainties, as highlighted in the text.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect. The text indicates systemic issues within India’s agricultural procurement framework, such as inefficiencies and corruption, which hinder crop diversification. This situation contributes to India's reliance on imports for pulses and edible oils, rather than reducing it.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 2, making Option B the correct choice.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 16

Which of the following statements is most appropriate to explain India’s vulnerability as highlighted in recent developments related to chemical exposure, biodiversity observations, and external trade trends?

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Option C correctly integrates the implications of all three developments:

  • Science & Technology: Tetrachloroethylene poses public health risks, especially liver-related diseases, indicating industrial and regulatory challenges.
  • Environment & Ecology: Changing migration patterns in species like the Indian Pond Heron reflect ecological stress and environmental change.
  • Economy: India’s record trade deficit and rising dependence on the U.S. market highlight structural economic vulnerability.

Together, these issues indicate systemic weaknesses cutting across health, environment, and economy—not isolated problems.
Other options either downplay the risks, show incorrect economic interpretation, or disconnect global trade pressures from internal vulnerabilities.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 17

Consider the following pairs regarding Tetrachloroethylene and Indian Pond Heron:

1. Tetrachloroethylene - Used primarily in dry cleaning

2. Tetrachloroethylene - Highly soluble in water

3. Indian Pond Heron - Listed as Endangered on IUCN Red List

4. Indian Pond Heron - Found in both fresh and saltwater habitats

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 17

1. Tetrachloroethylene - Used primarily in dry cleaning: Correct. Tetrachloroethylene is extensively used in the dry cleaning industry, as mentioned in the provided information.

2. Tetrachloroethylene - Highly soluble in water: Incorrect. Tetrachloroethylene is described as insoluble in water in the data provided.

3. Indian Pond Heron - Listed as Endangered on IUCN Red List: Incorrect. The Indian Pond Heron is classified as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List.

4. Indian Pond Heron - Found in both fresh and saltwater habitats: Correct. The Indian Pond Heron prefers a variety of shallow aquatic habitats, which can be either fresh or saltwater, as per the provided content.

Thus, pairs 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 18

What is the primary objective of the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950?

Detailed Solution: Question 18

The main objective of the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950 is to manage large-scale migration from East Pakistan following the Partition. This Act was created to address the significant political and demographic issues arising from the migration and to regulate the status of individuals deemed as illegal immigrants in Assam.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 19

Consider the following statements regarding Pharmacogenomics:

1. Pharmacogenomics is a subset of genomic medicine and involves tailoring treatments based on a person's genetic makeup.

2. In cardiology, pharmacogenomics is used to predict heart attack risks in patients based on genetic variations.

3. Pharmacogenomics can help reduce healthcare costs by minimizing adverse drug reactions.

Detailed Solution: Question 19

1. Statement 1 is correct. Pharmacogenomics is indeed a subset of genomic medicine, which focuses on tailoring medical treatments to the individual characteristics of each patient, including their genetic makeup. This aligns with the broader concept of precision or personalized medicine.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. While pharmacogenomics is used in cardiology, its primary application is not in predicting heart attack risks. Instead, it is used to adjust the dosages of medications, such as blood thinners, based on genetic variations to optimize treatment and reduce adverse effects.

3. Statement 3 is correct. Pharmacogenomics contributes to reducing healthcare costs by minimizing adverse drug reactions. By understanding how different genetic profiles can affect drug responses, healthcare providers can choose the most effective treatment, thereby enhancing safety and therapeutic outcomes while reducing unnecessary healthcare expenses.

Thus, the correct statements are 1 and 3, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 20

Consider the following statements regarding India's Tejas fighter aircraft and Delhi's air pollution crisis:

1. The Tejas Mk1A is equipped with an Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar, which enhances its combat capability.

2. Delhi's air pollution is primarily caused by vehicle emissions and industrial pollution, with no significant contribution from agricultural practices.

3. The LCA Tejas Programme was initiated to replace India's aging fleet of MiG-21 aircraft and is overseen by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 20

Statement 1 is correct. The Tejas Mk1A, an improved version of India's Light Combat Aircraft, is equipped with an Active Electronically Scanned Array (AESA) radar. This technology enhances the aircraft's combat capability by improving radar detection and tracking capabilities, which is crucial for modern air combat operations.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While vehicle emissions and industrial pollution are significant contributors to Delhi's air pollution, agricultural practices, specifically stubble burning in neighboring states, also play a substantial role in the seasonal spike of air pollution levels. This complex problem is characterized as a "wicked problem" due to its multifaceted nature involving various factors, including agricultural practices.

Statement 3 is correct. The LCA Tejas Programme was initiated in 1984 by the Government of India with the objective of replacing the aging MiG-21 fleet. The programme is indeed overseen by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), highlighting India's efforts to develop a modern, indigenous fighter aircraft to maintain its defense capabilities.

Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C the correct answer.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 21

What is the primary reason behind India's recent record trade deficit of $41.68 billion in October?

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The significant increase in India's trade deficit to $41.68 billion in October is primarily attributed to the imposition of steep tariffs by the U.S., which has adversely affected India's exports to its largest export market. This imposition of tariffs has had a substantial impact on key sectors where the U.S. has been a major market, leading to a decline in exports and contributing to the widening trade deficit.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 22

Consider the following statements regarding the modified UDAN Scheme:

1. The modified UDAN scheme includes a proposed outlay of Rs. 30,000 crore, with a significant portion allocated for the development of new airports and Viability Gap Funding (VGF).

2. The scheme specifically targets enhancing air connectivity in aspirational districts and small towns with limited air access.

3. The scheme does not provide any incentives for airport operators or state governments to participate in the program.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 22

- Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India has indeed proposed an outlay of Rs. 30,000 crore for the modified UDAN scheme. This budget includes allocations for both the development of new airports (Rs. 18,000 crore) and Viability Gap Funding (Rs. 12,000 crore).

- Statement 2 is correct. The modified scheme is aimed at enhancing air connectivity in underserved and remote regions, including aspirational districts and small towns with limited air access, thus targeting areas that require improved connectivity.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme does provide incentives for airport operators and state governments to encourage their participation. These incentives include reduced fuel taxes, lower airport charges, and priority parking bays.

Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, and Statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 23

Consider the following statements:

1. The Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950 was enacted to manage migration from East Pakistan following the Partition of India.

2. The Act empowers the Centre to expel any foreigner from Assam if their presence is considered detrimental, but it excludes refugees displaced due to civil disturbances in Pakistan.

3. The Nehru–Liaquat Pact of 1950 resulted in the suspension of actions under the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act to prevent communal tensions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 23

1. Statement 1: The Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950 was indeed enacted in response to the Assam government's demand for a legal mechanism to manage the large-scale migration from East Pakistan that occurred following the Partition of India. This migration posed significant political and demographic challenges, making the statement correct.

2. Statement 2: The Act does indeed empower the Central government to expel any foreigner from Assam if their presence is considered detrimental. However, it explicitly excludes refugees who were displaced due to civil disturbances in Pakistan, thereby addressing post-Partition instability. This makes the statement correct.

3. Statement 3: The Nehru–Liaquat Pact, signed in April 1950, aimed to protect minorities in both India and Pakistan. To prevent worsening communal tensions, the Indian government suspended actions under the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act temporarily. This action was taken to align with the objectives of the pact, making this statement correct.

All three statements accurately reflect the legal and historical context of the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950, as well as the influence of the Nehru–Liaquat Pact. Therefore, the correct answer is Option D

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 24

Consider the following pairs:

1. Global Mutirao Agreement - Agreement to end deforestation and transition away from fossil fuels

2. Deforestation Roadmap - Initiative to combat illegal logging and support indigenous communities

3. Fossil Fuel Transition Agreement - Binding commitment to phase out fossil fuels

4. BRICS Influence at COP30 - Emphasis on equity in climate negotiations

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 24

1. Global Mutirao Agreement - Agreement to end deforestation and transition away from fossil fuels: Correctly matched. The Global Mutirao Agreement, indeed, encompasses commitments to develop roadmaps for both halting and reversing deforestation and transitioning away from fossil fuels.

2. Deforestation Roadmap - Initiative to combat illegal logging and support indigenous communities: Correctly matched. The Deforestation Roadmap announced at COP30 focuses on mobilizing resources for forest conservation, fostering cross-border cooperation to combat illegal logging, and providing support systems for forest and indigenous communities.

3. Fossil Fuel Transition Agreement - Binding commitment to phase out fossil fuels: Incorrectly matched. While COP30 discussions included a focus on transitioning away from fossil fuels, there was no binding commitment to phase out fossil fuels, primarily due to geopolitical divisions and resistance from major developing economies.

4. BRICS Influence at COP30 - Emphasis on equity in climate negotiations: Correctly matched. The absence of the United States at COP30 allowed BRICS nations to assert significant influence, emphasizing equity in climate negotiations, which was a notable aspect of the conference.

Pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched. However, based on the options, Option B is the correct choice as it represents the closest match with the UPSC-style question format, acknowledging the pairings and the emphasis on geopolitical nuances.

Test: Weekly Current Affairs: 17th November 2025 to 23rd November 2025 - Question 25

Consider the following pairs:

1. Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950 - Enacted to manage large-scale migration from East Pakistan.

2. SARAL SIMS - A registration facility for simplifying the import registration process for large steel consignments.

3. Nehru–Liaquat Pact - Coincided with the suspension of the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950.

4. WHO SMART Guidelines - Standards-based guidelines for digital health ecosystems.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

1. Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950 - Enacted to manage large-scale migration from East Pakistan.

This is correctly matched. The Act was enacted in response to the migration issues following the Partition, addressing the influx from East Pakistan.

2. SARAL SIMS - A registration facility for simplifying the import registration process for large steel consignments.

This is incorrectly matched. SARAL SIMS is designed to simplify the import registration process for small consignments, not large ones. It allows streamlined registration for small quantities.

3. Nehru–Liaquat Pact - Coincided with the suspension of the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950.

This is correctly matched. The Nehru–Liaquat Pact aimed to protect minorities, and its timing led to the suspension of actions under the Act to prevent further communal tensions.

4. WHO SMART Guidelines - Standards-based guidelines for digital health ecosystems.

This is correctly matched. WHO SMART Guidelines are indeed standards-based, focusing on creating interoperable and adaptable digital health systems.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

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