UGC NET Paper 2 Economics Mock Test - 10 - UGC NET MCQ

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

• As per the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the RBI may, by agreement with any State Government undertake the management of the public debt of that State.
• Accordingly, the RBI has entered into agreements with 29 State Governments and one Union Territory (UT of Puducherry) for management of their public debt.
• In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
• Treasury Bills (T-bills) Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short-term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 days, 182 days, and 3.64 days.
• Treasury bills are zero-coupon securities and pay no interest.
• They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91 day Treasury bill of 100/- (face value) may be issued at say 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, 1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of 100/-.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

Cash Reserve Ratio:

• Scheduled commercial banks are required to keep a certain percentage of their Net Demand and Time Deposits with RBI under the RBI Act of 1934.
• If Cash Reserve Ratio is increased, the banks have to deposit more money with RBI.
• So, the resource available to banks for lending will come down.
• The money supply will come down. Hence, option 2 is not correct.

Statutory Liquidity Ratio:

• Scheduled commercial banks are required to keep a certain percentage of their net time and demand deposits in their vault itself.
• It need not be deposited with RBI.
• This reserve is a precautionary measure. It prevents banks from lending all their deposits which is too risky.
• Like CRR, increasing SLR will decrease the money supply and vice versa. Hence, option 4 is correct.

Repo rate and Reverse repo rate:

• These are liquidity adjustment facilities by RBI and is a short-term credit control measures.
• It is to absorb the excess liquidity in the economy.
• Repo rate is the rate at which commercial banks borrow from RBI by mortgaging their dated Government securities and Treasury bills.
• So if Repo is increased, banks either reduce the borrowing from RBI or borrow at a higher rate and charge higher interest rates among customers. So it decreases the money supply.
• If the repo rate is decreased, the reverse will be the case. Hence, options 1 and 3 are not correct.
• The reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows from commercial banks by mortgaging its dated government securities and treasury bills.

Linear Programming:

• Linear programming is used for the optimization of our limited resources when there is the number of alternate solutions possible for the problem.
• The general LPP (Linear programming problems) calls for optimizing (maximizing/minimizing) a linear function for variables called the objective function subject to a set of linear equations and/or in equalities called the constraints or restrictions.
• The standard form of LPP is

The GDP at constant prices increased from Q2 of 2023-24 to Q2 of 2024-25 is $ 1.7 trillion

Therefore the correct matching is, A-IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Given:

QC(QC) Is not a vector space

Calculation:

Let us take u = √3 and v = -√3 

⇒ u + v = √3 - √3 = 0 not belongs to Q^c

⇒ u + v not belong Qc  for all u, v ∈ Qc

∴ option 2 is correct.

The correct answer is [32.29, 36.21].

Key Points 

• Confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true population mean with a certain level of confidence.
• The formula for calculating a confidence interval for the mean is:
• mean ± (critical value x standard deviation / square root of sample size).
• The level of confidence is often expressed as a percentage (e.g. 95% confidence) and determines the width of the interval.
  • A higher level of confidence results in a wider interval, while a lower level of confidence results in a narrower interval.

Additional Information

•  A 95% confidence interval provides a range of values that is likely to contain the true population mean with a probability of 95%.
• For a 95% confidence interval, the critical value for a t-distribution with 99 degrees of freedom (100-1) is approximately 1.98.
• So, the 95% confidence interval can be calculated as:
  • 
• So, the 95% confidence interval for the mean age of accidents in a city during last year is [32.29, 36.21].

Important Points 

• The critical value used in the calculation of the confidence interval depends on the level of confidence and the degrees of freedom (sample size minus 1).
• The sample mean and standard deviation are estimated values and may not exactly reflect the true population mean and standard deviation.
• Understanding the concept of confidence intervals and how to calculate them is important for data analysis and interpretation, as it provides a way to estimate and quantify the uncertainty in a measurement or estimate.

A change in base year for computing national accounts pushed up the economic growth rate for 2013-14 to 6.9 percent, while earlier estimate on the basis of old series was 4.7 percent. These changes follow a revision in the base for calculating national accounts to 2011-12 from 2004-05.

Fisher's Quantity of Theory of Money establishes relation between money and transactions by the equation: MV = PT
Cambridge economists, Marshall linked money to income via quantity theory of money. MV = kPY
The conept of MV = f(r, y, w) was given by Friedman and the last pair is correctly matched.

• Trend is depicted by time series.
• Coefficient of variation means (S.D./Mean) x 100.
• Mean = np is a binomial distribution.
• Symmetric distribution is a normal distribution.

The correct answer is 'option 2'

Key Points

• Cobb–Douglas production function is a particular functional form of the production function.
• It is used to represent the technological relationship between the amounts of two or more inputs (particularly physical capital and labor) and the amount of output that can be produced by those inputs.
• A commonly discussed form of the long-run production function is the Cobb-Douglas production function which is an example of linear homogenous production functions.

The cobb-Douglas production function is 

1. Y = total production (the real value of all goods produced in a year or 365.25 days)
2. L = labour input (person-hours worked in a year or 365.25 days)
3. K = capital input (a measure of all machinery, equipment, and buildings; the value of capital input divided by the price of capital)
4. A = Total factor productivity
5. α and β are the output elasticity of capital and labour, respectively. These values are constants determined by available technology.

The Cobb-Douglas production function can be applied to derive laws of returns to scale, as per the following schedule

Analysing the points:

(a) It is the long period production function

• This is correct as discussed below. Cobb-Douglas production function is in fact one of the examples of long-run production functions. 

(b) It is a short period production function

• This cannot be true as we have already discussed that it is a long-run production function.

(c) It is based on increasing returns to scale

• As you can see from the table below that this production function discusses all kinds of returns to scale. Hence this cannot be true. 

(d) Output elasticities with respect to factors are constant

• This is clear from point number 5 in the key points. Hence, this is a valid point with respect to production function. 

Therefore, the correct answer is '(a) and (d)'

Concept:

• Vector Quantity:-  Physical quantities that have magnitude and direction and obey triangle law are called vector quantities.
• Example: Displacement, Velocity, etc.

Additional Information 

• The velocity of a moving object is defined as the displacement of the object in the unit time interval.
• It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is meter/second.
• Acceleration of an object is defined as the rate of change of velocity of the object.
• It is a vector quantity and its SI unit is (m/s²)
• ∴ The correct answer is 20 m/s².

The correct answer is 1 and 2.

Key Points.

• The Reserve Bank of India recently announced that retail investors can now invest directly in the government's primary and secondary bond market by opening gilt accounts with the national banks and monetary policy regulators. This structural reform will deepen the bond market in  India. 
• In August 2005, RBI introduced an anonymous screen-based order matching module called Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching (NDS-OM). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• This is an order-driven electronic system, where the participants can trade anonymously by placing their orders on the system or accepting the orders already placed by other participants. 
• Access to NDS-OM by the retail segment, comprising of individual investors having Demat account with depositories viz. NSDL and/or CDSL, desirous of participating in the G-Sec market is facilitated by allowing them to use their Demat accounts for their transactions and holdings in G-Sec. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This access would be facilitated through any of the existing NDS-OM primary members, who also act as Depository Participants for NSDL and/or CDSL.
• The scheme seeks to facilitate efficient access to the retail individual investor to the same G-Sec market being used by the large institutional investor in a seamless manner.

Additional Information

• Central Depository Services (India) Ltd (CDSL), is the first listed Indian central securities depository based in Mumbai. Central Depository Services (India) Limited (CDSL) was initially promoted by BSE Ltd. which thereafter divested its stake to leading banks.
• CDSL received the certificate of commencement of business from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in February 1999. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Government of India securities (G-sec), State Development Loans (SDL) and Treasury Bills (T-Bills are issued in the primary market through auctions conducted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• An investor, depending upon eligibility, may bid in an auction under Competitive Bidding or Non-Competitive Bidding.
• To encourage retail investors in G-sec, SDL and T-Bills, the facility of non-competitive bidding (NCB) has been introduced.
• Under the scheme, eligible retail investors apply for a certain amount of securities in an auction without mentioning price/yield.
• Such bidders are allotted securities at the weighted average price/yield of the auction.
  RBI conducts an auction usually every week to issue G-sec, SDL and T-Bills

The correct answer is Inflation.

Key Points

• Deflation
  • It occurs when asset and consumer prices fall over time.
  • It is a negative inflation rate.
  • It is often used to express a declining economy.
  • Real interest rates become too high.
  • It increases the burden of debt and reduces the disposable income of indebted people.
• Inflation
  • It refers to the rise in the prices of most goods and services of daily or common use, such as food, clothing, housing etc.
  • A certain level of inflation is required in the economy to ensure that expenditure is promoted and hoarding money through savings is demotivated.
  • As the spending increases, the demand also increases which leads to inflation.
  • Hence, Economic growth is usually coupled with inflation.
• Stagflation
  • It is an economic event in which the inflation rate is high, the economic growth rate slows, and unemployment remains steadily high.
  • It can also be alternatively defined as a period of inflation combined with a decline in the gross domestic product (GDP).
• Hyperinflation
  • It is a term to describe rapid, excessive, and out-of-control general price increases in an economy.
  • It has two main causes: an increase in the money supply and demand-pull inflation.
  • It can occur in times of war and economic turmoil in the underlying production economy, in conjunction with a central bank printing an excessive amount of money.

•  An electronic trading platform where traders enter buy and sell orders using computer screens is referred to as a screen-based trading system.
• These technologies can considerably decrease the amount of time it takes to complete deals, lower transaction costs, reduce the probability of human error, and increase transparency, which lowers the danger of fraud.
• In a screen-based trading system, the electronic platform uses order-driven matching to match the buy and sell orders of various players. Due to the execution of orders based on price and priority, buyers and sellers are efficiently and automatically matched.

Hence, Both (A-Screen based trading system cuts down on time, cost and risk of error as well as on the chances of fraud.) and (R-Screen based trading system electronically matches the buyer and seller in an order driven system.​) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

The correct answer is P = f(J, R, S).

Key Points

•  The hedonic wage equation is a part of wage-differential approach to the environmental valuation. 
• The hedonic wage equation is used to measure the level of risk of life and death and other hazards faced by worker at a particular job and thus variations in the wage rate.
• The general hedonic wage equation is expressed as P = f(J, R, S)
  • ​P refers to the payment derived from the job,  J refers to some attributes related to job such as leaves and holidays, working hours, additional benefits related to extra efforts, illness, etc. R refers to risk of death, and S refers to required skills to perform the job. 
• ​The hedonic wage approach comes under the revealed preference methods of environmental valuation. 

​​The general hedonic wage equation can be expressed as P = f(J, R, S)

Additional Information

• Environmental goods are valued based on different approaches. Revealed Preference method is one of the mostly used method to value environmental goods. 
  • It helps to reveal how much consumers values an environmental good by examining their transection of goods in the market which is directly or indirectly related to the environmental quality. 
  • Different methods for different type of goods come under Revealed Preference method such as Travel Cost method, Hedonic Price method, Preventive Expenditure method, Surrogate market, Wage-differential approach, etc.

​​The general hedonic wage equation can be expressed as P = f(J, R, S).

The main feature of the Ninth Five Year Plan India is that at its onset, our nation crossed the fifty years of independence and this called for a whole new set of development measures. There was a fresh need felt for increasing the social and economic developmental measures. The government felt that the full economic potential of the country, yet to be explored, should be utilized for an overall growth in the next five years. As a result, in the Ninth Five Year Plan India, the emphasis was on human development, increase in the growth rate and adoption of a full scale employment scheme for all. For one such development to promote the social sectors of the nation and to give utmost importance to the eradication of poverty.

The marginal efficiency of investment is the rate of return expected from a given investment on a capital asset after covering all its costs, except the rate of interest. The MEI schedule shows the amount of investment demanded at various rates of interest.

Both the monopolist and the consumers can be made better off. This means that the outcome of a monopoly is Pareto INefficient because either the supplier or the consumers or, in fact, both parties can be made better off without the other being made worse off. Both (A) and (R) are correct and rightly explained.

Growth in this model is driven by technological change that arises from intentional investment decisions made by profit-maximizing agents. The distinguishing feature of the technology as an input is that it is neither a conventional good nor a public good; it is a nonrival, partially excludable good. Because of the nonconvexity introduced by a nonrival good, price-taking competition cannot be supported. Instead, the equilibrium is one with monopolistic competition. The main conclusions are that the stock of human capital determines the rate of growth, that too little human capital is devoted to research in equilibrium, that integration into world markets will increase growth rates, and that having a large population is not sufficient to generate growth.

In economics, the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is a metric that quantifies induced consumption, the concept that the increase in personal consumer spending (consumption) occurs with an increase in disposable income (income after taxes and transfers).

The average propensity to consume (APC) measures the percentage of income that is spent rather than saved. This may be calculated by a single individual who wants to know where the money is going or by an economist who wants to track the spending and saving habits of an entire nation.

The Indian food security system was established by the Government Of India under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution to distribute food and non-food items to India's poor at subsidised rates. This scheme was first started in 14 January 1965, during the Second World War, and was launched in the current form in June 1947. Major commodities distributed include staple food grains, such as wheat, rice, sugar and essential fuels like kerosene, through a network of fair price shops (also known as ration shops) established in several states across the country. Food Corporation of India, a Government-owned corporation, procures and maintains the public distribution system (PDS).

Zero Elasticity; a perfectly inelastic demand curve. The vertical line shows that at any price, the quantity demanded remains the same. The measured elasticity is zero.

The Law Of Diminishing Marginal Utility states that all else equal as consumption increases the marginal utility derived from each additional unit declines. Marginal utility is the incremental increase in utility that results from consumption of one additional unit.

A statistical hypothesis test is a method of statistical inference used to decide whether the data at hand sufficiently support a particular hypothesis.

Key Points

• Probability sampling refers to the selection of a sample from a population, when this selection is based on the principle of randomization, that is, random selection or chance.
• Probability sampling is more complex, more time-consuming and usually more costly than non-probability sampling

Important Points

• Chi Square Test :A chi-square (χ2) statistic is a test that measures how a model compares to actual observed data.
• The data used in calculating a chi-square statistic must be random, raw, mutually exclusive, drawn from independent variables, and drawn from a large enough sample. For example, the results of tossing a fair coin meet these criteria.
•  A chi-squared test (also chi-square or χ2 test) is a statistical hypothesis test that is valid to perform when the test statistic is chi-squared distributed under the null hypothesis, specifically Pearson's chi-squared test and variants thereof.
• Pearson's chi-squared test is used to determine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in one or more categories of a contingency table.

Additional Information 
Cramers Test : 

• Cramer's V is a measure of the strength of association between two nominal variables. It ranges from 0 to 1 where: 0 indicates no association between the two variables. 1 indicates a perfect association between the two variables.
• Cramer's V is a measure of substantive significance. It answers the question, How strong does the relationship appear to be?

Likert scale : 

• A Likert scale assumes that the strength/intensity of an attitude is linear, i.e. on a continuum from strongly agree to strongly disagree, and makes the assumption that attitudes can be measured.

Hence,  the correct test  for the given statistical measure in question is chi square test.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Small Finance Banks (SFBs):

• Small Finance Banks are the financial institutions that provide financial services to the unserved and unbanked regions of the country.
• They are registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• SFBs will be given scheduled bank status once they commence their operations, and are found suitable as per Section 42 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• SFBs need to maintain a Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Hence, option 2 is not correct.
• They are required to extend 75% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors eligible for classification as priority sector lending by the Reserve Bank of India.
• At least 50% of its loan portfolio should constitute loans and advances of up to Rs. 25 lahks.
• SFBs can also transit to a universal bank, subject to fulfilling minimum paid-up capital/net worth requirements as applicable to universal banks. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• They cannot be a Business Correspondent (BC) for another bank. However, they can have their own BC network. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The small finance bank shall primarily undertake basic banking activities of acceptance of deposits and lending to unserved and underserved sections including small business units, small and marginal farmers, micro and small industries and unorganized sector entities.
• It can also undertake other non-risk sharing simple financial services activities, not requiring any commitment of own funds, such as the distribution of mutual fund units, insurance products, pension products, etc.

Important Points Meade's model of economic growth:

• Meade's model analyses the relationship between income, capital and labour and technology.
• This model is also known as "Model of steady growth".
• He explain the relationship between growth rate of population and income growth not growth rate of savings. 
• Features/assumptions of Meade's model:
• There is a closed economy.
• Perfect competition prevails in economy.
• Production is subject to law of constant returns.
• Only two commodities- consumption good and capital good is produced and there is perfect substitution available in these goods.
• Full employment of land, labour and machinery.

Hence, it can be concluded Meade's model do not explain the relationship between growth rate of population and growth rate of savings.

The correct answer is 'Both 1 and 2'.

Key Points

• 1. Saving rate has been reduced by population growth because of the increase in the burden of dependency.
  • It is widely recognized that population growth reduces savings as the population aged below 15 years depends on the working-age population (15-64 years) for survival.
  • Rapid population growth leads to a high ratio of children to working adults and diverts household income from savings towards consumption expenditure.
  • The increasing burden of dependency (caused as a result of rapid population growth) outweighs any increase in the savings rate.

​Thus, the statement is correct.

• Rapid growth in population implies a falling land-human ratio.
  • In India, the land-to-per-person ratio is 0.0024 while at the global level, it is 0.011.
  • Rapid population growth implies increased pressure on land resources.
  • India occupies 2.4% of the world's total land area with its 3.28 million square kilometer area and holds 17.5% of the world's population.
  • A rapid increase in population, the total land area being fixed, results in a falling land-human ratio which gives rise to the problems of land degradation and poses a threat to food security.

Thus, the statement is correct.

On the basis of the above information, it can be concluded that both the given statements are correct.​