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UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - UPPSC (UP) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 - UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 for UPPSC (UP) 2024 is part of UPPSC Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 questions and answers have been prepared according to the UPPSC (UP) exam syllabus.The UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 MCQs are made for UPPSC (UP) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 below.
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UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

The pH value of blood is:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 1

The pH scale ranges from 0 (strongly acidic) to 14 (strongly basic or alkaline). A pH of 7.0, considered neutral, is in the middle of this scale. Blood is naturally slightly basic, with a standard pH range of 7.35 to 7.45. The body generally maintains the blood pH close to 7.40

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

Nagoya Protocol is related to:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 2

The Nagoya Protocol and Biodiversity

  • Overview: The Nagoya Protocol is directly related to Biodiversity.
  • Explanation:
    • The Nagoya Protocol focuses on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits arising from their utilization.
    • It is a global agreement that enforces the access and benefit-sharing provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
    • Genetic resources from plants, animals, and microorganisms are crucial for various applications such as specialty enzymes, enhanced genes, and small molecules.
    • These genetic resources play a vital role in areas like crop protection, drug development, specialized chemicals production, and industrial processing.
    • Ensuring fair and equitable sharing of benefits is a key concern for countries rich in biodiversity and the global community.
    • The Nagoya Protocol was adopted in Nagoya, Japan, in October 2010.
    • It establishes a framework that facilitates access to genetic resources for biotechnology research and other activities, ensuring a fair share of benefits from their utilization.
    • This framework provides researchers and developers with the confidence to invest in research based on biodiversity.
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UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 3

Which among the following is/are examples of non-point sources of pollution?

  1. Excess use of fertilizers
  2. Toxic chemicals from urban runoff 
  3. Bacteria and nutrients from livestock

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 3
  • Nonpoint Source Pollution:
    • Nonpoint source pollution refers to the diffuse contamination of water or air that does not come from a single identifiable source.
    • This type of pollution is typically the result of small amounts of contaminants collected from a large area.
    • It usually arises from various sources like land runoff, precipitation, atmospheric deposition, drainage, seepage, or hydrologic modification.
    • Unlike pollution from specific industrial or sewage treatment plants, nonpoint source pollution comes from multiple diffuse sources.
  • Examples of Nonpoint Source Pollution:
    • Excess fertilizers, herbicides, and insecticides from both agricultural lands and residential areas are examples of nonpoint source pollution. This explains why option 1 is correct.
    • Oil, grease, and toxic chemicals from urban runoff and energy production also contribute to nonpoint source pollution. Hence, option 2 is correct.
    • Other examples include sediment from poorly managed construction sites, crop and forest lands, eroding streambanks, salt from irrigation practices, acid drainage from abandoned mines, bacteria, and nutrients from livestock, pet waste, and faulty septic systems.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 4

Who among the following is not appointed by the State Governor?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 4
  • Chief Minister: The State Governor appoints the Chief Minister of a state. The Chief Minister is the head of the state government and is responsible for the administration of the state.
  • Members, State Public Service Commission: The members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the state. The commission is responsible for conducting exams and recruiting candidates for various government posts.
  • Judges of High Court: Judges of the High Court are not appointed by the State Governor. They are appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state. High courts are headed by a Chief Justice.
  • Advocate General: The Advocate General for the State is appointed by the Governor. The Advocate General is the chief legal advisor to the state government.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Consider the following statement regarding the Bombay Plan?

  1. It was drafted by JRD Tata and GD Birla in 1944 .
  2. It emphasised mass education, scientific training & research.
  3. It was a widely accepted plan for India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 5

Explanation of the Solution

Understanding the Bombay Plan

  • Background:

    The Bombay Plan was a proposal put forward by a group of business leaders from Bombay in 1944. It aimed at outlining a development strategy for the Indian economy post-independence.

  • Key Points:

    By the end of March 1944, the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce had endorsed the Bombay Plan during its annual meeting. The plan was officially published in 1944 and further elaborated upon in 1945.

  • Criteria for Minimum Living Standards:

    The planners of the Bombay Plan set specific criteria for minimum living standards, which included:

    • 2,800 calories of balanced food per day for each individual
    • 30 yards of clothes
    • 100 square feet of residential area
  • Focus on Education and Research:

    The plan emphasized the importance of adult education, scientific training, and research. It provided a detailed vision for mass education, encompassing primary, secondary, vocational, and university-level studies.

  • Criticisms:

    Despite its ambitions, the Bombay Plan faced criticism for various reasons, including:

    • Criticism for overestimating the Indian economy's capacity to generate additional capital
    • Technical criticism for not considering the inflationary effects of creating capital
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

Which of the following is not a cold desert?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 6

The Correct Answer is Dasht-e-Lat

  • Dasht-e-Lat: Dasht-e-Lat is a vast saline desert located in the Kerman province of Iran. It is known as the hottest desert in the world. NASA tests conducted in 2005 revealed that the surface temperature of Dasht-e-Lat reached 70.7°C, making it the hottest place on Earth in terms of surface temperature.
  • Gobi: The Gobi Desert is a cold desert located in northern China and southern Mongolia. It experiences extreme temperature variations, with very cold winters and hot summers.
  • Ladakh: Ladakh is a cold desert region located in the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir. It experiences cold and dry weather conditions, with temperatures dropping significantly during winter months.
  • Karakum: The Karakum Desert is a large desert in Central Asia, covering much of Turkmenistan. It is characterized by its arid climate and extreme temperatures.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Under which of the following the Constituent Assembly of India was constituted?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 7

Formation of the Constituent Assembly of India

  • Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946, the Constituent Assembly of India was constituted.
  • The Cabinet Mission Plan was a significant proposal put forth by the Cabinet Mission and Viceroy Lord Wavell on May 16, 1946. This plan aimed to address the constitutional future of India due to the inability of Indian political parties and representatives to reach a consensus.
  • The members of the Cabinet Mission included Lord Penthick-Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps, the President of the Board of Trade, and A.V Alexander, the First Lord of Admiralty.
  • The Constitution of India was formulated by the Constituent Assembly, and its implementation began under the Cabinet Mission Plan on May 16, 1946
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

With reference to Green Manuring, consider the following statements.

  1. Green manure is created by leaving uprooted or sown crop parts to wither on a field so that they serve as a mulch and soil amendment.
  2. Mostly leguminous plants are used as green manure.
  3. Green manures usually perform multiple functions that include soil improvement and soil protection.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 8

Understanding Green Manuring

  • What is Green Manuring?
    • Green manuring is a practice in agriculture and horticulture where a specific plant crop is grown to be plowed or dug into the soil to enhance its structure and release nutrients during decomposition.
    • It involves leaving uprooted or sown crop parts on the field to wither, acting as mulch and a soil amendment.
  • Use of Leguminous Plants:
    • Leguminous plants, such as clover, are commonly used as green manure.
    • These plants have nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their root nodules, which convert atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for other plants.
  • Functions of Green Manures:
    • Green manures serve multiple functions, including soil improvement and soil protection.
    • They help in enhancing soil fertility, reducing erosion, and suppressing weeds.

Based on the above information, it is evident that statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 1, 2, and 3.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 9

Which of the following are detritivores?

  1. Earthworms
  2. Jellyfish
  3. Millipedes
  4. Seahorses
  5. Woodlice

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 9
  • Detritivores are organisms that feed on detritus, which is organic matter made up of dead plant and animal material.
  • These organisms obtain their nutrition by feeding on detritus or by coprophagy, which involves consuming faeces.
  • Common detritivores include invertebrate insects like mites, beetles, butterflies, and flies; mollusks such as slugs and snails; and soil-dwelling earthworms, millipedes, and woodlice.
  • Examples of detritivores in marine environments include crustaceans like crabs and lobsters, echinoderms like sea stars or sea cucumbers.
  • Detritivores and decomposers play a crucial role in breaking down dead and decaying material in ecosystems, contributing to nutrient cycling and biogeochemical cycles such as the carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus cycles.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 10

Consider the following statements with respect to Tanjore paintings :

  1. The paintings were created on paper or cloth.
  2. They used gemstones and cut glass.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 10
  • Tanjore School of Paintings: The Tanjore school of paintings is renowned for its distinct decorative style. These paintings gained prominence during the 18th century with the patronage of Maratha rulers.
  • Materials Used: The paintings were typically created on glass and board, not on paper or cloth as mentioned in statement 1. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Unique Features: Tanjore paintings are known for their vibrant color patterns and the usage of gold leaf. Additionally, gemstones and cut glasses were commonly incorporated into the artwork, making statement 2 correct.
  • Themes and Recognition: These paintings often depicted religious themes and reached their peak under the patronage of Sarfoji Maharaj. In 2007-08, Tanjore paintings were officially recognized as a Geographical Indication by the Government of India.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

With reference to the "EL-NINO", which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

  1. El - Nino involves appearance of warm current of the coast of Peru in eastern pacific.
  2. This warm current increase the temperature of water on the Peruvian coast by 10°C there by increasing the amount of Plankton in the sea.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 11

El-Nino:

  • El-Nino is a complex weather system that occurs every three to seven years, causing droughts, floods, and extreme weather conditions globally.
  • The phenomenon involves oceanic and atmospheric events, including the appearance of warm currents off the coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific, impacting weather patterns in various regions, such as India. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
  • El-Nino is essentially an extension of the warm equatorial current, temporarily replaced by the cold Peruvian or Humboldt current, raising water temperatures on the Peruvian coast by 10°C.
  • This temperature change leads to disruptions in equatorial atmospheric circulation, irregularities in seawater evaporation, and a decrease in plankton levels, subsequently reducing fish populations. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The term El-Nino translates to 'Child Christ' due to its occurrence around Christmas in December, which is a summer month in Peru (Southern Hemisphere).
  • In India, El-Nino is utilized for predicting long-range monsoon rainfall.
  • Notably, during the 1990-91 El-Nino event, the onset of the southwest monsoon was delayed across the country by approximately five to twelve days.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

Which tiger reserve in Uttar Pradesh has been granted the Conservation Assure Tiger Standards (CATS) accreditation?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 12

The correct answer is Dudhwa Tiger Reserve​.

In News

  • Dudhwa Tiger Reserve gets Conservation Assured Tiger Standards status.

Key Points

  • The Dudhwa Tiger Reserve in Uttar Pradesh has been granted the Conservation Assure Tiger Standards (CATS) accreditation, making it one of the few tiger reserves in the country to receive this recognition.
  • The CATS accreditation is an internationally recognized standard that ensures effective management of tiger conservation areas and promotes the conservation of the species.
  • The accreditation process involves a rigorous assessment of the reserve's management, operations, and conservation practices by an independent team of experts.
  • The Pilibhit Tiger Reserve has been recognized for its effective management and conservation practices, including habitat management, protection and monitoring of tigers, and community engagement.
  • The reserve has implemented several innovative measures, such as the use of camera traps to monitor tiger movements, setting up anti-poaching camps, and promoting ecotourism to raise awareness and generate income for local communities.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 13

Who among the following has the constitutional authority to summon a joint session of Parliament?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 13
  • The President has the constitutional authority to summon a joint session of Parliament in India (Article 108).
  • The Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the joint sitting.
  • The Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, who is also the Vice President of India, does not preside over the joint session.
  • In case the designated officers are absent, any other member of Parliament may preside with the unanimous consent of both Houses.

Joint Sitting of Indian parliament has been called for only 3 bills that have been passed at joint sessions:

  • Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1961
  • Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978
  • Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 14

The Central Vigilance Commission Establishment

  • Constitutional Provision: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established by the Government of India.

Key Points

  • On the advice of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, chaired by Shri K. Santhanam, the Government established the Central Vigilance Commission in 1964 to guide and advise Central Government agencies on vigilance matters.
    • The CVC is meant to be the premier vigilance institution, independent of any executive authority.
    • It supervises all vigilance activities carried out on behalf of the Central Government and provides direction to various authorities within Central Government organizations on planning, executing, evaluating, and improving their vigilance work.
    • The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 (CVC Act), enacted by Parliament, conferred statutory status on the CVC.
    • It operates autonomously and is accountable solely to Parliament.
    • It submits its reports to the President of India.
  • The Central Vigilance Commissioner serves as the chairperson. There can be a maximum of two other Members of the Vigilance Commission.
  • Functions:
    • The CVC receives complaints regarding corruption or misuse of power and recommends appropriate actions.
    • Individuals or entities such as Lokpal, the central government, and whistleblowers may approach the CVC:
      • It does not have law enforcement powers.
    • The CVC obtains investigations through either the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) or chief vigilance officers (CVO) in government establishments.
    • It has the jurisdiction to investigate offenses allegedly committed by certain categories of public servants in contravention of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Which of the following is a type of farming?
I. Primitive Subsistence Farming
II. Commercial Farming

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 15

Key Points

  • Primitive subsistence agriculture is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family/ community labour.
  • This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil, and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown. 
  • Commercial farming is farming in which an agricultural crop is grown for sale to return a profit.
  • A commercial crop is typically purchased by parties separate from a farm. Tobacco is an example of commercial farming.

Additional Information

  • Agriculture or farming is the practice of cultivating plants and livestock.
  • Pastoralism – Pastoralism involves the herding of animals
  • Shifting Cultivation – It involves the rotation of crops
  • Subsistence farming – It is a practice of growing crops and raising livestock sufficient only for one’s own use, without any surplus for trad
  • Intensive farming – Intensive farming focus on increasing the input and the resultant output per unit of agricultural land. 
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

Which of the following statements with respect to the Interim Government formed after Second World War is Incorrect?
1. Its formation was proposed under the Cabinet Mission of 1946.
2. Muslim league never joined the Interim Government.
3. The Viceroy acted as the President of the Executive Council of the Interim Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 16

The Context: The question pertains to the Interim Government formed after the Second World War and aims to identify an incorrect statement among the options provided.

Correct Answer: The correct answer is 2 only.

Key Points:

  • The 1946 Cabinet Mission was dispatched by the Labour party government of Clement Attlee to India in order to develop proposals for the establishment of a government that would lead to an independent India.
  • The Mission proposed the formation of an interim government from the constituent assembly.
  • Subsequently, the Interim Government of India was established in September 1946, comprising members from the newly elected Constituent Assembly of India to facilitate the transition of British India to independence. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The formation of the Interim Government took place on 2nd September 1946, with only Congress members participating initially, without the inclusion of Muslim League members.
  • Later, Viceroy Wavell discreetly integrated the Muslim League into the Interim Government in October 1946, despite the party not accepting the provisions of the Cabinet Mission Plan. This move was made even though the Muslim League had not renounced its policy of Direct Action. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • For Jinnah, the Interim Government symbolized the continuation of the civil war through different means.
  • Ministers from the Muslim League raised objections to decisions made by Congress members, including appointments, and refrained from attending informal meetings, leading to disruptions in the government's operations.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 17
The Government of India launched the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) with a focus on the poor in _______
Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 17

The Government of India's Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS)

  • Launch Date:
    • In June 1997, the Government of India introduced the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) with a primary focus on assisting the impoverished individuals.
    • States were mandated to establish reliable systems for identifying the poor to ensure the transparent and accountable delivery of food grains through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
    • TPDS aims to provide subsidized food grains to individuals below the poverty line through the PDS, while those above the poverty line receive grains at higher prices.
    • While maintaining the universal nature of the PDS, the TPDS emphasizes supporting individuals below the poverty line (referred to as BPL).

Additional Information

  • Public Distribution System (PDS)
    • Public distribution of essential goods was established in India during the inter-war years.
    • The focus of the PDS on food grain distribution in urban areas facing shortages emerged from the food crises of the 1960s.
    • With the growth in national agricultural production post the Green Revolution, the coverage of the PDS extended to tribal regions and poverty-stricken areas in the 1970s and 1980s.
  • Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS)
    • The Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS) was initiated in June 1992 to enhance and streamline the PDS, especially in remote, hilly, and inaccessible regions inhabited by a significant number of impoverished individuals.
    • It encompassed 1775 blocks, where area-specific initiatives like the Drought Prone Area Programme (DPAP), Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP), and Desert Development Programme (DDP) were carried out.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 18
The Indian Council's Amendment of 1892 was also known as  
Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 18
Explanation

The Indian Council's Amendment of 1892

  • Lord Cross's Act:
    • This act marked the beginning of parliamentary democracy in India.
    • The reforms enacted in the British Parliament in 1892 focused on the powers, responsibilities, and structure of the Indian legislative Councils.
    • It increased the number of additional (non-official) members in the Central and Provincial legislative councils while maintaining the official majority.
    • The legislative councils were empowered to discuss budgets, address questions to the executive, but members were restricted from asking supplementary questions.
    • Referred to as Lord Cross's Act.

Therefore, Lord Cross's Act is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Lord Aitchison's Commission:
    • Established in 1886 during Lord Dufferin's tenure.
    • Also known as the Public Service Commission.
    • Responded to Indian demands for increased participation in administration.
  • Lord Roberts:
    • Distinguished military officer in the British army in India.
    • Significant role in suppressing the 1857 Revolt and during the Second Anglo-Afghan War.
  • Lord North:
    • Prime Minister of Britain during the American War of Independence.
    • Proposed measures to punish members of the Boston Tea Party, known as the Coercive Acts in Britain and the Intolerable Acts in the American colonies.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

Statement I: The Oudh Kisan Sabha established in 1920 failed to bring under its wing any Kisan Sabhas.
Statement II: The Oudh Kisan Sabha asked the Kisans to refuse to till bedakhli land, not to offer hari and begar.

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 19

The Correct Answer is: Statement I is false but Statement II is true

The Oudh Kisan Sabha established in 1920 failed to bring under its wing any Kisan Sabhas, while it asked the Kisans to refuse to till bedakhli land and not to offer hari and begar.

Key Points

  • In 1920, the peasant movement got associated with the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Congress.
  • The difference between Non-Cooperators and those who preferred Constitutional agitation like Madan Mohan Malviya led to an alternative Oudh Kisan Sabha being set up at Pratapgarh in October 1920.
  • The sabha united all 330 grassroots Kisan Sabhas of Awadh under its wings. Hence, the statement I is incorrect.
  • The Awadh Kisan asked Kisans to refuse to till bedakhli land, and not to offer unpaid labour (hari and begar). Hence, statement II is correct.
  • They asked them to boycott those who didn't accept these conditions and to solve their disputes through Panchayat.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

Which of these is not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 20

The Correctly Matched Portals and Ministries

  • NCS Portal:
    • The NCS Portal is a National ICT-based platform designed to connect the opportunities with the aspirations of the youth.
    • It allows for the registration of job seekers, job providers, skill providers, and career counselors.
    • This portal is under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
  • ASEEM Portal:
    • The ASEEM Portal, launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), aims to help skilled individuals find sustainable livelihood opportunities.
    • It plays a crucial role in improving information flow and bridging the demand-supply gap in the skilled workforce market.
  • E-Shram Portal:
    • The E-Shram Portal is an initiative of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, focused on creating an Aadhaar Authenticated comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers (NDUW) across the country.

The correct answer is Udyam Portal - Ministry of Commerce.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

Consider the following statements:
1. Noctilucent clouds are formed in the summer months in the Mesosphere.
2. The low thick clouds are poor in albedo and thus absorb the long wave radiation from earth thus heating the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 21

The Correct Answer is: 1 only

Key Points:

  • Noctilucent Clouds:
    • Rare, high-altitude clouds known as noctilucent clouds are only occasionally visible under certain circumstances.
    • These are tiny, wispy blue or silver streaks.
    • They can be seen across the sky in the summertime, after sunset.
    • According to NASA, they are also known as polar mesospheric clouds.
    • During the summer, when the mesosphere is coldest near the poles, noctilucent clouds can be seen.
    • Ice crystals are created when water vapor freezes onto dust particles at low enough temperatures.
    • These ice crystals look like electric blue wisps in the night sky.
    • The mesospheric dust may come from Earth due to volcanic eruptions or from outer space in the form of tiny meteors.
  • Clouds and Radiation:
    • Understanding climate change requires a thorough understanding of clouds.
    • Low, dense clouds mainly serve to deflect solar energy and chill the Earth's surface.
    • High, thin clouds mostly reflect incoming solar radiation.
    • High clouds also trap part of the infrared radiation that the Earth emits and reflect it back down, warming the Earth's surface.
    • High clouds are not good at reflecting short waves, causing a warming of the Earth's surface and trapping heat.
    • Low clouds are excellent reflectors with high albedo but do not stop the longwave energy from escaping to space, thus helping to cool the Earth.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

Consider the following:
1. Takakia, a 390 million-year-old moss, has adapted to life in some of Earth’s harshest environments.
2. Takakia is the world's oldest moss could go extinct as a result of the climate crisis.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 22

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.
In News

  • Indian Express: Oldest surviving plant species saw dinosaurs come and go, humans threaten it.

Key Points
Takakia:

  • Takakia, the world's oldest moss, found in the Himalayas, is under threat due to climate breakdown.
  • Takakia, a 390 million-year-old moss, has adapted to life in some of Earth’s harshest environments. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Takakia has evolved over generations to withstand extreme weather conditions.
  • It developed the ability to repair broken DNA and recover from ultraviolet damage caused by the harsh environment.
  • Takakia is a small, slow-growing moss found in limited quantities in remote areas of the US, Japan, and Tibet.

Fragile Survival despite Evolution:

  • Despite being one of the fastest-evolving species, Takakia may not be able to survive the effects of climate breakdown.
  • Evolutionary adaptation might not be sufficient to ensure its survival, according to researchers.
  • Takakia was already 100 million years old before the formation of the Himalayas, which triggered an accelerated adaptation process.
  • The moss exemplifies a "living fossil" due to its ancient age and unique adaptations.
  • The Himalayan expedition faced difficulties due to high altitude and volatile weather.
  • Rapid and unpredictable weather changes were observed, sometimes going through "four seasons within one day.
  • Takakia is the world's oldest moss could go extinct as a result of the climate crisis. Hence option 2 is correct.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Consider the following statements: 
1. The WHO Centre for Global Traditional Medicine is being set up in Himachal Pradesh.
2. The climate change and health hub is being set up in a partnership between India and the World Bank.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 23

Correct Answer: Neither 1 nor 2

In News

  • The Hindu: India, Asian Development Bank to set up climate change and health hub in Delhi.

Key Points 

Global Centre for Traditional Medicine:

  • The World Health Organization (WHO) is establishing a Global Centre for Traditional Medicine (GCTM) in Jamnagar, Gujarat. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The GCTM aims to be a knowledge hub and focal point for traditional medicine worldwide.
  • As the lead investor, India has committed around 250 million USD to support the Centre.
  • This initiative is being done with the help of Asian Development Bank. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The key goals of GCTM are:
    • To create a database of traditional medical knowledge using technology. This will help document and preserve traditional knowledge.
    • To develop international benchmarks for testing and certifying traditional medicines. This can build confidence in their safety and effectiveness.
    • To enable global experts in traditional medicine to collaborate and exchange knowledge at the Centre.
    • To mobilize funding for research in traditional medicine. This can promote innovation in the field.
    • To formulate protocols that combine traditional and modern medicine for holistic treatment of diseases. This can maximize patient benefits.
  • In summary, the GCTM aims to create standards, catalyze research, and promote cooperation in traditional medicine worldwide with India's support. Its establishment highlights India's leadership in this field.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 24
When fats and oils are oxidised, their smell and taste changes. This phemonenon is termed as _______.
Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 24

The Correct Answer is Rancidity

  • Rancidity: It is a disorder that occurs when unsaturated fats in food and other items undergo aerial oxidation, leading to an unpleasant odor or taste.
  • The unsaturated components of fatty materials exposed to air are converted into hydroperoxides, which further break down into volatile compounds like aldehydes, esters, alcohols, ketones, and hydrocarbons, some of which have unpleasant odors.
  • Through both oxidation and hydrolysis, which releases volatile and malodorous acids, such as butyric acid, butter can become rancid. In contrast, saturated fats like beef tallow are resistant to oxidation and rarely become rancid at normal temperatures.

Key Points

  • Corrosion: A natural process that converts refined metals into more chemically stable forms like oxides, hydroxides, or sulfides.
  • Erosion: In Earth science, erosion refers to the surface processes that remove soil, rock, or dissolved material from one location on the Earth's crust and transport it to another.
  • Ductility: A mechanical property that describes the ability of a material to be drawn into a wire or thread.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Which of the following statement is correct about the ripple effect in the context of ecology

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 25

Ripple Effect in Ecology

  • Definition: The ripple effect in ecology refers to the cascading impact that occurs when a change in one aspect of an ecosystem leads to a series of effects on other interconnected components.
  • Example: When a species goes extinct, it can have a domino effect on other dependent species, ultimately disrupting the balance of the ecosystem. For instance, the extinction of bees can lead to a decline in pollination, affecting plant reproduction and the entire food chain.
  • Significance: Understanding the ripple effect is crucial for ecosystem management and conservation efforts. By recognizing how interconnected species and environmental factors are, scientists and policymakers can implement strategies to mitigate negative impacts and preserve biodiversity.
  • Real-World Implications: The ripple effect has been observed in various environmental crises, such as deforestation, climate change, and habitat destruction. These interconnected risks highlight the importance of addressing environmental issues holistically to prevent irreversible damage to ecosystems.

In News

  •  DownToEarth - World on brink of 6 interconnected risk tipping points: UN report

Key Points

  • The disappearance of one species can trigger the extinction of other dependent species, leading to a ripple effect on the already fragile ecosystem, the UN report said. Hence, understanding the ripple effect is crucial for ecosystem resilience and biodiversity conservation.
  • For example, If the gopher tortoise goes extinct, the dusky gopher frog will likely follow, affecting the entire forest ecosystem.
  • The world is inching closer to six interconnected risk tipping points, describing immediate and increasing risks across the world, according to a new report from the United Nations University – Institute for Environment and Human Security (UNU-EHS).
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Lipulekh Pass is in which state?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 26

Location of Lipulekh Pass

  • Lipulekh Pass is situated in the state of Uttarakhand.
  • Lipulekh Pass serves as a significant pass in the Himalayas on the border between Uttarakhand, India, and Tibet, China.
  • This pass holds strategic importance for trade relations with China.
  • While the southern side of the pass is under Indian control, Nepal also claims its ownership.

Other Important Passes in Uttarakhand

  • Mana Pass: Located in the Greater Himalayas, it connects Tibet with Uttarakhand.
  • Niti Pass: Situated in Uttarakhand and links to Tibet.

Additional Information

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

Match the following:

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 27

The correct answer is A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii.

Key Points

  • Satyarth Prakash (The Light of Meaning of the Truth or The Light of Truth)
    • It is written by Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
    • It is considered one of his major scholarly works.
    • The book was originally written in Hindi and subsequently revised by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1882.
    • This book is now translated into more than 20 languages including Sanskrit and several foreign languages like English, French, German, Swahili, Arabic, and Chinese.
    • The major portion of the book is dedicated to laying down the reformist advocacy of Swami Dayanand with the last three chapters making a case for the comparative study of different religious faiths. 
  • Kapalkundala
    • It is a painful love story, full of intrigue and suspense, penned by one of the most iconic Bengali writers, Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.
    • Our National Song Vande Matram was written by him.
    • Other notable works of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya:
      • Durgesh Nandini, Komalakanter Doptor, Mrinalini, Krishnakanter Will, Bishbrikhsha, Rajsingho, Sitaram, Devi Chaudhurani.
  • The wants and means of India
    • It throws light on the Drain theory Put forward by Dadabhai Naoroji. British government exploited India in every way the could from 1757 to 1947.
    • Dadabhai Nauroji raised his voice against the drain of wealth from India to Britain in 1870 and ensured that British rule will not last long in India.
    • Major writings of Dada Bhai Naroji were as follows:
      • Poverty and Unbritish rule in India
      • The manners and customs of the Parsees
      • Condition of India
      • Admission of educated natives into the ICS
      • The wants and means of India 
  • Gita Rahasya
    • It was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
    • He wrote it when he was in prison at Mandalay in Burma.
    • He is known as the "father of Indian Unrest”.
    • He also earned the title “Lokamanya” which means 'the person who is respected by people and favourite of all.
UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

Which initiative launched by the Uttar Pradesh government aims to provide free education to children of construction workers?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 28

The Atal Awasiya Vidyalaya Yojana is specifically designed to offer free education to children of construction workers employed in the informal sector. This initiative provides residential education to help these children overcome barriers to learning and improve their future prospects.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

What legal action has been taken regarding the Shahi Idgah mosque in Mathura?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 29

A plea has been filed in the Allahabad High Court seeking the removal of the Shahi Idgah mosque, which is adjacent to the Krishna Janmasthan temple. The petitioners argue that the mosque was built on land that originally belonged to the temple, leading to ongoing legal disputes over the ownership and historical claims of the site.

UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

What annual financial assistance does the government provide for educational materials under the Right to Education Act?

Detailed Solution for UPPSC Prelims (GS I) Mock Test - 4 - Question 30

Under the Right to Education Act, the government provides an annual allocation of Rs 5,000 per child for educational materials, which includes books, notebooks, and uniforms. This initiative aims to alleviate the costs associated with schooling for underprivileged children, ensuring they have the necessary resources to succeed in their education.

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