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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 - BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 is part of BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 preparation. The BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 questions and answers have been prepared according to the BPSC (Bihar) exam syllabus.The BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 MCQs are made for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 below.
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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 1

Which of the following medieval cities of Delhi is correctly matched to its founders?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 1
  • Mehrauli and Qutubuddin Aibak:
    • Qutubuddin Aibak was the founder of the Slave dynasty in Delhi.
    • He is known as Lakh Baksh and did not refer to himself as Sultan.
    • Qutubuddin Aibak is credited with starting the Indo-Islamic architecture and is considered the founder of the first medieval city of Delhi, Mehrauli.
    • He initiated the construction of Qutub Minar, named after Chishti Sufi saint Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki, which was later completed by Iltutmish.
    • Additionally, Quwwat ul Islam Mosque in Delhi was built by Qutubuddin Aibak.

Key Points

  • Qutubuddin Aibak:
    • Founder of the Slave dynasty and Indo-Islamic architecture.
    • Initiated construction of Qutub Minar and Quwwat ul Islam Mosque in Delhi.

Important Points

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 2

Which of the following is not a feature of the Cabinet Mission Plan.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 2
  • The Muslim League formally withdrew its acceptance of the Cabinet Mission Plan on 29 July 1946.
  • Post withdrawal, the Muslim League decided to launch the “Direct Action Day” on 16 August 1946 to press the government to accept its demand for Pakistan.
  • The All-India Muslim League was a political party established in Dhaka in 1906 when a group of prominent Muslim politicians met the Viceroy of British India, Lord Minto, with the goal of securing Muslim interests on the Indian subcontinent.

Key Points

  • The Muslim League formally withdrew its acceptance of the Cabinet Mission Plan on 29 July 1946.
  • Post withdrawal, the Muslim League decided to launch the “Direct Action Day” on 16 August 1946 to press the government to accept its demand for Pakistan.
  • The All-India Muslim League was a political party established in Dhaka in 1906 when a group of prominent Muslim politicians met the Viceroy of British India, Lord Minto, with the goal of securing Muslim interests on the Indian subcontinent.

Additional Information

  • On 22nd January 1946, the decision to send Cabinet Mission was taken and on 19th February 1946, the British PM C.R Attlee Government announced in the House of Lords about the mission and the plan to quit India.
  • A high-powered mission of three British Cabinet members - Lord Pethick-Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade, and A. V. Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty reached Delhi on 24th March 1946.
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BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 3

Which of the following river is also known as Uttara Pinakini?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 3
  • Penna River is also known as Uttara Pinakini. It is a river in southern India.
  • The Penna River originates in the Nandi Hills in Chikkaballapur District of Karnataka state and flows north and east through the states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Located in the rain shadow region of Eastern Ghats, the Penna River basin receives an average annual rainfall of 500 mm.

 

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

All cases relating to interpretation of the Constitution can be brought to the Supreme Court under

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 4

When it comes to cases related to the interpretation of the Constitution, they can be brought to the Supreme Court under its Appellate Jurisdiction. Here's a detailed explanation:
Key Points

  • The Supreme Court acts as the highest court of appeal from all courts within the territory of India.
  • It possesses original, appellate, and advisory jurisdiction.
  • Under its Appellate Jurisdiction, cases related to the interpretation of the Constitution can be brought to the Supreme Court. In constitutional matters, an appeal to the Supreme Court is possible if the High Court certifies that the case involves a significant question of law regarding interpretation.
  • Article 134 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court appellate jurisdiction in criminal matters, allowing appeals from any judgment, final order, or sentence of the High Court.
  • The Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court can be initiated through a certificate issued by the concerned High Court under Article 132(1), 133(1), or 134 of the Constitution concerning any judgment.

Additional Information

  • Advisory Jurisdiction is a notable feature of the Supreme Court under Article 143 (Power of President to consult the Supreme Court). If a question of law or fact emerges or is likely to arise, and it is of significant public importance, the President can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court. While the Supreme Court can provide advice to the President, the opinion is not binding.
  • Article 131 of the Indian Constitution deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, which pertains to matters where the specific court is initially approached.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 5

During which five-year plan, the Government of India adopted a regional approach to agricultural planning?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 5
  • Eighth Five Year Plan:
    • (1992 - 97) Target Growth 5.6 % Actual Growth 6.8%  
    • The eighth plan was postponed by two years because of political uncertainty at the Centre
    • Worsening Balance of Payment position, rising debt burden, widening budget deficits, recession in the industry, and inflation were the key issues during the launch of the plan.
    • The plan undertook drastic policy measures to combat the bad economic situation and to undertake an annual average growth of 5.6% through the introduction of fiscal & economic reforms including liberalization under the Prime Ministership of Shri P V Narasimha Rao.
    • Some of the main economic outcomes during the eighth plan period were rapid economic growth (highest annual growth rate so far – 6.8 %), high growth of agriculture and allied sector, and manufacturing sector, growth in exports and imports, improvement in trade, and current account deficit.
    • A high growth rate was achieved even though the share of the public sector in total investment had declined considerably to about 34 %.
  • Additional Information - Sixth Five Year Plan:
    • The Sixth Five-Year Plan marked the beginning of economic liberalization. Price controls were eliminated and ration shops were closed.
    • This led to an increase in food prices and an increase in the cost of living.
    • The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development was established for the development of rural areas on 12 July 1982 by recommendation of the Shivaraman Committee.
    • Family planning was also expanded.
    • NCR planning board in 1985 and Integrated Development of Small and Medium Towns (IDMST)
    • The Sixth Five-Year Plan was a great success for the Indian economy. The target growth rate was 5.2% and the actual growth rate was 5.7%.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Which tissue connects bone to bone?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 6

Understanding the Connection Between Bones with Ligaments

  • Ligaments serve as the connective tissue that links two bones together.

Key Points

  • Ligaments are short bands of tough, flexible tissue composed of numerous individual fibers, facilitating the connection between bones in the body.
  • The primary role of a ligament is to impose a certain degree of restriction on the movement between bones.
  • These ligaments are present around various joints such as knees, ankles, elbows, and shoulders.
  • Damage caused by stretching or tearing of ligaments can lead to instability in the joints.
  • Ligaments are categorized as specialized connective tissues with intriguing biomechanical characteristics.
  • The fundamental components of a ligament are collagen fibers.
  • These fibers exhibit strength, flexibility, and resistance to damage from pulling or compressing stresses.
  • Collagen fibers are typically organized in parallel bundles, enhancing the strength of individual fibers.
  • The bundles of collagen are linked to the outer layer enveloping all bones, known as the periosteum.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

A Remote of a television is related to:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 7

The Remote of a Television is Related to:

  • X-Rays
  • Ultraviolet Rays
  • Infrared Signals
  • None of the above

The correct answer is Infrared Rays.
Key Points

  • To send a signal to a television, remote controls often use a diode that emits light at around 940 nanometers in wavelength, which falls into the range of near-infrared light.

Important Points

  • Ultraviolet Rays:
    • UV radiation is widely used in industrial processes and in medical and dental practices for a variety of purposes, such as killing bacteria, creating fluorescent effects, curing inks and resins, and phototherapy.
  • X-Rays:
    • X-rays can be used to examine most areas of the body.
    • X-rays are used to look at the bones and joints, although they're sometimes used to detect problems affecting soft tissue, such as internal organs.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 8

What kind of salt is obtained from the reaction of a weak acid and a strong base?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 8
  • Alkaline Salt:
    • These salts are formed by incomplete neutralization of bases.
    • They still contain one or more hydroxyl groups in their molecules.
    • The aqueous solution of alkaline salts turns red litmus paper blue.
    • Example: CaCO3, Zn(OH)Cl, etc.

Key Points

  • Additional Information
    • Acidic Salt:
      • These salts are formed by the incomplete neutralization of acids.
      • They still contain one or more replaceable hydrogen groups in their molecules.
      • The aqueous solution of acidic salts turns blue litmus paper red.
      • Example: ZnCl2, HgCl2, Fe2(SO4)3, HgSO4, etc.
    • Neutral Salt:
      • Normal Salt is obtained by the reaction of a strong acid with a strong base.
      • Its aqueous solution has no effect on litmus paper.
      • Example: KCl, NaCl
    • Double Salt:
      • It is a mixture of two salts and exists only in a solid-state.
      • Example: Potash alum, Mohr Salt.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 9

A triangle ABC has been divided into four smaller triangles P, Q, R, S whose perimeters are 16 cm, 12 cm, 4 cm and 12 cm respectively. P, R and S contain the vertices A, B and C respectively. What is the perimeter of the triangle ABC ? 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 9
  • Formula used:
    • The perimeter of a triangle is calculated as the sum of the lengths of its three sides.

Calculation:

  • The required perimeter of triangle ABC can be found by adding the perimeters of triangles P, R, and S, and then subtracting the perimeter of triangle Q from it.
  • Required perimeter = (16 + 4 + 12) - 12 = 20 cm.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 10

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 10
  • In News: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor mentioned that the TReDS platform was launched in 2014 to assist MSMEs in financing or discounting their invoices, serving about 35,000 factoring units (FUs) monthly.
  • Key Points:
    • Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform:
      • It is an electronic platform to facilitate the financing/discounting of trade receivables of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). Hence, option 1 is correct.
      • These receivables can be due from corporates, other buyers, including Government Departments, and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
      • Purpose:
        • To enable MSME sellers to discount invoices issued to major corporations, aiding in managing their working capital requirements.
        • The platform allows MSMEs to receive payments more quickly. Hence, option 4 is correct.
      • Participants:
        • Sellers, buyers, and financiers are involved on a TReDS platform.
        • Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in TReDS. Hence, option 2 is correct.
        • Corporates, Government Departments, PSUs, and other entities can participate as buyers in TReDS.
        • Banks, NBFC - Factors, and other financial institutions, as allowed by the RBI, can participate as financiers in TReDS.
      • RBI has not mandated any buyer, seller, or financier to engage in TReDS. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
      • The Government has made it mandatory for certain segments of companies to register as buyers on TReDS platforms. However, it is not compulsory for these entities to conduct transactions through TReDS.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 11

Railway Ministry has outlined a five-pronged plan to become carbon-neutral by which year?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 11
  • Railway Ministry has put forth a comprehensive plan with five key strategies to achieve carbon neutrality by 2030.
  • The primary goal of the plan is to reduce energy consumption by implementing efficient operational practices and increasing the utilization of renewable energy sources.
  • The components of the plan include initiatives such as the installation of rooftop solar panels on all railway establishments, Sustainable Buildings, Energy Efficiency in Equipment and Appliances, and Power Quality and Restoration.

Key Points:

  • Railway Ministry has outlined a five-pronged plan to become carbon-neutral by 2030.
  • The plan aims to reduce energy consumption through efficient operations and increase the use of renewable energy.
  • Components of the plan include installation of rooftop solar panels on all railway establishments, Sustainable Buildings, Energy Efficiency in Equipment and Appliances, and Power Quality and Restoration.

Important Points:

  • Non-traction operations refer to activities not directly related to train operations on the railway network.
  • Non-traction end-uses account for more than 2,100 GWh of electricity consumption annually, with a projected increase of 30% by 2030.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 12
In which year were the Nagi and Nakti bird sanctuaries designated as Bird Sanctuaries?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 12
Both sanctuaries were designated as Bird Sanctuaries in 1984 due to their importance as wintering habitats for migratory species.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

Which one of the following was not a dominant caste in Bihar during the pre-independent period? 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 13

The Not Dominant Caste in Bihar During Pre-Independent Period

  • Kurmi: Kurmi is traditionally a non-elite tiller caste in the lower Gangetic plain of India, particularly in southern regions of Awadh, eastern Uttar Pradesh, and parts of Bihar.
  • Exceptional Work Ethic: The Kurmis were known for their exceptional work ethic, superior tillage, manuring practices, and gender-neutral culture, which garnered praise from Mughal and British administrators.
  • Non-Dominant: During the pre-independent period, the Kurmi caste was not considered a dominant caste in Bihar.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 14

How many Agro-Climatic zones are identified in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 14
  • Bihar has 3 Agro-Climatic zones based on various factors such as soil characteristics, rainfall, temperature, and terrain.
  • Agro-Climatic Zone I - North-West zone, consists of 13 districts with an annual rainfall ranging from 1040mm to 1450mm and sandy or sandy-loam soil.
  • Agro-Climatic Zone II - North-East zone, covers 8 districts with an annual rainfall between 1200mm to 1700mm and loam or clay-loam soil.
  • Agro-Climatic Zone III A - Southern East, includes 6 districts with an annual rainfall ranging from 990 mm to 1240mm and sandy-loam, loam, or clay-loam soil.
  • Agro-Climatic Zone III B - Southern West, encompasses 11 districts with an annual rainfall between 990 mm to 1240mm and sandy-loam, loam, or clay-loam soil.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

Which among the following pairs of districts of Bihar were created by British with the year is not correctly matched ? 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 15

Analysis of Districts Creation in Bihar by British

  • The revolt of 1857 was suppressed by the British.
  • Following the mutiny, there were administrative changes implemented.
  • The Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885 was introduced to address tenant rights in Bihar and Bengal due to discontent against zamindars.
  • The failure of the 1857 revolt resulted in the Crown taking over from the East India Company.
  • In 1825, the Patna district was established, making pair 1 correctly matched.
  • Gaya became a district in 1865, not in 1885 as mentioned, making pair 2 incorrectly matched.
  • In 1866, Saran district was divided into Saran and Champaran, making pair 4 correctly matched.
  • In 1875, Tirhut was divided into Muzzaffarpore and Darbhanga districts, making pair 3 correctly matched.
  • Bhagalpur and Monghyr were designated district headquarters, and these areas, along with others in Bihar, were part of the Bengal Presidency until 1911.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

Who among the following laid the foundation of the Chola Empire in the IX century A. D.?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 16

The Foundation of the Chola Empire

  • Key Points:
    • Vijayalaya Chola is credited with laying the foundation of the medieval Chola empire.
    • He built a strong base for the Chola empire and expanded its territory by conquering powerful neighboring empires like the Pandyas and Pallavas.
    • Under his rule, the Chola empire became a dominant force in ancient South India.
    • After a period of decline starting around 300 A.D., Vijayalaya Chola re-established Chola rule around 848 A.D.

Additional Information

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

How many seats were given to depressed classes under Communal Award and Poona Pact?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 17

The Allocation of Seats to Depressed Classes under Communal Award and Poona Pact

  • Communal Award:
    • The Communal Award allocated 71 seats to the depressed classes in provincial legislatures.
  • Poona Pact:
    • The Poona Pact, signed on September 24, 1932, provided 147 seats to the depressed classes in provincial legislatures.
    • It was an agreement between M K Gandhi and B R Ambedkar, aiming to secure reservations for the depressed classes in legislative bodies.
    • Dr. B R Ambedkar signed the pact on behalf of the depressed classes, alongside Madan Mohan Malviya and Gandhi.
    • The Poona Pact marked the abandonment of separate electorates for the depressed classes, ensuring their fair representation in the electoral process.
    • It led to a significant increase in the number of reserved seats for the depressed classes, compared to the allocation under the Communal Award.
    • Furthermore, the pact emphasized fair representation in public services and educational opportunities for the upliftment of the depressed classes.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about migration in India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 18

The incorrect statement about migration in India

  • The change of place of residence for a long period of time is known as migration.
  • Migration is a global phenomenon caused not only by economic factors but also by social, political, cultural, environmental, health, education, and transportation factors.
  • Migration of people is related to changes in the social, political, and economic environment in the region of origin or the receiving region.
    • Hence, the statement that migration does not depend on social factors is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • The push and pull factors operate together for a person to migrate.
    • The push factors make the place of origin less attractive and compel a person to migrate because of unemployment, poverty, violence, political strife, etc.
    • The pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive such as better living conditions, educational and cultural development, regular work, high wages, etc.
    • Adults are more likely to migrate than any other age group.
    • Rural to urban migration is far the major portion of migration. It is because of growing urbanization.
    • The migration affects the overall population of the region.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 19

In the context of National Integration Council, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 19
  • The National Integration Council: The National Integration Council (NIC) is not a Constitutional body; it is an extra-constitutional body. It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
  • Formation: The NIC was established in 1962 as a result of the National Integration Conference that took place in 1961 under the chairmanship of Prime Minister Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru. The purpose was to address issues related to communalism, casteism, regionalism, and linguism.
  • Objective: The main objective of the NIC is to analyze the problem of national integration from all angles and provide recommendations for handling it effectively.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

Match the following and choose the correct code :

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 20

Understanding the Matched Committees and Works

  • Committee - Work Matchings:
    • a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

The correct answer is a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2.
Important Points:

  • In April 1968, an Industrial license committee was formed under the leadership of S. Dutt.
    • A key focus was to analyze the operations of the licensing system and the benefits received by certain large industrial establishments.
  • In 1976, the Indirect Taxation Enquiry Committee was established with Dr. L.K. Jha as the chairperson.
  • In 1993, a committee led by R N Malhotra, former RBI Governor, was created to suggest reforms in the insurance sector.
    • The primary goal was to support the ongoing financial sector reforms.
    • One of the key recommendations was to allow private sector entry into the insurance industry, including foreign companies through joint ventures with Indian partners.
  • In 1994, the Ministry of Petroleum formed a committee chaired by Shri U. Sundararajan.
    • Its main task was to develop a framework for the Market Determined Price Mechanism (MDPM) for various petroleum products.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

Which of the following is NOT a primary macronutrient for plants?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 21

Key Points

  • Zinc (Zn) is NOT a primary macronutrient for plants.
  • Macronutrients or Primary Nutrients:
    • These nutrients are essential for plant growth and overall plant health.
    • Primary macronutrients include Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Sulfur, Calcium, and Potassium, Magnesium.
  • Potassium:
    • Potassium plays a role in regulating water, transporting reserve substances, and increasing photosynthesis capacity.
    • It strengthens cell tissue, activates nitrate absorption, and stimulates flowering and enzyme synthesis.
    • Potassium helps plants withstand unfavorable environments and prevents withering.
    • A lack of potassium reduces plant resilience and nutrient balance, leading to symptoms like dark spots on leaves.
  • Magnesium:
    • Magnesium is involved in activating enzymes in respiration and photosynthesis.
    • It is essential for maintaining ribosome structure and DNA/RNA synthesis.
  • Calcium:
    • Calcium regulates metabolic activities, is crucial for cell division, and maintains cell membrane function.

Additional Information

  • Micronutrients:
    • These nutrients are required in trace amounts by plants.
    • Important micronutrients include Boron, Zinc, Manganese, Iron, Copper, Molybdenum, and Chlorine.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Why absorbed water by the rootlets rises to leaves in plants, in the opposite direction of gravity?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 22

Capillarity: - If a tube of the very narrow bore (called capillary) is dipped in a liquid, it is found that the liquid in the capillary either ascends or descends relative to the surrounding liquid. This phenomenon is called capillarity. - The root cause of capillarity is the difference in pressures on two sides of (concave and convex) curved surface of the liquid.
Explanation:- From the above explanation, it is evident that the phenomenon of rising or falling of the liquid level inside a capillary tube when it is immersed in the liquid is referred to as capillary action.- Capillary actions occur due to surface tension.- In plants, water rises from roots to leaves through capillary action, making option 2 the correct choice. Capillary action draws the ink to the tips of fountain pen nibs from a reservoir or cartridge within the pen.- The thread used in lanterns, also known as the wick, utilizes capillary action of liquid kerosene to keep rising in a wick and aid in burning.

BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

When a hydrocarbon is burnt it gives yellow flames with black smoke. Which of the following is true regarding hydrocarbon:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 23

Understanding Hydrocarbon Properties

  • Saturated Hydrocarbon: Saturated hydrocarbons are compounds where carbon atoms are connected by single bonds only. These compounds are saturated with hydrogen atoms.
  • Unsaturated Hydrocarbon: Unsaturated hydrocarbons are compounds with double or triple bonds between carbon atoms, leading to fewer hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain.
  • Application: When a hydrocarbon is burnt, the type of hydrocarbon affects the flame color and smoke produced. Saturated hydrocarbons typically burn with a clean flame, while unsaturated hydrocarbons produce a yellow flame with significant black smoke, known as soot.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

Which Kushan ruler extended his empire upto Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 24

Key Points

  • Origin of Kushan Empire
    • The monarchs of the Kushan Empire were a branch of the Central Asian Yeuchi tribe.
    • They were a nomadic tribe from the steppes who lived in China’s immediate vicinity.
    • The first drove out the Sakas and took over Bactria (North Afghanistan)
    • They gradually marched into the Kabul valley, displacing the Greeks and Parthians in the Gandhara area and eventually capturing Gandhara.
    • They inhabited a large portion of the Gangetic and lower Indus basins.
    • The Kushan empire stretched from central Asia to Uttar Pradesh, from Khorasan to Varanasi.
  • In India, the Kushan empire was divided into two dynasties. The House of Chiefs, or Kadphises, was the first dynasty, succeeded by the House of Kanishka.
  • Kujula Kadphises (30 CE – 80 CE)
    • Kujula Kadphises was the Kadphises I was looking for.
    • He was the first Kushan emperor in India, laying the groundwork for the Kushan Empire.
    • He chose the moniker Dharma-thida for himself.
    • Kabul, Afghanistan, and Kandahar were all conquered by Kadphises I.
    • He struck copper coins that were modeled after Roman coins.
  • Vima Taktu or Sadashkana (80 CE – 95 CE)
    • After Kujula Kadphises, it is unclear if Vima Taktu or Sadashkhana ascended to the throne.
    • During his reign, the Kushan Empire extended into the northwest area of South Asia.
  • Vima Kadphises (95 CE – 127 CE)
    • Vima Kadphises was the son of Sadakshana and the father of Kanishka, according to the Rabatak inscription.
    • He was Kadphises II, and during his reign, he struck a vast quantity of gold coins and extended the Kushan Kingdom to the east of the Indus.
    • He extended his empire upto Bihar. Hence Option 1 is correct.
  • Kanishka (127 CE – 150 CE)
    • Kanishka was the most well-known Kushan emperor.
    • In 78 CE, he established the Shaka period, which is being used by the Indian government today.
    • During Kanishka’s reign, the Kushan empire’s capitals were Purushapura and Mathura.
    • During his ascent to the throne, the Kushan Empire ruled Afghanistan, Gandhara, Sind, and Punjab. 
    • He conquered Magadha and expanded the Kushan empire to Pataliputra and Bodh Gaya. 
    • He fought against the Chinese on his first expedition and was defeated by Chinese general Pancho.
    • From Central Asia to Pataliputra, he reigned over a vast territory.
    • He was a huge supporter of religion and the arts.
    • The Rabatak inscription in Afghanistan contains information on Kanishka’s reign.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 25

Find the least number which must be subtracted from 8143 to make it a perfect square.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 25
  • Given: 8143 is an imperfect square.
  • Calculations:
    • Closest perfect square to 8143 is 8100 = 902.
    • Least number which must be subtracted from 8143:
      • 8143 – 8100 = 43.
  • Therefore, The least number which must be subtracted from 8143 to make it a perfect square is 43.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

Which force moves an aircraft through the air?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 26

Understanding the Thrust Force in Aircraft:

  • Definition: Thrust force is the force responsible for moving an aircraft through the air.
  • Usage: It is utilized to overcome the drag of an airplane and to counteract the weight of a rocket.

Additional Information:

  • Drag Force: This force represents the air resistance that hinders the forward movement of an airplane.
  • Gravity Force: The gravitational force that pulls all objects towards the Earth.
  • Lift Force: It is the upward force generated by the airflow above and below a wing. The difference in air pressure created by the wing's shape helps in sustaining flight.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 27
What species have one of the largest congregations in the Nagi and Nakti bird sanctuaries?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 27
The sanctuaries include one of the largest congregations of red-crested pochard and bar-headed geese on the Indo-Gangetic plain.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 28
How many species of birds are hosted by the Nagi and Nakti bird sanctuaries?
Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 28
These wetlands provide habitats for over 150 species of birds.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

NASA’s DAVINCI and VERITAS missions recently seen in news, is related with 

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 29

Indian Express: Active volcano found on Venus.
Venus:

  • Venus is the second planet from the Sun.
  • It is sometimes called Earth's "sister" or "twin" planet as it is almost as large and has a similar composition.
  • As an interior planet to Earth, Venus (like Mercury) appears in Earth's sky never far from the Sun, either as morning star or evening star.
  • Aside from the Sun and Moon, Venus is the brightest natural object in Earth's sky, capable of casting visible shadows on Earth in dark conditions and being visible to the naked eye in broad daylight.

About the findings:

  • Scientists made the new discovery by pouring over images of Venus taken by NASA’s Magellan spacecraft between 1990 and 1992.
    • During their examination, they looked at the planet’s Atla Regio area, where two of the biggest volcanoes of Venus, Ozza Mons and Maat Mons, are located.
  • As volcanoes act like windows to provide information about a planet’s interior, the new findings take scientists a step further to understand the geological conditions of not just Venus but also other exoplanets.
  • Apart from this, the findings give us a glimpse of what more is to come regarding Venus as in the next decade, two new Venus missions would be launched by NASA that would be DAVINCI and VERITAS missions. Hence option 3 is correct.

Additional InformationDAVINCI:

  • It will measure the composition of the dense, hothouse atmosphere of Venus to further understand how it evolved.
  • DAVINCI+, consisting of a fly-by spacecraft and an atmospheric descent probe, is also expected to return the first high-resolution images of unique geological characteristics on Venus called "tesserae”.

VERITAS:

  • It will map the planet's surface from orbit to help determine its geologic history.
BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

Recently in news, Bihar government launched BeFIQR app.Which of the following statement is/are the correct regarding the app?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Prelims Mock Test - 7 - Question 30

Key Points  'Befiqr' (BeFIQR) - app

  • Taking another step towards adopting the latest technology to reduce the effect of flood and drought in Bihar, a special app 'Befiqr' (BeFIQR) was launched by the Water Resources Department.
  • The purpose of this app is to control flood and irrigation areas under the department.
  • Necessary information related to DDA has to be conveyed in real-time from the headquarters to the regional level officials and other persons through an automated system so that they can take necessary steps on the basis of these.
  • Bihar e-System for Flood and Irrigation Quick Response (BeFIQR) App was envisaged to disseminate flood and irrigation data to field functionaries and stakeholders with the help of automated technology.
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