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BPSC Practice Test- 2 - BPSC (Bihar) MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 - BPSC Practice Test- 2

BPSC Practice Test- 2 for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 is part of BPSC Prelims Mock Test Series & Past Year Papers 2024 preparation. The BPSC Practice Test- 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the BPSC (Bihar) exam syllabus.The BPSC Practice Test- 2 MCQs are made for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC Practice Test- 2 below.
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BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 1

Consider the following statements about the Bihar Prohibition and Excise Act, 2016:

1. It prescribes severe penalties for producing illicit liquor.
2. It has completely eradicated the illegal liquor trade in Bihar.
3. It was implemented to address public health issues caused by alcohol.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 1
Statement 1 is correct because the Act prescribes severe penalties for illicit liquor production. Statement 2 is incorrect, as the illegal trade persists. Statement 3 is correct, as the law was introduced to address alcohol-related public health issues.
BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 2

What was the focus of Bihar's Mango Development Scheme?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 2
Bihar's Mango Development Scheme provides a 50% subsidy to farmers for expanding mango cultivation areas.
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BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 3

Which alphabet is NOT similar to the others?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 3

According to the given information:
A, U, and O are the vowels.
While D is a consonant.
So, D is not similar to the other alphabets.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 4

The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation, which is due to inject of

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 4
The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation, which is due to inject of methanoic acid.

When nettle sting person, it injects an acidic liquid (methanoic acid) into the skin. Rubbing with mild base like baking soda solution on the stung area of the skin gives relief.

OPTIONS EXPLANATION

  • Hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid – These are examples of mineral acids.

  • Citric acid – It is and example of organic acid and it is present in citrus fruits like oranges.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 5

The value of osmotic pressure depends on ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 5
Osmotic pressure is a colligative property, therefore, it depends upon the number of constituents of the solution.

Related points

  • Osmosis is the spontaneous net movement or diffusion of solvent molecules through a selectively permeable membrane from a region of high water potential to a region of low water potential
  • Osmotic pressure
  • If a membrane is present, water will flow to the area with the highest concentration of solute. Osmotic pressure is the pressure created by water moving across a membrane due to osmosis. The more water moves across the membrane, the higher the osmotic pressure.

How Is Osmotic Pressure Calculated?

  • Osmotic pressure is affected by concentration and temperature.
  • The concentration of solute and temperature each affect the amount of pressure created by the movement of water across a membrane. Higher concentrations and higher temperatures increase osmotic pressure.
  • Osmosis is also impacted by how the solute behaves in water, which is where Van't Hoff's factor comes in. Basically, the Van't Hoff's factor of a solute is determined by whether or not a solute stays together or breaks apart in water. Some solutes break apart and form ions, or charged atoms, in water. As shown here, table salt, NaCl, will form sodium (Na+) and Chlorine (Cl-) ions in water. The Van't Hoff's factor of NaCl is two because it breaks into two ions.
  • When placed in water, some molecules such as sucrose stay together and do not form ions. Since sucrose does not break into ions, it has a Van't Hoff's factor of 1.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 6

Which of the following are widely used in genetic engineering?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 6
Plasmids are widely used in genetic engineering.

Options explanation

  • The plastid is a membrane-bound organelle found in the cells of plants, algae, and some other eukaryotic organisms.

  • Bacteria are microscopic, single-celled organisms that exist in their millions, in every environment, both inside and outside other organisms.

  • A virus is a small collection of genetic code, either DNA or RNA, surrounded by a protein coat. A virus cannot replicate alone.

Confusing points

  • Plasmids are used in the techniques and research of genetic engineering and gene therapy by gene transfer to bacterial cells or to cells of superior organisms, whether other plants, animals, or other living organisms, to improve their resistance to diseases or to improve their growth rates.

Gene Therapy

  • It is a technique through which a new DNA is introduced into a patient to treat a genetic disease. The new DNA usually contains a functioning gene to correct the effects of a non-functioning or disease causing gene.

  • A four-year old girl became the first gene therapy patient. She had adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency, a genetic disease which left her defenseless against infections.

Important point

  • Plasmid Vector

    Plasmids and bacteriophages are frequently used as a cloning vector in the DNA recombinant technology.

    The ease with which plasmids can be modified and replicated makes it a great tool in genetic engineering and biotechnology

    For genetic engineering purpose, plasmids are artificially prepared in the lab

    The lab-grown plasmids, which are used as a vector contain an origin of replication, cloning site and selection marker

Additional information

  • Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA molecules. They are small, circular and have an ability to replicate autonomously. Replication of plasmid is not under the control of chromosomal DNA. They are mostly found in bacteria. Some of the eukaryotes like yeast and plants also contain plasmids.

    Their ability to replicate independently makes plasmid a cloning vector in the recombinant DNA technology for transferring and manipulating genes.

    Many antibiotic-resistant genes in bacteria are present in plasmids.

    The size of plasmid varies from a few base pairs to thousands of bp.

    Plasmids also get transferred from one bacterial cell to another by the process of conjugation.

    Plasmids carrying a specific gene are introduced into bacterial cells, which multiply rapidly and the required DNA fragment is produced in larger quantities.

    Plasmids are used to prepare a recombinant DNA with the desired gene to transfer genes from one organism to another. This is known as genetic engineering.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 7

Of the three numbers, the first is twice the second and is half of the third. If the average of these numbers is 56, the numbers in order are:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 7

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 8

If find the value of the expression

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 8

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 9

From which district of Bihar was the Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan launched by the Prime Minister in 2020?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 9
Garib Kalyan Rozgar Abhiyan
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi started his ambitious Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Rozgar Abhiyan on 20 June 2020 from Telihar Panchayat under the Beldaur block of Khagaria district.

Additional Information

  • Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Rozgar Abhiyan (Garib Kalyan Rozgar Abhiyan) is a scheme launched for a fixed period of time,

  • Under which 125 days fixed employment will be provided to migrant laborers and workers. Under this scheme, 116 districts of 6 states of the country have been included, under which about 25,000 workers will be provided fixed employment for 125 days.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 10

Which of the following is the largest city situated on the banks of river Ganga?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 10
The River Ganges
  • Kanpur is the largest city situated on the banks of river Ganga.

  • Kanpur is called the Manchester of the East.

  • The leather industry here is famous in India.

  • Patna is the largest district of Bihar in terms of population, situated on the banks of river Ganga.

  • Patna district also has the highest water density.

  • Varanasi is also situated on the banks of river Ganges.

  • It is called the city of Ghats.

  • Varanasi has got the second highest population density of Uttar Pradesh.

  • Allahabad, situated at the confluence of Ganga, Yamuna and Saraswati, is the most populous district of Uttar Pradesh.

  • The Ganges river flows in the central part of Bihar from west to east.

  • India's longest river Ganga has a total length of 2525 km, in which 445 km flows in Bihar.

  • The flow area of this river in Bihar is 15165 square kilometers.

  • Its origin is the Gomukh of the Gangotri glacier, located north of the Kedarnath peak of Uttarakhand.

  • This river enters from Uttar Pradesh near Chausa in Buxar district of Bihar.

  • In this region, the Ganges, Gandak, Saryu (Ghaghra) and Karmanasha rivers determine the boundary line of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

  • In this from the north (on the left bank) the Ghaghra, Gandak, Bagmati, Balan, Budhi Gandak, Kosi, Mahananda and Kamala rivers come together, while from the south (on the right bank) the rivers Son, Karmanasha, Punpun, Kiul etc. Is.

  • First of the major rivers, Son river in the Ganges in Bihar region, 10 km west of Danapur, comes near Maner.

  • The Ganges river enters Bengal forming a boundary line with the Sahibganj district of Bihar and Jharkhand. Ganga flows in the course of its journey in the districts of Buxar, Bhojpur, Saran, Patna, Vaishali, Samastipur, Begusarai, Khagaria, Munger, Bhagalpur, Katihar etc.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 11

What percentage of Bihar's land has been carved out of Jharkhand state?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 11
  • The area of old Bihar was 1,73,877 square kilometer.

  • The present area of Bihar is 94,163 square kilometer.

BIHAR

  • State formation-22 March 1912 (Bihar Day)

  • Capital- Patna

  • Population-104,099,452

  • Area -94,163 sq km

  • Total District-38

  • Geographical location of the state between -24°20'10" to 27°31'15" north latitude and 83°19'50" to 88°17'40" east longitude

  • Rank in the country in terms of population - third

  • Rank -13th in the country in terms of area

  • Official Language - Hindi and Urdu

  • Major languages spoken in the state - Hindi, Urdu, Bhojpuri, Maithili, Magahi, Angika etc.

  • Countries bordering the state - Nepal

  • States bordering the state - Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand and West Bengal

  • State Animal - Bull

  • State Tree - Peepal

  • state bird - sparrow

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 12

With which country has the Union Cabinet approved the signing of MoU for cooperation in the field of disability ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 12
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved the signing of MoU between India and Chile for cooperation in the field of disability.

Important facts

  • The bilateral MoU will encourage cooperation between the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Government of India and the Government of Chile through joint initiatives in the field of disability.

  • This agreement will strengthen the bilateral ties between India and Chile.

A joint letter of intent was signed between the two countries expressing their willingness to cooperate in the following areas:

(i) Sharing of information about disability policy and delivery of services

(ii) Exchange of information and knowledge

(iii) Collaboration in technology related to accessories

(iv) Development of projects of mutual interest in the field of disability

(v) Early detection and prevention of disability

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 13

Which of the following is not included in the Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 13
  • It is not a fundamental duty under the Constitution of India to assist in the formation of village panchayats. Under the Directive Principles of State Policy, as per Article 40, the State shall take steps to organize Gram Panchayats.

  • To protect the country and to serve the nation (Article 51A (d)), to understand and preserve the glorious tradition of our social culture (under Article 51A (f)) and to protect public property and from violence Staying away (Article 51A (I)) is included in the Fundamental Duties.

Some Important Points

  • The Fundamental Duty was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the basis of the recommendation of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.

  • The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are taken from the Constitution of the Soviet Union.

  • Fundamental duty has been added under Part IVA of the Constitution.

  • Fundamental duties are mentioned in Article 51A of the Constitution.

  • At present the total number of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution is 11.

  • Originally the number of fundamental duties was 10, later one more duty was added through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

RELATED INFORMATION

Following are the 11 Fundamental Duties-

  • To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals, institutions, national flag and national anthem.

  • To cherish and follow the high ideals that inspired our national movement for independence.

  • Protect and keep the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India intact.

  • Protect the country and serve the nation when called upon.

  • To create a sense of harmony and equal fraternity among all the people of India.

  • Understand the importance of the glorious tradition of our social culture and build it.

  • To protect and enhance the natural environment.

  • Develop a scientific attitude and the spirit of knowledge acquisition.

  • Protect public property.

  • Make continuous efforts to move towards excellence in all spheres of individual and group activities.

  • Providing primary education to children of 6 to 14 years of age by a parent or guardian.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 14

By whom does the judge of the Supreme Court resign from his post ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 14
The Supreme Court judge resigned from his post by writing a letter to the President. Hence option 2 is correct.

Important facts

  • According to Article 124(2)(a ) of the Constitution of India, a judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office in writing under his signature addressed to the President.

  • The Supreme Court is mentioned in Part V of the Constitution .

  • The Supreme Court is mentioned in Articles 124 to 147 of the Constitution .

  • Harilal Jekisunddas Kania was the first Chief Justice of India.

  • Fatima Biwi was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India.

  • At present there are 33 judges and one Chief Justice in the Supreme Court .

  • Initially , the Supreme Court had 7 judges and one Chief Justice.

  • The President appoints the Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court.

  • The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28 January 1950.

  • The English language is used for judicial work in the Supreme Court.

Qualifications of Judges

  • He should be a citizen of India

  • He should be a judge of any court for at least five years or

  • He should have been an advocate in the High Court or various courts for 10 years or

  • In the opinion of the President he should be a respected jurist

Tenure and expulsion

  • The retirement age of the Chief Justice and judges of the Supreme Court is 65 years.

  • He can resign in writing to the President

  • He can be removed from office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 15

In which year was the United Nations formed?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 15
  • United Nations is an international organization.

  • It works for facilitating international law, cooperation, international security, economic development, social progress, human rights and world peace.

  • The United Nations was established on 24 October 1945 with the signing of the United Nations Charter by 50 countries.

IMPORTANT FACTS

  • After World War II, the United Nations was created to replace the ineffective League of Nations, with the aim of preventing future wars.

  • The General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), the Trusteeship Council, the International Court of Justice and the United Nations Secretariat are the six main organs of the United Nations.

  • The World Bank Group, the World Health Organization, the World Food Programme, UNESCO and UNICEF are among the many specialist organizations, funds and programs in the United Nations system.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 16

Which city of India is known as 'The Athens of the East'?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 16
  • The city of Madurai is located in Tamil Nadu on the banks of River Vaigai.

  • It has found mentions in the texts of Kautilya and Megasthenes dating back to the 3rd century BC.

  • The ancient city has served as the capital of the Kingdom of Pandyas.

  • The city was initially developed in the shape of Lotus.

  • The magnificent Hindu temples are the major attractions of Madurai like Meenakshi Amman Temple, Koodal Azhagar Temple, and many more.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 17

Some rulers of the Khalji dynasty as given below:

A: Alauddin Khalji

B: Qutb-ud-din Mubarak

C: Khusrau Khan

D: Jalal-ud-din Khalji

Arrange them according to their reign.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 17

Jalal-ud-din Khalji:

  • The Khalji or Khilji dynasty, founded by Jalal-ud-din Firuz Khalji ruled large parts of the Indian subcontinent between 1290 and 1296.

  • It was the second dynasty to rule the Delhi Sultanate.

  • The ancestors of Jalal-ud-din were of Turkish-Afghani descent.

  • Jalal-ud-din was later succeeded by Alauddin Khalji who was his nephew and murdered his uncle to get access to the throne.

​Alauddin Khalji was an emperor of the Khalji dynasty.

  • Alauddin was a nephew and son-in-law of the Jalaluddin Khalji, founder of the Khalji dynasty.

  • He ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1296–1316.

  • He adopted the title "Sikander-i-Sani."

  • Introduced Chehra and Dagh system.

  • Alauddin built the Siri Fort, The Hauz-i-Khas, Alai Darwaza.

Qutb-ud-din Mubarak:

  • Alauddin Khalji’s son Qutb-ud-din Mubarak assumed the title of Khalifa for himself.

  • After Alauddin died on 4 January 1316, his slave-general Malik Kafur appointed Alauddin's 6-year-old son Shihabuddin as a puppet monarch, and he held the power as regent.

  • Mubarak Shah ascended the throne with the title Qutubuddin on 14 April 1316, when he was 17 or 18 years old.

Khusrau Khan:

  • Khusrau Khan was the Sultan of Delhi for around two months in 1320.

  • He belonged to the Baradu Hindu military clan and was captured by the Delhi army during Alauddin Khalji's conquest of Malwa in 1305.

  • After being brought to Delhi as a slave, he converted to Islam.

  • After ascending the throne in 1316, Mubarak Shah gave him the title "Khusrau Khan", and greatly favored him.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 18

Who among the following Indian revolutionaries conceived an armed insurrection against the British in cooperation with Germany?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 18
Jatindra Nath Mukherjee
  • He was a great Indian revolutionary personality who made Britishers feel the power of Indian resistance and resentment against British imperialism and colonialism. He was born in the Jhenaidha district of Bengal in 1879.

  • It is said that he came to be called ‘Bagha Jatin’ after killing a tiger single-handedly without any arms.

  • Jatin, a man with a strong sense of self-respect and national pride, came in contact with Aurobindo Ghosh and his Anushilan Samiti.

  • As a college student, Jatindranath joined a relief camp organised by Sister Nivedita, the Irish disciple of Swami Vivekananda.

  • He was influenced by the Bhagavad Gita and the writings of Bankim Chandra.

  • He was also inspired by Sri Aurbindo’s Bhavani Mandir and Swami Vivekananda.

  • In 1905, Bagha Jatin established an association called Chhatra Bhandar. Although it was established as a student cooperative store association, it served as an outfit for the revolutionaries of Bengal.

  • Bagha Jatin inspired a large group of young revolutionaries. M.N. Roy and Bagha Jatin worked together extensively and soon M.N. Roy accepted Bagha Jatin as his leader.

  • Thirty years before Bose's move, there was another attempt by another great Indian revolutionary to win independence for India in cooperation with Germany.

  • Against the backdrop of the outbreak of World War l, Bagha Jatin had conceived an armed insurrection against the British in cooperation with Germany. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

  • Incidentally, this chapter is missing from popular history. Bagha Jatin famously declared, 'India has to rise with her own strength.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 19

Which of the following is the main provision of Rajagopalachari Formula?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 19
The Rajagopalachari Formula, 1944:
  • C. Rajagopalachari (CR), the veteran Congress leader, prepared a formula for Congress-League cooperation in 1944.

  • The purpose of the C R Formula was to solve the political standoff between the All India Muslim League and Indian National Congress.

  • The main provisions in the CR Plan were:

    • Muslim League to endorse Congress’s demand for independence.

    • League to cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at the center.

    • After the end of the war, the entire population of Muslim majority areas in the North-West and North-East India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

    • In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defense, commerce, communications, etc.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 20

Hot desert regions are found mostly in the western part of the continents between which latitudes?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 20
Hot desert regions
  • Hot desert means deserts with hot climate which are only found in the tropical region and subtropical regions in sandy soil.

  • The desert between 15° and 30° North and South of the equator is hot deserts and largely the maximum temperature in this desert is 40°C.

  • Some famous hot deserts are the Sahara desert Arabian desert etc.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 21

Match the following leaders listed in List A to Parties in List B.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 21
  • Ashok Mehta was an Indian freedom fighter and socialist politician. He helped organize the socialist wing Congress Socialist Party of the Indian National Congress, along with Rambriksh Benipuri, and Jaya Prakash Narayan, and was heavily involved in the politics and government of the city of Bombay.

  • Ashoka Mehta was a founder member of the Socialist Party and when, in September 1952, the Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party and the Socialist Party merged to form the Praja Socialist Party (PSP) in which the major cementing role was played by Ram Manohar Lohia and Mehta, Asoka Mehta was appointed the General Secretary of the Praja Socialist Party (PSP) and later served as the President of the party from the year 1959 to 1963. He became the new party's general secretary. He was Praja Socialist Party's president from 1959 to 1963.

  • Minoo Msanai was a socialist leader who joined the Constituent Assembly from Bombay on a Congress Party ticket and represented the Assembly's socialist strand.

  • In 1959, Masani helped found the Swatantra Party alongside C. Rajagopalachari and other senior congressmen. Nehru was deeply critical of the Party, dubbing it the ‘Maharaja Party’. But the organizing work done by Masani ensured that the Party had become the principal opposition to the Congress in the Lok Sabha by 1967.

  • SA Dange was an Indian Politician who was a founding member of the Communist Party of India (CPI) and a stalwart of the Indian trade union movement. during The British Raj Dange was arrested for communist and trade union activities. He was jailed for a total period of 13 years. In 1922 he launched the first socialistic journal called The socialist.

  • Dr.Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was an academician and barrister who was part of the first cabinet as Minister of Industry and supply. he resigned as his protest to the Nehru-Liaquat Pact. He went onto form Bharatiya Jana Sangh with help from Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh. It was the ideological predecessor of the Bhartiya Janata Party.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 22

Assertion (A): Green Revolution has resulted in the growth of food grain production in India.

Reason (R): Regional disparities have aggravated due to the green revolution in India.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 22
  • The Green Revolution is a term that refers to the revolution in the field of agriculture by using HYV seeds, the adoption of modern methods and technology, improved irrigation facilities, pesticides, and fertilizers to improve agricultural productivity in the developing world.

  • Norman Borlaug is considered the Father of the Green Revolution worldwide.

    • He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970.

    • He is also the recipient of Padma Vibhushan in 2006.

    • The Borlaug Award was created in honour of Nobel Laureate Norman E. Borlaug in 1972, given in the field of agriculture and the environment to Indian scientists.

  • The Green Revolution within India commenced in 1966.

  • Regional disparities have aggravated due to the green revolution in India especially in Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.

  • Green Revolution has resulted in the growth of food grain production in India.

  • Major development is the high-yielding varieties of wheat and rust-resistant strains of wheat.

  • M. S. Swaminathan is the Father of the Green Revolution in India.

    • He is known for his role in India's Green Revolution.

    • He is the founder of the MS Swaminathan Research Foundation.

    • He is the recipient of the Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement (1991), Padma Vibhushan (1989), World Food Prize(1987), Padma Bhushan (1972), Ramon Magsaysay Award (1971), Padma Shri (1967), Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award (1961).

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 23

Which five year plan proposed to make India a 'self-reliant' and 'self-generating' economy?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 23
  • Though the planned economic development in India began in 1951 with the inception of the First Five Year Plan, theoretical efforts had begun much earlier, even prior to the independence.
  • Setting up of National Planning Committee by Indian National Congress in 1938, The Bombay Plan & Gandhian Plan in 1944, Peoples Plan in 1945 (by post-war reconstruction Committee of Indian Trade Union), Sarvodaya Plan in 1950 by Jaiprakash Narayan stepped in this direction.
  • Five-Year Plans (FYPs) :
    • Five-Year Plans centralized and integrated national economic programs.
    • Joseph Stalin implemented the first FYP in the Soviet Union in the late 1920s.
    • Most communist states and several capitalist countries subsequently have adopted them.
    • China and India both continue to use FYPs.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 24

The square root of 6084 is :

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 24

60 is a nearby square to square of 8 that is why we will opt largest value i.e 78

Hence, the square square root of 6084 is 78

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 25

The buildings of Raj Bhavan, Chief Secretariat, and High Court in Patna are influenced by which style?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 25
  • The buildings of the Raj Bhavan, the Chief Secretariat,and theHigh Court in Patna are mainly influenced by theEuropean Renaissance style.

  • The buildings of Patna Museum and Sultan Palaceare influenced by Indo-Islamic style.

Other important information

  • The architectures of New Delhi,done by Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker.

  • The architecture of new delhi is in Neo-Roman style or Neo-Classical style.

  • Le corbusier,a french architect designed the city of Chandigarh.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 26

Who among the following prepares the geographical maps of India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 26
Survey of India Department-:
  • The Survey of India Department, under the Ministry of Science and Technology, is the central agency for mapping and surveying India.

  • The Survey of India Department or Survey of India was formed in 1767 to organize the territories of the British India Company.

  • In 1767 AD, Major James Renley was appointed the first Surveyor General of Bengal.

  • It is one of the oldest scientific departments of the Government of India.

  • The Survey of India has the distinction of printing India's first postage stamp and printing the first copy of the Constitution.

  • Its motto is 'Setu Himachalam - from Kanyakumari to the Himalayas'.

  • Its headquarter is located in Dehradun.

  • The Survey of India is engaged in the production and maintenance of topographical, geographical and other public range maps/data as well as the production of geodetic data.

Geological Survey of India Department

  • The Geological Survey of India is an organization functioning under the Ministry of Mines, Government of India. It was established in 1851. Its function is to conduct geological surveys and studies.

  • The Geological Survey of India (GSI) department was established in the year 1851 mainly for the purpose of exploring the available coal reserves in India for the railways.

  • The main function of GSI is to carry out national geo-scientific information and mineral resource assessment and modernization.

  • It is headquartered in Kolkata and has state unit offices in almost all the states of the country and six regional offices located at Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong and Kolkata.

  • Presently GSI is functioning as a subsidiary body of the Ministry of Mines.

Ministry of Defence

  • The main function of the Ministry of Defense is to formulate policy directions on defense and security related matters and convey them to the Headquarters of the Security Forces, Inter-Services Organisations, Defense Product Establishments and R&D Organizations for their implementation.

  • The Ministry of Defense is a combination of four departments.

  • It consists of the Department of Defense (DoD), Department of Defense Excise (DDP), Department of Defense Research and Development (DDR&D) and Ex-Servicemen Welfare and Finance Division.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 27

A root hair does not contain

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 27
Root hairs do not contain chloroplast(plastid) because root hairs are present in dark and do not carry out the process of photosynthesis.

Related points

  • Root is generally non-green, underground, positively geotropic (only main root), positively hydrotropic and often negatively phototropic descending cylindrical axis of the plant body.
  • The root which develops from the radicle of the embryo is called primary root. Primary root bears lateral roots called secondary roots, which are further branched into tertiary roots and so on, e.g. many dicot plants.
  • Primary roots and its branches constitute tap root system. In monocot plants, the primary root is short lived and is replaced by a large number of roots originated from the base of stem and constitute the fibrous roots, e.g. wheat, rice, etc.
  • In grasses, Monstera and the banyan tree, roots arise from parts of the plant other than radicle and are known as adventitious roots. A typical root consists of a cap-like structure called root cap (root pockets in hydrophytes like Lemna, Eichhomia and Pistia) region, i.e. the region of meristematic activity, the region of cell elongation and region of maturation.
  • Root hair are found in the region of maturation, which absorb water and minerals from the soil.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 28

Which device uses slip rings?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 28
A slip ring is a device that is used to transmit the power and electrical signal from a stator to a rotor. It improves the mechanical performance of the device.

Working of slip ring-

  • a slip ring is a device that is used to transmit the power and electrical signal from a stator to a rotor.

  • the slip ring is used in a device that requires the transmission of power to the rotating structure.

  • It improves the mechanical performance of the device and also eliminates the chance of breaking the wiring structure from the movable joints.

  • In a d.c electric motor, the commutators are used instead of slip rings.

  • The commutators are similar to the slip rings but have critical distinctions. In the d.c motors, commutators are used to reverse the polarity of the current in the armature coils.

  • a relay and a transformer are not devices that have rotors and stators. These are stationary structures and don’t need the use of slip rings.

  • In an a.c generator, the slip rings are fitted to the rotor which improves its performance. The slip rings provide resistance to the rotor wirings. Recently, the modified slip rings are able to transmit analog and digital signals in devices such as temperature sensors.

The important thing about slip ring-

  • Though slip rings sound familiar to commutators, they cannot be used in the d.c motors to transmit power.

  • Slip rings are used only in the structure which has both stator and rotor.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 29

Which of the following bill can be returned by the President for reconsideration?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 29
  • An ordinary bill passed by both the Houses can be withheld by the President or returned for reconsideration. If it comes to the President after being passed again by both the houses, then it is mandatory for the President to give his assent.

  • The President can either give his assent or withhold the money bill. Under the Constitution, a money bill cannot be returned to the House for reconsideration by the President. If he does not give approval within 14 days, he is deemed to have passed.

  • The President cannot return the Constitution amendment bill for reconsideration and the President has no veto power in relation to it. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it mandatory for the President to give his assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill.

BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 30

By whom the Attorney General of India is appointed?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 2 - Question 30
The Attorney General is appointed by the President on the advice of the government.

Important Facts

  • The Attorney General of India (AG) is a part of the executive body of the Union.

  • AG is the highest law officer of the country.

  • Article 76 of the Constitution provides for the office of the Attorney General of India.

  • He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court .

  • He should be a citizen of India.

  • He should have five years experience of serving as a Judge of a High Court.

  • Or 10 years experience of practice in a High Court.

  • In the opinion of the President, he should be a person capable of judicial matters.

  • Term of Office: Not fixed by the Constitution.

  • Venugopal was appointed as the 15th Attorney General of India in the year 2017.

  • He replaced Mukul Rohatgi who was Attorney General from 2014-2017.

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