CA - CPT ICAI Model Test Paper - 10


200 Questions MCQ Test CA CPT - Mock Test Series and Previous Year Question Papers | CA - CPT ICAI Model Test Paper - 10


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This mock test of CA - CPT ICAI Model Test Paper - 10 for CA CPT helps you for every CA CPT entrance exam. This contains 200 Multiple Choice Questions for CA CPT CA - CPT ICAI Model Test Paper - 10 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CA - CPT ICAI Model Test Paper - 10 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CA CPT students definitely take this CA - CPT ICAI Model Test Paper - 10 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CA - CPT ICAI Model Test Paper - 10 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CA CPT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Mr. Ashok buys clothing of Rs. 50,000 paying cash Rs. 20,000. What is the amount of expense as per the accrual concept?

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QUESTION: 2

Loss leads to a reduction in

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QUESTION: 3

Accounting standards are

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QUESTION: 4

“Substance of any transaction should be considered while recording them and not only the legal form” is the statement which holds true for:

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QUESTION: 5

The determination of the amount of provision for doubtful debts  is an accounting

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QUESTION: 6

What is the order in which the accounting transactions and events are recorded in the books?

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QUESTION: 7

The expired portion of capital expenditure is shown in the financial statements as

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QUESTION: 8

Rs. 5,000 incurred for upgradation of computer by installation of 128 MB RAM is

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QUESTION: 9

According to money measurement concept, currency transactions and events are recorded in the books of accounts

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QUESTION: 10

All of the following errors do not affect the trial balance, except

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QUESTION: 11

Errors are ________ mistakes.

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QUESTION: 12

Trial balance is a statement which shows the ________ or the ________of all the accounts.

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QUESTION: 13

It is easy to detect ________ than to ________.

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QUESTION: 14

In case of debit balance, the words ________ are written on the debit side.

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QUESTION: 15

Rs. 5,000 spent on maintenance of plant and machinery is ________.

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QUESTION: 16

Bank pass book is also known as ________

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QUESTION: 17

Capital expenditures are recorded in the ________

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QUESTION: 18

Accounts receivable normally has ________ balance.

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QUESTION: 19

An account is a formal record of changes in items of ________ nature.

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QUESTION: 20

The ass umption underlying the fixed ins tallment method of depreciation is that of ________ of the asset over different years of its useful life.

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QUESTION: 21

A businessman purchased goods for Rs.25,00,000 and sold 70% of such goods during the accounting year ended 31st March, 2010. The market value of the remaining goods was Rs.5,00,000. He valued the closing inventory at Rs. 5,00,000 and not at Rs. 7,50,000 due to

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QUESTION: 22

M/s Omega Brothers, which was registered in the year 2004, has been following LIFO method for valuation of shares. It changed its method from LIFO to FIFO Method in the year 2009.The auditor raised objection to this change in the method of valuation of investments.The objection of the auditor is justified because

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QUESTION: 23

Following are the items of the balance sheet of Mr. X: Capital Rs. 7,00,000; Machinery Rs. 5,00,000 and Cash Rs. 2,00,000. If Mr. X spends Rs. 5,000 to meet his family expenses, the balance of capital and cash accounts will be

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QUESTION: 24

Mr. Mohan started a cloth business by investing Rs. 50,000, bought merchandise worth Rs. 50,000. He sold merchandise for Rs. 60,000. Customers paid him  Rs. 50,000 cash and assured him to pay Rs. 10,000 shortly. The amount of revenue earned by him is _________

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QUESTION: 25

If sales revenues are Rs. 4,00,000; cost of goods sold is Rs. 3,10,000, the gross profit is _________

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QUESTION: 26

When balance as per cash book (debit balance) as on 31st March is the starting point, what will be the effect while preparing bank reconciliation statement when out of the cheques amounting to Rs. 5,000 deposited, cheques aggregating Rs. 1,500 were credited in March and cheques aggregating Rs. 2,000 credited in April and the rest have not been collected?

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QUESTION: 27

A and B purchased a piece of land for Rs. 30,000 and sold it for Rs. 60,000 in 2010. Originally A had contributed Rs. 12,000 and B Rs. 8,000. The profit on venture will be

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QUESTION: 28

On 1.1. 2010 X draws a bill on Y for Rs 1, 00, 000. At maturity, the bil l returned dishonoured as Y became insolvent and 40 paise per rupee is recovered from his estate.The amount recovered is:

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QUESTION: 29

An individual invests Rs.2,00,000 for running a stationery business. On 1st Jan., he purchases goods for Rs. 1,15,000 and sells the goods for Rs. 1,47,000 during the month of January. He pays shop rent for the month Rs. 5,000 and finds that still he has goods worth Rs. 15,000 in hand. The amount of surplus will be

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QUESTION: 30

Goods costing Rs. 600 is supplied to Ram at the invoice of 10% above cost and a trade discount for 5%. The amount of sales will be

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QUESTION: 31

Goods sold for cash Rs. 10,000, plus 10% sales tax. Sales will be credited by

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QUESTION: 32

Ganesh takes a salary Rs. 10,000 per month. He withdrew goods worth Rs. 2,500 for personal use and got salary Rs. 9,500 in cash. The excess payment of Rs. 2,000 will be debited to

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QUESTION: 33

Journal entry for Rs. 6,000 stolen from the safe of the firm will be ________

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QUESTION: 34

After preparing the trial balance the accountant finds that the total of the debit side is short by Rs. 1,000. This difference will be __________

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QUESTION: 35

The accountant of the firm M/s ABC is unable to tally the following trial balance:

The above difference in trial balance is due to 

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QUESTION: 36

Sita and Gita are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2 having the capital of Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 50,000 respectively. They are entitled to 9% p.a. interest on capital before distributing the profits. During the year firm earned Rs. 7,800 after allowing interest on capital. Profits apportioned among Sita and Gita is:

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QUESTION: 37

A sale of Rs. 100 to A recorded in the Purchase Book would affect:

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QUESTION: 38

Total capital employed by a partnership firm is Rs.1,00,000 and its average profit is Rs.25,000.Normal rate of return is 20% in similar firms working under similar conditions. The firm earns super profit of:

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QUESTION: 39

If capital emplo y ed by a partnership firm is Rs. 1, 00,000 and its av erag e pro fit is Rs. 20,000, normal rate of return is 15%, the value of goodwill according to capitalization method will be

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QUESTION: 40

A and D are equal partners. They wanted to admit C as 1/6th partner who brought Rs.60,000 as goodwill. The new profit sharing ratio is 3:2:1. Profit sacrificing ratio will be

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QUESTION: 41

A, B, C & D are in partnership sharing profits and losses equally. They mutually agree to change the profit sharing ratio to 3:3:2:2. In this process D loses

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QUESTION: 42

The following information pertains to X Ltd.
(i) Equity share capital called up Rs.5,00,000
(ii) Calls in arrear Rs.40,000
(iii) Calls in advance Rs.25,000
(iv) Proposed dividend 15%

The amount of dividend payable is

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QUESTION: 43

Alfa Ltd. issued shares of Rs.10 each at par. Mr. C purchased 30 shares and paid Rs.2 on application but did not pay the allotment money of Rs.3. If the company forfeited his entire shares, the forfeiture account will be credited by:

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QUESTION: 44

The profits of last three years are Rs. 43,000; Rs. 38,000 and Rs. 45,000. Find out the goodwill at two years purchase.

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QUESTION: 45

Mohan sent some goods costing Rs. 3,500 at profit of 25% on sale to Sohan on sale or return basis. Sohan return goods costing Rs.800. At the year end, i.e., on 31st December, 2011, the remaining goods were neither returned nor approved by him. The inventory on approval will be shown in the balance sheet at Rs. ______

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QUESTION: 46

A’s acceptance to B for Rs.2,500 is  discharged  by a cash payment of Rs.1,000 and a new bill  is drawn for the balance plus Rs.50 for interest. The amount of the new bill will be Rs. ______

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QUESTION: 47

A bought goods of the value Rs.10,000 and consigned them to B to be sold on joint venture, profits being divided equally. A draws a bill on B for an amount equivalent to 80% of cost on consignment. The amount of bill will be

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QUESTION: 48

Goods costing Rs.1,80,000 sent to consignee to show a profit of 20% on invoice price. Invoice price of the goods is ______

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QUESTION: 49

If 1,000 typewriters costing Rs.250 each are sent on consignment basis and Rs.10,000 is spent for freight etc., 20 typewriters are damaged in transit beyond repair. The amount of loss will be __________

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QUESTION: 50

1,000 Kg. of Mangoes were consigned to a wholesaler, the cost being Rs. 3 per kg. plus Rs. 400 freight. Loss of 15% of Mangoes is unavoidable. 750 kgs. were sold by the consignee.The remaining inventory of 100 kg. will be valued at

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QUESTION: 51

Machinery costing Rs. 10,00,000 was purchased on 1.4.2011. The installation charges amounting Rs.1,00,000 were incurred. The depreciation at 10% per annum on straight line method for the year ended 31st March, 2012  will be ____

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QUESTION: 52

Goods costing Rs 5,00,000 sent out to consignee at Cost + 25% . Invoice value of the goods will be _______

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QUESTION: 53

Opening inventory Rs. 2,50,000, closing inventory Rs. 50,000, purchases Rs. 2,00,000, sales Rs. 5,00,000. Gross profit rate 20% on sales. The amount of gross profit is:

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QUESTION: 54

XYZ & Company employs a team of ten workers who were paid Rs.1,000 each in the year ending 31st December, 2010. At the start of year 2011, the company raised salaries by 10%. The amount of salaries for the year ended 31st December, 2011 will be ______

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QUESTION: 55

Debit balance as per Cash Book of ABC Enterprises as on 31.3. 2012 is Rs. 10,000.Cheques deposited but not cleared amounts to Rs. 1,000 and Cheques issued but not presented is Rs. 2,000. Balance as per pass book should be

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QUESTION: 56

Goods purchased Rs. 1,00,000, Sales Rs. 90,000 and Margin is 20 % on sales. Closing inventory is

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QUESTION: 57

Mohan runs a restaurant. He renovates some of the old cabins to increase some space.The amount of Rs. 15,000 was incurred on renovation. The amount to be charged to profit and loss account is

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QUESTION: 58

Money paid to MTNL Rs. 10,000 for installing telephone in office is:

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QUESTION: 59

A company forfeited 1,000 shares of Rs.10 each (which were issued at par) held by Mr. John for non-payment of allotment money of Rs. 4 per share. The called-up value per share was Rs.8. On forfeiture, the amount debited to share capital will be

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QUESTION: 60

Capital introduced in the beginning by Shyam Rs. 3,00,000; further capital introduced during the year Rs. 2,00,000; Drawing Rs. 1,500 per month and closing capital is Rs. 4,50,000. The amount of profit or loss for the year is:

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QUESTION: 61

Which of the following is correct:

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QUESTION: 62

In case of eatables and provisions, implied conditions can be applied are:

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QUESTION: 63

A contract of sale may be made by

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QUESTION: 64

An offer may be made to the following:

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QUESTION: 65

The following is not a ‘document of title to goods’:

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QUESTION: 66

An agreement induced by mistake of fact is void if the following conditions are fulfilled:

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QUESTION: 67

Contracts may be classified on the basis of their validity, formation or performance. Contracts classified on the basis of formation are of the following types:

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QUESTION: 68

A condition may be treated as warranty in the following cases:

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QUESTION: 69

The difference in consideration under English law and Indian law are:

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QUESTION: 70

Implied authority of the partner does not empower him to

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QUESTION: 71

Compulsory Dissolution includes

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QUESTION: 72

Ratification by a minor of a contract entered during minority, even after he attains majority is not allowed.

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QUESTION: 73

A contract between A, B and C was executed whereby A pays money to B for delivering some goods to C. C has not paid any consideration. Can C enforce the agreement?

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QUESTION: 74

In case of sale

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QUESTION: 75

A void contract is a contract without any legal effect and cannot be enforced in a Court of law. The following are instances of void contracts:

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QUESTION: 76

Finder of goods is subject to the same responsibility as of :

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QUESTION: 77

Acceptance is deemed to take place when the buyer

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QUESTION: 78

The rights of a minor when admitted to the benefits of the partnership include

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QUESTION: 79

Which of the following is correct:

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QUESTION: 80

Agreement to share profits _________.

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QUESTION: 81

Actual Sale of future goods is _________.

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QUESTION: 82

An offer made to a definite person who can be accepted by the specified person only is _________.

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QUESTION: 83

A contracts to pay B Rs.1,00,000 if the latter’s house is burnt to ashes. This is an example of _________.

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QUESTION: 84

The position of a stranger to a contract and that of the stranger to a consideration is _________.

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QUESTION: 85

Goods are said to be in a deliverable state when _________.

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QUESTION: 86

Any act committed by a party to a contract, or with his connivance or by his agent with intent to deceive another party thereto or his agent, or to induce him to enter into a contract is said to be _________.

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QUESTION: 87

Provisions relating to doctrine of Caveat Emptor is laid down in the _________.

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QUESTION: 88

A directs B who is a solicitor to sell his estate by auction and to employ an auctioneer for this purpose. B names C, an auctioneer, to conduct the sale. The status of C for the sale is _________.

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QUESTION: 89

Quasi-contract is also termed as :

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QUESTION: 90

X proposes by a letter sent by post to sell his house to Y. Y accepts the proposal by a letter sent by post. The letter of acceptance is in the course of transmission to X. Y _________.

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QUESTION: 91

A agrees to pay B Rs. 5,00,000/- if A is able to go to a foreign tour in the forthcoming week.It is _________.

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QUESTION: 92

A bus plying on the road is an example of _________.

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QUESTION: 93

Tender for supply of goods is an offer, which is allowed to remain open for acceptance over a period of time. Such offers are _________.

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QUESTION: 94

Consideration may be gratuitous or non-gratuitous _________.

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QUESTION: 95

Expressed conditions are those _________.

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QUESTION: 96

Right of lien and Right of stoppage in transit _________.

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QUESTION: 97

Goodwill of the partnership business can be regarded as _________________.

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QUESTION: 98

Where the deterioration is caused to goods by delay in delivery by the carrier there the damages can be recovered from :

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QUESTION: 99

The Damages that constitute the direct loss suffered by the injured party :

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QUESTION: 100

Sanju took a medical insurance from Deadly Diseases Insurance & Claim Corporation of Asia (DDICCA) through one of its agent, Manju. Sanju singed whatever documents were placed before her by Manju in good faith. The documents contained the fact that Sanju was healthy, fit and fine whereas she was actually suffering from chronic asthma and acute allergy. Sanju did not take care to suggest the changes in the documents and the policy was issued based on the above submissions.

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QUESTION: 101

Economics is the study of

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QUESTION: 102

Which of the following is not part of the opportunity cost of going on holiday?

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QUESTION: 103

Which of the following statements is normative?

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QUESTION: 104

If an increase in consumer incomes leads to a decrease in the demand for camping equipment, then camping equipment is

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QUESTION: 105

Suppose consumer tastes shift toward the consumption of apples. Which of the following statements is an accurate description of the impact of this event on the market for apples?

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QUESTION: 106

A buyer’s willingness to pay is that buyer’s:

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QUESTION: 107

The following table exhibits:

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QUESTION: 108

If there are implicit costs of production:

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QUESTION: 109

If a competitive firm doubles its output, its total revenue:

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QUESTION: 110

In the long-run, some firms will exit the market if the price of the good offered for sale is less than:

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QUESTION: 111

Which of the following statements abo ut price and marginal cost in competitive and monopolized markets is true?

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QUESTION: 112

Agriculture faces the problem of:

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QUESTION: 113

ICICI bank is a:

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QUESTION: 114

SJSRY was launched to:

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QUESTION: 115

If 4 farmers can do a field job which is being done by 6 farmers, this means there is:

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QUESTION: 116

If 9 people are unemployed and 411 people are in the work force, then people in labour force are:

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QUESTION: 117

For adult education _________ mission was launched in 1998 in India.

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QUESTION: 118

According to the latest available data, the bed-population ratio in India is ________ per thousand population.

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QUESTION: 119

According to the latest data (March, 2013), there are around ___________ broadband subscribers in India.

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QUESTION: 120

The rate of inflation was lowest in _________.

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QUESTION: 121

In the year _________, the practice of RBI lending to the government through ad hoc treasury bills was given up.

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QUESTION: 122

TRAI is the regulatory authority for _______ in India.

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QUESTION: 123

The FRBM Act aims at reducing gross fiscal deficit by _______% per annum.

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QUESTION: 124

India’s postal network is the  _______ in the world.

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QUESTION: 125

GNP at market price minus _______ is equal to GDP at market price.

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QUESTION: 126

About 90 percent of the sick units in India are _______ units.

Solution:
QUESTION: 127

Excise duties are levied on _______.

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QUESTION: 128

Points outside the production possibilities curve are _______.

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QUESTION: 129

Price theory is an important constituent of _______ Economics.

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QUESTION: 130

For _______ goods increase in income leads to increase in demand

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QUESTION: 131

Economic laws are essentially _______ and _______ .

Solution:
QUESTION: 132

Inductive method is _______ based on the observation of particular facts.

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QUESTION: 133

Questions 133 to 137 are based on the demand and supply diagrams in Figure 1.

D1 and S1 are the original demand and supply curves. D2, D3, S2 and S3 are possible new demand and supply curves. Starting from initial equilibrium point (1) what point on the graph is most likely to result from each change?

Q. 

If Figure 1 represents the market for Perk (chocolates), the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. The new equilibrium if there is an increase in the price of Dairy milk (chocolates) will be:

Solution:
QUESTION: 134

D1 and S1 are the original demand and supply curves. D2, D3, S2 and S3 are possible new demand and supply curves. Starting from initial equilibrium point (1) what point on the graph is most likely to result from each change?

Q. 

In Figure 1 (which represents the market for Perk (chocolates), the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. The new equilibrium if there is rapid economic growth but cost of labour producing Perk also rises:

Solution:
QUESTION: 135

D1 and S1 are the original demand and supply curves. D2, D3, S2 and S3 are possible new demand and supply curves. Starting from initial equilibrium point (1) what point on the graph is most likely to result from each change?

Q. 

In Figure 1 (which represents the market for Perk), the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. The new equilibrium if there is a health scare about the effect chocolates may have is:

Solution:
QUESTION: 136

D1 and S1 are the original demand and supply curves. D2, D3, S2 and S3 are possible new demand and supply curves. Starting from initial equilibrium point (1) what point on the graph is most likely to result from each change?

Q. 

In Figure 1 (which represents the market for Perk), the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. Assuming that there is a new technology for producing Perk, the new equilibrium:

Solution:
QUESTION: 137

D1 and S1 are the original demand and supply curves. D2, D3, S2 and S3 are possible new demand and supply curves. Starting from initial equilibrium point (1) what point on the graph is most likely to result from each change?

Q. 

In Figure 1 (which represents the market for Perk), the initial equilibrium is at the intersection of S1 and D1. Assume that there is an increase in the productivity and at the same time the price of 5 star (chocolates) falls. The new equilibrium will be:

Solution:
QUESTION: 138

What is the average total cost in producing 20 units, of fixed cost is Rs.5000 and average variable cost is Rs. 2/-?

Solution:
QUESTION: 139

For producing 100 units, Total variable cost is Rs.500 & Total fixed cost is Rs.1000.Compute Average Cost.

Solution:
QUESTION: 140

Read the following data and answer questions 140-143.

A monopolist charges Rs. 30 for his product. He notices that elasticity in market A is 2 and elasticity in market B is 5.

Q. 

What will be the Marginal Revenue in Market A?

Solution:
QUESTION: 141

A monopolist charges Rs. 30 for his product. He notices that elasticity in market A is 2 and elasticity in market B is 5.

Q. 

What will be the Marginal Revenue in Market B?

Solution:
QUESTION: 142

A monopolist charges Rs. 30 for his product. He notices that elasticity in market A is 2 and elasticity in market B is 5.

Q.

In which market will the monopolist charge a higher price?

Solution:
QUESTION: 143

A monopolist charges Rs. 30 for his product. He notices that elasticity in market A is 2 and elasticity in market B is 5.

Q. 

The price discriminating monoplist will be in equilibrium when: 

Solution:
QUESTION: 144

If in the above case, elasticity was same in both the market, the monopolist:

Solution:
QUESTION: 145

Compute national income when population is 3 crore and per capita income is Rs. 2,000.

Solution:
QUESTION: 146

What is the price elasticity of demand when, price changes from Rs.10 to Rs.12 and correspondingly demand changes from 6 units to 4 units?

Solution:
QUESTION: 147

What is the new quantity demanded when price elasticity is 1 and price changes from Rs.15 to Rs.10 and the original quantity demanded was 10 units?

Solution:
QUESTION: 148

What is the original price of a commodity when price elasticity is 0.71 and demand changes from 20 units to 15 units and the new price is Rs. 10?

Solution:
QUESTION: 149

Read the following table and answer question number 149 -150.

Q. 

What is marginal utility when consumption increases from 4 units to 5 units? 

Solution:
QUESTION: 150

Q. 

What is marginal utility when consumption increases from 8 units to 9 units?

Solution:
QUESTION: 151

The correlation is said to be positive

Solution:
QUESTION: 152

The point of intersection between the lines 3x+ 4y = 7 and 4x –y = 3 lie in the

Solution:
QUESTION: 153

If P is a set of natural number then   is 

Solution:
QUESTION: 154

Three coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at least two tails?

Solution:
QUESTION: 155

The result of ODI matches between India and Pakistan follows

Solution:
QUESTION: 156

If in a binomial distribution mean = 20, Standard Deviation = 4 then n is equal to

Solution:
QUESTION: 157

The difference between sample Standard Deviation and the estimate of population Standard Deviation is negligible if the sample size is

Solution:
QUESTION: 158

Coefficient of determination is defined as

Solution:
QUESTION: 159

Regression coefficient is independent of the change of

Solution:
QUESTION: 160

If A and B are mutually exclusive events and P(A) = 0.3 and P(B) = 0.4, find P(A’).

Solution:
QUESTION: 161

If y = f(x)  =  then f(y) is _______ .

Solution:
QUESTION: 162

Value of 3P2 is _______ .

Solution:
QUESTION: 163

In binomial distribution ‘p’ denotes probability of _______ .

Solution:
QUESTION: 164

First deciles is the value for which one-tenth of the given observations are _______ D1 and the remaining nine-tenth observations are _______D1.

Solution:
QUESTION: 165

_______ may be defined as the minimum value and the maximum value, the class interval may contain.

Solution:
QUESTION: 166

In case of _______, plotted points on a scatter diagram would be equally distributed without depicting any particular pattern.

Solution:
QUESTION: 167

Solution:
QUESTION: 168

The colour of a flower is an example of _______ .

Solution:
QUESTION: 169

A quantitative characteristic is known as _______ .

Solution:
QUESTION: 170

Data collected on the weight of a group of a students after recording their weights with a weighing machine are _______.

Solution:
QUESTION: 171

If in a binomial distribution Mean = 20, Standard Deviation = 4 then p is equal to:

Solution:
QUESTION: 172

The variables x and y are related by 6x+ 7y = 81 and median of x is 10. What is the median of y?

Solution:
QUESTION: 173

Find D6 for the following observations.
41, 28, 45, 25, 60, 37.5, 37.5, 40, 65, 32.5

Solution:
QUESTION: 174

For a moderately skewed distribution of marks in statistics for a group of 100 students, the mean mark and median mark were found to be 50 and 40. What is the modal mark?

Solution:
QUESTION: 175

If y = 5+7x and mode of x is 4, what is the mode of y?

Solution:
QUESTION: 176

Following are the marks of 10 students :
82, 79, 56, 79, 85, 95, 55, 72, 70, 66 .
Find coefficient of range.

Solution:
QUESTION: 177

A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that it is neither a black card nor a king?

Solution:
QUESTION: 178

Refer following table
Frequency distribution of weights of 16 students

Find Relative frequency for the third class interval.

Solution:
QUESTION: 179

If the coefficient of correlation between two variables is 0.6, then the percentage of variation unaccounted for is

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