CAT Mock Test - 11 (New Pattern)


75 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series | CAT Mock Test - 11 (New Pattern)


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This mock test of CAT Mock Test - 11 (New Pattern) for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 75 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT CAT Mock Test - 11 (New Pattern) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CAT Mock Test - 11 (New Pattern) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this CAT Mock Test - 11 (New Pattern) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CAT Mock Test - 11 (New Pattern) extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
Picture-taking is a technique both for annexing the objective world and for expressing the singular self. Photographs depict objective realities that already exist, though only the camera can disclose them. And they depict an individual photographer’s temperament, discovering itself through the camera’s cropping of reality. That is, photography has two antithetical ideals: in the first, photography is about the world and the photographer is a mere observer who counts for little; but in the second, photography is the instrument of intrepid, questing subjectivity and the photographer is all.
These conflicting ideals arise from a fundamental uneasiness on the part of both photographers and viewers of photographs toward the aggressive component in “taking” a picture. Accordingly, the ideal of a photographer as observer is attractive because it implicitly denies that picture-taking is an aggressive act. The issue, of course, is not so clear-cut. What photographers do cannot be characterized as simply predatory or as simply, and essentially, benevolent. As a consequence, one ideal of picture-taking or the other is always being rediscovered and championed.
An important result of the coexistence of these two ideals is a recurrent ambivalence toward photography’s means. Whatever the claims that photography might make to be a form of personal expression on a par with painting, its originality is inextricably linked to the powers of a machine. The steady growth of these powers has made possible the extraordinary informativeness and imaginative formal beauty of many photographs, like Harold Edgerton’s high-speed photographs of a bullet hitting its target or of the swirls and eddies of a tennis stroke. But as cameras become more sophisticated, more automated, some photographers are tempted to disarm themselves or to suggest that they are not really armed, preferring to submit themselves to the limits imposed by premodern camera technology because a cruder, less high-powered machine is thought to give more interesting or emotive results, to leave more room for creative accident. For example, it has been virtually a point of honor for many photographers, including Walker Evans and CartierBresson, to refuse to use modern equipment. These photographers have come to doubt the value of the camera as an instrument of “fast seeing.” Cartier-Bresson, in fact, claims that the modern camera may see too fast.
This ambivalence toward photographic means determines trends in taste. The cult of the future (of faster and faster seeing) alternates over time with the wish to return to a purer past—when images had a handmade quality. This nostalgia for some pristine state of the photographic enterprise is currently widespread and underlies the present-day enthusiasm for daguerreotypes and the work of forgotten nineteenth-century provincial photographers. Photographers and viewers of photographs, it seems, need periodically to resist their own knowingness.

Q. According to the passage, interest among photographers in each of photography’s two ideals can be described as

Solution:

The passage talks about two conflicting ideals: one involves modern technology to captures the information and beauty of the world through high speed camera and one involves the use of older camera with the photographer playing a more important, emotive role in capturing the world. The passage then discusses at the last paragraph how the current trends, which is widespread, are going back to the old way of doing photography.

QUESTION: 2

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
Picture-taking is a technique both for annexing the objective world and for expressing the singular self. Photographs depict objective realities that already exist, though only the camera can disclose them. And they depict an individual photographer’s temperament, discovering itself through the camera’s cropping of reality. That is, photography has two antithetical ideals: in the first, photography is about the world and the photographer is a mere observer who counts for little; but in the second, photography is the instrument of intrepid, questing subjectivity and the photographer is all.
These conflicting ideals arise from a fundamental uneasiness on the part of both photographers and viewers of photographs toward the aggressive component in “taking” a picture. Accordingly, the ideal of a photographer as observer is attractive because it implicitly denies that picture-taking is an aggressive act. The issue, of course, is not so clear-cut. What photographers do cannot be characterized as simply predatory or as simply, and essentially, benevolent. As a consequence, one ideal of picture-taking or the other is always being rediscovered and championed.
An important result of the coexistence of these two ideals is a recurrent ambivalence toward photography’s means. Whatever the claims that photography might make to be a form of personal expression on a par with painting, its originality is inextricably linked to the powers of a machine. The steady growth of these powers has made possible the extraordinary informativeness and imaginative formal beauty of many photographs, like Harold Edgerton’s high-speed photographs of a bullet hitting its target or of the swirls and eddies of a tennis stroke. But as cameras become more sophisticated, more automated, some photographers are tempted to disarm themselves or to suggest that they are not really armed, preferring to submit themselves to the limits imposed by premodern camera technology because a cruder, less high-powered machine is thought to give more interesting or emotive results, to leave more room for creative accident. For example, it has been virtually a point of honor for many photographers, including Walker Evans and CartierBresson, to refuse to use modern equipment. These photographers have come to doubt the value of the camera as an instrument of “fast seeing.” Cartier-Bresson, in fact, claims that the modern camera may see too fast.
This ambivalence toward photographic means determines trends in taste. The cult of the future (of faster and faster seeing) alternates over time with the wish to return to a purer past—when images had a handmade quality. This nostalgia for some pristine state of the photographic enterprise is currently widespread and underlies the present-day enthusiasm for daguerreotypes and the work of forgotten nineteenth-century provincial photographers. Photographers and viewers of photographs, it seems, need periodically to resist their own knowingness.

Q. The author is primarily concerned with

Solution:

The passage primarily talkes about the influence of two main photographic ideals as  summarized above.

QUESTION: 3

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
Picture-taking is a technique both for annexing the objective world and for expressing the singular self. Photographs depict objective realities that already exist, though only the camera can disclose them. And they depict an individual photographer’s temperament, discovering itself through the camera’s cropping of reality. That is, photography has two antithetical ideals: in the first, photography is about the world and the photographer is a mere observer who counts for little; but in the second, photography is the instrument of intrepid, questing subjectivity and the photographer is all.
These conflicting ideals arise from a fundamental uneasiness on the part of both photographers and viewers of photographs toward the aggressive component in “taking” a picture. Accordingly, the ideal of a photographer as observer is attractive because it implicitly denies that picture-taking is an aggressive act. The issue, of course, is not so clear-cut. What photographers do cannot be characterized as simply predatory or as simply, and essentially, benevolent. As a consequence, one ideal of picture-taking or the other is always being rediscovered and championed.
An important result of the coexistence of these two ideals is a recurrent ambivalence toward photography’s means. Whatever the claims that photography might make to be a form of personal expression on a par with painting, its originality is inextricably linked to the powers of a machine. The steady growth of these powers has made possible the extraordinary informativeness and imaginative formal beauty of many photographs, like Harold Edgerton’s high-speed photographs of a bullet hitting its target or of the swirls and eddies of a tennis stroke. But as cameras become more sophisticated, more automated, some photographers are tempted to disarm themselves or to suggest that they are not really armed, preferring to submit themselves to the limits imposed by premodern camera technology because a cruder, less high-powered machine is thought to give more interesting or emotive results, to leave more room for creative accident. For example, it has been virtually a point of honor for many photographers, including Walker Evans and CartierBresson, to refuse to use modern equipment. These photographers have come to doubt the value of the camera as an instrument of “fast seeing.” Cartier-Bresson, in fact, claims that the modern camera may see too fast.
This ambivalence toward photographic means determines trends in taste. The cult of the future (of faster and faster seeing) alternates over time with the wish to return to a purer past—when images had a handmade quality. This nostalgia for some pristine state of the photographic enterprise is currently widespread and underlies the present-day enthusiasm for daguerreotypes and the work of forgotten nineteenth-century provincial photographers. Photographers and viewers of photographs, it seems, need periodically to resist their own knowingness.

Q. The passage states all of the following about photographs EXCEPT:

Solution:

Through process of elimination, you can eliminate choices A to D as they are mentioned explicitly in the passage.

QUESTION: 4

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
Picture-taking is a technique both for annexing the objective world and for expressing the singular self. Photographs depict objective realities that already exist, though only the camera can disclose them. And they depict an individual photographer’s temperament, discovering itself through the camera’s cropping of reality. That is, photography has two antithetical ideals: in the first, photography is about the world and the photographer is a mere observer who counts for little; but in the second, photography is the instrument of intrepid, questing subjectivity and the photographer is all.
These conflicting ideals arise from a fundamental uneasiness on the part of both photographers and viewers of photographs toward the aggressive component in “taking” a picture. Accordingly, the ideal of a photographer as observer is attractive because it implicitly denies that picture-taking is an aggressive act. The issue, of course, is not so clear-cut. What photographers do cannot be characterized as simply predatory or as simply, and essentially, benevolent. As a consequence, one ideal of picture-taking or the other is always being rediscovered and championed.
An important result of the coexistence of these two ideals is a recurrent ambivalence toward photography’s means. Whatever the claims that photography might make to be a form of personal expression on a par with painting, its originality is inextricably linked to the powers of a machine. The steady growth of these powers has made possible the extraordinary informativeness and imaginative formal beauty of many photographs, like Harold Edgerton’s high-speed photographs of a bullet hitting its target or of the swirls and eddies of a tennis stroke. But as cameras become more sophisticated, more automated, some photographers are tempted to disarm themselves or to suggest that they are not really armed, preferring to submit themselves to the limits imposed by premodern camera technology because a cruder, less high-powered machine is thought to give more interesting or emotive results, to leave more room for creative accident. For example, it has been virtually a point of honor for many photographers, including Walker Evans and CartierBresson, to refuse to use modern equipment. These photographers have come to doubt the value of the camera as an instrument of “fast seeing.” Cartier-Bresson, in fact, claims that the modern camera may see too fast.
This ambivalence toward photographic means determines trends in taste. The cult of the future (of faster and faster seeing) alternates over time with the wish to return to a purer past—when images had a handmade quality. This nostalgia for some pristine state of the photographic enterprise is currently widespread and underlies the present-day enthusiasm for daguerreotypes and the work of forgotten nineteenth-century provincial photographers. Photographers and viewers of photographs, it seems, need periodically to resist their own knowingness.

Q. The passage suggests that photographers such as Walker Evans prefer old-fashioned techniques and equipment because these photographers

Solution:

The passage states that "These photographers have come to doubt the value of the camera as an instrument of “fast seeing.” " It suggests that these photographers don’t like fast cameras as effective.

QUESTION: 5

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
Picture-taking is a technique both for annexing the objective world and for expressing the singular self. Photographs depict objective realities that already exist, though only the camera can disclose them. And they depict an individual photographer’s temperament, discovering itself through the camera’s cropping of reality. That is, photography has two antithetical ideals: in the first, photography is about the world and the photographer is a mere observer who counts for little; but in the second, photography is the instrument of intrepid, questing subjectivity and the photographer is all.
These conflicting ideals arise from a fundamental uneasiness on the part of both photographers and viewers of photographs toward the aggressive component in “taking” a picture. Accordingly, the ideal of a photographer as observer is attractive because it implicitly denies that picture-taking is an aggressive act. The issue, of course, is not so clear-cut. What photographers do cannot be characterized as simply predatory or as simply, and essentially, benevolent. As a consequence, one ideal of picture-taking or the other is always being rediscovered and championed.
An important result of the coexistence of these two ideals is a recurrent ambivalence toward photography’s means. Whatever the claims that photography might make to be a form of personal expression on a par with painting, its originality is inextricably linked to the powers of a machine. The steady growth of these powers has made possible the extraordinary informativeness and imaginative formal beauty of many photographs, like Harold Edgerton’s high-speed photographs of a bullet hitting its target or of the swirls and eddies of a tennis stroke. But as cameras become more sophisticated, more automated, some photographers are tempted to disarm themselves or to suggest that they are not really armed, preferring to submit themselves to the limits imposed by premodern camera technology because a cruder, less high-powered machine is thought to give more interesting or emotive results, to leave more room for creative accident. For example, it has been virtually a point of honor for many photographers, including Walker Evans and CartierBresson, to refuse to use modern equipment. These photographers have come to doubt the value of the camera as an instrument of “fast seeing.” Cartier-Bresson, in fact, claims that the modern camera may see too fast.
This ambivalence toward photographic means determines trends in taste. The cult of the future (of faster and faster seeing) alternates over time with the wish to return to a purer past—when images had a handmade quality. This nostalgia for some pristine state of the photographic enterprise is currently widespread and underlies the present-day enthusiasm for daguerreotypes and the work of forgotten nineteenth-century provincial photographers. Photographers and viewers of photographs, it seems, need periodically to resist their own knowingness.

Q. According to the passage, the two antithetical ideals of photography differ primarily in the

Solution:

According to the passage, "That is, photography has two antithetical ideals: In the first, photography is about the world and the photographer is a mere observer who counts for little; but in the second, photography is the instrument of intrepid, questing subjectivity and the photographer is all." It says that in the first ideal, the photographer role is very minimal as an observer, whereas in the second ideal, the photographer plays a central role.

QUESTION: 6

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
There are two major systems of criminal procedure in the modern world—the adversarial and the inquisitorial. Both systems were historically preceded by the system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned a remedy and administered it privately, either personally or through an agent.
The modern adversarial system is only one historical step removed from the private vengeance system and still retains some of its characteristic features. For example, even though the right to initiate legal action against a criminal has now been extended to all members of society (as represented by the office of the public prosecutor), and even though the police department has effectively assumed the pretrial investigative functions on behalf of the prosecution, the adversarial system still leaves the defendant to conduct his or her own pretrial investigation. The trial is viewed as a forensic duel between two adversaries, presided over by a judge who, at the start, has no knowledge of the investigative background of the case. In the final analysis the adversarial system of criminal procedure symbolizes and regularizes punitive combat.
By contrast, the inquisitorial system begins historically where the adversarial system stopped its development. It is two historical steps removed from the system of private vengeance. 
From the standpoint of legal anthropology, then, it is historically superior to the adversarial system. Under the inquisitorial system, the public prosecutor has the duty to investigate not just on behalf of society but also on behalf of the defendant. Additionally, the public prosecutor has the duty to present the court not only evidence that would convict the defendant, but also evidence that could prove the defendant’s innocence. The system mandates that both parties permit full pretrial discovery of the evidence in their possession. Finally, an aspect of the system that makes the trial less like a duel between two adversarial parties is that the inquisitorial system mandates that the judge take an active part in the conduct of the trial, with a role that is both directive and protective. Fact-finding is at the heart of the inquisitorial system. This system operates on the philosophical premise that in a criminal action the crucial factor is the body of facts, not the legal rule (in contrast to the adversarial system), and the goal of the entire procedure is to attempt to recreate, in the mind of the court, the commission of the alleged crime.
Because of the inquisitorial system’s thoroughness in conducting its pretrial investigation, it can be concluded that, if given the choice, a defendant who is innocent would prefer to be tried under the inquisitorial system, whereas a defendant who is guilty would prefer to be tried under the adversarial system.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that the crucial factor in a trial under the adversarial system is

Solution:

It can be inferred from the passage that the crucial factor in a trial under the adversarial system is (A) rules of legality.

Fact-finding is at the heart of the inquisitorial system. This system operates on the philosophical premise that in a criminal action the crucial factor is the body of facts, not the legal rule (in contrast to the adversarial system).

QUESTION: 7

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
There are two major systems of criminal procedure in the modern world—the adversarial and the inquisitorial. Both systems were historically preceded by the system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned a remedy and administered it privately, either personally or through an agent.
The modern adversarial system is only one historical step removed from the private vengeance system and still retains some of its characteristic features. For example, even though the right to initiate legal action against a criminal has now been extended to all members of society (as represented by the office of the public prosecutor), and even though the police department has effectively assumed the pretrial investigative functions on behalf of the prosecution, the adversarial system still leaves the defendant to conduct his or her own pretrial investigation. The trial is viewed as a forensic duel between two adversaries, presided over by a judge who, at the start, has no knowledge of the investigative background of the case. In the final analysis the adversarial system of criminal procedure symbolizes and regularizes punitive combat.
By contrast, the inquisitorial system begins historically where the adversarial system stopped its development. It is two historical steps removed from the system of private vengeance. 
From the standpoint of legal anthropology, then, it is historically superior to the adversarial system. Under the inquisitorial system, the public prosecutor has the duty to investigate not just on behalf of society but also on behalf of the defendant. Additionally, the public prosecutor has the duty to present the court not only evidence that would convict the defendant, but also evidence that could prove the defendant’s innocence. The system mandates that both parties permit full pretrial discovery of the evidence in their possession. Finally, an aspect of the system that makes the trial less like a duel between two adversarial parties is that the inquisitorial system mandates that the judge take an active part in the conduct of the trial, with a role that is both directive and protective. Fact-finding is at the heart of the inquisitorial system. This system operates on the philosophical premise that in a criminal action the crucial factor is the body of facts, not the legal rule (in contrast to the adversarial system), and the goal of the entire procedure is to attempt to recreate, in the mind of the court, the commission of the alleged crime.
Because of the inquisitorial system’s thoroughness in conducting its pretrial investigation, it can be concluded that, if given the choice, a defendant who is innocent would prefer to be tried under the inquisitorial system, whereas a defendant who is guilty would prefer to be tried under the adversarial system.

Q. The author sees the judge’s primary role in a trial under the inquisitorial system as that of

Solution:

The author sees the judge’s primary role in a trial under the inquisitorial system as that of (D) involved manager.

Finally, an aspect of the system that makes the trial less like a duel between two adversarial parties is that the inquisitorial system mandates that the judge take an active part in the conduct of the trial, with a role that is both directive and protective.

QUESTION: 8

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
There are two major systems of criminal procedure in the modern world—the adversarial and the inquisitorial. Both systems were historically preceded by the system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned a remedy and administered it privately, either personally or through an agent.
The modern adversarial system is only one historical step removed from the private vengeance system and still retains some of its characteristic features. For example, even though the right to initiate legal action against a criminal has now been extended to all members of society (as represented by the office of the public prosecutor), and even though the police department has effectively assumed the pretrial investigative functions on behalf of the prosecution, the adversarial system still leaves the defendant to conduct his or her own pretrial investigation. The trial is viewed as a forensic duel between two adversaries, presided over by a judge who, at the start, has no knowledge of the investigative background of the case. In the final analysis the adversarial system of criminal procedure symbolizes and regularizes punitive combat.
By contrast, the inquisitorial system begins historically where the adversarial system stopped its development. It is two historical steps removed from the system of private vengeance. 
From the standpoint of legal anthropology, then, it is historically superior to the adversarial system. Under the inquisitorial system, the public prosecutor has the duty to investigate not just on behalf of society but also on behalf of the defendant. Additionally, the public prosecutor has the duty to present the court not only evidence that would convict the defendant, but also evidence that could prove the defendant’s innocence. The system mandates that both parties permit full pretrial discovery of the evidence in their possession. Finally, an aspect of the system that makes the trial less like a duel between two adversarial parties is that the inquisitorial system mandates that the judge take an active part in the conduct of the trial, with a role that is both directive and protective. Fact-finding is at the heart of the inquisitorial system. This system operates on the philosophical premise that in a criminal action the crucial factor is the body of facts, not the legal rule (in contrast to the adversarial system), and the goal of the entire procedure is to attempt to recreate, in the mind of the court, the commission of the alleged crime.
Because of the inquisitorial system’s thoroughness in conducting its pretrial investigation, it can be concluded that, if given the choice, a defendant who is innocent would prefer to be tried under the inquisitorial system, whereas a defendant who is guilty would prefer to be tried under the adversarial system.

Q. According to the passage, a central distinction between the system of private vengeance and the two modern criminal procedure systems was the shift in responsibility for initiating legal action against a criminal from the

Solution:

According to the passage, a central distinction between the system of private vengeance and the two modern criminal procedure systems was the shift in responsibility for initiating legal action against a criminal from the B) victim to society system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned a remedy and administered it privately even though the right to initiate legal action against a criminal has now been extended to all members of society (as represented by the office of the public prosecutor)

QUESTION: 9

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
There are two major systems of criminal procedure in the modern world—the adversarial and the inquisitorial. Both systems were historically preceded by the system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned a remedy and administered it privately, either personally or through an agent.
The modern adversarial system is only one historical step removed from the private vengeance system and still retains some of its characteristic features. For example, even though the right to initiate legal action against a criminal has now been extended to all members of society (as represented by the office of the public prosecutor), and even though the police department has effectively assumed the pretrial investigative functions on behalf of the prosecution, the adversarial system still leaves the defendant to conduct his or her own pretrial investigation. The trial is viewed as a forensic duel between two adversaries, presided over by a judge who, at the start, has no knowledge of the investigative background of the case. In the final analysis the adversarial system of criminal procedure symbolizes and regularizes punitive combat.
By contrast, the inquisitorial system begins historically where the adversarial system stopped its development. It is two historical steps removed from the system of private vengeance. 
From the standpoint of legal anthropology, then, it is historically superior to the adversarial system. Under the inquisitorial system, the public prosecutor has the duty to investigate not just on behalf of society but also on behalf of the defendant. Additionally, the public prosecutor has the duty to present the court not only evidence that would convict the defendant, but also evidence that could prove the defendant’s innocence. The system mandates that both parties permit full pretrial discovery of the evidence in their possession. Finally, an aspect of the system that makes the trial less like a duel between two adversarial parties is that the inquisitorial system mandates that the judge take an active part in the conduct of the trial, with a role that is both directive and protective. Fact-finding is at the heart of the inquisitorial system. This system operates on the philosophical premise that in a criminal action the crucial factor is the body of facts, not the legal rule (in contrast to the adversarial system), and the goal of the entire procedure is to attempt to recreate, in the mind of the court, the commission of the alleged crime.
Because of the inquisitorial system’s thoroughness in conducting its pretrial investigation, it can be concluded that, if given the choice, a defendant who is innocent would prefer to be tried under the inquisitorial system, whereas a defendant who is guilty would prefer to be tried under the adversarial system.

Q. All of the following are characteristics of the inquisitorial system that the author cites EXCEPT:

Solution:

In (A) The system mandates that both parties permit full pretrial discovery of the evidence in their possession. Finally, an aspect of the system that makes the trial less like a duel between two adversarial parties.

In (B) The system mandates that both parties permit full pretrial discovery of the evidence in their possession.

In (C) inquisitorial system mandates that the judge take an active part in the conduct of the trial.

In (D) It places the defendant in charge of his or her defence.  Hence, Correct

QUESTION: 10

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
There are two major systems of criminal procedure in the modern world—the adversarial and the inquisitorial. Both systems were historically preceded by the system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned a remedy and administered it privately, either personally or through an agent.
The modern adversarial system is only one historical step removed from the private vengeance system and still retains some of its characteristic features. For example, even though the right to initiate legal action against a criminal has now been extended to all members of society (as represented by the office of the public prosecutor), and even though the police department has effectively assumed the pretrial investigative functions on behalf of the prosecution, the adversarial system still leaves the defendant to conduct his or her own pretrial investigation. The trial is viewed as a forensic duel between two adversaries, presided over by a judge who, at the start, has no knowledge of the investigative background of the case. In the final analysis the adversarial system of criminal procedure symbolizes and regularizes punitive combat.
By contrast, the inquisitorial system begins historically where the adversarial system stopped its development. It is two historical steps removed from the system of private vengeance. 
From the standpoint of legal anthropology, then, it is historically superior to the adversarial system. Under the inquisitorial system, the public prosecutor has the duty to investigate not just on behalf of society but also on behalf of the defendant. Additionally, the public prosecutor has the duty to present the court not only evidence that would convict the defendant, but also evidence that could prove the defendant’s innocence. The system mandates that both parties permit full pretrial discovery of the evidence in their possession. Finally, an aspect of the system that makes the trial less like a duel between two adversarial parties is that the inquisitorial system mandates that the judge take an active part in the conduct of the trial, with a role that is both directive and protective. Fact-finding is at the heart of the inquisitorial system. This system operates on the philosophical premise that in a criminal action the crucial factor is the body of facts, not the legal rule (in contrast to the adversarial system), and the goal of the entire procedure is to attempt to recreate, in the mind of the court, the commission of the alleged crime.
Because of the inquisitorial system’s thoroughness in conducting its pretrial investigation, it can be concluded that, if given the choice, a defendant who is innocent would prefer to be tried under the inquisitorial system, whereas a defendant who is guilty would prefer to be tried under the adversarial system.

Q. The author’s attitude toward the inquisitorial system can best be described as

Solution:

The author’s attitude toward the inquisitorial system can best be described as (B) satisfied that it has potential for uncovering the relevant facts in a case.

QUESTION: 11

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
In an unfinished but highly suggestive series of essays, the late Sarah Eisenstein has focused attention on the evolution of working women’s values from the turn of the century to the First World War. Eisenstein argues that turn-of-the-century women neither wholly accepted nor rejected what she calls the dominant “ideology of domesticity,” but rather took this and other available ideologies—feminism, socialism, trade unionism—and modified or adapted them in light of their own experiences and needs. In thus maintaining that wage-work helped to produce a new “consciousness” among women, Eisenstein to some extent challenges the recent, controversial proposal by Leslie Tentler that for women the work experience only served to reinforce the attractiveness of the dominant ideology. According to the Tentler, the degrading conditions under which many female wage earners worked made them view the family as a source of power and esteem available nowhere else in their social world. In contrast, Eisenstein’s study insists that wage-work had other implications for women’s identities and consciousness. Most importantly, her work aims to demonstrate that wagework enabled women to become aware of themselves as a distinct social group capable of defining their collective circumstance. Eisenstein insists that as a group working-class woman were not able to come to collective consciousness of their situation until they began entering the labor force, because domestic work tended to isolate them from one another.
Unfortunately, Eisenstein’s unfinished study does not develop these ideas in sufficient depth or detail, offering tantalizing hints rather than an exhaustive analysis. Whatever Eisenstein’s overall plan may have been, in its current form her study suffers from the limited nature of the sources she depended on. She uses the speeches and writings of reformers and labor organizers, who she acknowledges were far from representative, as the voice of the typical woman worker. And there is less than adequate attention given to the differing values of immigrant groups that made up a significant proportion of the population under investigation. While raising important questions, Eisenstein’s essays do not provide definitive answer, and it remains for others to take up the challenges they offer.

Q. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Solution:

"The first and the last sentences of the last para “Unfortunately, Eisenstein’s unfinished study does not develop these ideas in sufficient depth or detail, offering tantalizing hints rather than an exhaustive analysis." ..."While raising important questions, Eisenstein’s essays do not provide definitive answer, and it remains for others to take up the challenges they offer."

QUESTION: 12

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
In an unfinished but highly suggestive series of essays, the late Sarah Eisenstein has focused attention on the evolution of working women’s values from the turn of the century to the First World War. Eisenstein argues that turn-of-the-century women neither wholly accepted nor rejected what she calls the dominant “ideology of domesticity,” but rather took this and other available ideologies—feminism, socialism, trade unionism—and modified or adapted them in light of their own experiences and needs. In thus maintaining that wage-work helped to produce a new “consciousness” among women, Eisenstein to some extent challenges the recent, controversial proposal by Leslie Tentler that for women the work experience only served to reinforce the attractiveness of the dominant ideology. According to the Tentler, the degrading conditions under which many female wage earners worked made them view the family as a source of power and esteem available nowhere else in their social world. In contrast, Eisenstein’s study insists that wage-work had other implications for women’s identities and consciousness. Most importantly, her work aims to demonstrate that wagework enabled women to become aware of themselves as a distinct social group capable of defining their collective circumstance. Eisenstein insists that as a group working-class woman were not able to come to collective consciousness of their situation until they began entering the labor force, because domestic work tended to isolate them from one another.
Unfortunately, Eisenstein’s unfinished study does not develop these ideas in sufficient depth or detail, offering tantalizing hints rather than an exhaustive analysis. Whatever Eisenstein’s overall plan may have been, in its current form her study suffers from the limited nature of the sources she depended on. She uses the speeches and writings of reformers and labor organizers, who she acknowledges were far from representative, as the voice of the typical woman worker. And there is less than adequate attention given to the differing values of immigrant groups that made up a significant proportion of the population under investigation. While raising important questions, Eisenstein’s essays do not provide definitive answer, and it remains for others to take up the challenges they offer.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that, in Eisenstein’s view, working women at the turn of the century had which of the following attitudes toward the dominant ideology of their time?

Solution:

The relevant part for this question is: “Eisenstein argues that turn-of-the-century women neither wholly accepted nor rejected what she calls the dominant “ideology of domesticity,” but rather took this and other available ideologies—feminism, socialism, trade unionism—and modified or adapted them in light of their own experiences and needs. "

QUESTION: 13

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
In an unfinished but highly suggestive series of essays, the late Sarah Eisenstein has focused attention on the evolution of working women’s values from the turn of the century to the First World War. Eisenstein argues that turn-of-the-century women neither wholly accepted nor rejected what she calls the dominant “ideology of domesticity,” but rather took this and other available ideologies—feminism, socialism, trade unionism—and modified or adapted them in light of their own experiences and needs. In thus maintaining that wage-work helped to produce a new “consciousness” among women, Eisenstein to some extent challenges the recent, controversial proposal by Leslie Tentler that for women the work experience only served to reinforce the attractiveness of the dominant ideology. According to the Tentler, the degrading conditions under which many female wage earners worked made them view the family as a source of power and esteem available nowhere else in their social world. In contrast, Eisenstein’s study insists that wage-work had other implications for women’s identities and consciousness. Most importantly, her work aims to demonstrate that wagework enabled women to become aware of themselves as a distinct social group capable of defining their collective circumstance. Eisenstein insists that as a group working-class woman were not able to come to collective consciousness of their situation until they began entering the labor force, because domestic work tended to isolate them from one another.
Unfortunately, Eisenstein’s unfinished study does not develop these ideas in sufficient depth or detail, offering tantalizing hints rather than an exhaustive analysis. Whatever Eisenstein’s overall plan may have been, in its current form her study suffers from the limited nature of the sources she depended on. She uses the speeches and writings of reformers and labor organizers, who she acknowledges were far from representative, as the voice of the typical woman worker. And there is less than adequate attention given to the differing values of immigrant groups that made up a significant proportion of the population under investigation. While raising important questions, Eisenstein’s essays do not provide definitive answer, and it remains for others to take up the challenges they offer.

Q. Which of the following best describes the organization of the first paragraph of the passage?

Solution:

The relevant parts for this question are: "In an unfinished but highly suggestive series of essays, the late Sarah Eisenstein has focused attention on the evolution of working women’s values from the turn of the century to the First World War." "Eisenstein to some extent challenges the recent, controversial proposal by Leslie Tentler that for women the work experience only served to reinforce the attractiveness of the dominant ideology. " "Most importantly, her work aims to demonstrate that "

QUESTION: 14

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context.
In an unfinished but highly suggestive series of essays, the late Sarah Eisenstein has focused attention on the evolution of working women’s values from the turn of the century to the First World War. Eisenstein argues that turn-of-the-century women neither wholly accepted nor rejected what she calls the dominant “ideology of domesticity,” but rather took this and other available ideologies—feminism, socialism, trade unionism—and modified or adapted them in light of their own experiences and needs. In thus maintaining that wage-work helped to produce a new “consciousness” among women, Eisenstein to some extent challenges the recent, controversial proposal by Leslie Tentler that for women the work experience only served to reinforce the attractiveness of the dominant ideology. According to the Tentler, the degrading conditions under which many female wage earners worked made them view the family as a source of power and esteem available nowhere else in their social world. In contrast, Eisenstein’s study insists that wage-work had other implications for women’s identities and consciousness. Most importantly, her work aims to demonstrate that wagework enabled women to become aware of themselves as a distinct social group capable of defining their collective circumstance. Eisenstein insists that as a group working-class woman were not able to come to collective consciousness of their situation until they began entering the labor force, because domestic work tended to isolate them from one another.
Unfortunately, Eisenstein’s unfinished study does not develop these ideas in sufficient depth or detail, offering tantalizing hints rather than an exhaustive analysis. Whatever Eisenstein’s overall plan may have been, in its current form her study suffers from the limited nature of the sources she depended on. She uses the speeches and writings of reformers and labor organizers, who she acknowledges were far from representative, as the voice of the typical woman worker. And there is less than adequate attention given to the differing values of immigrant groups that made up a significant proportion of the population under investigation. While raising important questions, Eisenstein’s essays do not provide definitive answer, and it remains for others to take up the challenges they offer.

Q. Which of the following would the author of the passage be most likely to approve as a continuation of Eisenstein’s study?

Solution:

"Unfortunately, Eisenstein’s unfinished study does not develop these ideas in sufficient depth or detail, offering tantalizing hints rather than an exhaustive analysis","She uses the speeches and writings of reformers and labour organizers, who she acknowledges were far from representative, as the voice of the typical woman worker."

QUESTION: 15

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context
We can distinguish three different realms of matter, three levels on the quantum ladder. The first is the atomic realm, which includes the world of atoms, their interactions, and the structures that are formed by them, such as molecules, liquids and solids, and gases and plasmas. This realm includes all the phenomena of atomic physics, chemistry, and, in a certain sense, biology. The energy exchanges taking place in this realm are of a relatively low order. If these exchanges are below one electron volt, such as in the collisions between molecules of the air in a room, then atoms and molecules can be regarded as elementary particles. That is, they have “conditional elementarity” because they keep their identity and do not change in any collisions or in other processes at these low energy exchanges. If one goes to higher energy exchanges, say 104 electron volts, then atoms and molecules will decompose into nuclei and electrons; at this level, the latter particles must be considered as elementary. We find examples of structures and processes of this first rung of the quantum ladder on Earth, on planets, and on the surfaces of stars.
The next rung is the nuclear realm. Here the energy exchanges are much higher, on the order of millions of electron volts. As long as we are dealing with phenomena in the atomic realm, such amounts of energy are unavailable, and most nuclei are inert: they do not change. However, if one applies energies of millions of electron volts, nuclear reactions, fission and fusion, and the processes of radioactivity occur; our elementary particles then are protons, neutrons, and electrons. In addition, nuclear processes produce neutrinos, particles that have no detectable mass or charge. In the universe, energies at this level are available in the centers of stars and in star explosions. Indeed, the energy radiated by the stars is produced by nuclear reactions. The natural radioactivity we find on Earth is the long-lived remnant of the time when now-earthly matter was expelled into space by a major stellar explosion.
The third rung of the quantum ladder is the subnuclear realm. Here we are dealing with energy exchanges of many billions of electron volts. We encounter excited nucleons, new types of particles such as mesons, heavy electrons, quarks, and gluons, and also antimatter in large quantities. The gluons are the quanta, or smallest units, of the force (the strong force) that keeps the quarks together. As long as we are dealing with the atomic or nuclear realm, these new types of particles do not occur and the nucleons remain inert. But at subnuclear energy levels, the nucleons and mesons appear to be composed of quarks, so that the quarks and gluons figure as elementary particles.

Q. The primary topic of the passage is which of the following?

Solution:

It is not A, B, C - A and B are irrelevant. C is not the main item, since it doesn't have anything to do with new particles in the atomic realm.

QUESTION: 16

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context
We can distinguish three different realms of matter, three levels on the quantum ladder. The first is the atomic realm, which includes the world of atoms, their interactions, and the structures that are formed by them, such as molecules, liquids and solids, and gases and plasmas. This realm includes all the phenomena of atomic physics, chemistry, and, in a certain sense, biology. The energy exchanges taking place in this realm are of a relatively low order. If these exchanges are below one electron volt, such as in the collisions between molecules of the air in a room, then atoms and molecules can be regarded as elementary particles. That is, they have “conditional elementarity” because they keep their identity and do not change in any collisions or in other processes at these low energy exchanges. If one goes to higher energy exchanges, say 104 electron volts, then atoms and molecules will decompose into nuclei and electrons; at this level, the latter particles must be considered as elementary. We find examples of structures and processes of this first rung of the quantum ladder on Earth, on planets, and on the surfaces of stars.
The next rung is the nuclear realm. Here the energy exchanges are much higher, on the order of millions of electron volts. As long as we are dealing with phenomena in the atomic realm, such amounts of energy are unavailable, and most nuclei are inert: they do not change. However, if one applies energies of millions of electron volts, nuclear reactions, fission and fusion, and the processes of radioactivity occur; our elementary particles then are protons, neutrons, and electrons. In addition, nuclear processes produce neutrinos, particles that have no detectable mass or charge. In the universe, energies at this level are available in the centers of stars and in star explosions. Indeed, the energy radiated by the stars is produced by nuclear reactions. The natural radioactivity we find on Earth is the long-lived remnant of the time when now-earthly matter was expelled into space by a major stellar explosion.
The third rung of the quantum ladder is the subnuclear realm. Here we are dealing with energy exchanges of many billions of electron volts. We encounter excited nucleons, new types of particles such as mesons, heavy electrons, quarks, and gluons, and also antimatter in large quantities. The gluons are the quanta, or smallest units, of the force (the strong force) that keeps the quarks together. As long as we are dealing with the atomic or nuclear realm, these new types of particles do not occur and the nucleons remain inert. But at subnuclear energy levels, the nucleons and mesons appear to be composed of quarks, so that the quarks and gluons figure as elementary particles.

Q. According to the passage, radioactivity that occurs naturally on Earth is the result of

Solution:

It is not A and D since they are irrelevant. And it is not C since that is not h ow the radioactivity occurred - it was more due to stellar explosions.

QUESTION: 17

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context
We can distinguish three different realms of matter, three levels on the quantum ladder. The first is the atomic realm, which includes the world of atoms, their interactions, and the structures that are formed by them, such as molecules, liquids and solids, and gases and plasmas. This realm includes all the phenomena of atomic physics, chemistry, and, in a certain sense, biology. The energy exchanges taking place in this realm are of a relatively low order. If these exchanges are below one electron volt, such as in the collisions between molecules of the air in a room, then atoms and molecules can be regarded as elementary particles. That is, they have “conditional elementarity” because they keep their identity and do not change in any collisions or in other processes at these low energy exchanges. If one goes to higher energy exchanges, say 104 electron volts, then atoms and molecules will decompose into nuclei and electrons; at this level, the latter particles must be considered as elementary. We find examples of structures and processes of this first rung of the quantum ladder on Earth, on planets, and on the surfaces of stars.
The next rung is the nuclear realm. Here the energy exchanges are much higher, on the order of millions of electron volts. As long as we are dealing with phenomena in the atomic realm, such amounts of energy are unavailable, and most nuclei are inert: they do not change. However, if one applies energies of millions of electron volts, nuclear reactions, fission and fusion, and the processes of radioactivity occur; our elementary particles then are protons, neutrons, and electrons. In addition, nuclear processes produce neutrinos, particles that have no detectable mass or charge. In the universe, energies at this level are available in the centers of stars and in star explosions. Indeed, the energy radiated by the stars is produced by nuclear reactions. The natural radioactivity we find on Earth is the long-lived remnant of the time when now-earthly matter was expelled into space by a major stellar explosion.
The third rung of the quantum ladder is the subnuclear realm. Here we are dealing with energy exchanges of many billions of electron volts. We encounter excited nucleons, new types of particles such as mesons, heavy electrons, quarks, and gluons, and also antimatter in large quantities. The gluons are the quanta, or smallest units, of the force (the strong force) that keeps the quarks together. As long as we are dealing with the atomic or nuclear realm, these new types of particles do not occur and the nucleons remain inert. But at subnuclear energy levels, the nucleons and mesons appear to be composed of quarks, so that the quarks and gluons figure as elementary particles.

Q. The author organizes the passage by

Solution:

Since none of the others, B, D are actually relevant. in A, there is nothing mentioned about composite.

QUESTION: 18

Read the passage carefully and answer within the context
We can distinguish three different realms of matter, three levels on the quantum ladder. The first is the atomic realm, which includes the world of atoms, their interactions, and the structures that are formed by them, such as molecules, liquids and solids, and gases and plasmas. This realm includes all the phenomena of atomic physics, chemistry, and, in a certain sense, biology. The energy exchanges taking place in this realm are of a relatively low order. If these exchanges are below one electron volt, such as in the collisions between molecules of the air in a room, then atoms and molecules can be regarded as elementary particles. That is, they have “conditional elementarity” because they keep their identity and do not change in any collisions or in other processes at these low energy exchanges. If one goes to higher energy exchanges, say 104 electron volts, then atoms and molecules will decompose into nuclei and electrons; at this level, the latter particles must be considered as elementary. We find examples of structures and processes of this first rung of the quantum ladder on Earth, on planets, and on the surfaces of stars.
The next rung is the nuclear realm. Here the energy exchanges are much higher, on the order of millions of electron volts. As long as we are dealing with phenomena in the atomic realm, such amounts of energy are unavailable, and most nuclei are inert: they do not change. However, if one applies energies of millions of electron volts, nuclear reactions, fission and fusion, and the processes of radioactivity occur; our elementary particles then are protons, neutrons, and electrons. In addition, nuclear processes produce neutrinos, particles that have no detectable mass or charge. In the universe, energies at this level are available in the centers of stars and in star explosions. Indeed, the energy radiated by the stars is produced by nuclear reactions. The natural radioactivity we find on Earth is the long-lived remnant of the time when now-earthly matter was expelled into space by a major stellar explosion.
The third rung of the quantum ladder is the subnuclear realm. Here we are dealing with energy exchanges of many billions of electron volts. We encounter excited nucleons, new types of particles such as mesons, heavy electrons, quarks, and gluons, and also antimatter in large quantities. The gluons are the quanta, or smallest units, of the force (the strong force) that keeps the quarks together. As long as we are dealing with the atomic or nuclear realm, these new types of particles do not occur and the nucleons remain inert. But at subnuclear energy levels, the nucleons and mesons appear to be composed of quarks, so that the quarks and gluons figure as elementary particles.

Q. According to the author, gluons are not

Solution:

Correct Answer :- c

Explanation : In subnuclear energy levels, the nucleons and mesons appear to be composed of quarks, so that the quarks and gluons figure as elementary particles.

The energy exchanges taking place in this realm are of a relatively low order. If these exchanges are below one electron volt, such as in the collisions between molecules of the air in a room, then atoms and molecules can be regarded as elementary particles. That is, they have “conditional elementarity” because they keep their identity and do not change in any collisions or in other processes at these low energy exchanges.

QUESTION: 19

DIRECTION: In question, there are five sentences which need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph. Key in the most appropriate sequence.

A. The celebrations of economic recovery in Washington may be as premature as that "Mission Accomplished" banner hung on the USS Abraham Lincoln to hail the end of the Iraq war.

B. Meanwhile, in the real world, the struggles of families and communities continue unabated.

C. Washington responded to the favourable turn in economic news with enthusiasm.

D. The celebrations and high-fives up and down Pennsylvania Avenue are not to be found beyond the Beltway.

E. When the third quarter GDP showed growth of 7.2% and the monthly unemployment rate dipped to 6%, euphoria gripped the US capital.

Solution:

E speaks about the euphoria that gripped the US capital and the causes for this.

C speaks about Washington `s response to the good news stated in E.

A continues by saying that the celebrations at Washington were premature, similar to the "Mission Accomplished" banner at the end of the war against Iraq. It is called premature because the American families and communities` struggles were not lessened as stated in B.

D concludes by telling us that the celebrations were not equally distributed in Washington due to the reason mentioned in B

QUESTION: 20

DIRECTION: In question, there are five sentences which need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph. Key in the most appropriate sequence.

A. A few months ago I went to Princeton University to see what the young people who are going to be running our country in a few decades are like.

B. I would go to sleep in my hotel room around midnight each night, and when I awoke, my mailbox would be full of replies sent at 1:15 a.m., 2:59 a.m., 3:23 a.m.

C. One senior told me that she went to bed around two and woke up each morning at seven; she could afford that much rest because she had learned to supplement her full day of work by studying in her sleep.

D. Faculty members gave me the names of a few dozen articulate students, and I sent them e-mails, inviting them out to lunch or dinner in small groups.

E. As she was falling asleep, she would recite a math problem or a paper topic to herself; she would then sometimes dream about it, and when she woke up, the problem might be solved.

Solution:

A is clearly the introductory statement - the rest of the statements are based on what is stated in A.

The AD link is clear - "people who are going to be running our country" in A refers to students of Princeton University who are first introduced in D.

Statements BCE are based on the content in statement D. 

QUESTION: 21

DIRECTION: Key in the option which correctly summarizes the above paragraph.

Some decisions will be fairly obvious - “no-brainers.” Your bank account is low, but you have a two-week vacation coming up and you want to get away to some place warm to relax with your family. Will you accept your in-laws‟ offer of free use of their Florida beachfront condo? Sure. You like your employer and feel ready to move forward in your career. Will you step in for your boss for three weeks while she attends a professional development course? Of course.

Solution:

The argument gives a generalisation and a couple of examples to substantiate the point. Moreover, the argument says that some decisions obviate thinking under some circumstances and not that they always obviate thinking.

B does not take into account this aspect of the argument.

Nowhere in the argument do we find the idea that examples such as accepting free holiday accommodation abound in our lives. So,C is incorrect.

It also fails to take into consideration the circumstances under which thinking is not required.D also does not take into account this aspect nor does it talk about the generalisation.

This option would mean that there are only two "no-brainers" while the argument mentions these as just examples. A gets the structure and the content of the argument right.

QUESTION: 22

DIRECTION: Key in the option which correctly summarizes the above paragraph.

Local communities have often come in conflict with agents trying to exploit resources, at a faster pace, for an expanding commercial-industrial economy. More often than not, such agents of resource-intensification are given preferential treatment by the state, through the grant of generous long leases over mineral or fish stocks, for example, or the provision of raw material at an enormously subsidized price. With the injustice so compounded, local communities at the receiving end of this process have no recourse except direct action, resisting both the state and outside exploiters through a variety of protest techniques. These struggles might perhaps be seen as a manifestation of a new kind of class conflict.

Solution:

Preferential treatment given by the state to agents of resource-intensification for an expanding commercial-industrial economy exacerbates injustice to local communities and leads to direct protests from them, resulting in a new type of class conflict.

QUESTION: 23

Direction: Out of the given statements four of them can be grouped together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify one odd one out into the following sentences:

(1) This tax would promptly reduce that number and, because virtually all beginning smokers are young, would also dramatically reduce their numbers.

(2) Instead of gradually escalating the tax on cigarettes, I think that we should make as huge increase with real shock value.

(3) Currently, tobacco companies sell roughly 5billion packs of cigarettes each year.

(4) I propose rewarding the informant with the first $10,000 in recovered cash and cash raised from the sale of seized valuables.

(5) I propose that we immediately place an additional $3 tax on each package of cigarettes.

Solution:

The passage talks about escalating tax on cigarettes in order to reduce their consumption. The first sentence of the passage, is (2) because the author talks about raising tobacco tax in order to give a deterrent shock treatment to cigarette smokers.

In the second sentence (5) the author is proposing an additional tax on each cigarette package.

The third sentence of the passage is (3) in which the author gives us a sidelight about the volume of cigarette sales each year, across the US.

The fourth sentence (4) talks, not about tobacco or tax, but about rewarding an informant.

The fifth sentence of the passage is (1), as the sentence begins with the noun phrase “this tax”. There are three sentences in the passage that contain the common word “tax”. The common word establishes a coherent connection between these sentences. The sentence that is out of sync with the passage is (4)

QUESTION: 24

Direction: Out of the given statements four of them can be grouped together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify one odd one out into the following sentences:

(1) Incredible sources of strength and help are all over the place - just have to use them.

(2) One of my delights in life is being able to talk with my children and get from them.

(3) Frequently, the people who help me are of a team effort, and many never meet them.

(4) Sometimes, those sources come to me, but often I have to seek them out.

(5) Over the years, I have realized that I really am alone.

Solution:

The author of the passage is philosophizing about the sources of help that are around him and he tells us what he has to do in order to access them. There is an apparent tussle between sentences (2) and (5) –that is, which of them will begin the passage.

Going by the content of the sentences, the first sentence of the passage is unmistakably (5) and the remaining three sentences flow from it. The first sentence affirms the realization that the author isn’t alone and that there are incredible sources of help around him.

In the second sentence (2) the author categorically confirms that incredible sources of help are all around. That is loneliness, if any, is dispelled by these incredible sources of strength and help.

The third sentence of the passage (4) uses a coherent device to connect it to the preceding second sentence (2).

In the second sentence (2) the noun phrase is worded “Incredible sources of strength…” and in the third sentence (4) the same noun phrase is worded as “those sources”. These two devices tend to establish a coherent link between the second and the third sentences. Even in the fourth sentence (3) there’s a coherent device used. The noun “help” used in the fourth sentence is semantically related to the “sources of strength and help” mentioned in the second sentence (1).

Now to the sentence that cannot cohere into the passage: the sentence is (2). This sentence is thematically and semantically different from the passage.

The odd one out is sentence (2)

QUESTION: 25

Direction: Out of the given statements four of them can be grouped together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify one odd one out into the following sentences:

(1) My memory of my first-grade teacher on my first day of school is painful and unforgettable.

(2) Whether mother and baby are able to bond immediately affects the physical and emotional health of the baby in a substantial way.

(3) Your parents, if they were there to raise you, had the greatest influence on your life.

(4) Feelings of love and security are establishing early.

(5) Research shows that when a mother is able to hold her baby immediately after birth, the bond between them is stronger and far more likely continue to grow than when that experience is delayed.

Solution:

The passage is about a child’s birth and the mother’s influence on the new-born child. So the first sentence of the passage is (3).

The first sentence confirms in no uncertain terms that the parent’s influence will be the greatest on a child when they both raise it.

The second sentence of the passage is (5); it quotes research to support the bonding between the mother and the child.

The third sentence is (2) in which the author confirms how the bonding affects the child’s physical and emotional well-being. This kind of bonding establishes feelings of love and security in children. This is confirmed by sentence (4).

The sentence that cannot integrate into the thought content of the passage is (1), for it is a bit outside the child’s life. The odd one out is sentence (1)

QUESTION: 26

In the year 2020  Summer olympic Games, the top 3 winners in each event receive medals (Gold, Silver and Bronze for the 1st, 2nd and 3rd place respectively). Every single medal at the long distance running events was won by athletes from just 5 countries, Pakistan, Qatar, Russia, Sweden and Turkey. Ten athletes (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J) from these 5 countries participated. None of the 5 countries had more than 3 athletes representing it. Table 1 below gives the number of medals in long-distance running won by each country, while Table 2 gives the number of medals won by 9 of the athletes. There was no tie for any of the positions in the events under consideration.
Table 1

Table 2

Q. The five countries are ranked according to descending order of total points according to the following system: a Gold Medal is worth 3 points, a Silver is worth 2, and a Bronze is worth 1. Which country will be ranked 3rd?

Solution:

Since the total number of Bronze medals is 15, the number of Silver and Gold medals must also be 15. Thus we can see than x must be 7 and y must be 2. Also, since the 9 athletes mentioned have won, between them, 14 Gold, 13 Silver and 13 Bronze, we can conclude that the 10th athlete, J must have won 1 Gold, 2 Silver and 2 Bronze medals.
Table 1

Table 2

The scores for the individual countries, according to the given system, will be Pakistana – 9, Qatar – 13, Russia – 14, Sweden – 34 and Turkey – 20. Hence the ranking will be S, T, R, Q, P and hence R will be ranked 3rd.
Hence, Option C

QUESTION: 27

In the year 2020  Summer olympic Games, the top 3 winners in each event receive medals (Gold, Silver and Bronze for the 1st, 2nd and 3rd place respectively). Every single medal at the long distance running events was won by athletes from just 5 countries, Pakistan, Qatar, Russia, Sweden and Turkey. Ten athletes (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J) from these 5 countries participated. None of the 5 countries had more than 3 athletes representing it. Table 1 below gives the number of medals in long-distance running won by each country, while Table 2 gives the number of medals won by 9 of the athletes. There was no tie for any of the positions in the events under consideration.
Table 1

Table 2

Q. The countries are now ranked in descending order of Gold medals won. If the number of Gold medals is the same, then the country with a higher number of Silver medals will be ranked higher. Under this system, how many countries will not change their ranking from that in the previous question?

Solution:

Since the total number of Bronze medals is 15, the number of Silver and Gold medals must also be 15. Thus we can see than x must be 7 and y must be 2. Also, since the 9 athletes mentioned have won, between them, 14 Gold, 13 Silver and 13 Bronze, we can conclude that the 10th athlete, J must have won 1 Gold, 2 Silver and 2 Bronze medals.
Table 1

Table 2

According to the new system, the ranking will be S, Q, T, R, P. As can be seen, only S and P retain their rankings from the previous question. Hence, A. 

QUESTION: 28

In the year 2020  Summer olympic Games, the top 3 winners in each event receive medals (Gold, Silver and Bronze for the 1st, 2nd and 3rd place respectively). Every single medal at the long distance running events was won by athletes from just 5 countries, Pakistan, Qatar, Russia, Sweden and Turkey. Ten athletes (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J) from these 5 countries participated. None of the 5 countries had more than 3 athletes representing it. Table 1 below gives the number of medals in long-distance running won by each country, while Table 2 gives the number of medals won by 9 of the athletes. There was no tie for any of the positions in the events under consideration.
Table 1

Table 2

Q. How many athletes represent country Turkey?

Solution:

Since the total number of Bronze medals is 15, the number of Silver and Gold medals must also be 15. Thus we can see than x must be 7 and y must be 2. Also, since the 9 athletes mentioned have won, between them, 14 Gold, 13 Silver and 13 Bronze, we can conclude that the 10th athlete, J must have won 1 Gold, 2 Silver and 2 Bronze medals.
Table 1

Table 2

Country Turkey has a total of 2G + 6S + 2B medals. The two G could be won by two different athletes or by a single athlete.
Case 1: Two athletes have won 1 G each. But all such combinations give at least 3 B, so this is impossible.
Case 2: One athlete has won 2 G. In this case by trial and error we find that this athlete can only be A, and to complete the medals tally we need two other athletes F and H. Hence, B.

QUESTION: 29

In the year 2020  Summer olympic Games, the top 3 winners in each event receive medals (Gold, Silver and Bronze for the 1st, 2nd and 3rd place respectively). Every single medal at the long distance running events was won by athletes from just 5 countries, Pakistan, Qatar, Russia, Sweden and Turkey. Ten athletes (A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J) from these 5 countries participated. None of the 5 countries had more than 3 athletes representing it. Table 1 below gives the number of medals in long-distance running won by each country, while Table 2 gives the number of medals won by 9 of the athletes. There was no tie for any of the positions in the events under consideration.
Table 1

Table 2

Q. A country M is said to be crushed by a country N if N wins more medals than M in each category (Gold, Silver and Bronze). Which of the following is true about the 5 given countries?

Solution:

Since the total number of Bronze medals is 15, the number of Silver and Gold medals must also be 15. Thus we can see than x must be 7 and y must be 2. Also, since the 9 athletes mentioned have won, between them, 14 Gold, 13 Silver and 13 Bronze, we can conclude that the 10th athlete, J must have won 1 Gold, 2 Silver and 2 Bronze medals.
Table 1

Table 2

Sweden and Turkey are not crushed by any country. So option (1) is false.

Pakistan, Qatar and Russia are all crushed by Sweden (but by no other country) so option (3) is false.

Sweden is the only country which crushes any other country. Hence option (4) is false. Hence, B .

QUESTION: 30

Direction for question: The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the following instructions:

Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.

Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.

Q. Each student in a class opts for one of the two foreign languages – French and Spanish. Six boys opt for French and eight girls opt for Spanish. What is the maximum possible number of girls who opt for French?

A. The total number of students in the class is 35.
B. The students who opt for Spanish are fewer than the students who opt for French.

Solution:

Let the number of girls who opt for French be ‘a’ and the number of boys who opt for Spanish be ‘b
From Statement A: There are 35 students in the class.
∴ 6 + a + b + 8 = 35
⇒ a + b = 21 
In order to maximise ‘a’, we have to minimise ‘b’. Since the question doesn’t say that there has to be at least one boy who opts for Spanish, the minimum value of ‘b’ can be 0 and hence the maximum value of ‘a’ will be 21. This statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement B: The information given in the statement is clearly insufficient to answer the question.

QUESTION: 31

Direction for question: The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the following instructions:

Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.

Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.

Q. If (347)x × (467)y = N, where x and y are positive integers, then what is the unit digit of N? 
A. x + y = 9
B. x = 5

Solution:

As both the numbers end in 7, the unit digit of N will be the same as the unit digit of 7x × 7y i.e. 7(x + y). Therefore, we need to know the value of ‘x + y’ in order to find the units digit of N. 

From Statement A:
We have x + y = 9. Therefore, the unit digit of N will be the same as the unit digit of 79 . This statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

From Statement B:
No information regarding ‘y’ is given. This statement alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

QUESTION: 32

Direction for question: The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.

Q. The cost of 2 Apples, 3 Bananas and 1 Mango is Rs. 24. The cost of 2 Bananas and 4 Apples is equal to the cost of 3 Mangoes. What is the cost of one Mango?
A. The cost of 2 Bananas and 1 Mango is Rs. 12.
B. The cost of 4 Bananas and 5 Mangoes is Rs. 48.

Solution:

Let the cost (in Rs.) of 1 Apple, 1 Banana and 1 Mango be A , B and M respectively.
According to the information given in the question:
2A + 3B + M = 24 …(i)
2B + 4A = 3M …(ii) 
From 2(i) – (ii): 
4B + 5M = 48 …(iii)
From Statement A:
2B + M = 12 
Solving the above equation with (iii), we get M = 8.
Hence, Statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement B:
4B + 5M = 48 
The above equation is the same as (iii) and hence is redundant. Hence, Statement B alone is insufficient to answer the question.

QUESTION: 33

Direction for question: The question given below is followed by two statements, A and B. Mark the answer using the following instructions:

Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by using the other statement alone.

Mark (c) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.

Q. Is n odd?
A. n is divisible by 3, 5, 7 and 9.
B. 0 < n < 400

Solution:

The question can be answered using both the statement together.

QUESTION: 34

Direction: Mr. Kapil went to some places to spend his holidays. He visited four religious places, Vaishno Devi, Rishikesh, Kedarnath and Varanasi, one each day from Monday to Thursday (not in the same order). He stayed there for four days (one day each place) in four hotels Purnima, Tiger inn, Hill view and Emerald, (not in the same order).
It is known that:
1. He stayed in hotel Hill view before hotel Emerald

2. Hotel Tiger inn is not in Vaishno Devi, but he had stayed in hotel Tiger inn before visiting Rishikesh.

3. He visited Varanasi before Kedarnath.

4. There was one day gap between visiting Vaishno Devi and the place where hotel Emerald is.

5. Between Rishikesh and hotel Purnima, he visited one on Monday and the other on Thursday.

Q. In how many hotels did Mr. Kapil stay before hotel Emerald?

Solution:

From (1) and (2), Mr. Kapil should have stayed in hotel Hill View and hotel Tiger Inn, one on Tuesday and the other on Wednesday.

So, on Thursday, he stayed in hotel Emerald.

So, from (4), Mr. Kapil visited Haridwar on Tuesday.

From (2), hotel Tiger Inn is not in Vaishno Devi so he stayed in hotel Tiger inn on Wednesday.

Now, the table is as follows:

QUESTION: 35

Direction: Mr. Kapil went to some places to spend his holidays. He visited four religious places, Vaishno Devi, Rishikesh, Kedarnath and Varanasi, one each day from Monday to Thursday (not in the same order). He stayed there for four days (one day each place) in four hotels Purnima, Tiger inn, Hill view and Emerald, (not in the same order).
It is known that:
1. He stayed in hotel Hill view before hotel Emerald

2. Hotel Tiger inn is not in Vaishno Devi, but he had stayed in hotel Tiger inn before visiting Rishikesh.

3. He visited Varanasi before Kedarnath.

4. There was one day gap between visiting Vaishno Devi and the place where hotel Emerald is.

5. Between Rishikesh and hotel Purnima, he visited one on Monday and the other on Thursday.

Q. Which hotel is situated in Kedarnath?

Solution:

From (1) and (2), Mr. Kapil should have stayed in hotel Hill View and hotel Tiger Inn, one on Tuesday and the other on Wednesday.

So, on Thursday, he stayed in hotel Emerald.

So, from (4), Mr. Kapil visited Haridwar on Tuesday.

From (2), hotel Tiger Inn is not in Vaishno Devi so he stayed in hotel Tiger inn on Wednesday.

Now, the table is as follows:

QUESTION: 36

Direction: Mr. Kapil went to some places to spend his holidays. He visited four religious places, Vaishno Devi, Rishikesh, Kedarnath and Varanasi, one each day from Monday to Thursday (not in the same order). He stayed there for four days (one day each place) in four hotels Purnima, Tiger inn, Hill view and Emerald, (not in the same order).
It is known that:
1. He stayed in hotel Hill view before hotel Emerald
2. Hotel Tiger inn is not in Vaishno Devi, but he had stayed in hotel Tiger inn before visiting Rishikesh.
3. He visited Varanasi before Kedarnath.
4. There was one day gap between visiting Vaishno Devi and the place where hotel Emerald is.
5. Between Rishikesh and hotel Purnima, he visited one on Monday and the other on Thursday.

Q. Which of the following is not correct?

Solution:

From (1) and (2), Mr. Kapil should have stayed in hotel Hill View and hotel Tiger Inn, one on Tuesday and the other on Wednesday.

So, on Thursday, he stayed in hotel Emerald.

So, from (4), Mr. Kapil visited Haridwar on Tuesday.

From (2), hotel Tiger Inn is not in Vaishno Devi so he stayed in hotel Tiger inn on Wednesday.

Now, the table is as follows:

QUESTION: 37

Direction: Mr. Kapil went to some places to spend his holidays. He visited four religious places, Vaishno Devi, Rishikesh, Kedarnath and Varanasi, one each day from Monday to Thursday (not in the same order). He stayed there for four days (one day each place) in four hotels Purnima, Tiger inn, Hill view and Emerald, (not in the same order).
It is known that:
1. He stayed in hotel Hill view before hotel Emerald

2. Hotel Tiger inn is not in Vaishno Devi, but he had stayed in hotel Tiger inn before visiting Rishikesh.

3. He visited Varanasi before Kedarnath.

4. There was one day gap between visiting Vaishno Devi and the place where hotel Emerald is.

5. Between Rishikesh and hotel Purnima, he visited one on Monday and the other on Thursday.

Q. Which place/hotel did he visit immediately the next day after visiting Vaishno Devi?

Solution:

From (1) and (2), Mr. Kapil should have stayed in hotel Hill View and hotel Tiger Inn, one on Tuesday and the other on Wednesday.

So, on Thursday, he stayed in hotel Emerald.

So, from (4), Mr. Kapil visited Haridwar on Tuesday.

From (2), hotel Tiger Inn is not in Vaishno Devi so he stayed in hotel Tiger inn on Wednesday.

Now, the table is as follows:

QUESTION: 38

Directions for question: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below :

Four security officers – Rajesh, Jayant , Pratik and Laxman – were responsible for guarding the Kohinoor diamond during a 1-day exhibition held recently. The exhibition started at 10 a.m. and finished at 5 p.m.
The officers operated in 1-hour shifts and at least one officer guarded the diamond in each of the seven shifts. None of the officers operated in two consecutive shifts and none of them joined or left a shift midway. It is also known that:

(i) Rajesh operated in exactly four shifts.
(ii) Two officers were operating at 12:40 p.m. One of the two was Jayant.
(iii) Pratik operated in exactly three shifts. He was operating at 01:20 p.m.
(iv) Laxman operated in exactly two shifts and he operated alone in both of them.
(v) Each of the four officers operated in at least two shifts. Jayant and Pratik never operated together in any of the shifts.

Q. In how many shifts did Jayant operate?

Solution:

Let Rajesh, Jayant, Pratik and Laxman be represented by R , J, P and L respectively. Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence).

From statement (i), it can be concluded that R operated in the 1st, 3rd, 5th and 7th shifts.

From statement (ii), it can be concluded that J operated along with R in the 3rd shift.

From statement (iii), it can be concluded that P operated in the 4th shift.

From statement (iv), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which L operated were 2nd and 6th. Hence, P operated in the 1st and 7th shifts.

From statement (v), it can be concluded that J operated in the 5th shift along with R.

► The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below :

QUESTION: 39

Directions for question: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below :

Four security officers – Rajesh, Jayant , Pratik and Laxman – were responsible for guarding the Kohinoor diamond during a 1-day exhibition held recently. The exhibition started at 10 a.m. and finished at 5 p.m.
The officers operated in 1-hour shifts and at least one officer guarded the diamond in each of the seven shifts. None of the officers operated in two consecutive shifts and none of them joined or left a shift midway. It is also known that:

(i) Rajesh operated in exactly four shifts.
(ii) Two officers were operating at 12:40 p.m. One of the two was Jayant.
(iii) Pratik operated in exactly three shifts. He was operating at 01:20 p.m.
(iv) Laxman operated in exactly two shifts and he operated alone in both of them.
(v) Each of the four officers operated in at least two shifts. Jayant and Pratik never operated together in any of the shifts.

Q. How many shifts were there in which just one of the four officers operated?

Solution:

Let Rajesh, Jayant, Pratik and Laxman be represented by R , J, P and L respectively. Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence).

From statement (i), it can be concluded that R operated in the 1st, 3rd, 5th and 7th shifts.

From statement (ii), it can be concluded that J operated along with R in the 3rd shift.

From statement (iii), it can be concluded that P operated in the 4th shift.

From statement (iv), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which L operated were 2nd and 6th. Hence, P operated in the 1st and 7th shifts.

From statement (v), it can be concluded that J operated in the 5th shift along with R.

► The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below :

QUESTION: 40

Directions for question: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below :

Four security officers – Rajesh, Jayant , Pratik and Laxman – were responsible for guarding the Kohinoor diamond during a 1-day exhibition held recently. The exhibition started at 10 a.m. and finished at 5 p.m.
The officers operated in 1-hour shifts and at least one officer guarded the diamond in each of the seven shifts. None of the officers operated in two consecutive shifts and none of them joined or left a shift midway. It is also known that:

(i) Rajesh operated in exactly four shifts.
(ii) Two officers were operating at 12:40 p.m. One of the two was Jayant.
(iii) Pratik operated in exactly three shifts. He was operating at 01:20 p.m.
(iv) Laxman operated in exactly two shifts and he operated alone in both of them.
(v) Each of the four officers operated in at least two shifts. Jayant and Pratik never operated together in any of the shifts.

Q. At what time did Jayant leave for his home if it is known that he left immediately after his last shift ended on the day of the exhibition?

Solution:

Let Rajesh, Jayant, Pratik and Laxman be represented by R , J, P and L respectively. Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence).
From statement (i), it can be concluded that R operated in the 1st, 3rd, 5th and 7th shifts.

From statement (ii), it can be concluded that J operated along with R in the 3rd shift.

From statement (iii), it can be concluded that P operated in the 4th shift.

From statement (iv), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which L operated were 2nd and 6th. Hence, P operated in the 1st and 7th shifts.

From statement (v), it can be concluded that J operated in the 5th shift along with R.

The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below :

QUESTION: 41

Directions for question: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below :

Four security officers – Rajesh, Jayant , Pratik and Laxman – were responsible for guarding the Kohinoor diamond during a 1-day exhibition held recently. The exhibition started at 10 a.m. and finished at 5 p.m.
The officers operated in 1-hour shifts and at least one officer guarded the diamond in each of the seven shifts. None of the officers operated in two consecutive shifts and none of them joined or left a shift midway. It is also known that:

(i) Rajesh operated in exactly four shifts.
(ii) Two officers were operating at 12:40 p.m. One of the two was Jayant.
(iii) Pratik operated in exactly three shifts. He was operating at 01:20 p.m.
(iv) Laxman operated in exactly two shifts and he operated alone in both of them.
(v) Each of the four officers operated in at least two shifts. Jayant and Pratik never operated together in any of the shifts.

Q. On which shift both Rajesh and Jayant were operating?

Solution:

Let Rajesh, Jayant, Pratik and Laxman be represented by R , J, P and L respectively. Let the shifts be called 1st to 7th (in the order of their occurrence).

From statement (i), it can be concluded that R operated in the 1st, 3rd, 5th and 7th shifts.

From statement (ii), it can be concluded that J operated along with R in the 3rd shift.

From statement (iii), it can be concluded that P operated in the 4th shift.

From statement (iv), it can be concluded that the two shifts in which L operated were 2nd and 6th. Hence, P operated in the 1st and 7th shifts.

From statement (v), it can be concluded that J operated in the 5th shift along with R.

► The conclusions made thus far can be shown as given below :

QUESTION: 42

Directions for question : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below
Eight friends Vandana, Aparna, Devika, Arunima, Charu, Nandita, Sagarika and Fatima went shopping.
- Each of them bought shoes from 8 different brands – Puma, Reebok, Adidas, Bata, Nike, Woodland, Lee Cooper and Fila but not necessarily in the same order
- The colour of each pair of shoes was different - black, white, brown, pink, Green, grey, blue and purple but not necessarily in the same order
- Devika did not buy the purple colour shoes but shopped from Woodland
- Vandana and Charu did not buy brown shoes
- Vandana doesn’t like Puma
- Fatima doesn’t like Fila, but bought a pink pair of shoes
- Aparna’s favourite colour is blue and she bought the shoes of her favourite colour · Nandita shopped at Bata
- Arunima likes Adidas and bought her grey colour shoes from there
- The one who shopped at Reebok has brown shoes and the one who bought Green shoes shopped at Puma
- The one who likes Nike bought black shoes

Q. Which of the given sets is incorrect? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 43

Directions for question : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below
Eight friends Vandana, Aparna, Devika, Arunima, Charu, Nandita, Sagarika and Fatima went shopping.
- Each of them bought shoes from 8 different brands – Puma, Reebok, Adidas, Bata, Nike, Woodland, Lee Cooper and Fila but not necessarily in the same order
- The colour of each pair of shoes was different - black, white, brown, pink, Green, grey, blue and purple but not necessarily in the same order
- Devika did not buy the purple colour shoes but shopped from Woodland
- Vandana and Charu did not buy brown shoes
- Vandana doesn’t like Puma
- Fatima doesn’t like Fila, but bought a pink pair of shoes
- Aparna’s favourite colour is blue and she bought the shoes of her favourite colour · Nandita shopped at Bata
- Arunima likes Adidas and bought her grey colour shoes from there
- The one who shopped at Reebok has brown shoes and the one who bought Green shoes shopped at Puma
- The one who likes Nike bought black shoes

Q. Which brand shoes did Devika buy? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 44

Directions for question : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below
Eight friends Vandana, Aparna, Devika, Arunima, Charu, Nandita, Sagarika and Fatima went shopping.
- Each of them bought shoes from 8 different brands – Puma, Reebok, Adidas, Bata, Nike, Woodland, Lee Cooper and Fila but not necessarily in the same order
- The colour of each pair of shoes was different - black, white, brown, pink, Green, grey, blue and purple but not necessarily in the same order
- Devika did not buy the purple colour shoes but shopped from Woodland
- Vandana and Charu did not buy brown shoes
- Vandana doesn’t like Puma
- Fatima doesn’t like Fila, but bought a pink pair of shoes
- Aparna’s favourite colour is blue and she bought the shoes of her favourite colour · Nandita shopped at Bata
- Arunima likes Adidas and bought her grey colour shoes from there
- The one who shopped at Reebok has brown shoes and the one who bought Green shoes shopped at Puma
- The one who likes Nike bought black shoes

Q. If Fatima bought shoes from Lee Cooper. What was the color of the shoes she bought? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 45

Directions for question : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below
Eight friends Vandana, Aparna, Devika, Arunima, Charu, Nandita, Sagarika and Fatima went shopping.
- Each of them bought shoes from 8 different brands – Puma, Reebok, Adidas, Bata, Nike, Woodland, Lee Cooper and Fila but not necessarily in the same order
- The colour of each pair of shoes was different - black, white, brown, pink, Green, grey, blue and purple but not necessarily in the same order
- Devika did not buy the purple colour shoes but shopped from Woodland
- Vandana and Charu did not buy brown shoes
- Vandana doesn’t like Puma
- Fatima doesn’t like Fila, but bought a pink pair of shoes
- Aparna’s favourite colour is blue and she bought the shoes of her favourite colour · Nandita shopped at Bata
- Arunima likes Adidas and bought her grey colour shoes from there
- The one who shopped at Reebok has brown shoes and the one who bought Green shoes shopped at Puma
- The one who likes Nike bought black shoes

Q. Which of the below given pairs of shoe brands and their colour is correct? 

Solution:

QUESTION: 46

Directions for questions: In Commonwealth games, different games are scheduled to be held on seven days, starting on Monday and ending on Sunday. Two games are scheduled to be held on Saturday as well as on Sunday and one game on each of the remaining five days. The games to be held in these seven days are: Baseball, Hockey, Polo, sprinting, swimming, shooting, Formula 1, Kho - kho and cycling, but not necessarily in the same order. Shooting is scheduled to be held on Thursday. Polo and cycling are scheduled to be held on the same day. Kho - kho is scheduled to be held three days before Baseball, i.e. two sports are scheduled between Kho - kho and Baseball; Kho - kho is not scheduled to be held on Wednesday. Formula 1 is scheduled immediately after the day Polo is scheduled. Hockey is scheduled immediately after the day Kho - kho is scheduled. Swimming is not scheduled on Monday.

Q. Which of the following games is scheduled to be held on Friday?

Solution:

The following table is made based on the information provided:

1. Swimming is not scheduled on Monday
2. Shooting is scheduled on Thursday
3. Since Weight Lifting is scheduled immediately after Polo so Weight lifting cannot be on Friday
4. Since Shooting is scheduled on Thursday therefore Kho - kho cannot be on Monday, because we are given by the statement that between Kho - kho and Baseball there must be two games so if Kho - kho is scheduled on Monday it will not possible for Baseball to schedule after three days
5. Polo and Cycling are on the same day so both will be on the same day so they will be on either Sunday or Saturday, since Formula 1 is scheduled after Polo Therefore Polo and Cycling would be on Saturday and Weight Lifting would scheduled on Sunday
6. Kho - kho cannot be scheduled on Monday, Wednesday, Friday or Sunday so Wresting is scheduled on Tuesday and Baseball would be scheduled on Friday

Baseball is scheduled on Friday

QUESTION: 47

Directions for questions: In Commonwealth games, different games are scheduled to be held on seven days, starting on Monday and ending on Sunday. Two games are scheduled to be held on Saturday as well as on Sunday and one game on each of the remaining five days. The games to be held in these seven days are: Baseball, Hockey, Polo, sprinting, swimming, shooting, Formula 1, Kho - kho and cycling, but not necessarily in the same order. Shooting is scheduled to be held on Thursday. Polo and cycling are scheduled to be held on the same day. Kho - kho is scheduled to be held three days before Baseball, i.e. two sports are scheduled between Kho - kho and Baseball; Kho - kho is not scheduled to be held on Wednesday. Formula 1 is scheduled immediately after the day Polo is scheduled. Hockey is scheduled immediately after the day Kho - kho is scheduled. Swimming is not scheduled on Monday.

Q. Which of the following games is scheduled to be held on Sunday?

Solution:


1. Swimming is not scheduled on Monday
2. Shooting is scheduled on Thursday
3. Since Weight Lifting is scheduled immediately after Polo so Weight lifting cannot be on Friday
4. Since Shooting is scheduled on Thursday therefore Kho - kho cannot be on Monday, because we are given by the statement that between Kho - kho and Baseball there must be two games so if Kho - kho is scheduled on Monday it will not possible for Baseball to schedule after three days
5. Polo and Cycling are on the same day so both will be on the same day so they will be on either Sunday or Saturday, since Formula 1 is scheduled after Polo Therefore Polo and Cycling would be on Saturday and Weight Lifting would scheduled on Sunday
6. Kho - kho cannot be scheduled on Monday, Wednesday, Friday or Sunday so Wresting is scheduled on Tuesday and Baseball would be scheduled on Friday

Formula 1 and Swimming is scheduled on Sunday

QUESTION: 48

Directions for questions: In Commonwealth games, different games are scheduled to be held on seven days, starting on Monday and ending on Sunday. Two games are scheduled to be held on Saturday as well as on Sunday and one game on each of the remaining five days. The games to be held in these seven days are: Baseball, Hockey, Polo, sprinting, swimming, shooting, Formula 1, Kho - kho and cycling, but not necessarily in the same order. Shooing is scheduled to be held on Thursday. Polo and cycling are scheduled to be held on the same day. Kho - kho is scheduled to be held three days before Baseball, i.e. two sports are scheduled between Kho - kho and Baseball; Kho - kho is not scheduled to be held on Wednesday. Formula 1 is scheduled immediately after the day Polo is scheduled. Hockey is scheduled immediately after the day Kho - kho is scheduled. Swimming is not scheduled on Monday.

Q. On which of the following days is sprinting scheduled?

Solution:


1. Swimming is not scheduled on Monday
2. Shooting is scheduled on Thursday
3. Since Weight Lifting is scheduled immediately after Polo so Weight lifting cannot be on Friday
4. Since Shooting is scheduled on Thursday therefore Kho - kho cannot be on Monday, because we are given by the statement that between Kho - kho and Baseball there must be two games so if Kho - kho is scheduled on Monday it will not possible for Baseball to schedule after three days
5. Polo and Cycling are on the same day so both will be on the same day so they will be on either Sunday or Saturday, since Formula 1 is scheduled after Polo Therefore Polo and Cycling would be on Saturday and Weight Lifting would scheduled on Sunday
6. Kho - kho cannot be scheduled on Monday, Wednesday, Friday or Sunday so Wresting is scheduled on Tuesday and Baseball would be scheduled on Friday

Sprinting is scheduled on Monday

QUESTION: 49

Directions for questions: In Commonwealth games, different games are scheduled to be held on seven days, starting on Monday and ending on Sunday. Two games are scheduled to be held on Saturday as well as on Sunday and one game on each of the remaining five days. The games to be held in these seven days are: Baseball, Hockey, Polo, sprinting, swimming, shooting, Formula 1, Kho - kho and cycling, but not necessarily in the same order. Shooing is scheduled to be held on Thursday. Polo and cycling are scheduled to be held on the same day. Kho - kho is scheduled to be held three days before Baseball, i.e. two sports are scheduled between Kho - kho and Baseball; Kho - kho is not scheduled to be held on Wednesday. Formula 1 is scheduled immediately after the day Polo is scheduled. Hockey is scheduled immediately after the day Kho - kho is scheduled. Swimming is not scheduled on Monday.

Q. On which of the following days is Formula 1 scheduled?

Solution:


1. Swimming is not scheduled on Monday
2. Shooting is scheduled on Thursday
3. Since Weight Lifting is scheduled immediately after Polo so Weight lifting cannot be on Friday
4. Since Shooting is scheduled on Thursday therefore Kho - kho cannot be on Monday, because we are given by the statement that between Kho - kho and Baseball there must be two games so if Kho - kho is scheduled on Monday it will not possible for Baseball to schedule after three days
5. Polo and Cycling are on the same day so both will be on the same day so they will be on either Sunday or Saturday, since Formula 1 is scheduled after Polo Therefore Polo and Cycling would be on Saturday and Weight Lifting would scheduled on Sunday
6. Kho - kho cannot be scheduled on Monday, Wednesday, Friday or Sunday so Wresting is scheduled on Tuesday and Baseball would be scheduled on Friday

Weight Lifting is scheduled on Sunday

QUESTION: 50

The ratio of difference between CI and SI in 2 year and 2.5 is 8 : 17 at a certain rate of interest on a certain sum. Find the rate of interest.

Solution:

A [A = Interest on principle for 1 year]

A = B [B = Interest on A]

A / 2 = B = C / 2 [ C = Interest on B]

B / ( 2B + C / 2) = 8 / 17

B = 4C

R2 / 1002 = R3 / 1003

R = 25%. 

QUESTION: 51

Which of the following is the largest?

Solution:

► 7200! = 7200 x 7199 x 7198 ………… x 3601 x 3600!
► 3600! x 3600! = 1 x 2 x 3 ……….. x 3600 x 3600!
Clearly, 7200! > 3600! x 3600!
► 1200! X 6000! = 1 x 2 x 3 ……….. x 1200 x 6000!
► 7200! = 7200 x 7199 x 7198 …………… x 6001! X 6000!
Again, 7200! > 1200! x 6000!
Similarly, 7200! > 2200! x 5000!
Hence B.

QUESTION: 52

A sequence of 4 digits, when considered as a number in base 10 is 28/3 times of the five times the number it represents in base 8. What is the number?

Solution:

Let 4 digits be abcd In base 8, this represents 512a + 64b + 8c + d 

In base 10, this represents 1000a + 100b + 10c + d 

Given, 5(1000a + 100b + 10c + d) = 28 / 3(512a + 64b + 8c + d )

Check with the option, A is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 53

Two chocolate making machines each working 18 hours per day for 8 days produces 9 tons of chocolate with an efficiency of 90%. While 3 other chocolate making machines at an efficiency of 80% set to handle 24 tons of chocolate in 9 days. Find how many hours per day each should work?

Solution:

► (2 x 8 x 18 x 90 ) / 9  = (3 x 9 x H x 80) / 24
► H = 32 h / day.

QUESTION: 54

If x + y + xy = 3
y + z + yz = 8
x + z + zx = 15
then find the value of 12xyz

Solution:

► (1 + x)(1 + y) = 4 ………… (i)
► (1 + y)(1 + z) = 9 …………….. (ii)
► (1 + z)(1 + x) = 16 ………………. (iii)
Now [(i) ÷ (ii)] x (iii)
► (x + 1)2 = 4/9 x 16
► x = 5 / 3
put the Value of x in (i)
► y = 1 / 2
put the Value of y in (ii)
► z = 5
Hence 12xyz = 12 x 5 / 3 x 5 x 1 / 2 = 50. Option B

QUESTION: 55

Two vessels P and Q contain 62.5% and 87.5% of alcohol respectively. If 2 litres from vessel P is mixed with 4 litres from vessel Q, the ratio of alcohol and water in the resulting mixture is? 

Solution:

Quantity of alcohol in vessel P = 62.5 / 100 * 2 = 5 / 4 litres 
Quantity of alcohol in vessel Q = 87.5 / 100 * 4 = 7 / 2 litres 
Quantity of alcohol in the mixture formed = 5 / 4 + 7 / 2 = 19 / 4 = 4.75 litres 
As 6 litres of mixture is formed, ratio of alcohol and water in the mixture formed = 4.75 : 1.25 = 19 : 5.

QUESTION: 56

An equilateral triangle and a circle are inscribed in a semicircle. If length of PQ = 8 then find the area of the shaded region.

Solution:

PAB is an equilateral triangle.

∠APB = 600
∠DOQ = 1200 (Centre angle )
∠COQ = 600  (PE bisects angle O)
∠CQO = 300 
PD = PQ = 8 

Let DA = QB = a
In ∆ PEB, Cos 60 = BE / PB 
BE = 4 + a / 2

In ∆ PEB
BE2 = BQ X BP
(4 + a / 2)2 = a(a + 8) 

a = 8 / 3
PB = 32 / 3
BE = 16 / 3

Radius of inscribed circle = 8 / √3

Area of circle = π x 64 / 3 = 64π / 3

Area of Semi circle = π x 256 / 3 x 1 / 2 = 128π / 3

Area of triangle PEB = 

Area of Sector POQ = 

Area of ∆ POQ =

Area of Sector PQ = 

Area of shaded region = 

QUESTION: 57

Two cyclists left B for A simultaneously. The first cyclist stopped after 98 min, when he was 2 km short of A and the other one stopped after 123 min, when he was 3 km short of A. If the first cycled as many kilometres as the second, the first one would need 27 min less than the second. Find the distance between B and A. 

Solution:

Let distance between B and A be x km.

First cyclist covered (x - 2) km in 98 min.

Second cyclist covered (x - 3) km in 123 min.

First cyclist will take (123 - 27) i.e. 96 min to cover (x - 3) distance.

∴ This means first cyclist covers 1 km in 2 min.

∴ In 98 min, he will cover 49 km.

QUESTION: 58

20 women are invited for a kitty party. In how many different ways can they and the host be seated at a circular table, if the two particular women are to be seated on either side of the host 

Solution:

here are 20 + 1 = 21 women in all.

The two particular women and the host be taken as one unit so that these remain 21 - 3 + 1 = 19 women to be arranged in 18 ! ways.

But the two women on either side of the host can themselves be arranged in 2! ways.

Hence there are 2! 18! ways . 

QUESTION: 59

In an examination of 6 multiple choice question, Each question has four options out of which one is correct. The probability that a student will get 5 or more correct answers just by guessing is

Solution:

Probability of getting correct answer(p) = 1 / 4

Probability of getting incorrect answer(q) = 3 / 4

Probability of guessing 5 or more correct answer = P (x = 5) + p (x = 6)

Probability of guessing 4 or more correct answer = 19 / 46.

QUESTION: 60

Four numbers x1 < x2 < x3 < x4 can be paired in six different ways. The average values of these pairings are: 4, 5, 6.5, 6, 7.5 and 8.5. What is the largest possible value of x4?

Solution:

Pairs will be, x1 + x2 , x1 + x3 , x1 + x4 , x2 + x3 , x2 + x4 , x3 + x4

We can say , x1 + x2 = 8 , x1 + x3 =10, x1 + x4 = 13, x2 + x3 + 12, x3 + x= 17 , x2 + x4 = 15

By options we can easily infer that maximum value or x4 will be 10. 

QUESTION: 61

Cathy bought some oranges at the rate of 12 per rupee. She bought the same number of oranges at the rate of 6 per rupee and mixed both the types, and sold them at the rate of 20 for Rs. 6. If in this transaction, she had a profit of Rs. 10.5, how many oranges did she buy?

Solution:

Let the total oranges be 120

She bought 60 oranges at 12 per rupee
CP of 60 oranges = 5

She bought another 60 oranges at 6 per rupee

CP of 60 oranges = 10

Total CP = 15

She sells total 120 oranges at the rate of 20 for Rs. 6

SP = 36

Profit is 21 when total no. of oranges is 120 Given, Profit is 10.5

Hence total no. of oranges will be 60.

QUESTION: 62

If a2, b2 , c2 are in A.P.  b + c, c, c + a, a + b will be in

Solution:

a2, b2, c2 are in A.P.
So adding ab + bc + ca to each term a2 + ab + bc + ca, b2 + ab + bc + ca. c2 + ab + bc + ca will also be in A.P.

i.e. a(a + b) + c( b + a), b( a + b) + c( b +a), c( c +b ) + a( b + c ) are in A.P.

i.e. ( a + c) ( a + b), ( b + c) ( a + b), ( c + a)( b + c) are in A.P.

dividing each term by ( a + b) ( b + c) ( c + a)

1 / b + a, 1 / c + a, 1 / a + b are in A.P.

So b + c, c + a, a + b are in H.P.

QUESTION: 63

Raj and Howard purchased an article and both of them paid for it. First, Raj paid 50% of the money, then Howard paid 50% of the remaining amount. Again, Raj paid 50% of the remaining amount, then Howard, and this process continued until the article was fully paid for. What (approximate) percentage of the total cost of the article was paid by Raj? 

Solution:

Let the amount be 100

This is the case of Infinite G.P with common ratio of 1 / 4
Amount paid by Raj = 50 / (1 - 1 / 4) = 200 / 3 = 66.67%
Amount paid by Howard = 25 / (1 - 1 / 4) = 100 / 3 = 33.33% .

QUESTION: 64

The medians of a triangle are 9 cm, 12 cm and 15 cm long. The area of the triangle in cm² is? 

Solution:

Area of triangle = 4/3(area of triangle formed by median as side)

= 4/3(1/2 * 9 * 12)

(∵ 9,12,15 from triplet)

= 4/3 * 54 = 72cm2

QUESTION: 65

When 284 is divided by a certain divisor the remainder obtained is 8. When 801 is divided by the same divisor the remainder obtained is 9. However, when the sum of the two numbers 284 and 801 is divided by the divisor, the remainder obtained is 5. What is the value of the divisor?

Solution:

When 284 is divided by a certain divisor the remainder obtained is 8.

Let the divisor be d.

When 284 is divided by d, let the quotient be 'x'.

The remainder is 8.

Therefore, 284 = xd + 8

When 801 is divided by the same divisor the remainder obtained is 9.

Let y be the quotient when 801 is divided by d.

Then, 801 = yd + 9.

When the sum of the two numbers, 284 and 801, is divided by the divisor, the remainder obtained is 5.

284 + 801 = 1085 = xd + yd + 8 + 9

1085 = xd + yd + 17

As xd and yd are divisible by d, the remainder when 1085 is divided by d should have been 17.

However, because we know that the remainder is 5, it would be possible only when 17 divided by d leaves a remainder of 5.

Then, d = 12.

QUESTION: 66

Find maximum value of the product abc if a + b + c =12 where a, b , c are positive real numbers.

Solution:

If sum of few positive real numbers  is constant, their product is maximum when they are equal.

Hence abc is maximum when a = b = c = 4 . Therefore, max abc is 64.

QUESTION: 67

LCM of 2 natural numbers is 111, how many such pairs exist?

Solution:

5 pairs namely
(1, 111) ; (3, 111) ; (37, 111) ; (111, 111) ; (3, 37).

QUESTION: 68

A drone is going in circles around a stadium. The drone takes 4 minutes to complete one round. The angle of elevation of the drone from a point p on the ground at t second is equal to that at time (t + 60) seconds. At time (t + x) seconds, the drone flies vertically above the point P. What is x equal to?

Solution:

Point P should be on circumference
Let total circumference = 240 m

Speed = 240 / 240 = 1m/s
AP = BP 


Time required to travel BP = 90 sec
Time from starting point = 90 + 60 = 150 sec.

QUESTION: 69

Find the remainder when (32!)2 divided by 65.

Solution:

Correct Answer :- a

Explanation :(32!)/ 65

64! = 64 mod (65)

64 x 63 x 62 x ……….. x 33 x 32! = 64 mod (65)

-1 x -2 x -3 x ………. X -32 x 32! = 64 mod (65)

32! x 32! = 64 mod (65)

(32!)2 = 64 mod (65). 

QUESTION: 70

A ray of light along √7x + y = √7 gets reflected upon reaching x axis. The equation of reflected ray is

Solution:

Take any point on incident ray
A = (1, 0)
B = (-1, 0)

Equation of OB
Y - √7 =  √7 x
Y - √7 x =  √7. 

QUESTION: 71

In the following figure, ABCD is a square with side 6cm. Another square is BEFG with side 10 cm. Find the length of CG

Solution:

In ∆ BCG




-480 = 680 - 5CG2
5CG2 = 1160
CG = √232 . 

QUESTION: 72

If 15, 18 and 'x' are sides of an acute angled triangle, how many integer values of x are possible? 

Solution:

The sides are 15, 18, and 'x'.
Case 1: Among the 3 sides 15, 18, and x, for values of x ≤ 18, 18 is the longest side.
Case 2: For values of x > 18, x is the longest side

Case 1:
When x ≤ 18, let us find the number of values for x that will satisfy the inequality 182 < 152 + x2 i.e., 324 < 225 + x2 The least integer value of x that satisfies this inequality is 10.
The inequality will hold true for x = 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17 and 18. i.e., 9 values

Case 2:
When x > 18, x is the longest side.
Let us count the number of values of x that will satisfy the inequality x2 < 152 + 182 i.e., x2 < 549 x = 23, 22, 21, 20, and 19 satisfy the inequality. That is 5 more values.
Hence,  total  14 values.

QUESTION: 73

Three rugs have a combined area of 360 m2. When overlapped, the rugs cover a floor area of 270 m2 and the area covered by exactly two layers of rug is 36 m2. What area of the floor is covered by three layers of rug?

Solution:

Draw the rugs in the above manner, where X + Y + Z represents the area of the floor 

covered by exactly two rugs and k represents the area of the floor covered by exactly three rugs.

We are told that X + Y + Z= 36 m2

Since, the total area of the floor covered when the rugs do not overlap is 360 m2

and the total area covered when they do overlap is 270 m2, therefore 90 m2 of rug is wasted in double or triple layers.

Thus, X + Y + Z+ 2k = 90 m2
2k = 54 or k = 27

Thus, the area of the floor covered by exactly three layers of rug is 27 m2.

QUESTION: 74

Mike and Dustin are playing chess. In a game of 50 points, Dustin can give Mike 3 points. In a particular game when Mike has scored 88 points, Jane joins in. Jane usually beats Mike by 8 points in a game of 28. If at the end of the game, Jane has scored 140 points, by how many points did Mike lose to Dustin in that game?

Solution:

When Jane scores 28, Mike scores 20. If Jane would have joined Mike in the beginning of the game, then Mike's score would have been 100 when Jane's scores would have been 140. But Jane joins Mike when he is at 88.

Therefore, when Jane scores 140, Mike will score 100 + 88 = 188 and Dustin will be at 200 because it is given that when Dustin scores 50, Mike scores 47.

Therefore, Dustin beats Mike by 12 points.

QUESTION: 75

An equilateral triangle is drawn by joining the midpoints of the sides of another equilateral triangle. A third equilateral triangle is drawn inside the second one joining the midpoints of the sides of the second equilateral triangle, and the process continues till fourth triangle. A circle is drawn inside the fourth triangle. Find the ratio of area of the largest triangle and area of that circle.

Solution:

Side of the largest triangle = a
Area = √3 / 4 x a2
Side of the fourth triangle = a / 8

Radius of Circle =  a / 16√3
Area of Circle = π a2/ 256 x 3
Hence Required ratio  = 192√3 / π . 

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