CAT  >  CAT Mock Test Series  >  CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) Download as PDF

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022)


Test Description

66 Questions MCQ Test CAT Mock Test Series | CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022)

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) for CAT 2022 is part of CAT Mock Test Series preparation. The CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) questions and answers have been prepared according to the CAT exam syllabus.The CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) MCQs are made for CAT 2022 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) below.
Solutions of CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) questions in English are available as part of our CAT Mock Test Series for CAT & CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) solutions in Hindi for CAT Mock Test Series course. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for CAT Exam by signing up for free. Attempt CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) | 66 questions in 120 minutes | Mock test for CAT preparation | Free important questions MCQ to study CAT Mock Test Series for CAT Exam | Download free PDF with solutions
1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you?
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 1

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. 

With our climate-impacted world now highly prone to fires, extreme storms and sea-level rise, nuclear energy is touted as a possible replacement for the burning of fossil fuels for energy - the leading cause of climate change. Nuclear power can demonstrably reduce carbon dioxide emissions. Yet scientific evidence and recent catastrophes call into question whether nuclear power could function safely in our warming world. Wild weather, fires, rising sea levels, earthquakes and warming water temperatures all increase the risk of nuclear accidents, while the lack of safe, long-term storage for radioactive waste remains a persistent danger.

The Santa Susana Field Laboratory property has had a long history of contaminated soil and groundwater. Indeed, a 2006 advisory panel compiled a report suggesting that workers at the lab, as well as residents living nearby, had unusually high exposure to radiation and industrial chemicals that are linked to an increased incidence of some cancers. Discovery of the pollution prompted California’s DTSC in 2010 to order cleanup of the site by its current owner - Boeing - with assistance from the US Department of Energy and NASA. But the required cleanup has been hampered by Boeing’s legal fight to perform a less rigorous cleaning.

Like the Santa Susana Field Lab, Chernobyl remains largely unremediated since its meltdown in 1986. With each passing year, dead plant material accumulates and temperatures rise, making it especially prone to fires in the era of climate change. Radiation releases from contaminated soils and forests can be carried thousands of kilometres away to human population centres, according to experts.

Kate Brown, a historian at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology and the author of Manual for Survival: A Chernobyl Guide to the Future (2019), and Tim Mousseau, an evolutionary biologist at the University of South Carolina, also have grave concerns about forest fires. ‘Records show that there have been fires in the Chernobyl zone that raised the radiation levels by seven to 10 times since 1990,’ Brown says. Further north, melting glaciers contain ‘radioactive fallout from global nuclear testing and nuclear accidents at levels 10 times higher than elsewhere’. As ice melts, radioactive runoff flows into the ocean, is absorbed into the atmosphere, and falls as acid rain. ‘With fires and melting ice, we are basically paying back a debt of radioactive debris incurred during the frenzied production of nuclear byproducts during the 20th century,’ Brown concludes. 

Flooding is another symptom of our warming world that could lead to nuclear disaster. Many nuclear plants are built on coastlines where seawater is easily used as a coolant. Sea-level rise, shoreline erosion, coastal storms and heat waves - all potentially catastrophic phenomena associated with climate change - are expected to get more frequent as the Earth continues to warm, threatening greater damage to coastal nuclear power plants. ‘Mere absence of greenhouse gas emissions is not sufficient to assess nuclear power as a mitigation for climate change,’ conclude Natalie Kopytko and John Perkins in their paper ‘Climate Change, Nuclear Power, and the Adaptation-Mitigation Dilemma’ (2011) in Energy Policy.

Proponents of nuclear power say that the reactors’ relative reliability and capacity make this a much clearer choice than other non-fossil-fuel sources of energy, such as wind and solar, which are sometimes brought offline by fluctuations in natural resource availability. Yet no one denies that older nuclear plants, with an aged infrastructure often surpassing expected lifetimes, are extremely inefficient and run a higher risk of disaster.

Q. Why does the author give the examples of the Santa Susana Lab and Chernobyl?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 1

Through the passage, the author argues against nuclear power generation as an alternative to fossil fuels especially in the context of climate change. The author then gives these two examples to highlight how much damage they did to people and the planet and continue to do so. These two examples are extreme examples of how nuclear power generation can go terribly wrong. Thus, the primary reason to introduce these examples is to highlight the impact of nuclear disasters on the planet and people. Hence, option D.

Though the author does say that with climate change, the nuclear fallout of these disasters is likely to get worse, these examples are not introduced for that purpose. By highlighting the negative impact of these disasters, the author is trying to make the larger point against nuclear power. Hence, we can eliminate option B.

Though option A is the purpose behind the whole passage, it is not the reason why these two examples are introduced. Hence, we can eliminate option A. For the same reason we can eliminate option C.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 2

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. 

With our climate-impacted world now highly prone to fires, extreme storms and sea-level rise, nuclear energy is touted as a possible replacement for the burning of fossil fuels for energy - the leading cause of climate change. Nuclear power can demonstrably reduce carbon dioxide emissions. Yet scientific evidence and recent catastrophes call into question whether nuclear power could function safely in our warming world. Wild weather, fires, rising sea levels, earthquakes and warming water temperatures all increase the risk of nuclear accidents, while the lack of safe, long-term storage for radioactive waste remains a persistent danger.

The Santa Susana Field Laboratory property has had a long history of contaminated soil and groundwater. Indeed, a 2006 advisory panel compiled a report suggesting that workers at the lab, as well as residents living nearby, had unusually high exposure to radiation and industrial chemicals that are linked to an increased incidence of some cancers. Discovery of the pollution prompted California’s DTSC in 2010 to order cleanup of the site by its current owner - Boeing - with assistance from the US Department of Energy and NASA. But the required cleanup has been hampered by Boeing’s legal fight to perform a less rigorous cleaning.

Like the Santa Susana Field Lab, Chernobyl remains largely unremediated since its meltdown in 1986. With each passing year, dead plant material accumulates and temperatures rise, making it especially prone to fires in the era of climate change. Radiation releases from contaminated soils and forests can be carried thousands of kilometres away to human population centres, according to experts.

Kate Brown, a historian at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology and the author of Manual for Survival: A Chernobyl Guide to the Future (2019), and Tim Mousseau, an evolutionary biologist at the University of South Carolina, also have grave concerns about forest fires. ‘Records show that there have been fires in the Chernobyl zone that raised the radiation levels by seven to 10 times since 1990,’ Brown says. Further north, melting glaciers contain ‘radioactive fallout from global nuclear testing and nuclear accidents at levels 10 times higher than elsewhere’. As ice melts, radioactive runoff flows into the ocean, is absorbed into the atmosphere, and falls as acid rain. ‘With fires and melting ice, we are basically paying back a debt of radioactive debris incurred during the frenzied production of nuclear byproducts during the 20th century,’ Brown concludes. 

Flooding is another symptom of our warming world that could lead to nuclear disaster. Many nuclear plants are built on coastlines where seawater is easily used as a coolant. Sea-level rise, shoreline erosion, coastal storms and heat waves - all potentially catastrophic phenomena associated with climate change - are expected to get more frequent as the Earth continues to warm, threatening greater damage to coastal nuclear power plants. ‘Mere absence of greenhouse gas emissions is not sufficient to assess nuclear power as a mitigation for climate change,’ conclude Natalie Kopytko and John Perkins in their paper ‘Climate Change, Nuclear Power, and the Adaptation-Mitigation Dilemma’ (2011) in Energy Policy.

Proponents of nuclear power say that the reactors’ relative reliability and capacity make this a much clearer choice than other non-fossil-fuel sources of energy, such as wind and solar, which are sometimes brought offline by fluctuations in natural resource availability. Yet no one denies that older nuclear plants, with an aged infrastructure often surpassing expected lifetimes, are extremely inefficient and run a higher risk of disaster.

Q. What is the author's opinion on nuclear energy?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 2

Through the passage, the author argues against nuclear power. Hence, options B and C which are not negative can be eliminated. Both options A and D are close. But option A misses the primary motivation behind the author's recommendation. The author feels that with climate change, the number of nuclear disasters is likely to increase and thus nuclear power should be avoided. Hence, option D.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 3

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. 

With our climate-impacted world now highly prone to fires, extreme storms and sea-level rise, nuclear energy is touted as a possible replacement for the burning of fossil fuels for energy - the leading cause of climate change. Nuclear power can demonstrably reduce carbon dioxide emissions. Yet scientific evidence and recent catastrophes call into question whether nuclear power could function safely in our warming world. Wild weather, fires, rising sea levels, earthquakes and warming water temperatures all increase the risk of nuclear accidents, while the lack of safe, long-term storage for radioactive waste remains a persistent danger.

The Santa Susana Field Laboratory property has had a long history of contaminated soil and groundwater. Indeed, a 2006 advisory panel compiled a report suggesting that workers at the lab, as well as residents living nearby, had unusually high exposure to radiation and industrial chemicals that are linked to an increased incidence of some cancers. Discovery of the pollution prompted California’s DTSC in 2010 to order cleanup of the site by its current owner - Boeing - with assistance from the US Department of Energy and NASA. But the required cleanup has been hampered by Boeing’s legal fight to perform a less rigorous cleaning.

Like the Santa Susana Field Lab, Chernobyl remains largely unremediated since its meltdown in 1986. With each passing year, dead plant material accumulates and temperatures rise, making it especially prone to fires in the era of climate change. Radiation releases from contaminated soils and forests can be carried thousands of kilometres away to human population centres, according to experts.

Kate Brown, a historian at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology and the author of Manual for Survival: A Chernobyl Guide to the Future (2019), and Tim Mousseau, an evolutionary biologist at the University of South Carolina, also have grave concerns about forest fires. ‘Records show that there have been fires in the Chernobyl zone that raised the radiation levels by seven to 10 times since 1990,’ Brown says. Further north, melting glaciers contain ‘radioactive fallout from global nuclear testing and nuclear accidents at levels 10 times higher than elsewhere’. As ice melts, radioactive runoff flows into the ocean, is absorbed into the atmosphere, and falls as acid rain. ‘With fires and melting ice, we are basically paying back a debt of radioactive debris incurred during the frenzied production of nuclear byproducts during the 20th century,’ Brown concludes. 

Flooding is another symptom of our warming world that could lead to nuclear disaster. Many nuclear plants are built on coastlines where seawater is easily used as a coolant. Sea-level rise, shoreline erosion, coastal storms and heat waves - all potentially catastrophic phenomena associated with climate change - are expected to get more frequent as the Earth continues to warm, threatening greater damage to coastal nuclear power plants. ‘Mere absence of greenhouse gas emissions is not sufficient to assess nuclear power as a mitigation for climate change,’ conclude Natalie Kopytko and John Perkins in their paper ‘Climate Change, Nuclear Power, and the Adaptation-Mitigation Dilemma’ (2011) in Energy Policy.

Proponents of nuclear power say that the reactors’ relative reliability and capacity make this a much clearer choice than other non-fossil-fuel sources of energy, such as wind and solar, which are sometimes brought offline by fluctuations in natural resource availability. Yet no one denies that older nuclear plants, with an aged infrastructure often surpassing expected lifetimes, are extremely inefficient and run a higher risk of disaster.

Q. What is the main point of the last paragraph?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 3

Through the last paragraph, the author is trying to counter the argument in favour of nuclear energy. The author says that though they have the advantage of reliability and capability, as the plants age they become inefficient and risky. Hence, option A is the right answer. 
Options B, C and D miss out the point of how aging of plants makes them a worse bet. Hence, option A.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 4

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. 

With our climate-impacted world now highly prone to fires, extreme storms and sea-level rise, nuclear energy is touted as a possible replacement for the burning of fossil fuels for energy - the leading cause of climate change. Nuclear power can demonstrably reduce carbon dioxide emissions. Yet scientific evidence and recent catastrophes call into question whether nuclear power could function safely in our warming world. Wild weather, fires, rising sea levels, earthquakes and warming water temperatures all increase the risk of nuclear accidents, while the lack of safe, long-term storage for radioactive waste remains a persistent danger.

The Santa Susana Field Laboratory property has had a long history of contaminated soil and groundwater. Indeed, a 2006 advisory panel compiled a report suggesting that workers at the lab, as well as residents living nearby, had unusually high exposure to radiation and industrial chemicals that are linked to an increased incidence of some cancers. Discovery of the pollution prompted California’s DTSC in 2010 to order cleanup of the site by its current owner - Boeing - with assistance from the US Department of Energy and NASA. But the required cleanup has been hampered by Boeing’s legal fight to perform a less rigorous cleaning.

Like the Santa Susana Field Lab, Chernobyl remains largely unremediated since its meltdown in 1986. With each passing year, dead plant material accumulates and temperatures rise, making it especially prone to fires in the era of climate change. Radiation releases from contaminated soils and forests can be carried thousands of kilometres away to human population centres, according to experts.

Kate Brown, a historian at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology and the author of Manual for Survival: A Chernobyl Guide to the Future (2019), and Tim Mousseau, an evolutionary biologist at the University of South Carolina, also have grave concerns about forest fires. ‘Records show that there have been fires in the Chernobyl zone that raised the radiation levels by seven to 10 times since 1990,’ Brown says. Further north, melting glaciers contain ‘radioactive fallout from global nuclear testing and nuclear accidents at levels 10 times higher than elsewhere’. As ice melts, radioactive runoff flows into the ocean, is absorbed into the atmosphere, and falls as acid rain. ‘With fires and melting ice, we are basically paying back a debt of radioactive debris incurred during the frenzied production of nuclear byproducts during the 20th century,’ Brown concludes. 

Flooding is another symptom of our warming world that could lead to nuclear disaster. Many nuclear plants are built on coastlines where seawater is easily used as a coolant. Sea-level rise, shoreline erosion, coastal storms and heat waves - all potentially catastrophic phenomena associated with climate change - are expected to get more frequent as the Earth continues to warm, threatening greater damage to coastal nuclear power plants. ‘Mere absence of greenhouse gas emissions is not sufficient to assess nuclear power as a mitigation for climate change,’ conclude Natalie Kopytko and John Perkins in their paper ‘Climate Change, Nuclear Power, and the Adaptation-Mitigation Dilemma’ (2011) in Energy Policy.

Proponents of nuclear power say that the reactors’ relative reliability and capacity make this a much clearer choice than other non-fossil-fuel sources of energy, such as wind and solar, which are sometimes brought offline by fluctuations in natural resource availability. Yet no one denies that older nuclear plants, with an aged infrastructure often surpassing expected lifetimes, are extremely inefficient and run a higher risk of disaster.
Heidi Hutner & Erica Cirino
This article was originally published at Aeon and has been republished under Creative Commons.

Q. What was the conclusion based on the research by the MIT ?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 4

The MIT research showed conclusively that the frequent forest fires, surface runoffs and flooding spread radiation. The research concluded that we are still paying for the nuclear by-products that were made in the 20th century. Only option C captures this point and hence is the right answer.
Option D, though true, is not the main conclusion of the study.
Option A contains a distortion. The study does not mention that only areas with radiation will experience acid rain. Hence, we can eliminate option A.
Option B is an exaggeration and hence can be eliminated.
Thus option C is the correct answer. 

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 5

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Country music has often been misrepresented to the world. Early on, it was deemed ‘hillbilly music’ by the very recording industry producing it, stereotypically linking it to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can see this image echoed on the front page of Variety in 1926, where the music critic Abel Green first defines the audience: ‘The “hill-billy” is a North Carolina or Tennessee and adjacent mountaineer type of illiterate white whose creed and allegiance are to the Bible … and the phonograph.’ Then the music got its lashing when Green described it as ‘the sing-song, nasal-twanging vocalising of a Vernon Dalhart or a Carson Robison … reciting the banal lyrics of a Prisoner’s Song or The Death of Floyd Collins …’

These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.

One early example of this is from Blind Alfred Reed, who crafted How Can a Poor Man Stand Such Times and Live? (1929). The song takes on the unjust practices of groups in power, such as in the lines: ‘preachers preach for gold and not for souls’ and ‘Officers kill without a cause.’ It presents the entirety of the working class as being victimised at the very dawn of the Great Depression. But Reed also wrote the religious song There’ll Be No Distinction There (1929), which illustrated an egalitarian afterlife in the lines: ‘We’ll all sit together in the same kind of pews, / The whites and the coloured folks, the gentiles and the Jews.’ But Reed was not alone in expressing sympathy for the working class or in calling out for a more equitable society: others from this early era - such as Uncle Dave Macon, Fiddlin’ John Carson and Henry Whitter - expressed similar sentiments, just as Johnny Cash, Steve Earle and John Rich have done in later decades.

Country music has also spoken out on women’s issues, such as in Loretta Lynn’s hit The Pill (1975). The song celebrates freedom from pregnancy, with the narrator noting how her husband has always been carefree and unfaithful while she was tied down with ‘a couple [babies] in my arms’ and another one on the way. Lynn’s message here is clear - she despises this kind of unequitable relationship, as she bluntly states in her autobiography Coal Miner’s Daughter (1976): ‘Well, shoot, I don’t believe in double standards, where men can get away with things that women can’t.’ In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare. Lynn rejoices both in the song and in her own overall personal belief that the contraceptive pill will allow women greater control of their own lives.

Q. Which of the following adds the least depth to the author’s argument?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 5

The author begins the passage by explaining how country music has been termed “hill-billy”. He then goes on to explain what it means. The second paragraph speaks of the negative perceptions that country music has and the author states that this image is not true. The author explains how country music has been more progressive right from the beginning. The remaining paragraphs cite examples of issues that country music has dealt with. It is clear from the passage that the main argument of the author is to show that country music is progressive and not conservative. 
Option A is incorrect since it contributes to the author’s argument that country music is progressive.
Option B is a possible answer. Cultural ambassadors have not been discussed in the passage, although them exhibiting a varied history of America would still be beneficial for country music.
Option C is correct. Furthering "Christian" music would bolster Country Music's conservative credentials and not its progressive ones. 
Option D is incorrect since it tackles social issues which have been discussed in the passage.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 6

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Country music has often been misrepresented to the world. Early on, it was deemed ‘hillbilly music’ by the very recording industry producing it, stereotypically linking it to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can see this image echoed on the front page of Variety in 1926, where the music critic Abel Green first defines the audience: ‘The “hill-billy” is a North Carolina or Tennessee and adjacent mountaineer type of illiterate white whose creed and allegiance are to the Bible … and the phonograph.’ Then the music got its lashing when Green described it as ‘the sing-song, nasal-twanging vocalising of a Vernon Dalhart or a Carson Robison … reciting the banal lyrics of a Prisoner’s Song or The Death of Floyd Collins …’

These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.

One early example of this is from Blind Alfred Reed, who crafted How Can a Poor Man Stand Such Times and Live? (1929). The song takes on the unjust practices of groups in power, such as in the lines: ‘preachers preach for gold and not for souls’ and ‘Officers kill without a cause.’ It presents the entirety of the working class as being victimised at the very dawn of the Great Depression. But Reed also wrote the religious song There’ll Be No Distinction There (1929), which illustrated an egalitarian afterlife in the lines: ‘We’ll all sit together in the same kind of pews, / The whites and the coloured folks, the gentiles and the Jews.’ But Reed was not alone in expressing sympathy for the working class or in calling out for a more equitable society: others from this early era - such as Uncle Dave Macon, Fiddlin’ John Carson and Henry Whitter - expressed similar sentiments, just as Johnny Cash, Steve Earle and John Rich have done in later decades.

Country music has also spoken out on women’s issues, such as in Loretta Lynn’s hit The Pill (1975). The song celebrates freedom from pregnancy, with the narrator noting how her husband has always been carefree and unfaithful while she was tied down with ‘a couple [babies] in my arms’ and another one on the way. Lynn’s message here is clear - she despises this kind of unequitable relationship, as she bluntly states in her autobiography Coal Miner’s Daughter (1976): ‘Well, shoot, I don’t believe in double standards, where men can get away with things that women can’t.’ In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare. Lynn rejoices both in the song and in her own overall personal belief that the contraceptive pill will allow women greater control of their own lives.

Q. The passage makes all the following claims EXCEPT:

  1. “Hill-billy” was considered a derogatory word.
  2. Country music was more progressive than it was perceived to be.
  3. The audience of country music was diverse.
Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 6

The claim in statement 1 is made in the first paragraph. “Hill billy” has been stereotypically linked to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can further infer this from Abel Green’s description.
The claim in statement 2 is the main argument of the passage. We can infer it from the second paragraph.
Statement 3 can be inferred from the lines “These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.”
So, Option D is correct.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 7

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Country music has often been misrepresented to the world. Early on, it was deemed ‘hillbilly music’ by the very recording industry producing it, stereotypically linking it to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can see this image echoed on the front page of Variety in 1926, where the music critic Abel Green first defines the audience: ‘The “hill-billy” is a North Carolina or Tennessee and adjacent mountaineer type of illiterate white whose creed and allegiance are to the Bible … and the phonograph.’ Then the music got its lashing when Green described it as ‘the sing-song, nasal-twanging vocalising of a Vernon Dalhart or a Carson Robison … reciting the banal lyrics of a Prisoner’s Song or The Death of Floyd Collins …’

These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.

One early example of this is from Blind Alfred Reed, who crafted How Can a Poor Man Stand Such Times and Live? (1929). The song takes on the unjust practices of groups in power, such as in the lines: ‘preachers preach for gold and not for souls’ and ‘Officers kill without a cause.’ It presents the entirety of the working class as being victimised at the very dawn of the Great Depression. But Reed also wrote the religious song There’ll Be No Distinction There (1929), which illustrated an egalitarian afterlife in the lines: ‘We’ll all sit together in the same kind of pews, / The whites and the coloured folks, the gentiles and the Jews.’ But Reed was not alone in expressing sympathy for the working class or in calling out for a more equitable society: others from this early era - such as Uncle Dave Macon, Fiddlin’ John Carson and Henry Whitter - expressed similar sentiments, just as Johnny Cash, Steve Earle and John Rich have done in later decades.

Country music has also spoken out on women’s issues, such as in Loretta Lynn’s hit The Pill (1975). The song celebrates freedom from pregnancy, with the narrator noting how her husband has always been carefree and unfaithful while she was tied down with ‘a couple [babies] in my arms’ and another one on the way. Lynn’s message here is clear - she despises this kind of unequitable relationship, as she bluntly states in her autobiography Coal Miner’s Daughter (1976): ‘Well, shoot, I don’t believe in double standards, where men can get away with things that women can’t.’ In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare. Lynn rejoices both in the song and in her own overall personal belief that the contraceptive pill will allow women greater control of their own lives.

Q. What is the author is trying to do by citing the example of Loretta Lynn?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 7

Through the passage, the author argues that country music has always had a progressive voice. To support this assertion, the author first gives the example of Blind Alfred Reed who spoke of racial equality and equitable society. Then he gives the example of Loretta Lynn's progressive stand on women's reproductive rights. Thus, through this paragraph, the author is trying to highlight the progressive voices in country music's history to show that country music always had a progressive voice. Thus, option A is closest to the answer.

Option B is incorrect because the author has not claimed that country music facilitated the human rights movement.

Option C is incorrect. Although the author does say that “The Pill” stands out that is not the main point. We must see why the author believes it stands out. Read the lines “In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare.” Through this example, the author is trying to make a larger point.

Option D is true but only captures a part of what Loretta Lynn’s song indicates. Option A is more accurate.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 8

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Country music has often been misrepresented to the world. Early on, it was deemed ‘hillbilly music’ by the very recording industry producing it, stereotypically linking it to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can see this image echoed on the front page of Variety in 1926, where the music critic Abel Green first defines the audience: ‘The “hill-billy” is a North Carolina or Tennessee and adjacent mountaineer type of illiterate white whose creed and allegiance are to the Bible … and the phonograph.’ Then the music got its lashing when Green described it as ‘the sing-song, nasal-twanging vocalising of a Vernon Dalhart or a Carson Robison … reciting the banal lyrics of a Prisoner’s Song or The Death of Floyd Collins …’

These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.

One early example of this is from Blind Alfred Reed, who crafted How Can a Poor Man Stand Such Times and Live? (1929). The song takes on the unjust practices of groups in power, such as in the lines: ‘preachers preach for gold and not for souls’ and ‘Officers kill without a cause.’ It presents the entirety of the working class as being victimised at the very dawn of the Great Depression. But Reed also wrote the religious song There’ll Be No Distinction There (1929), which illustrated an egalitarian afterlife in the lines: ‘We’ll all sit together in the same kind of pews, / The whites and the coloured folks, the gentiles and the Jews.’ But Reed was not alone in expressing sympathy for the working class or in calling out for a more equitable society: others from this early era - such as Uncle Dave Macon, Fiddlin’ John Carson and Henry Whitter - expressed similar sentiments, just as Johnny Cash, Steve Earle and John Rich have done in later decades.

Country music has also spoken out on women’s issues, such as in Loretta Lynn’s hit The Pill (1975). The song celebrates freedom from pregnancy, with the narrator noting how her husband has always been carefree and unfaithful while she was tied down with ‘a couple [babies] in my arms’ and another one on the way. Lynn’s message here is clear - she despises this kind of unequitable relationship, as she bluntly states in her autobiography Coal Miner’s Daughter (1976): ‘Well, shoot, I don’t believe in double standards, where men can get away with things that women can’t.’ In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare. Lynn rejoices both in the song and in her own overall personal belief that the contraceptive pill will allow women greater control of their own lives.

Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 8

The author says that “These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.” However, from these lines we cannot infer that the entire audience was literate and liberal. Hence, option A is incorrect.

Similarly “every song” need not have been progressive. Option B is gross generalization of country music.

Option C is incorrect because it is a generalization as well. 

Option D is correct, we can infer this from the lines “These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature.”

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 9

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Dancing is a human universal, but why? It is present in human cultures old and new; central to those with the longest continuous histories; evident in the earliest visual art on rock walls from France to South Africa to the Americas, and enfolded in the DNA of every infant who invents movements in joyful response to rhythm and song, long before she can walk, talk or think of herself as an ‘I’. Dancing remains a vital, generative practice around the globe into the present in urban neighbourhoods, on concert stages, as part of healing rituals and in political revolutions. Despite efforts waged by Christian European and American colonists across six continents over 500 years to eradicate indigenous dance traditions and to marginalise dancing within their own societies, dancing continues wherever humans reside. Any answer to the question of why humans dance must explain its ubiquity and tenacity. In so doing, any answer will challenge Western notions of human being that privilege mind over body as the seat of agency and identity.

Current explanations for why humans dance tend to follow one of two approaches. The first, seen in psychological and some philosophical circles, begins with a human as an individual person who chooses to dance (or not) for entertainment, exercise, artistic expression or some other personal reason. Such approaches assume that dance is one activity among others offering benefits to an individual that may be desirable, but not necessary, for human well being. Alternatively, a raft of sociological and anthropological explanations focus on community, asserting that dancing is one of the first means by which the earliest humans solidified strong social bonds irrespective of bloodlines. In these accounts, dancing is eventually replaced by more rational and effective means of social bonding that the dancing itself makes possible, such as language, morality and religion. While the first type of reasoning struggles to explain why so many humans choose to dance, the second struggles to explain why humans continue to dance. What is missing from these accounts?

What if humans are the primates whose capacity to dance (shared by some birds and mammals) was the signature strategy enabling the evolution of a distinctively large and interconnected brain, empathic heart and ecological adaptability? And what if dancing plays this role for humans not just in prehistoric times, but continuing into the present? What if humans are creatures who evolved to dance as the enabling condition of their own bodily becoming?

Recent evidence for such a thesis is gathering across scientific and scholarly disciplines. Time and again, researchers are discovering the vital role played by bodily movement not only in the evolution of the human species, but in the present-day social and psychological development of healthy individuals.

Q. What is the primary purpose of the passage?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 9

The author begins by asking the question why dancing is universal to humans? Then she goes on to give the current theories that try to explain this. She dismisses the first theory on the basis that it does not explain the ubiquity of dancing and dismisses the second on the basis that it does not explain the tenacity of the practice. Then she goes on to propose a hypothesis that dancing is an evolutionary strategy that allows for our social and psychological development. She goes on to add that research seems to back up this hypothesis and how this explains both the ubiquity and tenacity of dancing.
Hence, the passage is written with the purpose of introducing the author's hypothesis. Hence, option A is the most apt answer.
Option B is incorrect because the theories and their pros and cons are discussed only as a part of the passage. This also omits the hypothesis presented by the author.
Option C is incorrect because although the passage does discuss human development in relation to dancing, why humans dance is the focal point of the passage.
Option D and Option A are close. However, the author does not conclude with on one reason as to why humans dance. Thus, option A is more accurate.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 10

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Dancing is a human universal, but why? It is present in human cultures old and new; central to those with the longest continuous histories; evident in the earliest visual art on rock walls from France to South Africa to the Americas, and enfolded in the DNA of every infant who invents movements in joyful response to rhythm and song, long before she can walk, talk or think of herself as an ‘I’. Dancing remains a vital, generative practice around the globe into the present in urban neighbourhoods, on concert stages, as part of healing rituals and in political revolutions. Despite efforts waged by Christian European and American colonists across six continents over 500 years to eradicate indigenous dance traditions and to marginalise dancing within their own societies, dancing continues wherever humans reside. Any answer to the question of why humans dance must explain its ubiquity and tenacity. In so doing, any answer will challenge Western notions of human being that privilege mind over body as the seat of agency and identity.

Current explanations for why humans dance tend to follow one of two approaches. The first, seen in psychological and some philosophical circles, begins with a human as an individual person who chooses to dance (or not) for entertainment, exercise, artistic expression or some other personal reason. Such approaches assume that dance is one activity among others offering benefits to an individual that may be desirable, but not necessary, for human well being. Alternatively, a raft of sociological and anthropological explanations focus on community, asserting that dancing is one of the first means by which the earliest humans solidified strong social bonds irrespective of bloodlines. In these accounts, dancing is eventually replaced by more rational and effective means of social bonding that the dancing itself makes possible, such as language, morality and religion. While the first type of reasoning struggles to explain why so many humans choose to dance, the second struggles to explain why humans continue to dance. What is missing from these accounts?

What if humans are the primates whose capacity to dance (shared by some birds and mammals) was the signature strategy enabling the evolution of a distinctively large and interconnected brain, empathic heart and ecological adaptability? And what if dancing plays this role for humans not just in prehistoric times, but continuing into the present? What if humans are creatures who evolved to dance as the enabling condition of their own bodily becoming?

Recent evidence for such a thesis is gathering across scientific and scholarly disciplines. Time and again, researchers are discovering the vital role played by bodily movement not only in the evolution of the human species, but in the present-day social and psychological development of healthy individuals.

Q. What is the author most likely to discuss after the final paragraph?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 10

The author cites an alternative theory that she believes after giving the shortcomings of two other theories. The alternative theory is that dancing helped enable our distinctively large and interconnected brain, empathic heart and ecological adaptability. In the final paragraph, she gives evidence to support this. It would make sense for the author to continue by discussing what part of the brain dance traditions and techniques exercise. Option B is the most accurate.
Option A is incorrect because it does not help further the author’s point and dancing in cultures has already been discussed in the introductory paragraph.
Option C is incorrect because the differences in dance forms have not been discussed yet. The effect the author speaks of is for all dances.
Option D would be reverting back to the points the author has already made. So, although possible, it is a weak option.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 11

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Dancing is a human universal, but why? It is present in human cultures old and new; central to those with the longest continuous histories; evident in the earliest visual art on rock walls from France to South Africa to the Americas, and enfolded in the DNA of every infant who invents movements in joyful response to rhythm and song, long before she can walk, talk or think of herself as an ‘I’. Dancing remains a vital, generative practice around the globe into the present in urban neighbourhoods, on concert stages, as part of healing rituals and in political revolutions. Despite efforts waged by Christian European and American colonists across six continents over 500 years to eradicate indigenous dance traditions and to marginalise dancing within their own societies, dancing continues wherever humans reside. Any answer to the question of why humans dance must explain its ubiquity and tenacity. In so doing, any answer will challenge Western notions of human being that privilege mind over body as the seat of agency and identity.

Current explanations for why humans dance tend to follow one of two approaches. The first, seen in psychological and some philosophical circles, begins with a human as an individual person who chooses to dance (or not) for entertainment, exercise, artistic expression or some other personal reason. Such approaches assume that dance is one activity among others offering benefits to an individual that may be desirable, but not necessary, for human well being. Alternatively, a raft of sociological and anthropological explanations focus on community, asserting that dancing is one of the first means by which the earliest humans solidified strong social bonds irrespective of bloodlines. In these accounts, dancing is eventually replaced by more rational and effective means of social bonding that the dancing itself makes possible, such as language, morality and religion. While the first type of reasoning struggles to explain why so many humans choose to dance, the second struggles to explain why humans continue to dance. What is missing from these accounts?

What if humans are the primates whose capacity to dance (shared by some birds and mammals) was the signature strategy enabling the evolution of a distinctively large and interconnected brain, empathic heart and ecological adaptability? And what if dancing plays this role for humans not just in prehistoric times, but continuing into the present? What if humans are creatures who evolved to dance as the enabling condition of their own bodily becoming?

Recent evidence for such a thesis is gathering across scientific and scholarly disciplines. Time and again, researchers are discovering the vital role played by bodily movement not only in the evolution of the human species, but in the present-day social and psychological development of healthy individuals.

Q. The author mentions that dance is the enabling condition of a human's bodily becoming to,

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 11

The author mentions the given line to raise a question if dance is a necessary condition to evolve. He then continues with the final paragraph that states scientific studies which discover the vital role of dance in evolution.
Option A mentions that humans know what they want to evolve into. This information is not conveyed. Hence it is incorrect.
Option C mentions that dancing is the catalyst for evolution. This means that dancing has merely sped up the evolutionary process, but is not necessarily an enabling condition for evolution. Hence it is incorrect.
Option D is one of the reasons supporting the authors claim. 
Option B is the idea conveyed behind the line and it is hence the correct option.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 12

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Dancing is a human universal, but why? It is present in human cultures old and new; central to those with the longest continuous histories; evident in the earliest visual art on rock walls from France to South Africa to the Americas, and enfolded in the DNA of every infant who invents movements in joyful response to rhythm and song, long before she can walk, talk or think of herself as an ‘I’. Dancing remains a vital, generative practice around the globe into the present in urban neighbourhoods, on concert stages, as part of healing rituals and in political revolutions. Despite efforts waged by Christian European and American colonists across six continents over 500 years to eradicate indigenous dance traditions and to marginalise dancing within their own societies, dancing continues wherever humans reside. Any answer to the question of why humans dance must explain its ubiquity and tenacity. In so doing, any answer will challenge Western notions of human being that privilege mind over body as the seat of agency and identity.

Current explanations for why humans dance tend to follow one of two approaches. The first, seen in psychological and some philosophical circles, begins with a human as an individual person who chooses to dance (or not) for entertainment, exercise, artistic expression or some other personal reason. Such approaches assume that dance is one activity among others offering benefits to an individual that may be desirable, but not necessary, for human well being. Alternatively, a raft of sociological and anthropological explanations focus on community, asserting that dancing is one of the first means by which the earliest humans solidified strong social bonds irrespective of bloodlines. In these accounts, dancing is eventually replaced by more rational and effective means of social bonding that the dancing itself makes possible, such as language, morality and religion. While the first type of reasoning struggles to explain why so many humans choose to dance, the second struggles to explain why humans continue to dance. What is missing from these accounts?

What if humans are the primates whose capacity to dance (shared by some birds and mammals) was the signature strategy enabling the evolution of a distinctively large and interconnected brain, empathic heart and ecological adaptability? And what if dancing plays this role for humans not just in prehistoric times, but continuing into the present? What if humans are creatures who evolved to dance as the enabling condition of their own bodily becoming?

Recent evidence for such a thesis is gathering across scientific and scholarly disciplines. Time and again, researchers are discovering the vital role played by bodily movement not only in the evolution of the human species, but in the present-day social and psychological development of healthy individuals.

Q. Which of the following is the author most likely to support?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 12

Through the passage, the author presents the hypothesis that dancing is an evolutionary strategy that plays a role in our social and psychological development. Hence, she is likely to support the inclusion of dance in schooling. Thus, the author is likely to agree with option A.
The author does not distinguish between different dance forms. Hence, B is unlikely to be the answer.
Though dancing helps human beings, we cannot infer that the author would agree with making it mandatory at social functions, especially when the function is not geared towards social or psychological development. Hence, option C can be ruled out.
The impact of dance on culture has not been discussed in the passage. Hence, the author's views on option D cannot be inferred.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 13

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Dancing is a human universal, but why? It is present in human cultures old and new; central to those with the longest continuous histories; evident in the earliest visual art on rock walls from France to South Africa to the Americas, and enfolded in the DNA of every infant who invents movements in joyful response to rhythm and song, long before she can walk, talk or think of herself as an ‘I’. Dancing remains a vital, generative practice around the globe into the present in urban neighbourhoods, on concert stages, as part of healing rituals and in political revolutions. Despite efforts waged by Christian European and American colonists across six continents over 500 years to eradicate indigenous dance traditions and to marginalise dancing within their own societies, dancing continues wherever humans reside. Any answer to the question of why humans dance must explain its ubiquity and tenacity. In so doing, any answer will challenge Western notions of human being that privilege mind over body as the seat of agency and identity.

Current explanations for why humans dance tend to follow one of two approaches. The first, seen in psychological and some philosophical circles, begins with a human as an individual person who chooses to dance (or not) for entertainment, exercise, artistic expression or some other personal reason. Such approaches assume that dance is one activity among others offering benefits to an individual that may be desirable, but not necessary, for human well being. Alternatively, a raft of sociological and anthropological explanations focus on community, asserting that dancing is one of the first means by which the earliest humans solidified strong social bonds irrespective of bloodlines. In these accounts, dancing is eventually replaced by more rational and effective means of social bonding that the dancing itself makes possible, such as language, morality and religion. While the first type of reasoning struggles to explain why so many humans choose to dance, the second struggles to explain why humans continue to dance. What is missing from these accounts?

What if humans are the primates whose capacity to dance (shared by some birds and mammals) was the signature strategy enabling the evolution of a distinctively large and interconnected brain, empathic heart and ecological adaptability? And what if dancing plays this role for humans not just in prehistoric times, but continuing into the present? What if humans are creatures who evolved to dance as the enabling condition of their own bodily becoming?

Recent evidence for such a thesis is gathering across scientific and scholarly disciplines. Time and again, researchers are discovering the vital role played by bodily movement not only in the evolution of the human species, but in the present-day social and psychological development of healthy individuals.

Q. What is the main idea behind the second paragraph?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 13

The second paragraph begins by citing the two approaches used currently to explain why humans dance. Then it states the shortcomings of these theories. Option D summarizes this, so it is correct.
Though the second paragraph hints at options A and C, the main idea behind the paragraph is neither A nor B. Hence option (a) and option (b) are incorrect.
Option C is incorrect because it is not mentioned that the two theories complete each other. Hence option C is incorrect as well.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 14

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The whole civilized world is mourning the death of Asa Gray with a depth of feeling and appreciation perhaps never accorded before to a scholar and man of science. To the editors of this Journal, the loss at the very outset of their labors is serious indeed. They lose a wise and sympathetic adviser of great experience and mature judgment to whom they could always have turned with entire freedom and in perfect confidence; and they lose a contributor whose vast stores of knowledge and graceful pen might, it was reasonable to hope, have long enriched their columns.

The career of Asa Gray is interesting from many points of view. It is the story of the life of a man born in humble circumstances, without the advantages of early education, without inherited genius—for there is no trace in his yeoman ancestry of any germ of intellectual greatness—who succeeded in gaining through native intelligence, industry, and force of character, a position in the very front rank of the scientific men of his age. Among the naturalists who, since Linnæus, have devoted their lives to the description and classification of plants, four or five stand out prominently in the character and importance of their work. In this little group, Asa Gray has fairly won for himself a lasting position. But he was something more than a mere systematist. He showed himself capable of drawing broad philosophical conclusions from the dry facts he collected and elaborated with such untiring industry and zeal. This power of comprehensive generalization he showed in his paper upon the “Characters of Certain New Species of Plants Collected in Japan” by Charles Wright, published nearly thirty years ago. Here he first pointed out the extraordinary similarity between the Floras of Eastern North America and Japan, and then explained the peculiar distribution of plants through the northern hemisphere by tracing their direct descent through geological eras from ancestors which flourished in the arctic regions down to the latest tertiary period. This paper was Professor Gray’s most remarkable and interesting contribution to science. It at once raised him to high rank among philosophical naturalists and drew the attention of the whole scientific world to the Cambridge botanist.

As a Gray did not devote himself to abstract science alone; he wrote as successfully for the student as for the professional naturalist. His long list of educational works have no equals in accuracy and in beauty and compactness of expression. They have had a remarkable influence upon the study of botany in this country during the half century which has elapsed since the first of the series appeared.

Botany, moreover, did not satisfy that wonderful intellect, which hard work only stimulated but did not weary, and one of Asa Gray’s chief claims to distinction is the prominent and commanding position he took in the great intellectual and scientific struggle of modern times, in which, almost alone and single-handed he bore in America the brunt of the disbelief in the Darwinian theory.
But the crowning labor of Asa Gray’s life was the preparation of a descriptive work upon the plants of North America. This great undertaking occupied his attention and much of his time during the last forty years of his life. Less fortunate than his greatest botanical contemporary, George Bentham, who turned from the last page of corrected proof of his work upon the genera of plants to the bed from which he was never to rise again, Asa Gray’s great work is left unfinished. The two volumes of the “Synoptical Flora of North America” will keep his memory green, however, as long as the human race is interested in the study of plants.

But his botanical writings and his scientific fame are not the most valuable legacy which Asa Gray has left to the American people. More precious to us is the example of his life in this age of grasping materialism. It is a life that teaches how industry and unselfish devotion to learning can attain to the highest distinction and the most enduring fame. Great as were his intellectual gifts, Asa Gray was greatest in the simplicity of his character and in the beauty of his pure and stainless life.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred about Asa Gray?
I: He studied at Cambridge University
II: He was a writer
III: He was an editor
IV: He was a confidant of the editors of the journal from which the article is taken

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 14

Only II and IV are mentioned in the passage. The passage refers to Asa as ‘Cambridge botanist’, but that doesn’t mean that he studied at Cambridge University. In the 3rd passage, it is mentioned that Asa wrote for both student and professional naturalist. In the first passage, the author states ‘They lose a wise and sympathetic adviser of great experience and mature judgment to whom they could always have turned with entire freedom and in perfect confidence’, from which we can infer that IV is true. Thus, the answer is C.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 15

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The whole civilized world is mourning the death of Asa Gray with a depth of feeling and appreciation perhaps never accorded before to a scholar and man of science. To the editors of this Journal, the loss at the very outset of their labors is serious indeed. They lose a wise and sympathetic adviser of great experience and mature judgment to whom they could always have turned with entire freedom and in perfect confidence; and they lose a contributor whose vast stores of knowledge and graceful pen might, it was reasonable to hope, have long enriched their columns.

The career of Asa Gray is interesting from many points of view. It is the story of the life of a man born in humble circumstances, without the advantages of early education, without inherited genius—for there is no trace in his yeoman ancestry of any germ of intellectual greatness—who succeeded in gaining through native intelligence, industry, and force of character, a position in the very front rank of the scientific men of his age. Among the naturalists who, since Linnæus, have devoted their lives to the description and classification of plants, four or five stand out prominently in the character and importance of their work. In this little group, Asa Gray has fairly won for himself a lasting position. But he was something more than a mere systematist. He showed himself capable of drawing broad philosophical conclusions from the dry facts he collected and elaborated with such untiring industry and zeal. This power of comprehensive generalization he showed in his paper upon the “Characters of Certain New Species of Plants Collected in Japan” by Charles Wright, published nearly thirty years ago. Here he first pointed out the extraordinary similarity between the Floras of Eastern North America and Japan, and then explained the peculiar distribution of plants through the northern hemisphere by tracing their direct descent through geological eras from ancestors which flourished in the arctic regions down to the latest tertiary period. This paper was Professor Gray’s most remarkable and interesting contribution to science. It at once raised him to high rank among philosophical naturalists and drew the attention of the whole scientific world to the Cambridge botanist.

As a Gray did not devote himself to abstract science alone; he wrote as successfully for the student as for the professional naturalist. His long list of educational works have no equals in accuracy and in beauty and compactness of expression. They have had a remarkable influence upon the study of botany in this country during the half century which has elapsed since the first of the series appeared.

Botany, moreover, did not satisfy that wonderful intellect, which hard work only stimulated but did not weary, and one of Asa Gray’s chief claims to distinction is the prominent and commanding position he took in the great intellectual and scientific struggle of modern times, in which, almost alone and single-handed he bore in America the brunt of the disbelief in the Darwinian theory.
But the crowning labor of Asa Gray’s life was the preparation of a descriptive work upon the plants of North America. This great undertaking occupied his attention and much of his time during the last forty years of his life. Less fortunate than his greatest botanical contemporary, George Bentham, who turned from the last page of corrected proof of his work upon the genera of plants to the bed from which he was never to rise again, Asa Gray’s great work is left unfinished. The two volumes of the “Synoptical Flora of North America” will keep his memory green, however, as long as the human race is interested in the study of plants.

But his botanical writings and his scientific fame are not the most valuable legacy which Asa Gray has left to the American people. More precious to us is the example of his life in this age of grasping materialism. It is a life that teaches how industry and unselfish devotion to learning can attain to the highest distinction and the most enduring fame. Great as were his intellectual gifts, Asa Gray was greatest in the simplicity of his character and in the beauty of his pure and stainless life.

Q. Which of the following is not an aspect of Asa Gray’s written work?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 15

In the second para, the author states that 'this power of comprehensive generalization he showed in his paper', from which we can conclude that generalization was one of the aspects of his work. Further in the third para, the author states that 'His long list of educational works have no equals in accuracy and in beauty and compactness of expression'. Thus, B and C are also true. Nowhere in the passage has the author regarded Asa's work as systematically organized. Thus, the answer is D.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 16

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The whole civilized world is mourning the death of Asa Gray with a depth of feeling and appreciation perhaps never accorded before to a scholar and man of science. To the editors of this Journal, the loss at the very outset of their labors is serious indeed. They lose a wise and sympathetic adviser of great experience and mature judgment to whom they could always have turned with entire freedom and in perfect confidence; and they lose a contributor whose vast stores of knowledge and graceful pen might, it was reasonable to hope, have long enriched their columns.

The career of Asa Gray is interesting from many points of view. It is the story of the life of a man born in humble circumstances, without the advantages of early education, without inherited genius—for there is no trace in his yeoman ancestry of any germ of intellectual greatness—who succeeded in gaining through native intelligence, industry, and force of character, a position in the very front rank of the scientific men of his age. Among the naturalists who, since Linnæus, have devoted their lives to the description and classification of plants, four or five stand out prominently in the character and importance of their work. In this little group, Asa Gray has fairly won for himself a lasting position. But he was something more than a mere systematist. He showed himself capable of drawing broad philosophical conclusions from the dry facts he collected and elaborated with such untiring industry and zeal. This power of comprehensive generalization he showed in his paper upon the “Characters of Certain New Species of Plants Collected in Japan” by Charles Wright, published nearly thirty years ago. Here he first pointed out the extraordinary similarity between the Floras of Eastern North America and Japan, and then explained the peculiar distribution of plants through the northern hemisphere by tracing their direct descent through geological eras from ancestors which flourished in the arctic regions down to the latest tertiary period. This paper was Professor Gray’s most remarkable and interesting contribution to science. It at once raised him to high rank among philosophical naturalists and drew the attention of the whole scientific world to the Cambridge botanist.

As a Gray did not devote himself to abstract science alone; he wrote as successfully for the student as for the professional naturalist. His long list of educational works have no equals in accuracy and in beauty and compactness of expression. They have had a remarkable influence upon the study of botany in this country during the half century which has elapsed since the first of the series appeared.

Botany, moreover, did not satisfy that wonderful intellect, which hard work only stimulated but did not weary, and one of Asa Gray’s chief claims to distinction is the prominent and commanding position he took in the great intellectual and scientific struggle of modern times, in which, almost alone and single-handed he bore in America the brunt of the disbelief in the Darwinian theory.
But the crowning labor of Asa Gray’s life was the preparation of a descriptive work upon the plants of North America. This great undertaking occupied his attention and much of his time during the last forty years of his life. Less fortunate than his greatest botanical contemporary, George Bentham, who turned from the last page of corrected proof of his work upon the genera of plants to the bed from which he was never to rise again, Asa Gray’s great work is left unfinished. The two volumes of the “Synoptical Flora of North America” will keep his memory green, however, as long as the human race is interested in the study of plants.

But his botanical writings and his scientific fame are not the most valuable legacy which Asa Gray has left to the American people. More precious to us is the example of his life in this age of grasping materialism. It is a life that teaches how industry and unselfish devotion to learning can attain to the highest distinction and the most enduring fame. Great as were his intellectual gifts, Asa Gray was greatest in the simplicity of his character and in the beauty of his pure and stainless life.

Q. According to the passage, what were Gray’s views on Darwin?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 16

Refer to this line from the 4th para, ‘almost alone and single-handed he bore in America the brunt of the disbelief in the Darwinian Theory’. The only takeaway from this sentence is that Gray did believe the Darwinian theory to be true. However, the question asks about Gray’s views on Darwin, which cannot be inferred from the passage. The answer is D.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 17

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The whole civilized world is mourning the death of Asa Gray with a depth of feeling and appreciation perhaps never accorded before to a scholar and man of science. To the editors of this Journal, the loss at the very outset of their labors is serious indeed. They lose a wise and sympathetic adviser of great experience and mature judgment to whom they could always have turned with entire freedom and in perfect confidence; and they lose a contributor whose vast stores of knowledge and graceful pen might, it was reasonable to hope, have long enriched their columns.

The career of Asa Gray is interesting from many points of view. It is the story of the life of a man born in humble circumstances, without the advantages of early education, without inherited genius—for there is no trace in his yeoman ancestry of any germ of intellectual greatness—who succeeded in gaining through native intelligence, industry, and force of character, a position in the very front rank of the scientific men of his age. Among the naturalists who, since Linnæus, have devoted their lives to the description and classification of plants, four or five stand out prominently in the character and importance of their work. In this little group, Asa Gray has fairly won for himself a lasting position. But he was something more than a mere systematist. He showed himself capable of drawing broad philosophical conclusions from the dry facts he collected and elaborated with such untiring industry and zeal. This power of comprehensive generalization he showed in his paper upon the “Characters of Certain New Species of Plants Collected in Japan” by Charles Wright, published nearly thirty years ago. Here he first pointed out the extraordinary similarity between the Floras of Eastern North America and Japan, and then explained the peculiar distribution of plants through the northern hemisphere by tracing their direct descent through geological eras from ancestors which flourished in the arctic regions down to the latest tertiary period. This paper was Professor Gray’s most remarkable and interesting contribution to science. It at once raised him to high rank among philosophical naturalists and drew the attention of the whole scientific world to the Cambridge botanist.

As a Gray did not devote himself to abstract science alone; he wrote as successfully for the student as for the professional naturalist. His long list of educational works have no equals in accuracy and in beauty and compactness of expression. They have had a remarkable influence upon the study of botany in this country during the half century which has elapsed since the first of the series appeared.

Botany, moreover, did not satisfy that wonderful intellect, which hard work only stimulated but did not weary, and one of Asa Gray’s chief claims to distinction is the prominent and commanding position he took in the great intellectual and scientific struggle of modern times, in which, almost alone and single-handed he bore in America the brunt of the disbelief in the Darwinian theory.
But the crowning labor of Asa Gray’s life was the preparation of a descriptive work upon the plants of North America. This great undertaking occupied his attention and much of his time during the last forty years of his life. Less fortunate than his greatest botanical contemporary, George Bentham, who turned from the last page of corrected proof of his work upon the genera of plants to the bed from which he was never to rise again, Asa Gray’s great work is left unfinished. The two volumes of the “Synoptical Flora of North America” will keep his memory green, however, as long as the human race is interested in the study of plants.

But his botanical writings and his scientific fame are not the most valuable legacy which Asa Gray has left to the American people. More precious to us is the example of his life in this age of grasping materialism. It is a life that teaches how industry and unselfish devotion to learning can attain to the highest distinction and the most enduring fame. Great as were his intellectual gifts, Asa Gray was greatest in the simplicity of his character and in the beauty of his pure and stainless life.

Q. Which of the following best explains the reason behind the author stating Asa Gray as less fortunate than George Bentham?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 17

In the 5th para of the passage, the author states that 'Less fortunate than his greatest botanical contemporary, George Bentham, who turned from the last page of corrected proof of his work upon the genera of plants to the bed from which he was never to rise again, Asa Gray’s great work is left unfinished.' From this we can infer that the author calls Asa as less fortunate because unlike George Bentham, his work was left unfinished. None of the options suggest this. Thus, the answer is D.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 18

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The whole civilized world is mourning the death of Asa Gray with a depth of feeling and appreciation perhaps never accorded before to a scholar and man of science. To the editors of this Journal, the loss at the very outset of their labors is serious indeed. They lose a wise and sympathetic adviser of great experience and mature judgment to whom they could always have turned with entire freedom and in perfect confidence; and they lose a contributor whose vast stores of knowledge and graceful pen might, it was reasonable to hope, have long enriched their columns.

The career of Asa Gray is interesting from many points of view. It is the story of the life of a man born in humble circumstances, without the advantages of early education, without inherited genius—for there is no trace in his yeoman ancestry of any germ of intellectual greatness—who succeeded in gaining through native intelligence, industry, and force of character, a position in the very front rank of the scientific men of his age. Among the naturalists who, since Linnæus, have devoted their lives to the description and classification of plants, four or five stand out prominently in the character and importance of their work. In this little group, Asa Gray has fairly won for himself a lasting position. But he was something more than a mere systematist. He showed himself capable of drawing broad philosophical conclusions from the dry facts he collected and elaborated with such untiring industry and zeal. This power of comprehensive generalization he showed in his paper upon the “Characters of Certain New Species of Plants Collected in Japan” by Charles Wright, published nearly thirty years ago. Here he first pointed out the extraordinary similarity between the Floras of Eastern North America and Japan, and then explained the peculiar distribution of plants through the northern hemisphere by tracing their direct descent through geological eras from ancestors which flourished in the arctic regions down to the latest tertiary period. This paper was Professor Gray’s most remarkable and interesting contribution to science. It at once raised him to high rank among philosophical naturalists and drew the attention of the whole scientific world to the Cambridge botanist.

As a Gray did not devote himself to abstract science alone; he wrote as successfully for the student as for the professional naturalist. His long list of educational works have no equals in accuracy and in beauty and compactness of expression. They have had a remarkable influence upon the study of botany in this country during the half century which has elapsed since the first of the series appeared.

Botany, moreover, did not satisfy that wonderful intellect, which hard work only stimulated but did not weary, and one of Asa Gray’s chief claims to distinction is the prominent and commanding position he took in the great intellectual and scientific struggle of modern times, in which, almost alone and single-handed he bore in America the brunt of the disbelief in the Darwinian theory.
But the crowning labor of Asa Gray’s life was the preparation of a descriptive work upon the plants of North America. This great undertaking occupied his attention and much of his time during the last forty years of his life. Less fortunate than his greatest botanical contemporary, George Bentham, who turned from the last page of corrected proof of his work upon the genera of plants to the bed from which he was never to rise again, Asa Gray’s great work is left unfinished. The two volumes of the “Synoptical Flora of North America” will keep his memory green, however, as long as the human race is interested in the study of plants.

But his botanical writings and his scientific fame are not the most valuable legacy which Asa Gray has left to the American people. More precious to us is the example of his life in this age of grasping materialism. It is a life that teaches how industry and unselfish devotion to learning can attain to the highest distinction and the most enduring fame. Great as were his intellectual gifts, Asa Gray was greatest in the simplicity of his character and in the beauty of his pure and stainless life.

Q. What, according to the author, is the highlight of Asa Gray’s career?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 18

The fifth para starts with, ‘But the crowning labor of Asa Gray’s life was the preparation of a descriptive work upon the plants of North America’. From this, we can infer that the author considered this as the most significant work of Asa Gray’s career. Thus, the answer is A.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 19

Complete the following paragraph with the most suitable sentence.

After almost a month of protests and people living in the streets, rocks being thrown, blood being spilled, and many injured, Egyptian President Mubarak finally resigns. There was partying and cheers from the streets all night. The people had spoken and the people had won.

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 19

From the paragraph, we can see that Egypt's current government has been toppled and the people are rejoicing their new got freedom. An apt conclusion to the preceding events should be a statement describing the constituents of a real people's government. Option B has all the elements of a suitable conclusion.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 20

Four sentences are given below. These sentences, when rearranged in proper order, form a logical and meaningful paragraph. Rearrange the sentences and enter the correct order as the answer.

  1. Wherever the rhythm was most delicate, wherever the emotion was most ecstatic, her art was the most beautiful, and yet, although she sometimes spoke to a little tune, it was never singing, as we sing to-day, never anything but speech.
  2. I have always known that there was something I disliked about singing, and I naturally dislike print and paper, but now at last I understand why, for I have found something better.
  3. A friend, who was here a few minutes ago, has sat with a beautiful stringed instrument upon her knee, her fingers passing over the strings, and has spoken to me some verses from Shelley’s Skylark and Sir Ector’s lamentation over the dead Launcelot out of the Morte d’Arthur and some of my own poems.
  4. I have just heard a poem spoken with so delicate a sense of its rhythm, with so perfect a respect for its meaning, that if I were a wise man and could persuade a few people to learn the art I would never open a book of verses again.

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 20

After reading all the sentences, we know that the paragraph is about the author's dislike for singing and his new found love for spoken poetry. Statement 2 is the opening sentence as it mentions the author's dislike for singing. The author also mentions how discovering spoken poetry changed his understanding of why he disliked singing. Statements 4,3 and 1 together describe the author's experience of the poem recited with the help of a stringed instrument.
Hence, the order is 2-4-3-1.
Hence, 2431 is the correct answer.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 21

Five sentences are given below. Four of which when arranged in a proper order, form a logical and meaningful paragraph. Identify the sentence that does not belong to the paragraph and enter its number as your answer.

  1. With the modern tendency toward specialization, the natural outgrowth of necessity, there is no inherent reason why the bones of a building should not be devised by one man and its fleshly clothing by another, so long as they understand one another, and are in ideal agreement, but there is in general all too little understanding, and a confusion of ideas and aims.
  2. Preoccupied as he is with the building's strength, safety, economy; solving new and staggeringly difficult problems with address and daring, he has scant sympathy with such inconsequent matters as the stylistic purity of a façade, or the profile of a moulding.
  3. To the designer, on the other hand, the engineer appears in the light of a subordinate to be used for the promotion of his own ends, or an evil to be endured as an interference with those ends.
  4. In the field of domestic architecture these dramatic contrasts are less evident, less sharply marked.
  5. To the average structural engineer the architectural designer is a mere milliner in stone, informed in those prevailing architectural fashions of which he himself knows little and cares less.

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 21

The correct order is 1523. 4 is the odd one out. The passage begins by saying that a building could possibly be built and styled by two different people as long as they worked in harmony. Sentence 5 goes on to explain why this is not so since the average engineer does not value the average designer. Sentence 2 explains what the priorities of the engineer are, while sentence 5 states what a designer feels. Option 4 is the odd one out since it speaks of contrasts in domestic architecture which is unrelated to the remaining lines.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 22

Five sentences are given below labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Of these, four sentences, when arranged properly, make a meaningful and coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

  1. Even where the advancer of the art was also a psychologist, the pedagogics and the psychology ran side by side, and the former was not derived in any sense from the latter.
  2. To know psychology, therefore, is absolutely no guarantee that we shall be good teachers.
  3. The art of teaching grew up in the schoolroom, out of inventiveness and sympathetic concrete observation.
  4. That ingenuity in meeting and pursuing the pupil, that tact for the concrete situation, though they are the alpha and omega of the teacher's art, are things to which psychology cannot help us in the least.
  5. The two were congruent, but neither was subordinate.

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 22

All the five sentences talk about the relation between psychology and teaching. But the structure of sentence 4 indicates that the topic of "ingenuity" and "tact" has already been discussed in the preceding lines. Since, there is no mention of "ingenuity" and "tact" in any other sentences, sentence 4 cannot be a continuation of any of the sentences given. The other 4 sentences can be arranged in the sequence 3-1-5-2.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 23

Five sentences are given below. Four of these, when rearranged properly, form a logical and meaningful paragraph. Identify the sentence which does not belong to this paragraph and then enter its number as the answer.

  1. Of course, this was not so clear then.
  2. In the discharge of all these duties and in all his relations with men, whether above him in office or under his command, he had shown himself trustworthy and efficient, a man of clear mind and decisive action—one who commanded men’s respect, obedience, and even love.
  3. In electing George Washington commander-in-chief of the Continental army, the Continental Congress probably made the very wisest choice possible.
  4. But they had learned enough about his wonderful power over men and his great skill as a leader in time of war to believe that he was the man to whom they might trust the great work of directing the army in this momentous crisis.
  5. For even leaders like Samuel Adams and John Adams and Patrick Henry did not know Washington’s ability as we have come to know it now.

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 23

3 initiates the discussion by mentioning how Congress made a wise choice by appointing George Washington as the commander in chief. 1 mentions how things were not so clear then and 5 explains why. Hence 315 form a pair. 4 continues from 5 by saying that they knew enough about him to select. Hence 3154 form a logical paragraph. 2 focuses more on describing Washington as a person. This is not the main focus of the passage. Hence, 2 is the odd one out.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 24

Read the passage below and choose the option that best captures the summary of the passage.
Modernity has long been obsessed with, perhaps even defined by, its epistemic insecurity, its grasping toward big truths that ultimately disappoint as our world grows only less knowable. New knowledge and new ways of understanding simultaneously produce new forms of non-knowledge, new uncertainties and mysteries. The scientific method, based in deduction and falsification, is better at proliferating questions than it is at answering them. For instance, Einstein's theories about the curvature of space and motion at the quantum level provide new knowledge and generates new unknowns that previously could not be pondered.
1. Modernity has managed to aggravate the existing intellectual mess that we find ourselves in.
2. Modernity has not managed to provide the answers it was searching for and in the process, found itself out of sync with reality.
3. Modernity, in its quest for knowledge, has ended by raising questions instead of answering them.
4. Modernity has not managed to add to the collective knowledge of mankind and this is its failure.


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 24

Option 1 is too extreme an answer option.
Option 2 is ruled out at its second part is not mentioned in the passage.
Option 3 is the apt choice at is perfectly synthesizes the answer options.
Option 4 is a judgment that is not present in the given question.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 25

In a sports club, a poll was taken as to which IPL club(s) they follow. It was found out that 597 people followed RCB, 667 followed SRH, 496 people follow KKR and 395 people follow CSK. A person can follow none of the clubs, one club or more than one club. Based on the information, answer the following questions.

Q. Suppose the total number of people following any sports club was as low as possible, what is the difference between the number of people who follow exactly 2 clubs and those who follow exactly 4 clubs?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 25

If the number of people in the club is minimum, we can distribute them in the following way:
395 people who support CSK can support all other clubs as well. The remaining who follow KKR can follow all other clubs except CSK. The remaining who follow RCB can follow SRH as well, and the remaining people can follow only the club SRH. Hence, we get the Venn DIagram as follows:

Required number = 395 - 101 = 294.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 26

In a sports club, a poll was taken as to which IPL club(s) they follow. It was found out that 597 people followed RCB, 667 followed SRH, 496 people follow KKR and 395 people follow CSK. A person can follow none of the clubs, one club or more than one club. Based on the information, answer the following questions.

Q. If it is known that the total number of people in the sports club were 2300 and out of them, only 395 followed none of the clubs, what can be the maximum number of people who follow exactly 3 clubs?


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 26

I + II + III + IV = 2300 - 395 = 1905
I + 2 II + 3 III + 4 IV = 597 + 667 + 496 + 395 = 2155
II + 2 III + 3 IV = 2155 - 1905 = 250
To maximise III, we can distribute 250 to III
250 / 2 = 125.
Hence, a maximum number of 125 people follow 3 clubs.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 27

In a sports club, a poll was taken as to which IPL club(s) they follow. It was found out that 597 people followed RCB, 667 followed SRH, 496 people follow KKR and 395 people follow CSK. A person can follow none of the clubs, one club or more than one club. Based on the information, answer the following questions.

Q. If the following data is additionally given, which of the following can be a possible number of people who followed all but CSK?

  1. Every person follows at least one club.
  2. No person follows exactly 2 clubs.
  3. The number of persons who follow all but RCB is 49.
  4. The number of persons who follow all but SRH is 53.
  5. The number of persons who follow all but KKR is 37.
  6. The total number of people in the sports club is 1307.
Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 27

Let the number of people who followed all but CSK be x.
Now, 
I + II + III + IV = 1307.
I + 2 II + 3 III + 4 IV = 2155
Hence,
II + 2 III + 3 IV = 2155 - 1307 = 848
Now it is given that II = 0
Also, III = 49 + 53 + 37 + x = 139 + x
Hence, 2(139 + x) + 3 IV = 848
278 + 2x + 3 IV = 848
2x + 3 IV = 570
Now, IV = (570 - 2x)/3
IV = 190 - 2x/3
Since, IV must be an integer, x must be a multiple of 3 for sure. 
Hence, 63 is a possibility and none other option is possible. 

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 28

In a sports club, a poll was taken as to which IPL club(s) they follow. It was found out that 597 people followed RCB, 667 followed SRH, 496 people follow KKR and 395 people follow CSK. A person can follow none of the clubs, one club or more than one club. Based on the information, answer the following questions.

Q. If the total number of people in the sports club is 1306, and everyone follows a minimum of one of the four clubs and the number of people who support all 4 clubs is the maximum, what is the ratio of the number of people who follow only RCB to those who follow only SRH?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 28

I + II + II + IV = 1306
I + 2 II + 3 III + 4 IV = 2155
II + 2 III + 3 IV = 849
To maximise 4, we must distribute these 849 counts to IV.
So, IV = 849 / 3 = 283.
Hence, II = III = 0.
So, people who follow only RCB = 597 - 283 = 314
And, people who follow only SRH = 667 - 283 = 384
Required ratio = 314/384 = 157/192

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 29

Two round table sessions were held deliberating over the feasibility of the European Super League. 8 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H participated in both round table sessions. They might sit at the same or different places in the 2 sessions. Also, the following is known about the relative positions of the persons in the first session:

  1. G is not adjacent to B or E.
  2. F is not adjacent to A or C.
  3. B is not equidistant from A and C.
  4. B is 5 places to the right of E.
  5. All the people are facing the table.
  6. A is sitting diametrically opposite C.

Also, the following information is known about the relative positions of the persons in the second session, with respect to their positions in the first session:

  1. G is not adjacent to H.
  2. B and C must have one person between them, and that person is not H.
  3. A moves 3 places to his left.
  4. E and D moves to their diametrically opposite positions.
  5. Only H sits at the same place he was sitting in the first session.
  6. All people are facing the table.

Based on the information given above, answer the questions that follow.

Q. Who among the following is definitely a neighbour of A in session 1?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 29

First, we would try to determine the relative positions of A to H for the first session. We know in hint 5 that all the people are facing the table.
Using hint 6,

Using hint 4 and hint 3 together, we get the following 2 arrangements.


Using hint 2, we can add F to the arrangements as follows:

Using hint 1, we can add G to the arrangements as follows:

We are yet to figure out the positions of D and H. So let us consider all possible alternatives for their positions:

Now let us use the hints given to determine the positions in the second session. We know that they are facing the table. 
Using hints 5 and 4 in all the four configurations, we get their arrangements in the second sessions as follows:

In the second session, A moves 3 places to his left, but in arrangements 1 and 2, that place is already occupied.
So, those are invalidated. We can process the remaining information on arrangements 3 and 4. Also, we can add this information (new position of A) in 3 and 4.

Using hint (2) and the fact that all people but H are in different seats, we get the following:

G is not adjacent to H.


Therefore the 2 different possible seating arrangements in the first and second sessions are as follows:

H is definitely a neighbour of A, because H sits beside A in both possible cases.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 30

Two round table sessions were held deliberating over the feasibility of the European Super League. 8 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H participated in both round table sessions. They might sit at the same or different places in the 2 sessions. Also, the following is known about the relative positions of the persons in the first session:

  1. G is not adjacent to B or E.
  2. F is not adjacent to A or C.
  3. B is not equidistant from A and C.
  4. B is 5 places to the right of E.
  5. All the people are facing the table.
  6. A is sitting diametrically opposite C.

Also, the following information is known about the relative positions of the persons in the second session, with respect to their positions in the first session:

  1. G is not adjacent to H.
  2. B and C must have one person between them, and that person is not H.
  3. A moves 3 places to his left.
  4. E and D moves to their diametrically opposite positions.
  5. Only H sits at the same place he was sitting in the first session.
  6. All people are facing the table.

Based on the information given above, answer the questions that follow.

Q. Who is sitting opposite E in Session 2?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 30

First, we would try to determine the relative positions of A to H for the first session. We know in hint 5 that all the people are facing the table.
Using hint 6,

​Using hint 4 and hint 3 together, we get the following 2 arrangements.


Using hint 2, we can add F to the arrangements as follows:

Using hint 1, we can add G to the arrangements as follows:

We are yet to figure out the positions of D and H. So let us consider all possible alternatives for their positions:

Now let us use the hints given to determine the positions in the second session. We know that they are facing the table. 
Using hints 5 and 4 in all the four configurations, we get their arrangements in the second sessions as follows:

In the second session, A moves 3 places to his left, but in arrangements 1 and 2, that place is already occupied.
So, those are invalidated. We can process the remaining information on arrangements 3 and 4. Also, we can add this information (new position of A) in 3 and 4.

Using hint (2) and the fact that all people but H are in different seats, we get the following:


G is not adjacent to H.


Therefore the 2 different possible seating arrangements in the first and second sessions are as follows:

E is sitting opposite C in session 2 in either arrangement.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 31

Two round table sessions were held deliberating over the feasibility of the European Super League. 8 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H participated in both round table sessions. They might sit at the same or different places in the 2 sessions. Also, the following is known about the relative positions of the persons in the first session:

  1. G is not adjacent to B or E.
  2. F is not adjacent to A or C.
  3. B is not equidistant from A and C.
  4. B is 5 places to the right of E.
  5. All the people are facing the table.
  6. A is sitting diametrically opposite C.

Also, the following information is known about the relative positions of the persons in the second session, with respect to their positions in the first session:

  1. G is not adjacent to H.
  2. B and C must have one person between them, and that person is not H.
  3. A moves 3 places to his left.
  4. E and D moves to their diametrically opposite positions.
  5. Only H sits at the same place he was sitting in the first session.
  6. All people are facing the table.

Based on the information given above, answer the questions that follow.

Q. How many people are definitely moving to one of their adjacent positions in Session 2 as compared to Session 1?


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 31

First, we would try to determine the relative positions of A to H for the first session. We know in hint 5 that all the people are facing the table.
Using hint 6,

​Using hint 4 and hint 3 together, we get the following 2 arrangements.
 


Using hint 2, we can add F to the arrangements as follows:


Using hint 1, we can add G to the arrangements as follows:


We are yet to figure out the positions of D and H. So let us consider all possible alternatives for their positions:


Now let us use the hints given to determine the positions in the second session. We know that they are facing the table. 
Using hints 5 and 4 in all the four configurations, we get their arrangements in the second sessions as follows:


In the second session, A moves 3 places to his left, but in arrangements 1 and 2, that place is already occupied.
So, those are invalidated. We can process the remaining information on arrangements 3 and 4. Also, we can add this information (new position of A) in 3 and 4.


Using hint (2) and the fact that all people but H are in different seats, we get the following:


G is not adjacent to H.


Therefore the 2 different possible seating arrangements in the first and second sessions are as follows:

Hence, in either arrangement, no person moves to his adjacent position in Session 2.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 32

Two round table sessions were held deliberating over the feasibility of the European Super League. 8 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H participated in both round table sessions. They might sit at the same or different places in the 2 sessions. Also, the following is known about the relative positions of the persons in the first session:

  1. G is not adjacent to B or E.
  2. F is not adjacent to A or C.
  3. B is not equidistant from A and C.
  4. B is 5 places to the right of E.
  5. All the people are facing the table.
  6. A is sitting diametrically opposite C.

Also, the following information is known about the relative positions of the persons in the second session, with respect to their positions in the first session:

  1. G is not adjacent to H.
  2. B and C must have one person between them, and that person is not H.
  3. A moves 3 places to his left.
  4. E and D moves to their diametrically opposite positions.
  5. Only H sits at the same place he was sitting in the first session.
  6. All people are facing the table.

Based on the information given above, answer the questions that follow.

Q. If E is sitting to the immediate left of G in the second session, who was sitting one seat to the left of A in the first session?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 32

First, we would try to determine the relative positions of A to H for the first session. We know in hint 5 that all the people are facing the table.
Using hint 6,


​Using hint 4 and hint 3 together, we get the following 2 arrangements.
 


Using hint 2, we can add F to the arrangements as follows:


Using hint 1, we can add G to the arrangements as follows:


We are yet to figure out the positions of D and H. So let us consider all possible alternatives for their positions:

Now let us use the hints given to determine the positions in the second session. We know that they are facing the table. 
Using hints 5 and 4 in all the four configurations, we get their arrangements in the second sessions as follows:

In the second session, A moves 3 places to his left, but in arrangements 1 and 2, that place is already occupied.
So, those are invalidated. We can process the remaining information on arrangements 3 and 4. Also, we can add this information (new position of A) in 3 and 4.

Using hint (2) and the fact that all people but H are in different seats, we get the following:


G is not adjacent to H.


Therefore the 2 different possible seating arrangements in the first and second sessions are as follows:

E is sitting to the immediate left of G in the second session, so it is the arrangement numbered 4. In the same arrangement, H was sitting one place to the left of A.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 33

Vijay was travelling with his wife and child. When he reached Haridwar, his wife wanted to see an astrologer. Vijay, a mathematician, did not believe in astrology.
When they went there, the astrologer told the zodiac sign for each of them, which were Taurus, Pisces and Scorpio, in no order. Then he started telling about what the future holds. Meanwhile, Vijay started working on a puzzle related to these zodiac names.
He interrupted the astrologer and declared: "The three zodiac names that you just said have in total 10 distinct alphabets. Let each letter in them represent a distinct non-negative digit, and the words themselves represent a number when alphabets are replaced by the respective digits. Then for a unique combination, the sum of two of the numbers is equal to the third. If you tell me which letter represents which digit, I will acknowledge your prowess".
The astrologer became completely flummoxed and asked Vijay for a clue. Then Vijay gave this clue: "US and UR represent two consecutive two-digit numbers"
Master of Ancient Vedic mathematics, the astrologer easily derived the solution and Vijay bowed in respect.

Q. What is the square root of TS? (Enter the closest integer if in decimal)


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 33

In such questions, we can draw a table as shown below. But the digit as shown in the third row is not necessarily the sum of the digits in the first two columns, as we know that in addition, we have carry-forward. This means that if the sum of two digits yields a two-digit sum, the tens digit is carried forward to the forward column and only the ones digit is written.

The alphabets in the units place are S S and O. So we have units digit of S + S = O or S + O = S 

Case 1: S + O = S
⇒ O = zero and S,T,P are non zero. Hence SCORPIO will be a 7 digit number and TAURUS and PISCES will be 6 digit numbers. We can't get a 6 digit number by adding a 7 digit number and a 6 digit number. Hence this case case is not possible.

Case 2: S + S = O
The sum will look like as below:


In the last column, we can see that S+S=O. Hence S can't be zero as O will also be zero then. 
We know that the maximum sum of any two distinct digits can be 17, and the minimum can be 3. Since S cannot be zero S can only attain a value of 1, which is carried forward. Since there is a carry forward, neither of T and P can be zero.
In the last column, we can see that S+S=O. Hence the value of O is 2.
Also, UR and US are consecutive numbers. As S=1, R can be either 0 or 2. Since O has the value 2 already, R will be 0. The sum looks like this:

 

Here we can see that in the third last column, 0 is added to C to get P. Now since each letter represents a unique number, 1 must have been carried forward from the sum of U and E. So we have the following equations:
U+E=10+I
C+1=P or C+1=10+P
Now C+1 cannot be 10+P as only 1 is being added to C here. So to give a two digit number, C will be 9 and P will be 0, which is not possible as 0 is already assigned to R. Hence C+1=P.
Hence no carry-forward is there from the third last column. This means that U+1=0, and U=9. The distribution of digits to letters looks as follows:

Now, we need to do hit and trial to ascertain the values of other letters. Since it has been given that there is a unique combination, we need to do trials only till we find a solution.
As P=C+1, we will place them in consecutive positions on the above distribution. We will try with 3 and 4:

Now, since the sum in the 4th column is 10, so 1 will get carried forward to column 3. Hence the equation for column 3:
A+I+1=10+2, as sum of A and I cannot be 2, as 0 and 1 are already taken. So the sum is a two-digit number.
We have A+I=11.
In the distribution, we have only 5 and 6 left which can give a sum of 11.

Since the sum in column 3 is 11, 1 will get carried forward to column 2, and we get:
T+P+1=13, since C=3.
Hence T+P=12. Now P=4, so T=8 and E=7.
Since U+E=10+I, I= 9+7-10= 6 and A=5.
The final distribution:

So TS = 81 and its square root= 9.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 34

Vijay was travelling with his wife and child. When he reached Haridwar, his wife wanted to see an astrologer. Vijay, a mathematician, did not believe in astrology.
When they went there, the astrologer told the zodiac sign for each of them, which were Taurus, Pisces and Scorpio, in no order. Then he started telling about what the future holds. Meanwhile, Vijay started working on a puzzle related to these zodiac names.
He interrupted the astrologer and declared: "The three zodiac names that you just said have in total 10 distinct alphabets. Let each letter in them represent a distinct non-negative digit, and the words themselves represent a number when alphabets are replaced by the respective digits. Then for a unique combination, the sum of two of the numbers is equal to the third. If you tell me which letter represents which digit, I will acknowledge your prowess".
The astrologer became completely flummoxed and asked Vijay for a clue. Then Vijay gave this clue: "US and UR represent two consecutive two-digit numbers"
Master of Ancient Vedic mathematics, the astrologer easily derived the solution and Vijay bowed in respect.

Q. Which letter among the following has the highest value of digit associated with it?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 34

In such questions, we can draw a table as shown below. But the digit as shown in the third row is not necessarily the sum of the digits in the first two columns, as we know that in addition, we have carry-forward. This means that if the sum of two digits yields a two-digit sum, the tens digit is carried forward to the forward column and only the ones digit is written.

The alphabets in the units place are S S and O. So we have units digit of S + S = O or S + O = S 

Case 1: S + O = S
⇒ O = zero and S,T,P are non zero. Hence SCORPIO will be a 7 digit number and TAURUS and PISCES will be 6 digit numbers. We can't get a 6 digit number by adding a 7 digit number and a 6 digit number. Hence this case case is not possible.

Case 2: S + S = O
The sum will look like as below:


In the last column, we can see that S+S=O. Hence S can't be zero as O will also be zero then. 
We know that the maximum sum of any two distinct digits can be 17, and the minimum can be 3. Since S cannot be zero S can only attain a value of 1, which is carried forward. Since there is a carry forward, neither of T and P can be zero.
In the last column, we can see that S+S=O. Hence the value of O is 2.
Also, UR and US are consecutive numbers. As S=1, R can be either 0 or 2. Since O has the value 2 already, R will be 0. The sum looks like this:

Here we can see that in the third last column, 0 is added to C to get P. Now since each letter represents a unique number, 1 must have been carried forward from the sum of U and E. So we have the following equations:
U+E=10+I
C+1=P or C+1=10+P
Now C+1 cannot be 10+P as only 1 is being added to C here. So to give a two digit number, C will be 9 and P will be 0, which is not possible as 0 is already assigned to R. Hence C+1=P.
Hence no carry-forward is there from the third last column. This means that U+1=0, and U=9. The distribution of digits to letters looks as follows:

Now, we need to do hit and trial to ascertain the values of other letters. Since it has been given that there is a unique combination, we need to do trials only till we find a solution.
As P=C+1, we will place them in consecutive positions on the above distribution. We will try with 3 and 4:

Now, since the sum in the 4th column is 10, so 1 will get carried forward to column 3. Hence the equation for column 3:
A+I+1=10+2, as sum of A and I cannot be 2, as 0 and 1 are already taken. So the sum is a two-digit number.
We have A+I=11.
In the distribution, we have only 5 and 6 left which can give a sum of 11.

Since the sum in column 3 is 11, 1 will get carried forward to column 2, and we get:
T+P+1=13, since C=3.
Hence T+P=12. Now P=4, so T=8 and E=7.
Since U+E=10+I, I= 9+7-10= 6 and A=5.
The final distribution:

We can see that E has the highest value among the four equal to 7.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 35

Vijay was travelling with his wife and child. When he reached Haridwar, his wife wanted to see an astrologer. Vijay, a mathematician, did not believe in astrology.
When they went there, the astrologer told the zodiac sign for each of them, which were Taurus, Pisces and Scorpio, in no order. Then he started telling about what the future holds. Meanwhile, Vijay started working on a puzzle related to these zodiac names.
He interrupted the astrologer and declared: "The three zodiac names that you just said have in total 10 distinct alphabets. Let each letter in them represent a distinct non-negative digit, and the words themselves represent a number when alphabets are replaced by the respective digits. Then for a unique combination, the sum of two of the numbers is equal to the third. If you tell me which letter represents which digit, I will acknowledge your prowess".
The astrologer became completely flummoxed and asked Vijay for a clue. Then Vijay gave this clue: "US and UR represent two consecutive two-digit numbers"
Master of Ancient Vedic mathematics, the astrologer easily derived the solution and Vijay bowed in respect.

Q. The values of which of the following letters if exchanged with S will lead to the maximum change in the value of Scorpio? (Consider this independently and after the values have been assigned to the letters.)

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 35

In such questions, we can draw a table as shown below. But the digit as shown in the third row is not necessarily the sum of the digits in the first two columns, as we know that in addition, we have carry-forward. This means that if the sum of two digits yields a two-digit sum, the tens digit is carried forward to the forward column and only the ones digit is written.

The alphabets in the units place are S S and O. So we have units digit of S + S = O or S + O = S 

Case 1: S + O = S
⇒ O = zero and S,T,P are non zero. Hence SCORPIO will be a 7 digit number and TAURUS and PISCES will be 6 digit numbers. We can't get a 6 digit number by adding a 7 digit number and a 6 digit number. Hence this case case is not possible.

Case 2: S + S = O
The sum will look like as below:


In the last column, we can see that S+S=O. Hence S can't be zero as O will also be zero then. 
We know that the maximum sum of any two distinct digits can be 17, and the minimum can be 3. Since S cannot be zero S can only attain a value of 1, which is carried forward. Since there is a carry forward, neither of T and P can be zero.
In the last column, we can see that S+S=O. Hence the value of O is 2.
Also, UR and US are consecutive numbers. As S=1, R can be either 0 or 2. Since O has the value 2 already, R will be 0. The sum looks like this:

Here we can see that in the third last column, 0 is added to C to get P. Now since each letter represents a unique number, 1 must have been carried forward from the sum of U and E. So we have the following equations:
U+E=10+I
C+1=P or C+1=10+P
Now C+1 cannot be 10+P as only 1 is being added to C here. So to give a two digit number, C will be 9 and P will be 0, which is not possible as 0 is already assigned to R. Hence C+1=P.
Hence no carry-forward is there from the third last column. This means that U+1=0, and U=9. The distribution of digits to letters looks as follows:

Now, we need to do hit and trial to ascertain the values of other letters. Since it has been given that there is a unique combination, we need to do trials only till we find a solution.
As P=C+1, we will place them in consecutive positions on the above distribution. We will try with 3 and 4:

Now, since the sum in the 4th column is 10, so 1 will get carried forward to column 3. Hence the equation for column 3:
A+I+1=10+2, as sum of A and I cannot be 2, as 0 and 1 are already taken. So the sum is a two-digit number.
We have A+I=11.
In the distribution, we have only 5 and 6 left which can give a sum of 11.

Since the sum in column 3 is 11, 1 will get carried forward to column 2, and we get:
T+P+1=13, since C=3.
Hence T+P=12. Now P=4, so T=8 and E=7.
Since U+E=10+I, I= 9+7-10= 6 and A=5.
The final distribution:

Since S is the leftmost digit, only the change in its value matter. This means that we have to either replace S with the highest digit possible or the lowest digit possible. In any case, if S is replace by the value of U, that is 9, the difference would be the largest: |1320462-9320462|=8000000. Hence the answer is A.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 36

Vijay was travelling with his wife and child. When he reached Haridwar, his wife wanted to see an astrologer. Vijay, a mathematician, did not believe in astrology.
When they went there, the astrologer told the zodiac sign for each of them, which were Taurus, Pisces and Scorpio, in no order. Then he started telling about what the future holds. Meanwhile, Vijay started working on a puzzle related to these zodiac names.
He interrupted the astrologer and declared: "The three zodiac names that you just said have in total 10 distinct alphabets. Let each letter in them represent a distinct non-negative digit, and the words themselves represent a number when alphabets are replaced by the respective digits. Then for a unique combination, the sum of two of the numbers is equal to the third. If you tell me which letter represents which digit, I will acknowledge your prowess".
The astrologer became completely flummoxed and asked Vijay for a clue. Then Vijay gave this clue: "US and UR represent two consecutive two-digit numbers"
Master of Ancient Vedic mathematics, the astrologer easily derived the solution and Vijay bowed in respect.

Q. How many factors does the number CO have?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 36

In such questions, we can draw a table as shown below. But the digit as shown in the third row is not necessarily the sum of the digits in the first two columns, as we know that in addition, we have carry-forward. This means that if the sum of two digits yields a two-digit sum, the tens digit is carried forward to the forward column and only the ones digit is written.

The alphabets in the units place are S S and O. So we have units digit of S + S = O or S + O = S 

Case 1: S + O = S
⇒ O = zero and S,T,P are non zero. Hence SCORPIO will be a 7 digit number and TAURUS and PISCES will be 6 digit numbers. We can't get a 6 digit number by adding a 7 digit number and a 6 digit number. Hence this case case is not possible.

Case 2: S + S = O
The sum will look like as below:


In the last column, we can see that S+S=O. Hence S can't be zero as O will also be zero then. 
We know that the maximum sum of any two distinct digits can be 17, and the minimum can be 3. Since S cannot be zero S can only attain a value of 1, which is carried forward. Since there is a carry forward, neither of T and P can be zero.
In the last column, we can see that S+S=O. Hence the value of O is 2.
Also, UR and US are consecutive numbers. As S=1, R can be either 0 or 2. Since O has the value 2 already, R will be 0. The sum looks like this:

Here we can see that in the third last column, 0 is added to C to get P. Now since each letter represents a unique number, 1 must have been carried forward from the sum of U and E. So we have the following equations:
U+E=10+I
C+1=P or C+1=10+P
Now C+1 cannot be 10+P as only 1 is being added to C here. So to give a two digit number, C will be 9 and P will be 0, which is not possible as 0 is already assigned to R. Hence C+1=P.
Hence no carry-forward is there from the third last column. This means that U+1=0, and U=9. The distribution of digits to letters looks as follows:

Now, we need to do hit and trial to ascertain the values of other letters. Since it has been given that there is a unique combination, we need to do trials only till we find a solution.
As P=C+1, we will place them in consecutive positions on the above distribution. We will try with 3 and 4:

Now, since the sum in the 4th column is 10, so 1 will get carried forward to column 3. Hence the equation for column 3:
A+I+1=10+2, as sum of A and I cannot be 2, as 0 and 1 are already taken. So the sum is a two-digit number.
We have A+I=11.
In the distribution, we have only 5 and 6 left which can give a sum of 11.

Since the sum in column 3 is 11, 1 will get carried forward to column 2, and we get:
T+P+1=13, since C=3.
Hence T+P=12. Now P=4, so T=8 and E=7.
Since U+E=10+I, I= 9+7-10= 6 and A=5.
The final distribution:

CO = 32 = 25. So it has 5 + 1 = 6 factors.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 37

8 countries were scored based on 3 parameters Healthcare, Population, and Infrastructure. For each parameter,  scores were given from 1 to 8 where 8 was given to the best-performing country and 1 to the least performing country.  Each of the scores was either multiplied by 1 or 2 and then added to get the cumulative score. The multiplier for a given parameter is the same for all the countries. The country with the highest cumulative score was ranked 1 and so on. There is no tie. The half-filled table looks as follows;

Furthermore, it is given that
i) Score of B in Healthcare = Score of A in Population.
ii) For exactly 3 countries, the score in Healthcare is same as the score in Infrastructure.

Q. What can be the cumulative score of G?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 37

Let the multiplier of Healthcare, Population, and Infrastructure be a, b and c respectively.
Let us start by finding out which parameter has a multiplying factor of 1 and which parameter has a multiplying factor of 2.
Case I: If all of the parameters have a multiplying factor of 2, then the cumulative score would always be even. But we see that the cumulative score of H is odd, hence it is not possible.
Case II: If every country has a multiplying factor of 1 then the maximum possible cumulative score can be 8+8+8 =24. But H has a cumulative score of 27, thus this is also not the case.
Thus there is at least 1 parameter that has a multiplying factor of 1 and at least 1 parameter which has a multiplying factor of 2.
Let us look at the country E. 
Since rank 8 has a cumulative score of 15, E should have a cumulative score ≥ 17 to have a rank of 6.
Thus 3a + 5b + 3c ≥ 17. It is only possible when atleast 2 of a,ba,b and cc has value of 2.
Thus 1 parameter has a multiplier of 1 and 2 parameters have a multiplier of 2
Country B has value for a score for Population parameter = 6. If we assume the score for other parameters to be xx and yy respectively and b=1, then a = c = 2. Thus 2x + 6 + 2y = 15 or 2x + 2y = 9 which is not possible. Hence b = 2.
For country F we see that the cumulative score = 25 which is odd. And score for healthcare is 5. It is only possible when a = 1 and b = c = 2. Else the sum will be even.
Thus a = 1,b = 2 and c = 2. The table can be updated as follows:

The score of B for Healthcare and Infrastructure has to be 1 so that cumulative becomes 15. Thus score of A for Population is also 1.
Cumulative of E = 19
The score of F for the population has to be 2 for cumulative to be 25
Score of 19 has a rank of 6 and score of 25 has a rank of 4. Thus C has a rank of 5

The score of A for Population is 1. The maximum score for Healthcare can be 8 and for infrastructure can be 7. The maximum cumulative score of A can be 24. But we know that at 25 the rank is 4 and at rank 5 the score is 22. Thus rank of A has to be worse than 5. Therefore only possibility is rank 7.
Then the rank of D can be either 2 or 3. Thus the score of D has to be greater than 25
The score for D for Health can be 2 or 4 or 6 or 8. The score of D can be thus 20 or 22 or 24 or 26 respectively. Thus score of D for Healthcare should be 8 with a cumulative score of 26. Thus D has rank 3 and H will have rank 2

Exactly 3 countries have the same Healthcare and Infrastructure score. B and E two of these countries. The third country can be A or C or G or H.
For A, the common score can be  4 only. In the case of which cumulative becomes. 14 But the score of A has to be 16 or more as it has rank 7. Thus rejected.
For C, since the score of Infrastructure is 6, the score of Healthcare needs to be 6. For cumulative to be 22 the score of Population has to be 2 but, F has that score so it is also not possible.
For G, the common number can be 4. In the case of which if G gets 8 score in population, still the cumulative will be 26. Which is a contradiction as G should have score 28 or above
If the score of H for Infrastructure = 7 then the Population score has to be 3. This is the only possible case

The score of Population for C can be 4 or 8. If the score is  8 then the cumulative will exceed 22. Thus THE score of C for the population is 4. Its score for Healthcare has to be 2. G has a population score = 8

Since the score of Healthcare for A can be 4 or 6. The cumulative score will be even. Thus a cumulative score of A can be 16 or 18.
Case I: 
If A has a Healthcare score of 4 then A needs either an Infrastructure score to be 5 or 6. The only possibility is 5. Thus is cumulative will be 16. It will imply that score for G has to be 6,8,4. The cumulative score, in this case, will be 30.

Case II: A has a healthcare score of 6. Thus Infrastructure score has to be 4 or 5. If it is 4 then the cumulative score of A will be 16. The score of G, in that case, will be 4,8,5 which has a total cumulative of 30.
If the infrastructure score of A is 5, then its cumulative will be 18. The score of G, in that case, will be 4,8,4 with a cumulative of 26. Which is not possible as it has to be above 28. This is rejected

The above mentioned are the only possible 2 cases. Both the cases the score of G is 30

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 38

8 countries were scored based on 3 parameters Healthcare, Population, and Infrastructure. For each parameter,  scores were given from 1 to 8 where 8 was given to the best-performing country and 1 to the least performing country.  Each of the scores was either multiplied by 1 or 2 and then added to get the cumulative score. The multiplier for a given parameter is the same for all the countries. The country with the highest cumulative score was ranked 1 and so on. There is no tie. The half-filled table looks as follows:

Furthermore, it is given that
i) Score of B in Healthcare = Score of A in Population.
ii) For exactly 3 countries, the score in Healthcare is same as the score in Infrastructure.

Q. What is rank of country C?
Enter -1 if the answer can't be determined.


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 38

Let the multiplier of Healthcare, Population, and Infrastructure be a, b and c respectively.
Let us start by finding out which parameter has a multiplying factor of 1 and which parameter has a multiplying factor of 2.
Case I: If all of the parameters have a multiplying factor of 2, then the cumulative score would always be even. But we see that the cumulative score of H is odd, hence it is not possible.
Case II: If every country has a multiplying factor of 1 then the maximum possible cumulative score can be 8+8+8 =24. But H has a cumulative score of 27, thus this is also not the case.
Thus there is at least 1 parameter that has a multiplying factor of 1 and at least 1 parameter which has a multiplying factor of 2.
Let us look at the country E. 
Since rank 8 has a cumulative score of 15, E should have a cumulative score ≥ 17 to have a rank of 6.
Thus 3a + 5b + 3c ≥ 17. It is only possible when atleast 2 of a,ba,b and cc has value of 2.
Thus 1 parameter has a multiplier of 1 and 2 parameters have a multiplier of 2
Country B has value for a score for Population parameter = 6. If we assume the score for other parameters to be xx and yy respectively and b=1, then a = c = 2. Thus 2x + 6 + 2y = 15 or 2x + 2y = 9 which is not possible. Hence b = 2.
For country F we see that the cumulative score = 25 which is odd. And score for healthcare is 5. It is only possible when a = 1 and b = c = 2. Else the sum will be even.
Thus a = 1,b = 2 and c = 2. The table can be updated as follows:

The score of B for Healthcare and Infrastructure has to be 1 so that cumulative becomes 15. Thus score of A for Population is also 1.
Cumulative of E = 19
The score of F for the population has to be 2 for cumulative to be 25
Score of 19 has a rank of 6 and score of 25 has a rank of 4. Thus C has a rank of 5

The score of A for Population is 1. The maximum score for Healthcare can be 8 and for infrastructure can be 7. The maximum cumulative score of A can be 24. But we know that at 25 the rank is 4 and at rank 5 the score is 22. Thus rank of A has to be worse than 5. Therefore only possibility is rank 7.
Then the rank of D can be either 2 or 3. Thus the score of D has to be greater than 25
The score for D for Health can be 2 or 4 or 6 or 8. The score of D can be thus 20 or 22 or 24 or 26 respectively. Thus score of D for Healthcare should be 8 with a cumulative score of 26. Thus D has rank 3 and H will have rank 2

Exactly 3 countries have the same Healthcare and Infrastructure score. B and E two of these countries. The third country can be A or C or G or H.
For A, the common score can be  4 only. In the case of which cumulative becomes. 14 But the score of A has to be 16 or more as it has rank 7. Thus rejected.
For C, since the score of Infrastructure is 6, the score of Healthcare needs to be 6. For cumulative to be 22 the score of Population has to be 2 but, F has that score so it is also not possible.
For G, the common number can be 4. In the case of which if G gets 8 score in population, still the cumulative will be 26. Which is a contradiction as G should have score 28 or above
If the score of H for Infrastructure = 7 then the Population score has to be 3. This is the only possible case

The score of Population for C can be 4 or 8. If the score is  8 then the cumulative will exceed 22. Thus THE score of C for the population is 4. Its score for Healthcare has to be 2. G has a population score = 8

Since the score of Healthcare for A can be 4 or 6. The cumulative score will be even. Thus a cumulative score of A can be 16 or 18.
Case I: 
If A has a Healthcare score of 4 then A needs either an Infrastructure score to be 5 or 6. The only possibility is 5. Thus is cumulative will be 16. It will imply that score for G has to be 6,8,4. The cumulative score, in this case, will be 30.

Case II: A has a healthcare score of 6. Thus Infrastructure score has to be 4 or 5. If it is 4 then the cumulative score of A will be 16. The score of G, in that case, will be 4,8,5 which has a total cumulative of 30.
If the infrastructure score of A is 5, then its cumulative will be 18. The score of G, in that case, will be 4,8,4 with a cumulative of 26. Which is not possible as it has to be above 28. This is rejected

The above mentioned are the only possible 2 cases. Both the cases the score of G is 30

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 39

8 countries were scored based on 3 parameters Healthcare, Population, and Infrastructure. For each parameter,  scores were given from 1 to 8 where 8 was given to the best-performing country and 1 to the least performing country.  Each of the scores was either multiplied by 1 or 2 and then added to get the cumulative score. The multiplier for a given parameter is the same for all the countries. The country with the highest cumulative score was ranked 1 and so on. There is no tie. The half-filled table looks as follows:

Furthermore, it is given that
i) Score of B in Healthcare = Score of A in Population.
ii) For exactly 3 countries, the score in Healthcare is same as the score in Infrastructure.

Q. What is cumulative score of E?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 39

Let the multiplier of Healthcare, Population, and Infrastructure be a, b and c respectively.
Let us start by finding out which parameter has a multiplying factor of 1 and which parameter has a multiplying factor of 2.
Case I: If all of the parameters have a multiplying factor of 2, then the cumulative score would always be even. But we see that the cumulative score of H is odd, hence it is not possible.
Case II: If every country has a multiplying factor of 1 then the maximum possible cumulative score can be 8+8+8 =24. But H has a cumulative score of 27, thus this is also not the case.
Thus there is at least 1 parameter that has a multiplying factor of 1 and at least 1 parameter which has a multiplying factor of 2.
Let us look at the country E. 
Since rank 8 has a cumulative score of 15, E should have a cumulative score ≥ 17 to have a rank of 6.
Thus 3a + 5b + 3c ≥ 17. It is only possible when atleast 2 of a,ba,b and cc has value of 2.
Thus 1 parameter has a multiplier of 1 and 2 parameters have a multiplier of 2
Country B has value for a score for Population parameter = 6. If we assume the score for other parameters to be xx and yy respectively and b=1, then a = c = 2. Thus 2x + 6 + 2y = 15 or 2x + 2y = 9 which is not possible. Hence b = 2.
For country F we see that the cumulative score = 25 which is odd. And score for healthcare is 5. It is only possible when a = 1 and b = c = 2. Else the sum will be even.
Thus a = 1,b = 2 and c = 2. The table can be updated as follows:

The score of B for Healthcare and Infrastructure has to be 1 so that cumulative becomes 15. Thus score of A for Population is also 1.
Cumulative of E = 19
The score of F for the population has to be 2 for cumulative to be 25
Score of 19 has a rank of 6 and score of 25 has a rank of 4. Thus C has a rank of 5

The score of A for Population is 1. The maximum score for Healthcare can be 8 and for infrastructure can be 7. The maximum cumulative score of A can be 24. But we know that at 25 the rank is 4 and at rank 5 the score is 22. Thus rank of A has to be worse than 5. Therefore only possibility is rank 7.
Then the rank of D can be either 2 or 3. Thus the score of D has to be greater than 25
The score for D for Health can be 2 or 4 or 6 or 8. The score of D can be thus 20 or 22 or 24 or 26 respectively. Thus score of D for Healthcare should be 8 with a cumulative score of 26. Thus D has rank 3 and H will have rank 2

Exactly 3 countries have the same Healthcare and Infrastructure score. B and E two of these countries. The third country can be A or C or G or H.
For A, the common score can be  4 only. In the case of which cumulative becomes. 14 But the score of A has to be 16 or more as it has rank 7. Thus rejected.
For C, since the score of Infrastructure is 6, the score of Healthcare needs to be 6. For cumulative to be 22 the score of Population has to be 2 but, F has that score so it is also not possible.
For G, the common number can be 4. In the case of which if G gets 8 score in population, still the cumulative will be 26. Which is a contradiction as G should have score 28 or above
If the score of H for Infrastructure = 7 then the Population score has to be 3. This is the only possible case

The score of Population for C can be 4 or 8. If the score is  8 then the cumulative will exceed 22. Thus THE score of C for the population is 4. Its score for Healthcare has to be 2. G has a population score = 8

Since the score of Healthcare for A can be 4 or 6. The cumulative score will be even. Thus a cumulative score of A can be 16 or 18.
Case I: 
If A has a Healthcare score of 4 then A needs either an Infrastructure score to be 5 or 6. The only possibility is 5. Thus is cumulative will be 16. It will imply that score for G has to be 6,8,4. The cumulative score, in this case, will be 30.

Case II: A has a healthcare score of 6. Thus Infrastructure score has to be 4 or 5. If it is 4 then the cumulative score of A will be 16. The score of G, in that case, will be 4,8,5 which has a total cumulative of 30.
If the infrastructure score of A is 5, then its cumulative will be 18. The score of G, in that case, will be 4,8,4 with a cumulative of 26. Which is not possible as it has to be above 28. This is rejected

The above mentioned are the only possible 2 cases. In both the cases the score of E is 19

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 40

8 countries were scored based on 3 parameters Healthcare, Population, and Infrastructure. For each parameter,  scores were given from 1 to 8 where 8 was given to the best-performing country and 1 to the least performing country.  Each of the scores was either multiplied by 1 or 2 and then added to get the cumulative score. The multiplier for a given parameter is the same for all the countries. The country with the highest cumulative score was ranked 1 and so on. There is no tie. The half-filled table looks as follows:

Furthermore, it is given that
i) Score of B in Healthcare = Score of A in Population.
ii) For exactly 3 countries, the score in Healthcare is same as the score in Infrastructure.

Q. How many possible tables can be made from above given information?


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 40

Let the multiplier of Healthcare, Population, and Infrastructure be a, b and c respectively.
Let us start by finding out which parameter has a multiplying factor of 1 and which parameter has a multiplying factor of 2.
Case I: If all of the parameters have a multiplying factor of 2, then the cumulative score would always be even. But we see that the cumulative score of H is odd, hence it is not possible.
Case II: If every country has a multiplying factor of 1 then the maximum possible cumulative score can be 8+8+8 =24. But H has a cumulative score of 27, thus this is also not the case.
Thus there is at least 1 parameter that has a multiplying factor of 1 and at least 1 parameter which has a multiplying factor of 2.
Let us look at the country E. 
Since rank 8 has a cumulative score of 15, E should have a cumulative score ≥ 17 to have a rank of 6.
Thus 3a + 5b + 3c ≥ 17. It is only possible when atleast 2 of a,ba,b and cc has value of 2.
Thus 1 parameter has a multiplier of 1 and 2 parameters have a multiplier of 2
Country B has value for a score for Population parameter = 6. If we assume the score for other parameters to be xx and yy respectively and b=1, then a = c = 2. Thus 2x + 6 + 2y = 15 or 2x + 2y = 9 which is not possible. Hence b = 2.
For country F we see that the cumulative score = 25 which is odd. And score for healthcare is 5. It is only possible when a = 1 and b = c = 2. Else the sum will be even.
Thus a = 1,b = 2 and c = 2. The table can be updated as follows:

The score of B for Healthcare and Infrastructure has to be 1 so that cumulative becomes 15. Thus score of A for Population is also 1.
Cumulative of E = 19
The score of F for the population has to be 2 for cumulative to be 25
Score of 19 has a rank of 6 and score of 25 has a rank of 4. Thus C has a rank of 5

The score of A for Population is 1. The maximum score for Healthcare can be 8 and for infrastructure can be 7. The maximum cumulative score of A can be 24. But we know that at 25 the rank is 4 and at rank 5 the score is 22. Thus rank of A has to be worse than 5. Therefore only possibility is rank 7.
Then the rank of D can be either 2 or 3. Thus the score of D has to be greater than 25
The score for D for Health can be 2 or 4 or 6 or 8. The score of D can be thus 20 or 22 or 24 or 26 respectively. Thus score of D for Healthcare should be 8 with a cumulative score of 26. Thus D has rank 3 and H will have rank 2

Exactly 3 countries have the same Healthcare and Infrastructure score. B and E two of these countries. The third country can be A or C or G or H.
For A, the common score can be  4 only. In the case of which cumulative becomes. 14 But the score of A has to be 16 or more as it has rank 7. Thus rejected.
For C, since the score of Infrastructure is 6, the score of Healthcare needs to be 6. For cumulative to be 22 the score of Population has to be 2 but, F has that score so it is also not possible.
For G, the common number can be 4. In the case of which if G gets 8 score in population, still the cumulative will be 26. Which is a contradiction as G should have score 28 or above
If the score of H for Infrastructure = 7 then the Population score has to be 3. This is the only possible case

The score of Population for C can be 4 or 8. If the score is  8 then the cumulative will exceed 22. Thus THE score of C for the population is 4. Its score for Healthcare has to be 2. G has a population score = 8

Since the score of Healthcare for A can be 4 or 6. The cumulative score will be even. Thus a cumulative score of A can be 16 or 18.
Case I: 
If A has a Healthcare score of 4 then A needs either an Infrastructure score to be 5 or 6. The only possibility is 5. Thus is cumulative will be 16. It will imply that score for G has to be 6,8,4. The cumulative score, in this case, will be 30.

Case II: A has a healthcare score of 6. Thus Infrastructure score has to be 4 or 5. If it is 4 then the cumulative score of A will be 16. The score of G, in that case, will be 4,8,5 which has a total cumulative of 30.
If the infrastructure score of A is 5, then its cumulative will be 18. The score of G, in that case, will be 4,8,4 with a cumulative of 26. Which is not possible as it has to be above 28. This is rejected

The above mentioned are the only possible 2 cases.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 41

Due to the rise in the COVID-19 pandemic, KLS Technologies, a leading IT service provider company in Bangalore has mandated each of its employees to work from home. To work from home, each of the employees was supposed to get a 5-G internet broadband connection at their home if they don't have it already. Once everyone had taken the broadband connection, HR was supposed to collect the data. HR collected the area in which employee lives and the internet connection they have. All the employees live in either of 4 areas among Bilekahalli, Bannerghatta, HSR Layout, or Koramangla. There is only 4 internet service providers in Bangalore and their names are Airmail, Xio, TSNL, and Netaway. 

Upon compiling the data, HR observed the following things:

  1. Number of employees living in any area and having any of the internet connection is a multiple of 5 and none of them is equal to 0. Each employee has exactly 1 internet connection.
  2. If the number of TSNL subscribers are arranged in ascending orders, it forms an increasing arithmetic progression with minimum possible common difference
  3. Number of employees having Airmail connection and living in Koramangla, Bannerghatta, HSR and Bilekahalli are 25,10,40 and 35 respectively
  4. 10% of the total employees live in HSR and have Netaway connection. 35 employees live in Koramangla and have Netaway connection.
  5. Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and HSR layout is equal to the number of employees living in Koramangla and Bilekahalli. It is also equal to the sum of the number of employees having Xio and Netaway.  The number of employees living in HSR is 40% more than that of Bannerghatta and the number of employees living in Bilekahalli is 40 more than the number of employees in Koramangala
  6. Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have Xio is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Xio which is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Netaway which is equal to 40
  7. Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have TSNL connection is double that of employees living in the same area but have Netaway
  8. Total number of employees having TSNL connection is 190

Q. How many employees are there in total?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 41

Let us start by filling in the known details.
> Number of employees having Airmail connection and living in Koramangla, Bannerghatta, HSR and Bilekahalli are 25,10,40 and 35 respectively
> Total number of employees having TSNL connection is 190
>35 employees live in Koramangla and have Netaway connection.
> Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have Xio is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Xio which is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Netaway which is equal to 40.
All of the information can be represented as

> Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and HSR layout is equal to the number of employees living in Koramangla and Bilekahalli. It is also equal to the sum of the number of employees having Xio and Netaway.
Let the number of employees living in Bannerghatta and HSR be x. Then the number of employees living in Koramangla and Bilekahalli = x. Thus, total number of employees = x + x = 2x. Also, the sum of the number of employees having Xio and Netaway = x. Since each employee has only one connection, x + 110 + 190 = 2x or x = 300
>The number of employees living in HSR is 40% more than that of Bannerghatta. And their sum is x = 300. If number of employees in Bannerghatta is yy then number of employees in HSR = 1.4 × y. Thus 2.4y = 300 or y = 125. Thus 1.4 × y = 175.
Similarly the number of employees living in Bilekahalli is 40 more than the number of employees in Koramangala. Let employees in Koramangla be z then 2z + 40 = 300 or z = 130

Total number of employees = 130 + 125 + 175 + 170 = 600
> 10% of the total employees live in HSR and have Netaway connection = 60
> In Bilekahalli, the number of TSNL connections = 170-(35+40+40) = 55
> Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have TSNL connection is double that of employees living in the same area but have Netaway. Thus required numbers are 50 and 25

> 35 employees live in Koramangla and have Netaway connections. Thus the total number of employees having Netaway connection = 35+25+60+40= 160. Number of employees having Xio = 600-(110+190+160) = 140

We are given that number of TSNL in the 4 regions is in increasing AP with the minimum common difference possible. Since all the numbers are multiples of 5, the minimum possible common difference = 5. Let the least number be aa, then a + a + 5 + a + 10 + a + 15 = 190  or a = 40. Thus required numbers are 40,45,50 and 55. Out of which 50 and 55 are already allocated.
Case I: Employees in Koramangla having TSNL = 40. Then Employee in HSR having TSNL = 45. Employee in HSR having Xio = 175-(60+40+45) = 30. Thus Koramgala employees having Xio will also be 30

Case II: Employees in Koramangla having TSNL = 45. Then Employee in HSR having TSNL = 40. Employees in Koramangala having Xio will be = 130-(35+45+25) = 25. Employees in HSR having Xio will be = 175-(40+40+60) = 35
Total number of employees having Xio = 25+40+35+40 = 140. This case is also possible

Total employees = 600

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 42

Due to the rise in the COVID-19 pandemic, KLS Technologies, a leading IT service provider company in Bangalore has mandated each of its employees to work from home. To work from home, each of the employees was supposed to get a 5-G internet broadband connection at their home if they don't have it already. Once everyone had taken the broadband connection, HR was supposed to collect the data. HR collected the area in which employee lives and the internet connection they have. All the employees live in either of 4 areas among Bilekahalli, Bannerghatta, HSR Layout, or Koramangla. There is only 4 internet service providers in Bangalore and their names are Airmail, Xio, TSNL, and Netaway. 

Upon compiling the data, HR observed the following things:

  1. Number of employees living in any area and having any of the internet connection is a multiple of 5 and none of them is equal to 0. Each employee has exactly 1 internet connection.
  2. If the number of TSNL subscribers are arranged in ascending orders, it forms an increasing arithmetic progression with minimum possible common difference
  3. Number of employees having Airmail connection and living in Koramangla, Bannerghatta, HSR and Bilekahalli are 25,10,40 and 35 respectively
  4. 10% of the total employees live in HSR and have Netaway connection. 35 employees live in Koramangla and have Netaway connection.
  5. Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and HSR layout is equal to the number of employees living in Koramangla and Bilekahalli. It is also equal to the sum of the number of employees having Xio and Netaway.  The number of employees living in HSR is 40% more than that of Bannerghatta and the number of employees living in Bilekahalli is 40 more than the number of employees in Koramangala
  6. Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have Xio is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Xio which is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Netaway which is equal to 40
  7. Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have TSNL connection is double that of employees living in the same area but have Netaway
  8. Total number of employees having TSNL connection is 190

Q. For the Koramangala area, which of the following network providers have the maximum number of employees as its subscribers?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 42

Let us start by filling in the known details.
> Number of employees having Airmail connection and living in Koramangla, Bannerghatta, HSR and Bilekahalli are 25,10,40 and 35 respectively
> Total number of employees having TSNL connection is 190
>35 employees live in Koramangla and have Netaway connection.
> Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have Xio is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Xio which is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Netaway which is equal to 40.
All of the information can be represented as

> Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and HSR layout is equal to the number of employees living in Koramangla and Bilekahalli. It is also equal to the sum of the number of employees having Xio and Netaway.
Let the number of employees living in Bannerghatta and HSR be x. Then the number of employees living in Koramangla and Bilekahalli = x. Thus, total number of employees = x + x = 2x. Also, the sum of the number of employees having Xio and Netaway = x. Since each employee has only one connection, x + 110 + 190 = 2x or x = 300
>The number of employees living in HSR is 40% more than that of Bannerghatta. And their sum is x = 300. If number of employees in Bannerghatta is yy then number of employees in HSR = 1.4 × y. Thus 2.4y = 300 or y = 125. Thus 1.4 × y = 175.
Similarly the number of employees living in Bilekahalli is 40 more than the number of employees in Koramangala. Let employees in Koramangla be z then 2z + 40 = 300 or z = 130

Total number of employees = 130 + 125 + 175 + 170 = 600
> 10% of the total employees live in HSR and have Netaway connection = 60
> In Bilekahalli, the number of TSNL connections = 170-(35+40+40) = 55
> Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have TSNL connection is double that of employees living in the same area but have Netaway. Thus required numbers are 50 and 25

> 35 employees live in Koramangla and have Netaway connections. Thus the total number of employees having Netaway connection = 35+25+60+40= 160. Number of employees having Xio = 600-(110+190+160) = 140

We are given that number of TSNL in the 4 regions is in increasing AP with the minimum common difference possible. Since all the numbers are multiples of 5, the minimum possible common difference = 5. Let the least number be aa, then a + a + 5 + a + 10 + a + 15 = 190  or a = 40. Thus required numbers are 40,45,50 and 55. Out of which 50 and 55 are already allocated.
Case I: Employees in Koramangla having TSNL = 40. Then Employee in HSR having TSNL = 45. Employee in HSR having Xio = 175-(60+40+45) = 30. Thus Koramgala employees having Xio will also be 30

Case II: Employees in Koramangla having TSNL = 45. Then Employee in HSR having TSNL = 40. Employees in Koramangala having Xio will be = 130-(35+45+25) = 25. Employees in HSR having Xio will be = 175-(40+40+60) = 35
Total number of employees having Xio = 25+40+35+40 = 140. This case is also possible

In both cases, TSNL has the maximum number of employees

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 43

Due to the rise in the COVID-19 pandemic, KLS Technologies, a leading IT service provider company in Bangalore has mandated each of its employees to work from home. To work from home, each of the employees was supposed to get a 5-G internet broadband connection at their home if they don't have it already. Once everyone had taken the broadband connection, HR was supposed to collect the data. HR collected the area in which employee lives and the internet connection they have. All the employees live in either of 4 areas among Bilekahalli, Bannerghatta, HSR Layout, or Koramangla. There is only 4 internet service providers in Bangalore and their names are Airmail, Xio, TSNL, and Netaway. 

Upon compiling the data, HR observed the following things:

  1. Number of employees living in any area and having any of the internet connection is a multiple of 5 and none of them is equal to 0. Each employee has exactly 1 internet connection.
  2. If the number of TSNL subscribers are arranged in ascending orders, it forms an increasing arithmetic progression with minimum possible common difference
  3. Number of employees having Airmail connection and living in Koramangla, Bannerghatta, HSR and Bilekahalli are 25,10,40 and 35 respectively
  4. 10% of the total employees live in HSR and have Netaway connection. 35 employees live in Koramangla and have Netaway connection.
  5. Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and HSR layout is equal to the number of employees living in Koramangla and Bilekahalli. It is also equal to the sum of the number of employees having Xio and Netaway.  The number of employees living in HSR is 40% more than that of Bannerghatta and the number of employees living in Bilekahalli is 40 more than the number of employees in Koramangala
  6. Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have Xio is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Xio which is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Netaway which is equal to 40
  7. Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have TSNL connection is double that of employees living in the same area but have Netaway
  8. Total number of employees having TSNL connection is 190

Q. What is the number of employees that have Netaway?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 43

Let us start by filling in the known details.
> Number of employees having Airmail connection and living in Koramangla, Bannerghatta, HSR and Bilekahalli are 25,10,40 and 35 respectively
> Total number of employees having TSNL connection is 190
>35 employees live in Koramangla and have Netaway connection.
> Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have Xio is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Xio which is equal to the number of employees living in Bilekahalli and have Netaway which is equal to 40.
All of the information can be represented as

> Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and HSR layout is equal to the number of employees living in Koramangla and Bilekahalli. It is also equal to the sum of the number of employees having Xio and Netaway.
Let the number of employees living in Bannerghatta and HSR be x. Then the number of employees living in Koramangla and Bilekahalli = x. Thus, total number of employees = x + x = 2x. Also, the sum of the number of employees having Xio and Netaway = x. Since each employee has only one connection, x + 110 + 190 = 2x or x = 300
>The number of employees living in HSR is 40% more than that of Bannerghatta. And their sum is x = 300. If number of employees in Bannerghatta is yy then number of employees in HSR = 1.4 × y. Thus 2.4y = 300 or y = 125. Thus 1.4 × y = 175.
Similarly the number of employees living in Bilekahalli is 40 more than the number of employees in Koramangala. Let employees in Koramangla be z then 2z + 40 = 300 or z = 130

Total number of employees = 130 + 125 + 175 + 170 = 600
> 10% of the total employees live in HSR and have Netaway connection = 60
> In Bilekahalli, the number of TSNL connections = 170-(35+40+40) = 55
> Number of employees living in Bannerghatta and have TSNL connection is double that of employees living in the same area but have Netaway. Thus required numbers are 50 and 25

> 35 employees live in Koramangla and have Netaway connections. Thus the total number of employees having Netaway connection = 35+25+60+40= 160. Number of employees having Xio = 600-(110+190+160) = 140

We are given that number of TSNL in the 4 regions is in increasing AP with the minimum common difference possible. Since all the numbers are multiples of 5, the minimum possible common difference = 5. Let the least number be aa, then a + a + 5 + a + 10 + a + 15 = 190  or a = 40. Thus required numbers are 40,45,50 and 55. Out of which 50 and 55 are already allocated.
Case I: Employees in Koramangla having TSNL = 40. Then Employee in HSR having TSNL = 45. Employee in HSR having Xio = 175-(60+40+45) = 30. Thus Koramgala employees having Xio will also be 30

Case II: Employees in Koramangla having TSNL = 45. Then Employee in HSR having TSNL = 40. Employees in Koramangala having Xio will be = 130-(35+45+25) = 25. Employees in HSR having Xio will be = 175-(40+40+60) = 35
Total number of employees having Xio = 25+40+35+40 = 140. This case is also possible

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 44

Directions : Ram rents a cab for his daily Kishenganj-Joomla-Kishenganj round-trip. Distance between Kishenganj to Joomla is 200km
The cab-driver charges him Rs. 400 every day. On the 23rd of November, the cab driver informs Ram that there are two students Shyam and Mohit who wish to travel from Ranaghat to Joomla and then only Mohit back to Ranaghat, just for that day. Ranaghat is exact midway between Kishenganj and Joomla.
On the 30th of November, the cab driver informs Ram that there is one student Rishi who wishes to travel from Dhulna to Joomla and then he wants to return till Ranaghat, just for that day. Dhulna is exact midway between Ranaghat and Kishenganj.
Ram, on the both days the students came, told the cab-driver: "Keeping the original fare in mind and the basis for our calculations, I will only pay the amount which is arrived at after dividing the fare amongst all the co-riders proportionally (according to the respective distances we travel)."
What would have been the fare for Ram on the 23rd of November, had Mohit been his only co-passenger that day?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 44

We can observe that the cab driver charges Ram 400 rupees for 400 km which means 1 rupee for 1 km.
Had Mohit been his only co-passenger on the 23rd of November,
Ram's share of the fare = 200 +100/2 + 100/2 = Rs. 300

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 45

A milkman has 2 varieties of milk-water solution, solution A has 65% pure milk and solution B has 78% pure milk. He is mixing x mL of solution A with y mL of solution B such that the resultant solution has no less than 70% pure milk and no more than 72% pure milk. If y can take any value between 625mL and 630mL, both inclusive, what is the difference between the minimum and maximum value x can take? It is given that x and y are both integers.

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 45

According to the information,

This breaks down to


We have been given the range of values y can take, putting the extremes, we get,
When y = 625,

Hence, the minimum value x can take is 536 and the maximum it can take is 1008.
Hence difference = 472.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 46

A survey was conducted in a society to get an estimate of how many people read the following newspapers, The Telegraph, The Economic Times and The Times of India. It was found out that 20% of people of the society read The Telegraph, 30% of people of the society read The Economic Times and 40% of the people of the society read The Times of India. If the society had a total of 600 people, what can be the maximum number of people in the society who read none of the newspapers?


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 46

Let the newspapers be abbreviated as follows:
The Telegraph - TT
The Economic Times - ET
The Times of India - TOI
Let the number of people in the society be 100 (only for calculation, later we will substitute the correct value)
Therefore, n(TT) = 20
n(ET) = 30
n(TOI) = 40
To maximise the number of people reading no newspaper, we will have to maximise the number of people who read 3 and 2 newspapers as follows.
 

Hence, maximum number of people who read no newspapers = 60 = 60%.
Total number of people in the society = 600
Hence, the maximum number of people in the society who read none of the newspapers = 0.6 x 600 = 360

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 47

In a certain country, all the people are fans of exactly one of the following clubs, Real Madrid, Barcelona and Juventus. The percentage of people who follow Real Madrid is 60%. Out of these, 80% are followers of Cristiano. In the transfer season, Cristiano moved to Juventus. As a result, 50% of the Real Madrid followers who followed Cristiano stopped following Real Madrid and started following Juventus. Also, 25% of the Real Madrid followers who did not follow Cristiano stopped following Real Madrid and started following Barcelona. If the absolute difference between the final number of Juventus and Barcelona fans is equal to the final number of Real Madrid fans, what percentage of the population of the country initially followed Barcelona?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 47

Let the number of people in the country be 100.
Hence, the number of people following Real Madrid = 60
Let the number of people who follow Barcelona be x.
Hence, the number of people who follow Juventus = 40 - x.
The number of people following Cristiano among the Real Madrid followers = 0.8 x 60 = 48
The number of people not following Cristiano among the Real Madrid followers = 60 - 48 = 12.
The number of people who stopped following Real Madrid and started following Juventus = 0.5 x 48 = 24.
The number of people who stopped following Real Madrid and started following Barcelona = 0.25 x 12 = 3.
Number of people who still follow Real Madrid = (48 - 24) + (12 - 3) = 24 + 9 = 33.
Number of people who now follow Barcelona = x + 3
Number of people who now follow Juventus = 40 - x + 24 = 64 - x
Hence,
Case 1: x + 3 - 64 + x = 33
2x = 94
x = 47. (Not possible because 40 - x would become -7)
Case 2: 64 - x - x - 3 = 33
2x = 28
x = 14

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 48

If a function f(x) is defined as h(x+1), where h(x) is a real function. g(x) is defined as f(x+1). If g(x+1) = x+ 6x + 10
Find the value of h(5).

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 48

g(x+1) = x+ 6x + 10
g(x+1) = x+ 6x +9 +1 = (x + 3)2 + 1
g(x+1) = (x + 1 + 2)2 + 1
g(x) = (x + 2)2 + 1
f(x+1) = g(x) = (x + 2)2 +1
f(x+1) = (x + 1 + 1)2 +1
f(x) = (x + 1)+ 1
h(x+1) = f(x) = (x + 1)2 + 1
h(x) = x2 +1
Hence, h(5) = 26

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 49

Find the number of integers x such that -100<x<100 for which the following inequality holds true:
|x2 + 3x - 28| > |x2 - 5x - 14|


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 49


Let us denote the left side expression inside modulus as E1 and the right side expression inside modulus as E2.
|E1| > |E2|
Let us find the boundary points
E1 = 0 at -7, 4, E2 = 0 at -2, 7.


We can depict the above regions as
From −∞  to -7, and 7 to infinity, both are positive,


Hence, the intersection of the regions is x > = 7
From 4 to 7, since E1 is positive and E2 is negative, 

Hence, the overlapping region is 

From -2 to 4, E1 and E2 both are negative

Hence, the overlapping region is [-2,14/8)

From -7 to -2, E1 < 0 and E2 > 0, thus, 


Hence, the overlapping region is

Integers are -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 6, 7, 8, ....., 99.
Hence, count = 100

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 50

A square, ABCD has a side of length 12 cm each. An equilateral triangle, MAB exists such that M is outside the square ABCD. If a circle is drawn in such a way that it passes through the points M, C and D, then what will be the radius of that circle?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 50

The problem figure in the question can be drawn as:

If we construct an equilateral triangle with base CD, we will get:

 

AM and DK are parallel to each other (makes 60 degrees with the base) and AD and MK are parallel to each other. 
∴AMKD is a parallelogram and hence AM= DK and AD= MK.
But since AM=AB=AD.
So, AMKD is a rhombus. 
Also, since MK= KD and M and D are the points on the circle, K must be centre of the circle and so, the radius = KD = CD = 12 cm.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 51

A man is standing facing the north. He moves 45 metres east and then turns to his left and moves 50 metres in that direction. He then turns 45 degrees towards his right and moves a distance of 45√2 metres in that direction. He then turns 135 degrees to his right and walked a distance of 20 metres in that direction. Finally, he turns 45 degrees to the left and walks a distance of 50√2 metres. He stops at this point. What is the shortest distance(in metres) that he needs to travel from this point to reach his starting point?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 51

We can depict all the directions in the given information as follows:



AJ = 45 + 45 + 50 = 140
FJ = 50 + 45 - 20 - 50 = 25

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 52

A solid hemisphere of radius 0.3 metres is molten and recast into small hollow cylinders, with an outer diameter of 14 cm, an inner diameter of 6 cm and a height of 2.5 cm. What is the maximum number of hollow cylinders that can be formed?


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 52

Let's convert everything to cm.
Volume of the hemisphere

Volume of each hollow cylinder = π R2h − π r2h = π (R2 − r2)h = π (49 − 9)2.5 = 100π 
Hence, number of hollow cylinders that can be formed

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 53

How many non-obtuse angled triangles with integer sides are possible with 8 and 10 as 2 of its sides?


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 53

Let the third side c be the smallest of the 3. In that case 10 - 8 < c, c>2
c can take 3. 
Let the side c be the largest side,  in that case, 10 + 8 > c, c<18
c can take 17.
So it can also take all values in between.
If a triangle is obtuse-angled, then a2 + b2 < c2 
So, all possible triangles are
3,8,10 - obtuse
4,8,10 - obtuse
5,8,10 - obtuse
6,8,10
7,8,10
8,8,10
9,8,10
10,8,10
11,8,10
12,8,10
13,8,10 - obtuse
14,8,10 - obtuse
15,8,10 - obtuse
16,8,10 - obtuse
17,8,10 - obtuse
So, 7 non-obtuse triangles are possible.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 54

What is the area (in sq units) bound between the following regions?
|y| ≥ |x|
y ≥ 0
x2 + y2 ≤ 49

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 54

If we plot the regions, we get

Hence the intersection of these regions is one-fourth the region inside the circle.
Hence, area enclosed 

Area of the circle


Therefore area of the enclosed region = 154/4 = 38.5

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 55

How many integers do not satisfy the following inequation?
|x|3 + 8x2 + 5|x| - 50 > 0

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 55

Let |x| = z.
|x|3 + 8x2 + 5|x| - 50 > 0
z3 + 8z2 + 5z - 50 > 0
Using hit and trial, we can see that z = 2 satisfies the equation
Hence, z-2 is a factor.
Using algebraic division, we can derive, 

z+ 8z+ 5z - 50 = (z − 2)(z2 + 10z + 25) = (z − 2)(z + 5)2  

For z > 2, the condition is satisfied. Hence for -5 < x < 2, the expression is less than zero. SInc the power of z + 5 is even, the expression < 0 for z < - 5 a well.
So, the condition is satisfied for z > 2 |x| > 2.
Hence, the condition is not satisfied for x = -2, -1, 0, 1, 2.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 56

The cost of booking a football turf for 5 hours, a badminton court for 6 hours and a tennis court for 9 hours is Rs.7300. The cost of booking a football turf for 7 hours, a badminton court for 2 hours and a tennis court for 3 hours is Rs.3500. In a mega tournament, the organising committee needs to book the football turf for 50 hours, the badminton court for 28 hours and the tennis court for 42 hours. What is the total cost spent on booking?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 56

5f + 6b + 9t = 7300 ....(i)
7f + 2b + 3t = 3500 ....(ii)
50f + 28b + 42t = ? ....(iii)
Multiplying (i) by a and (ii) by b and then adding, we should get eqn. (iii)
Hence, 5a + 7b = 50
6a + 2b = 28
Solving, we get, a = 3, b = 5.
It satisfies the coefficient of t as well. (9 x 3 + 3 x 5 = 42)
Now,  
5f + 6b + 9t = 7300 [x3]
7f + 2b + 3t = 3500 [x5]
15f + 18b + 27t = 21900
35f + 10b + 15t = 17500
Adding, we get
50f + 28b + 42t = 39400

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 57

If the value of log25 is a, the value of log180 is b, and the value of log750 is ma + nb, where m and n are constants, find the value of m + n.

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 57

log 25 = a
∴ 2 log 5 = a
∴ log 5 = a/2
log 180 = b
∴ log 5 x 6 x 6 = b
∴  log 5 + 2 log 6 = b
∴ a/2 + 2 log 6 =b
∴ log 6 = b/2 - a/4
log 750 = log 5 x 5 x 5 x 6 = 3log 5 + log 6 = 3a/2 + b/2 - a/4 = b/2 + 5a/4
m = 5/4, n = 1/2
m + n = 5/4 + 1/2 =7/4

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 58

If log7 log6 log5 a = 0 and log4 log3 logb a = 0 , find the sum of a and b.

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 58

log7 log6 log5 a = 0
log6 log5 a = 1
log5 a = 6
a = 56 
log4 log3 logb a = 0
log3 logb a = 1
logb a = 3
a = b3
b3 = 56
b = 25
a + b = 56 + 25 = 15625 + 25=15650

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 59

What is the number of ways in which 25364can be expressed as the product of 2 numbers which are not prime(order of numbers is not important)?


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 59

25364can be written as 21936
Hence it has 20 x 7 =140 factors. 
Hence, it can be written as a product of 2 numbers in 140/2 = 70 ways
Out of these 70 ways, in 2 of these ways, one of the numbers is prime, as follows

Hence, total number of ways = 70 - 2 = 68.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 60

In a certain base N, the absolute difference between 465 and 366 is 77. What is the value of N?


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 60

(465)N - (366)N = (77)N
4N2 + 6N + 5 - 3N2 - 6N - 6 = 7N + 7
N2 - 1 = 7N + 7
N2 - 7N - 8 = 0
(N - 8) (N + 1) = 0
N = 8

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 61

What is the probability of getting a sum of not more than 11 and not less than 9 in the simultaneous roll of 3 dice?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 61

Ways to get a sum of 9: 
(1,2,6) - 3!
(1,3,5) - 3!
(1,4,4) - 3
(2,2,5) - 3
(2,3,4) - 3!
(3,3,3) - 1
Ways to get a sum of 10:
(1,3,6) - 3!
(1,4,5) - 3!
(2,2,6) - 3
(2,3,5) - 3!
(2,4,4) - 3
(3,3,4) - 3
Ways to get a sum of 11:
(1,4,6) - 3!
(1,5,5) - 3
(2,3,6) - 3!
(2,4,5) - 3!
(3,3,5) - 3
(3,4,4) - 3
Total number of ways = 79.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 62

If the dictionary ranking of a word 'RONALD_' among all the seven letter words formed by using the same letters is 4155, which of the following English alphabets can replace the _?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 62

Arranging all the letters in alphabetical order, we get,
R O N A L D _  ->  A D L N O R _
We are not yet aware of what comes in the dash.
A comes before R, so all words starting with A will come before the given word. Hence 6!
Now, the best way to proceed is to first see how many 6! comes in the number 4155.
6! = 720.
720 x 5 = 3600 but 720 x 6  = 4320
Hence, there are exactly 5 letters in the word, which comes alphabetically before R.
These are A, D, L, N, O. Hence the letter replacing the dash should come alphabetically after R.
The only option is U.

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 63

2 shopkeepers A and B sell similar articles. Both the shopkeepers buy the articles at the rate of 60 articles for Rs.40. A sells the articles at 60 for Rs.50, whereas B marks up the price of each article by 50% and then offers a 20% discount. What is the ratio of the number of articles A has to sell and the number of articles B has to sell to obtain the same profit?

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 63

CP for both A and B = 40/60  = 2/3 per article.
For A,
SP = 50/60 = 5/6 per article.
Hence profit = 1/6 per article.
Hence profit on 'a' articles = a/6.
For B,
MP = 1.5 X 2/3 = 1 per article
SP = 0.8MP = 4/5 per article.

Hence, profit on 'b' articles = 2b/15
Hence, 

CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 64

Find the sum of the following series up to 50 terms:
3, 1, -2, -6, -11, -17,....

Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 64

The differences between the terms of the series are in AP.
1 - 3 = -2
-2 - 1 = -3
-6 + 2 = -4 and so on.
We represent such a series as 
T(n) = an+ bn + c
Substituting n = 1,2,3, we get
a + b + c = 3 ....(i)
4a + 2b + c = 1 ....(ii)
9a + 3b + c = -2 ....(iii)
(ii) - (i), we get
3a + b = -2
(iii) - (i), we get
8a + 2b = -5
Solving these 2 equations, we get,
a = -0.5, b = -0.5
Putting these values in equation (i), we get c = 4.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 65

If the number of distinct real roots of the following equation is n, find the value of n.
x4 + x3 - 3x2 - x + 2 = 0


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 65

x4 + x3 - 3x2 - x + 2 = 0
Using Hit and Trial, we can see that both x = 1 and x = -1 satisfy the equation.
Hence, (x + 1) and (x - 1) are factors of the expression.
Dividing the expression by x- 1 we get
x4 + x3 - 3x2 - x + 2 = (x2 - 1) (x2 + x -2)
x2 + x - 2 = (x + 2) (x - 1)
Hence, 
x4 + x3 - 3x2 - x + 2 = (x + 1) (x - 1)2 (x + 2)
Hence, the equation has 3 distinct roots.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 66

How many 4 digit numbers, having all distinct digits exist, such that the digits are all in ascending order?


Detailed Solution for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) - Question 66

Basically, any 4 digits chosen from 1-9, can be arranged in exactly 1 way, such that all four digits are in ascending order. Hence total number of such numbers possible is 9C4 = 126.
For instance if the digits chosen are 7, 3, 4 and 8, we can arrange them in ascending order in exactly one way, as 3478.
Thus 126 such numbers are obtainable.

2 videos|24 docs|89 tests
Use Code STAYHOME200 and get INR 200 additional OFF
Use Coupon Code
Information about CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) Page
In this test you can find the Exam questions for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022) solved & explained in the simplest way possible. Besides giving Questions and answers for CAT Mock Test- 5 (07/08/2022), EduRev gives you an ample number of Online tests for practice