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This mock test of CAT Past Year Question Paper - 2017 Slot 1 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam.
This contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT CAT Past Year Question Paper - 2017 Slot 1 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank.
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QUESTION: 1

*Understanding where you are in the world is a basic survival skill, which is why we, like most species come hard-wired with specialised brain areas to create cognitive maps of our surroundings. Where humans are unique, though, with the possible exception of honeybees, is that we try to communicate this understanding of the world with others. We have a long history of doing this by drawing maps - the earliest versions yet discovered were scrawled on cave walls 14,000 years ago. Human cultures have been drawing them on stone tablets, papyrus, paper and now computer screens ever since.*

*Given such a long history of human map-making, it is perhaps surprising that it is only within the last few hundred years that north has been consistently considered to be at the top. In fact, for much of human history, north almost never appeared at the top, according to Jerry Brotton, a map historian... "North was rarely put at the top for the simple fact that north is where darkness comes from," he says. "West is also very unlikely to be put at the top because west is where the sun disappears."*

*Confusingly, early Chinese maps seem to buck this trend. But, Brotton, says, even though they did have compasses at the time, that isn't the reason that they placed north at the top. Early Chinese compasses were actually oriented to point south, which was considered to be more desirable than deepest darkest north. But in Chinese maps, the Emperor, who lived in the north of the country was always put at the top of the map, with everyone else, his loyal subjects, looking up towards him. "In Chinese culture the Emperor looks south because it's where the winds come from, it's a good direction. North is not very good but you are in a position of subjection to the emperor, so you look up to him," says Brotton.*

*Given that each culture has a very different idea of who, or what, they should look up to it's perhaps not surprising that there is very little consistency in which way early maps pointed. In ancient Egyptian times the top of the world was east, the position of sunrise. Early Islamic maps favoured south at the top because most of the early Muslim cultures were north of Mecca, so they imagined looking up (south) towards it. Christian maps from the same era (called Mappa Mundi) put east at the top, towards the Garden of Eden and with Jerusalem in the centre.*

*So when did everyone get together and decide that north was the top? It's tempting to put it down to European explorers like Christopher Columbus and Ferdinand Megellan, who were navigating by the North Star. But Brotton argues that these early explorers didn't think of the world like that at all. "When Columbus describes the world it is in accordance with east being at the top," he says. "Columbus says he is going towards paradise, so his mentality is from a medieval mappa mundi." We've got to remember, adds Brotton, that at the time, "no one knows what they are doing and where they are going."*

**Q.**

**Which one of the following best describes what the passage is trying to do?**

Solution:

After going through the above passage of Reading Comprehension carefully, with particular focus on the first sentence of the second paragraph of the Reading Comprehension “Given such a long period of …. considered to be on the top” and the second and third sentences of the last paragraph “It’s tempting to.. at all” demonstrate that B is the correct choice.

QUESTION: 2

Understanding where you are in the world is a basic survival skill, which is why we, like most species come hard-wired with specialised brain areas to create cognitive maps of our surroundings. Where humans are unique, though, with the possible exception of honeybees, is that we try to communicate this understanding of the world with others. We have a long history of doing this by drawing maps - the earliest versions yet discovered were scrawled on cave walls 14,000 years ago. Human cultures have been drawing them on stone tablets, papyrus, paper and now computer screens ever since.

Given such a long history of human map-making, it is perhaps surprising that it is only within the last few hundred years that north has been consistently considered to be at the top. In fact, for much of human history, north almost never appeared at the top, according to Jerry Brotton, a map historian... "North was rarely put at the top for the simple fact that north is where darkness comes from," he says. "West is also very unlikely to be put at the top because west is where the sun disappears."

Confusingly, early Chinese maps seem to buck this trend. But, Brotton, says, even though they did have compasses at the time, that isn't the reason that they placed north at the top. Early Chinese compasses were actually oriented to point south, which was considered to be more desirable than deepest darkest north. But in Chinese maps, the Emperor, who lived in the north of the country was always put at the top of the map, with everyone else, his loyal subjects, looking up towards him. "In Chinese culture the Emperor looks south because it's where the winds come from, it's a good direction. North is not very good but you are in a position of subjection to the emperor, so you look up to him," says Brotton.

Given that each culture has a very different idea of who, or what, they should look up to it's perhaps not surprising that there is very little consistency in which way early maps pointed. In ancient Egyptian times the top of the world was east, the position of sunrise. Early Islamic maps favoured south at the top because most of the early Muslim cultures were north of Mecca, so they imagined looking up (south) towards it. Christian maps from the same era (called Mappa Mundi) put east at the top, towards the Garden of Eden and with Jerusalem in the centre.

So when did everyone get together and decide that north was the top? It's tempting to put it down to European explorers like Christopher Columbus and Ferdinand Megellan, who were navigating by the North Star. But Brotton argues that these early explorers didn't think of the world like that at all. "When Columbus describes the world it is in accordance with east being at the top," he says. "Columbus says he is going towards paradise, so his mentality is from a medieval mappa mundi." We've got to remember, adds Brotton, that at the time, "no one knows what they are doing and where they are going."

Q. Early maps did NOT put north at the top for all the following reasons EXCEPT

Solution:

__Option A:__ In paragraph 2, Jerry Brotton says, “North was rarely put at the top for the simple fact that north is where darkness comes from”.

Also, Cristians put east at the top towards Garden of Eden and Jerusalem in the center.

QUESTION: 3

*Understanding where you are in the world is a basic survival skill, which is why we, like most species come hard-wired with specialised brain areas to create cognitive maps of our surroundings. Where humans are unique, though, with the possible exception of honeybees, is that we try to communicate this understanding of the world with others. We have a long history of doing this by drawing maps - the earliest versions yet discovered were scrawled on cave walls 14,000 years ago. Human cultures have been drawing them on stone tablets, papyrus, paper and now computer screens ever since.*

*Given such a long history of human map-making, it is perhaps surprising that it is only within the last few hundred years that north has been consistently considered to be at the top. In fact, for much of human history, north almost never appeared at the top, according to Jerry Brotton, a map historian... "North was rarely put at the top for the simple fact that north is where darkness comes from," he says. "West is also very unlikely to be put at the top because west is where the sun disappears."*

*Confusingly, early Chinese maps seem to buck this trend. But, Brotton, says, even though they did have compasses at the time, that isn't the reason that they placed north at the top. Early Chinese compasses were actually oriented to point south, which was considered to be more desirable than deepest darkest north. But in Chinese maps, the Emperor, who lived in the north of the country was always put at the top of the map, with everyone else, his loyal subjects, looking up towards him. "In Chinese culture the Emperor looks south because it's where the winds come from, it's a good direction. North is not very good but you are in a position of subjection to the emperor, so you look up to him," says Brotton.*

*Given that each culture has a very different idea of who, or what, they should look up to it's perhaps not surprising that there is very little consistency in which way early maps pointed. In ancient Egyptian times the top of the world was east, the position of sunrise. Early Islamic maps favoured south at the top because most of the early Muslim cultures were north of Mecca, so they imagined looking up (south) towards it. Christian maps from the same era (called Mappa Mundi) put east at the top, towards the Garden of Eden and with Jerusalem in the centre.*

*So when did everyone get together and decide that north was the top? It's tempting to put it down to European explorers like Christopher Columbus and Ferdinand Megellan, who were navigating by the North Star. But Brotton argues that these early explorers didn't think of the world like that at all. "When Columbus describes the world it is in accordance with east being at the top," he says. "Columbus says he is going towards paradise, so his mentality is from a medieval mappa mundi." We've got to remember, adds Brotton, that at the time, "no one knows what they are doing and where they are going."*

**Q.**

**According to the passage, early Chinese maps placed north at the top because**

Solution:

__Move to paragraph 3__

__Option A:__ In the 1st two lines, Brotton says that even though Chinese did have compasses but they actually pointed towards South. So, this is the wrong option.

Option (B) is the right answer, maps pointed in north to show respect to the emperor.

This is the wrong answer

QUESTION: 4

**Q.**

**It can be inferred from the passage that European explorers like Columbus and Megellan Options :**

Solution:

In the last paragraph, we can see that Columbus says he is going towards paradise, and this comes from Mappa Mundi (Cristian Map) – which is pointed towards East due to Mecca (a religious reason). So, explorers like Cristopher and Megellan use an Eastward direction due to religious reasons.

QUESTION: 5

**Q.**

**Which one of the following about the northern orientation of modern maps is asserted in the passage?**

Solution:

The passage does not mention anywhere why Modern Maps put North at the top. The only thing that is stated is, that unlike modern period, history shows us that North was rarely put at the top.

Option (D) is the correct answer as it has been nowhere mentioned in the passage why North is put at the top in modern times.

QUESTION: 6

**Q. ****The role of natural phenomena in influencing map-making conventions is seen most clearly in**

Solution:

In paragraph 4, we can see that Egyptians put East at the top because of the position of sunrise (a natural phenomenon). Rest all are pointed towards North, South or East because of religious reasons (Christians and Muslims) or to show respect to the emperor (Chinese)

Option A is the correct answer

QUESTION: 7

*I used a smartphone GPS to find my way through the cobblestoned maze of Geneva's Old Town, in search of a handmade machine that changed the world more than any other invention. Near a 13th-century cathedral in this Swiss city on the shores of a lovely lake, I found what I was looking for: a Gutenberg printing press. "This was the Internet of its day — at least as influential as the iPhone/ said Gabriel de Montmollin, the director of the Museum of the Reformation, toying with the replica of Johann Gutenberg's great invention.*

*[Before the invention of the printing press] it used to take four monks...up to a year to produce a single book. With the advance in movable type in 13th-century Europe, one press could crank out 3,000 pages a day. Before long, average people could travel to places that used to be unknown to them — with maps! Medical information passed more freely and quickly, diminishing the sway of quacks...The printing press offered the prospect that tyrants would never be able to kill a book or suppress an idea. Gutenberg's brainchild broke the monopoly that clerics had on scripture. And later, stirred by pamphlets from a version of that same press, the American colonies rose up against a king and gave birth to a nation.*

*So, a question in the summer of this 10th anniversary of the iPhone: has the device that is perhaps the most revolutionary of all time given us a single magnificent idea? Nearly every advancement of the written word through new technology has also advanced humankind. Sure, you can say the iPhone changed everything. By putting the world's recorded knowledge in the palm of a hand, it revolutionized work, dining, travel and socialising. It made us more narcissistic — here's more of me doing cool stuff! — and it unleashed an army of awful trolls. We no longer have the patience to sit through a baseball game without that reach to the pocket. And one more casualty of Apple selling more than a billion phones in a decade's time: daydreaming has become a lost art.*

*For all of that, I'm still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for religion and democracy...the Geneva museum makes a strong case that the printing press opened more minds than anything else...it's hard to imagine the French or American revolutions without those enlightened voices in print...*

*Not long after Steve Jobs introduced his iPhone, he said the bound book was probably headed for history's attic. Not so fast. After a period of rapid growth in e-books, something closer to the medium for Chaucer's volumes has made a great comeback.*

*The hope of the iPhone, and the Internet in general, was that it would free people in closed societies. But the failure of the Arab Spring, and the continued suppression of ideas in North Korea, China and Iran, has not borne that out...The iPhone is still young. It has certainly been "one of the most important, world-changing and successful products in history," as Apple C.E.O. Tim Cook said. But I'm not sure if the world changed for the better with the iPhone — as it did with the printing press — or merely changed.*

**Q.**

**The printing press has been likened to the Internet for which one of the following reasons?**

Solution:

After going through Reading Comprehension – Passage, we can see that, earlier, printing books took a lot of time. One book took a year and 4 monks to be produced. After the advent of Gutenberg press, not only books became easy to produce but also pamphlets, newspapers etc. came into circulation which gave birth to ideas and allowed their sharing which led to revolutions. Option (A) is the clear answer.

QUESTION: 8

*I used a smartphone GPS to find my way through the cobblestoned maze of Geneva's Old Town, in search of a handmade machine that changed the world more than any other invention. Near a 13th-century cathedral in this Swiss city on the shores of a lovely lake, I found what I was looking for: a Gutenberg printing press. "This was the Internet of its day — at least as influential as the iPhone/ said Gabriel de Montmollin, the director of the Museum of the Reformation, toying with the replica of Johann Gutenberg's great invention.*

*[Before the invention of the printing press] it used to take four monks...up to a year to produce a single book. With the advance in movable type in 13th-century Europe, one press could crank out 3,000 pages a day. Before long, average people could travel to places that used to be unknown to them — with maps! Medical information passed more freely and quickly, diminishing the sway of quacks...The printing press offered the prospect that tyrants would never be able to kill a book or suppress an idea. Gutenberg's brainchild broke the monopoly that clerics had on scripture. And later, stirred by pamphlets from a version of that same press, the American colonies rose up against a king and gave birth to a nation.*

*So, a question in the summer of this 10th anniversary of the iPhone: has the device that is perhaps the most revolutionary of all time given us a single magnificent idea? Nearly every advancement of the written word through new technology has also advanced humankind. Sure, you can say the iPhone changed everything. By putting the world's recorded knowledge in the palm of a hand, it revolutionized work, dining, travel and socialising. It made us more narcissistic — here's more of me doing cool stuff! — and it unleashed an army of awful trolls. We no longer have the patience to sit through a baseball game without that reach to the pocket. And one more casualty of Apple selling more than a billion phones in a decade's time: daydreaming has become a lost art.*

*For all of that, I'm still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for religion and democracy...the Geneva museum makes a strong case that the printing press opened more minds than anything else...it's hard to imagine the French or American revolutions without those enlightened voices in print...*

*Not long after Steve Jobs introduced his iPhone, he said the bound book was probably headed for history's attic. Not so fast. After a period of rapid growth in e-books, something closer to the medium for Chaucer's volumes has made a great comeback.*

*The hope of the iPhone, and the Internet in general, was that it would free people in closed societies. But the failure of the Arab Spring, and the continued suppression of ideas in North Korea, China and Iran, has not borne that out...The iPhone is still young. It has certainly been "one of the most important, world-changing and successful products in history," as Apple C.E.O. Tim Cook said. But I'm not sure if the world changed for the better with the iPhone — as it did with the printing press — or merely changed.*

**Q.**

**According to the passage, the invention of the printing press did all of the following EXCEPT Options :**

Solution:

From paragraph 2 of Passage, we can see that printing press shortened the time to produce books (one press could crank out 3000 pages per day), medical information passed freely and quickly and political views spread across countries which led to revolutions.

QUESTION: 9

*I used a smartphone GPS to find my way through the cobblestoned maze of Geneva's Old Town, in search of a handmade machine that changed the world more than any other invention. Near a 13th-century cathedral in this Swiss city on the shores of a lovely lake, I found what I was looking for: a Gutenberg printing press. "This was the Internet of its day — at least as influential as the iPhone/ said Gabriel de Montmollin, the director of the Museum of the Reformation, toying with the replica of Johann Gutenberg's great invention.*

*[Before the invention of the printing press] it used to take four monks...up to a year to produce a single book. With the advance in movable type in 13th-century Europe, one press could crank out 3,000 pages a day. Before long, average people could travel to places that used to be unknown to them — with maps! Medical information passed more freely and quickly, diminishing the sway of quacks...The printing press offered the prospect that tyrants would never be able to kill a book or suppress an idea. Gutenberg's brainchild broke the monopoly that clerics had on scripture. And later, stirred by pamphlets from a version of that same press, the American colonies rose up against a king and gave birth to a nation.*

*So, a question in the summer of this 10th anniversary of the iPhone: has the device that is perhaps the most revolutionary of all time given us a single magnificent idea? Nearly every advancement of the written word through new technology has also advanced humankind. Sure, you can say the iPhone changed everything. By putting the world's recorded knowledge in the palm of a hand, it revolutionized work, dining, travel and socialising. It made us more narcissistic — here's more of me doing cool stuff! — and it unleashed an army of awful trolls. We no longer have the patience to sit through a baseball game without that reach to the pocket. And one more casualty of Apple selling more than a billion phones in a decade's time: daydreaming has become a lost art.*

*For all of that, I'm still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for religion and democracy...the Geneva museum makes a strong case that the printing press opened more minds than anything else...it's hard to imagine the French or American revolutions without those enlightened voices in print...*

*Not long after Steve Jobs introduced his iPhone, he said the bound book was probably headed for history's attic. Not so fast. After a period of rapid growth in e-books, something closer to the medium for Chaucer's volumes has made a great comeback.*

*The hope of the iPhone, and the Internet in general, was that it would free people in closed societies. But the failure of the Arab Spring, and the continued suppression of ideas in North Korea, China and Iran, has not borne that out...The iPhone is still young. It has certainly been "one of the most important, world-changing and successful products in history," as Apple C.E.O. Tim Cook said. But I'm not sure if the world changed for the better with the iPhone — as it did with the printing press — or merely changed.*

**Q.**

**Steve Jobs predicted which one of the following with the introduction of the iPhone?**

Solution:

In paragraph 5, Steve Jobs says that, “Bound book was probably headed for history’s attic”

Option C is the correct answer

QUESTION: 10

**Q.**

**"I'm still waiting to see if the iPhone can do what the printing press did for religion and democracy." The author uses which one of the following to indicate his uncertainty?**

Solution:

After going through Passage, we can see that printing press revolutionized the society, information was available to everyone and ideas could flow freely. Have a look at paragraph 4, as per the author, iPhone has failed in doing so till now, there is continued suppression in societies like China, North Korea and Iran. He is waiting for something like this to happen.

Option (C) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 11

**Q.**

**The author attributes the French and American revolutions to the invention of the printing press because Options :**

Solution:

In paragraph 2, we can see in the last lines that Gutenberg press produced pamphlets which stirred by which American colonies rose up against a king and gave birth to a nation. Rapid information exposed to people to information and ideas.

Option B is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 12

**Q.**

**The main conclusion of the passage is that the new technology has**

Solution:

In the last line of the paragrap, author says that, “I’m not sure if the world changed for the better with the iPhone – as it did with the Printing Press – or merely changed”.

So, the conclusion of the passage is that the iPhone (new technology) is not that successful in opening people’s minds as printing press.

QUESTION: 13

*This year alone, more than 8,600 stores could close, according to industry estimates, many of them the brand- name anchor outlets that real estate developers once stumbled over themselves to court. Already there have been 5,300 retail closings this year...Sears Holdings—which owns Kmart—said in March that there's "substantial doubt" it can stay in business altogether, and will close 300 stores this year. So far this year, nine national retail chains have filed for bankruptcy.*

*Local jobs are a major casualty of what analysts are calling, with only a hint of hyperbole, the retail apocalypse. Since 2002, department stores have lost 448,000 jobs, a 25% decline, while the number of store closures this year is on pace to surpass the worst depths of the Great Recession. The growth of online retailers, meanwhile, has failed to offset those losses, with the e-commerce sector adding just 178,000 jobs over the past 15 years. Some of those jobs can be found in the massive distribution centers Amazon has opened across the country, often not too far from malls the company helped shutter.*

*But those are workplaces, not gathering places. The mall is both. And in the 61 years since the first enclosed one opened in suburban Minneapolis, the shopping mall has been where a huge swath of middle-class America went for far more than shopping. It was the home of first jobs and blind dates, the place for family photos and ear piercings, where goths and grandmothers could somehow walk through the same doors and find something they all liked. Sure, the food was lousy for you and the oceans of parking lots encouraged car- heavy development, something now scorned by contemporary planners. But for better or worse, the mall has been America's public square for the last 60 years.*

*So what happens when it disappears?*

*Think of your mall. Or think of the one you went to as a kid. Think of the perfume clouds in the department stores. The fountains splashing below the skylights. The cinnamon wafting from the food court. As far back as ancient Greece, societies have congregated around a central marketplace. In medieval Europe, they were outside cathedrals. For half of the 20th century and almost 20 years into the new one, much of America has found their agora on the terrazzo between Orange Julius and Sbarro, Waldenbooks and the Gap, Sunglass Hut and Hot Topic.*

*That mall was an ecosystem unto itself, a combination of community and commercialism peddling everything you needed and everything you didn't: Magic Eye posters, wind catchers, Air Jordans. ...*

*A growing number of Americans, however, don't see the need to go to any Macy's at all. Our digital lives are frictionless and ruthlessly efficient, with retail and romance available at a click. Malls were designed for leisure, abundance, ambling. You parked and planned to spend some time. Today, much of that time has been given over to busier lives and second jobs and apps that let you swipe right instead of haunt the food court. Malls, says Harvard business professor Leonard Schlesinger, "were built for patterns of social interaction that increasingly don't exist."*

**Q.**

**The central idea of this passage is that**

Solution:

Although the passage mentions the economic setback due to closing of malls, but it also says that some of these jobs can be found in the centres Amazon has opened. The main focus of Passage is the social function that malls used to perform which is losing itself.

Option C is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 14

*This year alone, more than 8,600 stores could close, according to industry estimates, many of them the brand- name anchor outlets that real estate developers once stumbled over themselves to court. Already there have been 5,300 retail closings this year...Sears Holdings—which owns Kmart—said in March that there's "substantial doubt" it can stay in business altogether, and will close 300 stores this year. So far this year, nine national retail chains have filed for bankruptcy.*

*Local jobs are a major casualty of what analysts are calling, with only a hint of hyperbole, the retail apocalypse. Since 2002, department stores have lost 448,000 jobs, a 25% decline, while the number of store closures this year is on pace to surpass the worst depths of the Great Recession. The growth of online retailers, meanwhile, has failed to offset those losses, with the e-commerce sector adding just 178,000 jobs over the past 15 years. Some of those jobs can be found in the massive distribution centers Amazon has opened across the country, often not too far from malls the company helped shutter.*

*But those are workplaces, not gathering places. The mall is both. And in the 61 years since the first enclosed one opened in suburban Minneapolis, the shopping mall has been where a huge swath of middle-class America went for far more than shopping. It was the home of first jobs and blind dates, the place for family photos and ear piercings, where goths and grandmothers could somehow walk through the same doors and find something they all liked. Sure, the food was lousy for you and the oceans of parking lots encouraged car- heavy development, something now scorned by contemporary planners. But for better or worse, the mall has been America's public square for the last 60 years.*

*So what happens when it disappears?*

*Think of your mall. Or think of the one you went to as a kid. Think of the perfume clouds in the department stores. The fountains splashing below the skylights. The cinnamon wafting from the food court. As far back as ancient Greece, societies have congregated around a central marketplace. In medieval Europe, they were outside cathedrals. For half of the 20th century and almost 20 years into the new one, much of America has found their agora on the terrazzo between Orange Julius and Sbarro, Waldenbooks and the Gap, Sunglass Hut and Hot Topic.*

*That mall was an ecosystem unto itself, a combination of community and commercialism peddling everything you needed and everything you didn't: Magic Eye posters, wind catchers, Air Jordans. ...*

*A growing number of Americans, however, don't see the need to go to any Macy's at all. Our digital lives are frictionless and ruthlessly efficient, with retail and romance available at a click. Malls were designed for leisure, abundance, ambling. You parked and planned to spend some time. Today, much of that time has been given over to busier lives and second jobs and apps that let you swipe right instead of haunt the food court. Malls, says Harvard business professor Leonard Schlesinger, "were built for patterns of social interaction that increasingly don't exist."*

**Q.**

**Why does the author say in paragraph 2, 'the massive distribution centers Amazon has opened across the country, often not too far from malls the company helped shutter'?**

Solution:

Through this statement of paragraph 2, author clearly states the irony of the situation. While the malls are shutting down, Amazon is opening its distribution centres near to the malls.

Option A is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 15

*This year alone, more than 8,600 stores could close, according to industry estimates, many of them the brand- name anchor outlets that real estate developers once stumbled over themselves to court. Already there have been 5,300 retail closings this year...Sears Holdings—which owns Kmart—said in March that there's "substantial doubt" it can stay in business altogether, and will close 300 stores this year. So far this year, nine national retail chains have filed for bankruptcy.*

*Local jobs are a major casualty of what analysts are calling, with only a hint of hyperbole, the retail apocalypse. Since 2002, department stores have lost 448,000 jobs, a 25% decline, while the number of store closures this year is on pace to surpass the worst depths of the Great Recession. The growth of online retailers, meanwhile, has failed to offset those losses, with the e-commerce sector adding just 178,000 jobs over the past 15 years. Some of those jobs can be found in the massive distribution centers Amazon has opened across the country, often not too far from malls the company helped shutter.*

*But those are workplaces, not gathering places. The mall is both. And in the 61 years since the first enclosed one opened in suburban Minneapolis, the shopping mall has been where a huge swath of middle-class America went for far more than shopping. It was the home of first jobs and blind dates, the place for family photos and ear piercings, where goths and grandmothers could somehow walk through the same doors and find something they all liked. Sure, the food was lousy for you and the oceans of parking lots encouraged car- heavy development, something now scorned by contemporary planners. But for better or worse, the mall has been America's public square for the last 60 years.*

*So what happens when it disappears?*

*Think of your mall. Or think of the one you went to as a kid. Think of the perfume clouds in the department stores. The fountains splashing below the skylights. The cinnamon wafting from the food court. As far back as ancient Greece, societies have congregated around a central marketplace. In medieval Europe, they were outside cathedrals. For half of the 20th century and almost 20 years into the new one, much of America has found their agora on the terrazzo between Orange Julius and Sbarro, Waldenbooks and the Gap, Sunglass Hut and Hot Topic.*

*That mall was an ecosystem unto itself, a combination of community and commercialism peddling everything you needed and everything you didn't: Magic Eye posters, wind catchers, Air Jordans. ...*

*A growing number of Americans, however, don't see the need to go to any Macy's at all. Our digital lives are frictionless and ruthlessly efficient, with retail and romance available at a click. Malls were designed for leisure, abundance, ambling. You parked and planned to spend some time. Today, much of that time has been given over to busier lives and second jobs and apps that let you swipe right instead of haunt the food court. Malls, says Harvard business professor Leonard Schlesinger, "were built for patterns of social interaction that increasingly don't exist."*

**Q.**

**In paragraph 1, the phrase "real estate developers once stumbled over themselves to court" suggests that they**

Solution:

After going through the Passage, we can infer that now that people prefer online shopping over going to malls, real estate developers have stopped fighting over brand – name anchor outlets.

Option (B) is the right answer.

QUESTION: 16

*So what happens when it disappears?*

**Q.**

**The author calls the mall an ecosystem unto itself because Options :**

Solution:

From paragraph 3, we can see that along with being a commercial place, malls were also a gathering place. People from all sections of the society could come and enjoy themselves.

Option (C) is the right answer.

QUESTION: 17

*So what happens when it disappears?*

**Q.**

**Why does the author say that the mall has been America's public square?**

Solution:

Malls were not just a place for shopping, but they were also a place for people to just gather and interact as can be seen from paragraph 3.

QUESTION: 18

*So what happens when it disappears?*

**Q.**

**The author describes 'Perfume clouds in the department stores' in order to**

Solution:

In paragraph 5, the author is reminding people of the time when they were a kid and used to go to the mall by mentioning the smells.

Option (A) is the right answer.

QUESTION: 19

*Scientists have long recognised the incredible diversity within a species. But they thought it reflected evolutionary changes that unfolded imperceptibly, over millions of years. That divergence between populations within a species was enforced, according to Ernst Mayr, the great evolutionary biologist of the 1940s, when a population was separated from the rest of the species by a mountain range or a desert, preventing breeding across the divide over geologic scales of time. Without the separation, gene flow was relentless. But as the separation persisted, the isolated population grew apart and speciation occurred.*

*In the mid-1960s, the biologist Paul Ehrlich - author of The Population Bomb (1968) - and his Stanford University colleague Peter Raven challenged Mayr's ideas about speciation. They had studied checkerspot butterflies living in the Jasper Ridge Biological Preserve in California, and it soon became clear that they were not examining a single population. Through years of capturing, marking and then recapturing the butterflies, they were able to prove that within the population, spread over just BO acres of suitable checkerspot habitat, there were three groups that rarely interacted despite their very close proximity.*

*Among other ideas, Ehrlich and Raven argued in a now classic paper from 1969 that gene flow was not as predictable and ubiquitous as Mayr and his cohort maintained, and thus evolutionary divergence between neighbouring groups in a population was probably common. They also asserted that isolation and gene flow were less important to evolutionary divergence than natural selection (when factors such as mate choice, weather, disease or predation cause better-adapted individuals to survive and pass on their successful genetic traits). For example, Ehrlich and Raven suggested that, without the force of natural selection, an isolated population would remain unchanged and that, in other scenarios, natural selection could be strong enough to overpower gene flow...*

**Q.**

**Which of the following best sums up Ehrlich and Raven's argument in their classic 1969 paper?**

Solution:

Acc to Ernst Mayr in paragraph 1, there is no gene flow when species are separated from other species. In paragraph 2, Ehrlich and Raven found out that in 50 acres of area there were 3 species of butterflies that never interacted with each other. This led them put forth the argument in 1969 paper that, while a factor, Isolation was not as important to speciation as natural selection.

Option (C) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 20

*Scientists have long recognised the incredible diversity within a species. But they thought it reflected evolutionary changes that unfolded imperceptibly, over millions of years. That divergence between populations within a species was enforced, according to Ernst Mayr, the great evolutionary biologist of the 1940s, when a population was separated from the rest of the species by a mountain range or a desert, preventing breeding across the divide over geologic scales of time. Without the separation, gene flow was relentless. But as the separation persisted, the isolated population grew apart and speciation occurred.*

*In the mid-1960s, the biologist Paul Ehrlich - author of The Population Bomb (1968) - and his Stanford University colleague Peter Raven challenged Mayr's ideas about speciation. They had studied checkerspot butterflies living in the Jasper Ridge Biological Preserve in California, and it soon became clear that they were not examining a single population. Through years of capturing, marking and then recapturing the butterflies, they were able to prove that within the population, spread over just BO acres of suitable checkerspot habitat, there were three groups that rarely interacted despite their very close proximity.*

*Among other ideas, Ehrlich and Raven argued in a now classic paper from 1969 that gene flow was not as predictable and ubiquitous as Mayr and his cohort maintained, and thus evolutionary divergence between neighbouring groups in a population was probably common. They also asserted that isolation and gene flow were less important to evolutionary divergence than natural selection (when factors such as mate choice, weather, disease or predation cause better-adapted individuals to survive and pass on their successful genetic traits). For example, Ehrlich and Raven suggested that, without the force of natural selection, an isolated population would remain unchanged and that, in other scenarios, natural selection could be strong enough to overpower gene flow...*

**Q.**

**All of the following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT**

Solution:

In paragraph 3, it is said that “isolation and gene flow were less important to evolutionary divergence. So, gene flow does contribute to evolutionary divergence.

In the first line of paragraph 1, we can see that “evolutionary changes unfold imperceptibly, over millions of years”.

In the second paragraph, we can see that even though three species of Checkerspot butterflies were living within 50 acres, they did not interact with each other which led to speciation.

Option (B) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 21

*Scientists have long recognised the incredible diversity within a species. But they thought it reflected evolutionary changes that unfolded imperceptibly, over millions of years. That divergence between populations within a species was enforced, according to Ernst Mayr, the great evolutionary biologist of the 1940s, when a population was separated from the rest of the species by a mountain range or a desert, preventing breeding across the divide over geologic scales of time. Without the separation, gene flow was relentless. But as the separation persisted, the isolated population grew apart and speciation occurred.*

*In the mid-1960s, the biologist Paul Ehrlich - author of The Population Bomb (1968) - and his Stanford University colleague Peter Raven challenged Mayr's ideas about speciation. They had studied checkerspot butterflies living in the Jasper Ridge Biological Preserve in California, and it soon became clear that they were not examining a single population. Through years of capturing, marking and then recapturing the butterflies, they were able to prove that within the population, spread over just BO acres of suitable checkerspot habitat, there were three groups that rarely interacted despite their very close proximity.*

*Among other ideas, Ehrlich and Raven argued in a now classic paper from 1969 that gene flow was not as predictable and ubiquitous as Mayr and his cohort maintained, and thus evolutionary divergence between neighbouring groups in a population was probably common. They also asserted that isolation and gene flow were less important to evolutionary divergence than natural selection (when factors such as mate choice, weather, disease or predation cause better-adapted individuals to survive and pass on their successful genetic traits). For example, Ehrlich and Raven suggested that, without the force of natural selection, an isolated population would remain unchanged and that, in other scenarios, natural selection could be strong enough to overpower gene flow...*

**Q.**

**The author discusses Mayr, Ehrlich and Raven to demonstrate that Options **

Solution:

The scientists are in debate with each other over the fact the fact that speciation occurs when species are isolated from each other. Mayr concluded in the first paragraph that when populations are isolated, speciation occurs. But Ehrlich and Raven observe that even though Checkerspot butterflies lived in close proximity, they did not interact with each other. This leads to a debate between the scientists.

Option (C) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 22

*Do sports mega events like the summer Olympic Games benefit the host city economically? It depends, but the prospects are less than rosy. The trick is converting...several billion dollars in operating costs during the 17- day fiesta of the Games into a basis for long-term economic returns. These days, the summer Olympic Games themselves generate total revenue of $4 billion to $5 billion, but the lion's share of this goes to the International Olympics Committee, the National Olympics Committees and the International Sports Federations. Any economic benefit would have to flow from the value of the Games as an advertisement for the city, the new transportation and communications infrastructure that was created for the Games, or the ongoing use of the new facilities.*

*Evidence suggests that the advertising effect is far from certain. The infrastructure benefit depends on the initial condition of the city and the effectiveness of the planning. The facilities benefit is dubious at best for buildings such as velodromes or natatoriums and problematic for 100,000-seat Olympic stadiums. The latter require a conversion plan for future use, the former are usually doomed to near vacancy. Hosting the summer Games generally requires 30-plus sports venues and dozens of training centers. Today, the Bird's Nest in Beijing sits virtually empty, while the Olympic Stadium in Sydney costs some $30 million a year to operate.*

*Part of the problem is that Olympics planning takes place in a frenzied and time-pressured atmosphere of intense competition with the other prospective host cities — not optimal conditions for contemplating the future shape of an urban landscape. Another part of the problem is that urban land is generally scarce and growing scarcer. The new facilities often stand for decades or longer. Even if they have future use, are they the best use of precious urban real estate?*

*Further, cities must consider the human cost. Residential areas often are razed and citizens relocated (without adequate preparation or compensation). Life is made more hectic and congested. There are, after all, other productive uses that can be made of vanishing fiscal resources.*

**Q.**

**The central point in the first paragraph is that the economic benefits of the Olympic Games**

Solution:

As we can get from the Passage, a lion’s amount of revenue goes to the three committees, only advertisements generate some revenue for the host city which are dubious. So, if at all there is a benefit, it will only be in the long term.

Option (C) is the right answer.

QUESTION: 23

*Do sports mega events like the summer Olympic Games benefit the host city economically? It depends, but the prospects are less than rosy. The trick is converting...several billion dollars in operating costs during the 17- day fiesta of the Games into a basis for long-term economic returns. These days, the summer Olympic Games themselves generate total revenue of $4 billion to $5 billion, but the lion's share of this goes to the International Olympics Committee, the National Olympics Committees and the International Sports Federations. Any economic benefit would have to flow from the value of the Games as an advertisement for the city, the new transportation and communications infrastructure that was created for the Games, or the ongoing use of the new facilities.*

*Evidence suggests that the advertising effect is far from certain. The infrastructure benefit depends on the initial condition of the city and the effectiveness of the planning. The facilities benefit is dubious at best for buildings such as velodromes or natatoriums and problematic for 100,000-seat Olympic stadiums. The latter require a conversion plan for future use, the former are usually doomed to near vacancy. Hosting the summer Games generally requires 30-plus sports venues and dozens of training centers. Today, the Bird's Nest in Beijing sits virtually empty, while the Olympic Stadium in Sydney costs some $30 million a year to operate.*

*Part of the problem is that Olympics planning takes place in a frenzied and time-pressured atmosphere of intense competition with the other prospective host cities — not optimal conditions for contemplating the future shape of an urban landscape. Another part of the problem is that urban land is generally scarce and growing scarcer. The new facilities often stand for decades or longer. Even if they have future use, are they the best use of precious urban real estate?*

*Further, cities must consider the human cost. Residential areas often are razed and citizens relocated (without adequate preparation or compensation). Life is made more hectic and congested. There are, after all, other productive uses that can be made of vanishing fiscal resources.*

**Q.**

**Sports facilities built for the Olympics are not fully utilised after the Games are over because Options :**

Solution:

From paragraph 2, we can see that maintaining these huge stadiums takes up a lot of investment. Stadium is Beijing (Bird’s Nest) is empty and Olympic stadium in Sydney costs $30 mn a year to operate.

Option (A) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 24

*Do sports mega events like the summer Olympic Games benefit the host city economically? It depends, but the prospects are less than rosy. The trick is converting...several billion dollars in operating costs during the 17- day fiesta of the Games into a basis for long-term economic returns. These days, the summer Olympic Games themselves generate total revenue of $4 billion to $5 billion, but the lion's share of this goes to the International Olympics Committee, the National Olympics Committees and the International Sports Federations. Any economic benefit would have to flow from the value of the Games as an advertisement for the city, the new transportation and communications infrastructure that was created for the Games, or the ongoing use of the new facilities.*

*Evidence suggests that the advertising effect is far from certain. The infrastructure benefit depends on the initial condition of the city and the effectiveness of the planning. The facilities benefit is dubious at best for buildings such as velodromes or natatoriums and problematic for 100,000-seat Olympic stadiums. The latter require a conversion plan for future use, the former are usually doomed to near vacancy. Hosting the summer Games generally requires 30-plus sports venues and dozens of training centers. Today, the Bird's Nest in Beijing sits virtually empty, while the Olympic Stadium in Sydney costs some $30 million a year to operate.*

*Part of the problem is that Olympics planning takes place in a frenzied and time-pressured atmosphere of intense competition with the other prospective host cities — not optimal conditions for contemplating the future shape of an urban landscape. Another part of the problem is that urban land is generally scarce and growing scarcer. The new facilities often stand for decades or longer. Even if they have future use, are they the best use of precious urban real estate?*

*Further, cities must consider the human cost. Residential areas often are razed and citizens relocated (without adequate preparation or compensation). Life is made more hectic and congested. There are, after all, other productive uses that can be made of vanishing fiscal resources.*

*Q.*

**The author feels that the Games place a burden on the host city for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that Options :**

Solution:

From paragraphs 3 and 4, we can see that the land is scarce, citizens have to be relocated and the already vanishing fiscal resources could be put to better use.

Option D is not mentioned as a problem. It is the right answer.

QUESTION: 25

**The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author's position.**

*To me, a "classic" means precisely the opposite of what my predecessors understood: a work is classical by reason of its resistance to contemporaneity and supposed universality, by reason of its capacity to indicate human particularity and difference in that past epoch. The classic is not what tells me about shared humanity—or, more truthfully put, what lets me recognize myself as already present in the past, what nourishes in me the illusion that everything has been like me and has existed only to prepare the way for me. Instead, the classic is what gives access to radically different forms of human consciousness for any given generation of readers, and thereby expands for them the range of possibilities of what it means to be a human being.*

**Options :**

Solution:

After reading the above passage, we can infer that Classic means exploring the possibilities of human consciousness.

Option A talks exactly the opposite.

Option B also does not summarize properly as it talks about common humanity

Option D is also exactly opposite

Option C is the right answer.

QUESTION: 26

**The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author's position.**

*A translator of literary works needs a secure hold upon the two languages involved, supported by a good measure of familiarity with the two cultures. For an Indian translating works in an Indian language into English, finding satisfactory equivalents in a generalized western culture of practices and symbols in the original would be less difficult than gaming fluent control of contemporary English. When a westerner works on texts in Indian languages the interpretation of cultural elements will be the major challenge, rather than control over the grammar and essential vocabulary of the language concerned. It is much easier to remedy lapses in language in a text translated into English, than flaws of content. Since it is easier for an Indian to learn the English language than it is for a Briton or American to comprehend Indian culture, translations of Indian texts is better left to Indians.*

**Options :**

Solution:

In the above passage, we can infer that, it is difficult for Indians to understand the culture of Westerners and for Westerners to understand the Indian culture. So, when translating it is better Indian translators should translate Indian texts into English as there will be less cultural problems. Language problems are easy to correct but it is very difficult to correct cultural mistakes.

Option C is the right answer.

QUESTION: 27

**The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the author's position.**

*For each of the past three years, temperatures have hit peaks not seen since the birth of meteorology, and probably not for more than 110,000 years. The amount of carbon dioxide in the air is at its highest level in 4 million years. This does not cause storms like Harvey - there have always been storms and hurricanes along the Gulf of Mexico - but it makes them wetter and more powerful. As the seas warm, they evaporate more easily and provide energy to storm fronts. As the air above them warms, it holds more water vapour. For every half a degree Celsius in warming, there is about a 3% increase in atmospheric moisture content. Scientists call this the Clausius-Clapeyron equation. This means the skies fill more quickly and have more to dump. The storm surge was greater because sea levels have risen 20 cm as a result of more than 100 years of human- related global warming which has melted glaciers and thermally expanded the volume of seawater.*

**Options :**

Solution:

In the above passage, we can infer that the author is talking about how Global Warming makes the storms stronger.

Statement C covers all the points as to why the storms are getting stronger.

QUESTION: 28

**The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, forma coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.**

1. The process of handing down implies not a passive transfer, but some contestation in defining what exactly is to be handed down.

2. Wherever Western scholars have worked on the Indian past, the selection is even more apparent and the inventing of a tradition much more recognisable.

3. Every generation selects what it requires from the past and makes its innovations, some more than others.

4. It is now a truism to say that traditions are not handed down unchanged, but are invented. Just as life has death as its opposite, so is tradition by default the opposite of innovation

5. Just as life has death as its opposite, so is tradition by default the opposite of innovation

Solution:

After reading all the statements from Parajumble, we can infer that,

Statement 5 has to be the beginning of the passage as it introduces the terms traditions and innovation and gives a proper analogy.

Statement 4 states that it is very obvious that traditions are invented.

Statement 1 and 3 say how invention happens from generation to generation.

Statement 2 talks about Western scholars who have worked on the Indian past and they have found similar analogies and is a proper way of concluding.

54132 is the right answer.

QUESTION: 29

**The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, forma coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.**

*1. Scientists have for the first time managed to edit genes in a human embryo to repair a genetic mutation, fuelling hopes that such procedures may one day be available outside laboratory conditions.*

*2. The cardiac disease causes sudden death in otherwise healthy young athletes and affects about one in 500 people overall.*

*3. Correcting the mutation in the gene would not only ensure that the child is healthy but also prevents transmission of the mutation to future generations.*

*4. It is caused by a mutation in a particular gene and a child will suffer from the condition even if it inherits only one copy of the mutated gene.*

*5. In results announced in Nature this week, scientists fixed a mutation that thickens the heart muscle, a condition called hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.*

Solution:

After reading all the statements from Parajumble, we can infer that,

Statement 1 sets a premise for talking about genetic mutation.

Statement 5 tells how scientists have fixed a genetic mutation.

Statements 2 and 4 talk about the disease and how it is caused.

Statement 3 tells how correcting the gene will help.

15243 is the right answer.

QUESTION: 30

**The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) given in this question, when properly sequenced, forma coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the proper order for the sentences and key in this sequence of five numbers as your answer.**

*1. The study suggests that the disease did not spread with such intensity, but that it may have driven human migrations across Europe and Asia.*

*2. The oldest sample came from an individual who lived in southeast Russia about 5,000 years ago.*

*3. The ages of the skeletons correspond to a time of mass exodus from today's Russia and Ukraine into western Europe and central Asia, suggesting that a pandemic could have driven these migrations.*

*4. In the analysis of fragments of DNA from 101 Bronze Age skeletons for sequences from Yersinia pestis, the bacterium that causes the disease, seven tested positive.*

*5. DNA from Bronze Age human skeletons indicate that the black plague could have emerged as early as 3,000 BCE, long before the epidemic that swept through Europe in the mid-1300s.*

Solution:

After reading all the statements from Parajumble, we can infer that,

Statement 5 introduces the disease “Black Plague”.

Statement 4 furthers this discussion.

Statements 1, 2 and 3 tell us how the disease must have spread to Europe and Asia.

54123 is the right answer.

QUESTION: 31

*1. This visual turn in social media has merely accentuated this announcing instinct of ours, enabling us with easy-to-create, easy-to-share, easy-to-store and easy-to-consume platforms, gadgets and apps.*

*2. There is absolutely nothing new about us framing the vision of who we are or what we want, visually or otherwise, in our Facebook page, for example.*

*3. Turning the pages of most family albums, which belong to a period well before the digital dissemination of self-created and self-curated moments and images, would reconfirm the basic instinct of documenting our presence in a particular space, on a significant occasion, with others who matter.*

*4. We are empowered to book our faces and act as celebrities within the confinement of our respective friend lists, and communicate our activities, companionship and locations with minimal clicks and touches.*

*5. What is unprecedented is not the desire to put out newsfeeds related to the self, but the ease with which this broadcast operation can now be executed, often provoking (un)anticipated responses from beyond one's immediate location.*

Solution:

After reading all the statements from Parajumble, we can infer that,

Statement 1 gives the introduction about the basic instincts that humans have always had to make their presence felt.

Statement 2 sets a premise for Statement 1 by mentioning Facebook.

Statement 1 talks about how visual media has accentuated the basic instinct of ours furthered by Statement 4.

Statement 5 is the conclusion worrying about the consequences of this trend.

32145 is the right answer.

QUESTION: 32

**Five sentences related to a topic are given Pelow. Four of them can Pe put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.**

*1. People who study children's langage spend a lot of time watching how babies react to the speech they hear around them.*

*2. They make films of adults and babies interacting, and examine them very carefully to see whether the babies show any signs of understanding what the adults say.*

*3. They believe that babies begin to react to language from the very moment they are born.*

*4. Sometimes the signs are very subtle - slight movements of the baby's eyes or the head or the hands.*

*5. You'd never notice them if you were just sitting with the child, but by watching a recording over and over, you can spot them*

Solution:

After reading all the statements, we can infer that,

Statements 1, 2, 4 and 5 talk about how people study children’s language.

Statement 3 goes off the track by saying that babies can understand language.

QUESTION: 33

**Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.**

*1. Neuroscientists have just begun studying exercise's impact within brain cells — on the genes themselves.*

*2. Even there, in the roots of our biology, they've found signs of the body's influence on the mind.*

*3. It turns out that moving our muscles produces proteins that travel through the bloodstream and into the brain, where they play pivotal roles in the mechanisms of our highest thought processes.*

*4. In today's technology-driven, plasma-screened-in world, it's easy to forget that we are born movers — animals, in fact — because we've engineered movement right out of our lives.*

*5. It's only in the past few years that neuroscientists have begun to describe these factors and how they work, and each new discovery adds awe-inspiring depth to the picture.*

Solution:

After reading all the statements, we can infer that,

Statements 1, 2, 3 and 5 talk about how exercising impacts brain cells.

Statement 4 goes off the track by saying that we have forgotten that we are born movers.

Statement 4 is the odd one out.

QUESTION: 34

**Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out.**

*1. The water that made up ancient lakes and perhaps an ocean was lost.*

*2. Particles from the Sun collided with molecules in the atmosphere, knocking them into space or giving them an electric charge that caused them to be swept away by the solar wind.*

*3. Most of the planet's remaining water is now frozen or buried, but clues over the past decade suggested that some liquid water, a presumed necessity for life, might survive in underground aquifers.*

*4. Data from NASA's MAVEN orbiter show that solar storms stripped away most of Mars's once-thick atmosphere.*

*5. A recent study reveals how Mars lost much of its early water, while another indicates that some liquid water remains.*

Solution:

After reading all the statements, we can infer that,

Statements 2, 3, 4 and 5 talk about water on Mars.

Option 1 is the odd one out.

QUESTION: 35

Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. The preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fires at a time and takes 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore the time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.

Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any order are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.

**The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders;**

**Q.**

**Assume that only one client's order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while a previous order is being prepared.**

**At what time is the order placed by Client 1 completely served?**

Solution:

We can see that, the order of Client 1 has 1 burger, 3 portions of fries and one ice cream

Start the fries (They will take 5 mins). While the fries are in progress, one of them can make Ice Cream (2 mins) and another can start on Burger. After 5 mins are over, Burger still needs 5 minutes more. So, the order will be prepared in 5 + 5 = 10 mins in total. So, the order will be served at 10:10.

QUESTION: 36

*Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. The preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fires at a time and takes 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore the time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.
Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any order are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.
The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders;*

**Q.**

**Assume that only one client's order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while a previous order is being prepared.**

**At what time is the order placed by Client 3 completely served?**

Solution:

We can see that, the order for client 1 got completed at 10:10.

The order for client will start at 10:10. Fries will take 5 mins and while the fries are getting prepared, Ice cream can be prepared by one of them. So, in total it will take 5 mins to process the order for Client 2.

We will start the order for Client 3 at 10:15. We will start with the fries first, while the fries are being prepared, one of them can start with Burger. Burger takes 10 mins, so after the fries are prepared, it will take additional 5 mins for the burger to get prepared. So, in total in total it will take 10 mins for the processing of the order of Client 3.

By 10:25, order of Client 3 will be prepared.

QUESTION: 37

Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. The preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fires at a time and takes 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore the time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.

Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any order are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.

**The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders;**

**Q.**

**Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier.**

**At what time is the order placed by Client 2 completely served?**

Solution:

The order for Client 2 will be served by 10:10. Even, Client 1 will get its order by 10:10 (because of burger)

QUESTION: 38

Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. The preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fires at a time and takes 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore the time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.

Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any order are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.

**The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders;**

**Q.**

**Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier.**

**Also assume that the fourth client came in only at 10:35. Between 10:00 and 10:30, for how many minutes is exactly one of the employees idle?**

Solution:

As per the timeline, one person will be idle during 2-5, 10-15 and 15-17.

So, 3+5+2 = 10 minutes.

Exactly one person will be idle for 10 minutes.

QUESTION: 39

*A study to look at the early teaming of rural kids was carried out in a number of villages spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year-old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W arid 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed feds 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out- of school before completing primary education:*

** **

*It is also known that:
1. In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were m G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2. In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3. The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.*

**Q. What percentage of kids from S were studying in P?**

Solution:

Number of students from NE = 50*150 = 7500

Number of students from W = 50*250 = 12500

Number of students from S = 50*200 = 10000

55% are in G = 16500

37% are in P = 11100

8% did not go to school (O) = 2400

Total students in S = 10000

Students from S studying in P = 300 + 3400

= 3700

% = (3700/10000)*100

= 37%

Option (A) is the right answer

QUESTION: 40

*A study to look at the early teaming of rural kids was carried out in a number of villages spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year-old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W arid 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed feds 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out- of school before completing primary education:*

** **

*It is also known that:
1. In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were m G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2. In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3. The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.*

**Q.**

**Among the kids in W whose mothers had completed primary education, how many were not in school? Options :**

Solution:

Number of students from NE = 50*150 = 7500

Number of students from W = 50*250 = 12500

Number of students from S = 50*200 = 10000

55% are in G = 16500

37% are in P = 11100

8% did not go to school (O) = 2400

For W,

Kids whose mothers had completed primary education were not in school = 300

Option (A) is the right answer.

QUESTION: 41

*A study to look at the early teaming of rural kids was carried out in a number of villages spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year-old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W arid 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed feds 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out- of school before completing primary education:*

** **

*It is also known that:
1. In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were m G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2. In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3. The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.*

**Q.**

**In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.**

**What number of the surveyed kids now were in G in W?**

Solution:

Number of students from NE = 50*150 = 7500

Number of students from W = 50*250 = 12500

Number of students from S = 50*200 = 10000

55% are in G = 16500

37% are in P = 11100

8% did not go to school (O) = 2400

Initially, there were 2400 students who were not in school

Now, 1200 of them are in G

The only possibility is 50% of students in W

25% of students in NE

100% of students in S who were not going to school shifted to G.

So, 50% of W = (50/100)*1500 = 750

25% of NE = (25/100)*600 = 150

100% of S = (100/100)*300 = 300

Total = 1200

So, 4200 + 1050 + 750 = 6000 surveyed students were in G in W

Option (A) is the right answer.

QUESTION: 42

The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different types of schools for mothers who dropped out- of school before completing primary education:

** **

1. In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were m G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.

2. In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.

3. The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.

**Q.**

**In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.**

**What percentage of the surveyed kids in S, whose mothers had dropped out before completing primary education, were in G now?**

**Options :**

Solution:

Number of students from W = 50*250 = 12500

Number of students from S = 50*200 = 10000

55% are in G = 16500

37% are in P = 11100

8% did not go to school (O) = 2400

300 students who were not going to school have now shifted to G.

Of the 5700 students whose mothers had dropped out in the S region, 5400 are in G.

The required percentage = (5400/5700)*100 = 94.7%

Option (A) is the right answer.

QUESTION: 43

*Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection.*

*For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET:*

*1. No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.*

*2.150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.*

*3. The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M.*

*4. Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C:*

*Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.*

*BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.*

**Q.**

**What best can be concluded about the number of candidates sitting for the separate test for BIE who were at or above the 90th percentile overall in GET?**

Solution:

We can see that, 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in CET. Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in CET in each of the three sections:

From 1, h = 0.

From 2, d + e + f = 150

From 3, a = b = c

We know, there are a total of 200 candidates,

3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50

From 4, (2a + f) : (2a + e) : (2a + d) = 4 : 2 : 1

So, 6a + (d + e + f) is divisible by 4 + 2 + 1 = 7.

Now, since d + e + f = 150, 6a + 150 is divisible by 7, i.e.,

(6a + 3) is divisible by 7.

Hence, a = 3, 10, 17,. . .

Further, since 3a + g = 50, a < 17. Hence, only two values are possible for a, 3 or 10. We can calculate the values of the other variables for the two cases. a = 3 or 10 d = 18 or 10 e = 42 or 40 f = 90 or 100 g = 41 or 20 From the candidates who are at or above 90th percentile, the candidates who are at or above 80th percentile in at least two sections are selected for AET. Hence, the candidates represented by d, e, f and g are selected for AET. BIE will consider the candidates who are appearing for AET and are at or above 80th percentile in P. Hence, BIE will consider the candidates represented by d, e and g, which can be 104 or 80. BIE will conduct a separate test for the other students who are at or above 80th percentile in P. Given that there are a total of 400 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P, and since there are 104 or 80 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P and are at or above 90th percentile overall, there must be 296 or 320 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th percentile overall.

The number of candidates sitting for separate test for BIE who were at or above 90th percentile in CET is either 3 or 10.

Option (A)

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 44

*Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection.*

*For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET:*

*1. No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.*

*2. 150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.*

*3. The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M.*

*4. Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C:*

*Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.*

*BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.*

**Q.**

**If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 8Oth percentile in all three sections in GET is actually a multiple of 5, what is the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and at or above the 80th percentile in both P and M in GET?**

Solution:

We can see that, 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in CET. Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in CET in each of the three sections:

From 1, h = 0.

From 2, d + e + f = 150

From 3, a = b = c

We know, there are a total of 200 candidates,

3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50

From 4, (2a + f) : (2a + e) : (2a + d) = 4 : 2 : 1

So, 6a + (d + e + f) is divisible by 4 + 2 + 1 = 7.

Now, since d + e + f = 150, 6a + 150 is divisible by 7, i.e.,

(6a + 3) is divisible by 7.

Hence, a = 3, 10, 17,. . .

Further, since 3a + g = 50, a < 17. Hence, only two values are possible for a, 3 or 10. We can calculate the values of the other variables for the two cases. a = 3 or 10 d = 18 or 10 e = 42 or 40 f = 90 or 100 g = 41 or 20 From the candidates who are at or above 90th percentile, the candidates who are at or above 80th percentile in at least two sections are selected for AET. Hence, the candidates represented by d, e, f and g are selected for AET. BIE will consider the candidates who are appearing for AET and are at or above 80th percentile in P. Hence, BIE will consider the candidates represented by d, e and g, which can be 104 or 80. BIE will conduct a separate test for the other students who are at or above 80th percentile in P. Given that there are a total of 400 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P, and since there are 104 or 80 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P and are at or above 90th percentile overall, there must be 296 or 320 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th percentile overall.

As per the given condition, g = 5k. Hence, g = 20. The number of candidates at or above 90th percentile overall and at or above 80th percentile in both P and M = e + g = 60.

Answer: 60

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 45

*Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection.*

*For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET:*

*1. No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.*

*2. 150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.*

*3. The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M.*

*4. Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C:*

*Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.*

*BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.*

**Q. ****If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in GET is actually a multiple of 5, then how many candidates were shortlisted for the AET for AIE?**

Solution:

We can see that, 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in CET. Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in CET in each of the three sections:

From 1, h = 0.

From 2, d + e + f = 150

From 3, a = b = c

We know, there are a total of 200 candidates,

3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50

From 4, (2a + f) : (2a + e) : (2a + d) = 4 : 2 : 1

So, 6a + (d + e + f) is divisible by 4 + 2 + 1 = 7.

Now, since d + e + f = 150, 6a + 150 is divisible by 7, i.e.,

(6a + 3) is divisible by 7.

Hence, a = 3, 10, 17,. . .

Further, since 3a + g = 50, a < 17. Hence, only two values are possible for a, 3 or 10. We can calculate the values of the other variables for the two cases. a = 3 or 10 d = 18 or 10 e = 42 or 40 f = 90 or 100 g = 41 or 20 From the candidates who are at or above 90th percentile, the candidates who are at or above 80th percentile in at least two sections are selected for AET. Hence, the candidates represented by d, e, f and g are selected for AET. BIE will consider the candidates who are appearing for AET and are at or above 80th percentile in P. Hence, BIE will consider the candidates represented by d, e and g, which can be 104 or 80. BIE will conduct a separate test for the other students who are at or above 80th percentile in P. Given that there are a total of 400 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P, and since there are 104 or 80 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P and are at or above 90th percentile overall, there must be 296 or 320 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th percentile overall.

In this case, g = 20. Number of candidates shortlisted for AET = d + e + f + g = 10 + 40 + 100 + 20 = 170

Answer: 170

QUESTION: 46

1. No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.

2. 150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.

4. Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C:

Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.

**Q.**

**If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also are at or above the 80th percentile in P in GET, is more than 100, how many candidates had to sit for the separate test for BIE?**

Solution:
We can see that, 200 candidates scored above 90th percentile overall in CET. Let the following Venn diagram represent the number of persons who scored above 80 percentile in CET in each of the three sections:

From 2, d + e + f = 150

From 3, a = b = c

We know, there are a total of 200 candidates,

3a + g = 200 – 150 = 50

From 4, (2a + f) : (2a + e) : (2a + d) = 4 : 2 : 1

So, 6a + (d + e + f) is divisible by 4 + 2 + 1 = 7.

Now, since d + e + f = 150, 6a + 150 is divisible by 7, i.e.,

(6a + 3) is divisible by 7.

Hence, a = 3, 10, 17,. . .

Further, since 3a + g = 50, a < 17. Hence, only two values are possible for a, 3 or 10. We can calculate the values of the other variables for the two cases. a = 3 or 10 d = 18 or 10 e = 42 or 40 f = 90 or 100 g = 41 or 20 From the candidates who are at or above 90th percentile, the candidates who are at or above 80th percentile in at least two sections are selected for AET. Hence, the candidates represented by d, e, f and g are selected for AET. BIE will consider the candidates who are appearing for AET and are at or above 80th percentile in P. Hence, BIE will consider the candidates represented by d, e and g, which can be 104 or 80. BIE will conduct a separate test for the other students who are at or above 80th percentile in P. Given that there are a total of 400 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P, and since there are 104 or 80 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P and are at or above 90th percentile overall, there must be 296 or 320 candidates at or above 80th percentile in P who scored less than 90th percentile overall.

As per the given condition, the number of candidates at or above 90th percentile overall and at or above 80th percentile in P in CET = 104. The number of candidates who have to sit for separate test = 296 + 3 = 299

Option (A) is the right answer.

QUESTION: 47

*Simple Happiness index (SHI) of a country is computed or the basis of three parameters: social support {S)j freedom lo life chukes (F) and corruption perception (C). Eat hi ot these three parameters is measured on a scale of 0 to S (integers only). A country is then categorised based on the total score obtained hy summing the scores of all the three parameters, as shown in the following table.*

**Following diagram depicts the frequency distribution of the scores in S, l and (. of 10 countries - Amcta, Benga, Calld _{r} Delma, Eppjs, Varsa, W-jnna, Xandu, Tonga and Zooms:**

*Further, the following arc known:*

*Amda and Calls jointly have the lowest total score, 1, with identical scores in all the three parameters.**Zourna has a total score of 17.**All the 3 countr ies, which are categorised as happy, have the i highest score in exactly one parameter.*

**Q.**

**What is Amda's score in F?**

Solution:

As per the above table, we can see that the score of Amda in F is 1

QUESTION: 48

*Simple Happiness index (SHI) of a country is computed or the basis of three parameters: social support {S)j freedom lo life chukes (F) and corruption perception (C). Eat hi ot these three parameters is measured on a scale of 0 to S (integers only). A country is then categorised based on the total score obtained hy summing the scores of all the three parameters, as shown in the following table.*

*Following diagram depicts the frequency distribution of the scores in S, l and (. of 10 countries - Amcta, Benga, Calld _{r} Delma, Eppjs, Varsa, W-jnna, Xandu, Tonga and Zooms:*

*Further, the following arc known:*

*Amda and Calls jointly have the lowest total score, 1, with identical scores in all the three parameters.**Zourna has a total score of 17.**All the 3 countr ies, which are categorised as happy, have the i highest score in exactly one parameter.*

**Q.**

**What is Zooma's score in S?**

Solution:

As per the table, we can see that Zooma’s score in S is 6.

QUESTION: 49

*Simple Happiness index (SHI) of a country is computed or the basis of three parameters: social support {S)j freedom lo life chukes (F) and corruption perception (C). Eat hi ot these three parameters is measured on a scale of 0 to S (integers only). A country is then categorised based on the total score obtained hy summing the scores of all the three parameters, as shown in the following table.*

*Following diagram depicts the frequency distribution of the scores in S, l and (. of 10 countries - Amcta, Benga, Calld _{r} Delma, Eppjs, Varsa, W-jnna, Xandu, Tonga and Zooms:*

*Further, the following arc known:*

*Amda and Calls jointly have the lowest total score, 1, with identical scores in all the three parameters.**Zourna has a total score of 17.**All the 3 countr ies, which are categorised as happy, have the i highest score in exactly one parameter.*

**Q.**

**Benga and Delma, two countries categorised as happy, are tied with the same total score. What is the maximum score they can have?**

Solution:

Only two sets are possible, (7,5,3) and (5,4,6). So, the maximum score that can be attained by B and D is 15.

QUESTION: 50

_{r} Delma, Eppjs, Varsa, W-jnna, Xandu, Tonga and Zooms:

*Further, the following arc known:*

*Zourna has a total score of 17.*

**Q.**

**If Benga scores 16 and Delma scores 15, then what is the maximum number of countries with a score of 13?**

Solution:

If Benga scores 16, then the possibility is (S-5, F-5, C-6). For Delma, the possibility is (S- 7, F-5, C-3)

So, the only possibility for the score of 13 is (S-5, F-5, C-3)

QUESTION: 51

*There are 21 employees working in a division, out of whom 10 are special-skilled employees (SE) and the remaining are regular-skilled employees (RE). During the next five months, the division has to complete five projects every month. Out of the 25 projects, 5 projects are "challenging", while the remaining ones are "standard". Each of the challenging projects has to be completed in different months. Every month, five teams - Tl, T2, T3, T4 and T5, work on one project each. Tl, T2, T3, T4 and T5 are allotted the challenging project in the first, second, third, fourth and fifth month, respectively. The team assigned the challenging project has one more employee than the rest.*

*In the first month, T1 has one more SE than T2, T2 has one more SE than T3, T3 has one more SE than T4, and T 4 has one more SE than T5. Between two successive months, the composition of the teams changes as follows:*

*a. The team allotted the challenging project, gets two SE from the team which was allotted the challenging project in the previous month. In exchange, one RE is shifted from the former team to the latter team.*

*b. After the above exchange, if T1 has any SE and T5 has any RE, then one SE is shifted from T1 to T5, and one RE is shifted fromT5 to Tl. Also, if T2 has any SE and T4 has any RE, then one SE is shifted fromT2 to T4, and one RE is shifted from T4 to T2.*

*Each standard project has a total of 100 credit points, while each challenging project has 200 credit points. The credit points are equally shared between the employees included in that team.*

**Q.**

**The number of times in which the composition of team T2 and the number of times in which composition of team T 4 remained unchanged in two successive months are:**

Solution:

Number of Special Skilled Employees (SE) = 10

Number of Regular Skilled Employees (RE) = 11

The composition of T2 remains unchanged in T2 in 3rd and 4th months. The composition for T4 changes constantly.

Option (B)

QUESTION: 52

*There are 21 employees working in a division, out of whom 10 are special-skilled employees (SE) and the remaining are regular-skilled employees (RE). During the next five months, the division has to complete five projects every month. Out of the 25 projects, 5 projects are "challenging", while the remaining ones are "standard". Each of the challenging projects has to be completed in different months. Every month, five teams - Tl, T2, T3, T4 and T5, work on one project each. Tl, T2, T3, T4 and T5 are allotted the challenging project in the first, second, third, fourth and fifth month, respectively. The team assigned the challenging project has one more employee than the rest.*

*In the first month, T1 has one more SE than T2, T2 has one more SE than T3, T3 has one more SE than T4, and T 4 has one more SE than T5. Between two successive months, the composition of the teams changes as follows:*

*a. The team allotted the challenging project, gets two SE from the team which was allotted the challenging project in the previous month. In exchange, one RE is shifted from the former team to the latter team.*

*b. After the above exchange, if T1 has any SE and T5 has any RE, then one SE is shifted from T1 to T5, and one RE is shifted fromT5 to Tl. Also, if T2 has any SE and T4 has any RE, then one SE is shifted fromT2 to T4, and one RE is shifted from T4 to T2.*

*Each standard project has a total of 100 credit points, while each challenging project has 200 credit points. The credit points are equally shared between the employees included in that team.*

**Q.**

**The number of SE in T1 and T5 for the projects in the third month are, respectively:**

Solution:

Number of Special Skilled Employees (SE) = 10

Number of Regular Skilled Employees (RE) = 11

Number of SE in T1 in third month = 0

Number of SE in T5 in third month = 2

Option (A)

QUESTION: 53

*There are 21 employees working in a division, out of whom 10 are special-skilled employees (SE) and the remaining are regular-skilled employees (RE). During the next five months, the division has to complete five projects every month. Out of the 25 projects, 5 projects are "challenging", while the remaining ones are "standard". Each of the challenging projects has to be completed in different months. Every month, five teams - Tl, T2, T3, T4 and T5, work on one project each. Tl, T2, T3, T4 and T5 are allotted the challenging project in the first, second, third, fourth and fifth month, respectively. The team assigned the challenging project has one more employee than the rest.*

*In the first month, T1 has one more SE than T2, T2 has one more SE than T3, T3 has one more SE than T4, and T 4 has one more SE than T5. Between two successive months, the composition of the teams changes as follows:*

*a. The team allotted the challenging project, gets two SE from the team which was allotted the challenging project in the previous month. In exchange, one RE is shifted from the former team to the latter team.*

*b. After the above exchange, if T1 has any SE and T5 has any RE, then one SE is shifted from T1 to T5, and one RE is shifted fromT5 to Tl. Also, if T2 has any SE and T4 has any RE, then one SE is shifted fromT2 to T4, and one RE is shifted from T4 to T2.*

*Each standard project has a total of 100 credit points, while each challenging project has 200 credit points. The credit points are equally shared between the employees included in that team.*

**Q.**

**Which of the following CANNOT be the total credit points earned by any employee from the projects?**

Solution:

Number of Special Skilled Employees (SE) = 10

Number of Regular Skilled Employees (RE) = 11

Money one person earns in a Challenging Project = 200/5 = 40

Money one person earns in a Standard Project = 100/4 = 25

An employee can earn 140 when they work in one Challenging project and 4 Standard Projects = 40 + 25*4 = 140

An employee can earn 170 when they work in 3 Challenging Projects and 2 Standard Projects = 3*40 + 2*25 = 170

An employee can earn 200 when they work in 5 Challenging Projects = 5*40 = 200

So, option (B) does not seem possible

QUESTION: 54

**Q.**

**One of the employees named Aneek scored 183 points. Which of the following CANNOT be true?**

Solution:

Number of Special Skilled Employees (SE) = 10

Number of Regular Skilled Employees (RE) = 11

Since Aneek secured 185 credits, he has worked in four challenging projects and one standard project.

**Option A:** Aneek could have worked in T1 in 1st month (in challenging project), T2 in 2nd month (in challenging project), T3 in 3rd month (in challenging project), T4 in 4th month (in challenging project) and 5th month (in standard project). Hence, this is possible.

__Option B:__ Aneek could have worked in T1 in 1st month (in challenging project), T2 in 2nd month (in challenging project), T4 in 3rd month (in standard project), T4 in 4th month (in challenging project) and T5 in 5th month (in challenging project). Hence, this is possible.

__Option C:__ Aneek could have worked in T2 in 1st month (in standard project), T2 in 2nd month (in challenging project), T3 in 3rd month (in challenging project), T4 in 4th month (in challenging project) and T5 in 5th month (in challenging project). Hence, this is possible.

__Option D:__ Aneek could have worked in T1 in 1st month (in challenging project). He can work in T1 or T5 in the 2nd month. In either case, he cannot work in T3 without working in T2 first. If we assume, he worked in T3 in the 1st month, he could not have worked in four teams in the five months. Similarly, we can rule out the other possibilities. Hence, this is the answer.

Option (D) is the right answer.

QUESTION: 55

In a square layout of size 5m x 5m, 25 equal-sized square platforms of different heights are built. The height (in meters) of individual platforms are as shown below:

Individuals (all of same height) are seated of these platforms. we say an individual A can reach an individual B of all the three following conditions are met:

(i) A and B are in the same row or coloumn

(ii) A is at a lower height than B

(iii) if there is/are any individual(s) between A and B, such individual(s) must be at a height lower than that of A

thus in the table given above, consider the individual seaed at height 8 on 3rd tow and 2nd coloumn . He can reached by four individuals. He can be reached by the individual on his left at height 7, by the two individuals on his right at height of 4 and 6 and by the individual above at height 5.

Rows in the layout are numbered from top to bottom and coloumns are numbered from left to right.

**Q.**

**How many individuals in this layout can be reached by just one individual?**

Solution:

As per the table, we can see that 7 individuals can be reached by 7 people.

Option (C)

QUESTION: 56

In a square layout of size 5m x 5m, 25 equal-sized square platforms of different heights are built. The height (in meters) of individual platforms are as shown below:

Individuals (all of same height) are seated of these platforms. we say an individual A can reach an individual B of all the three following conditions are met:

(i) A and B are in the same row or coloumn

(ii) A is at a lower height than B

(iii) if there is/are any individual(s) between A and B, such individual(s) must be at a height lower than that of A

thus in the table given above, consider the individual seaed at height 8 on 3rd tow and 2nd coloumn . He can reached by four individuals. He can be reached by the individual on his left at height 7, by the two individuals on his right at height of 4 and 6 and by the individual above at height 5.

Rows in the layout are numbered from top to bottom and coloumns are numbered from left to right.

**Q.**

Which of the following is true for any individual at a platform of height 1 m in this layout ?

Solution:

As per the table, we can see that individuals of height 1mm cannot be reached by anyone.

Option (D)

QUESTION: 57

In a square layout of size 5m x 5m, 25 equal-sized square platforms of different heights are built. The height (in meters) of individual platforms are as shown below:

Individuals (all of same height) are seated of these platforms. we say an individual A can reach an individual B of all the three following conditions are met:

(i) A and B are in the same row or coloumn

(ii) A is at a lower height than B

(iii) if there is/are any individual(s) between A and B, such individual(s) must be at a height lower than that of A

thus in the table given above, consider the individual seaed at height 8 on 3rd tow and 2nd coloumn . He can reached by four individuals. He can be reached by the individual on his left at height 7, by the two individuals on his right at height of 4 and 6 and by the individual above at height 5.

Rows in the layout are numbered from top to bottom and coloumns are numbered from left to right.

**Q.**

**We can find two individuals who cannot be reached by anyone in**

Solution:

This can be observed from the table.

Option (C)

QUESTION: 58

(i) A and B are in the same row or coloumn

(ii) A is at a lower height than B

(iii) if there is/are any individual(s) between A and B, such individual(s) must be at a height lower than that of A

Rows in the layout are numbered from top to bottom and coloumns are numbered from left to right.

**Q.**

Which of the following statements is true about this layout?

Solution:

This can be observed from the table.

Option (C)

Downlo

QUESTION: 59

*A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule.*

*The underlying principle that they are working on is the following:*

*Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day.*

**Q.**

**If the underlying principle is to be satisfied in such a way that the journey between any two cities can be performed using only direct (non-stop) flights, then the minimum number of direct flights to be scheduled is**

Solution:

For any pair of cities, say A and B, to satisfy the underlying principle, there must be a morning flight from A to B, an evening flight from B to A and a morning flight from B to A and an evening flight from A to B.

Only then can a person from A or B travel to B or A and return the same day. Hence, there must be four flights between any pair of cities.

Number of ways of selecting two cities from ten cities

= 10C2

= (10*9)/2 = 45

Hence, the minimum number of flights that must be scheduled = 45 ×4 = 180.

Option (C)

QUESTION: 60

*A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule.*

*The underlying principle that they are working on is the following:*

*Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day.*

**Q.**

**Suppose three of the ten cities are to be developed as hubs. A hub is a city which is connected with every other city by direct flights each way, both in the morning as well as in the evening. The only direct flights which will be scheduled are originating and/or terminating in one of the hubs. Then the minimum number of direct flights that need to be scheduled so that the underlying principle of the airline to serve all the ten cities is met without visiting more than one hub during one trip is:**

Solution:

Let the ten cities be represented by A – J. Among these ten cities, consider A, B and C to be hubs and the other seven cities to be non-hub cities. It is given that any direct flight should originate or terminate at a hub.

Consider city D, which is not a hub. D is connected to each of A, B and C. Between D and each of A, B and C, theremust be four flights (see the above solution). Hence, from D, there must be 4 × 3 = 12 flights to the three hubs, A, B and C. Similarly, for each of the other six non-hub cities, there must be 12 flights connecting each non-hub city with the three hubs. Hence, a total of 12 ×7 = 84 flights will connect a non-hub city with a hub. In addition to this, the three hubs must be connected amongst themselves. Since there must be four flights between any pair of cities, there will be a total of 4 × 3 = 12 flights connecting any pair of hubs.

So, the total minimum number of flights that should be scheduled = 84 + 12 = 96.

Option (C)

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 61

*A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule.*

*The underlying principle that they are working on is the following:*

*Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day.*

**Q.**

**Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups Gl, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following:**

**1. Both cities are in G1**

**2. Between A and any city in G2**

**3. Between B and any city in G3**

**4. Between C and any city in G4**

**Then the minimum number of direct flights that satisfies the underlying principle of the airline is:**

Solution:

Given that G1 has the cities A, B and C. G2, G3 and G4 have 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively.

As per the given conditions, we can see that a city in G2 cannot be connected by a direct flight to a city in G3 or G4. Hence, for a person to travel from a city in G2 to a city in G3 or G4, all the cities in G2 must be connected to A and from A, he can travel to B or C to travel to a city G3 or G4 respectively.

Hence, the 3 cities in G2 must be connected to A. Between each pair of cities there must be four flights. Hence, there must be 4 × 3 = 12 flights between cities in G2 and A.

Since there are 2 cities in G3, there must be 2 × 4 = 8 flights between cities in G3 and B. Since there are 2 cities in G4, there must be 2 × 4 = 8 flights between cities in G4 and C. Also, the cities in G1, i.e., A, B and C must be connected to each other. Hence, there must be an additional 4 × 3 = 12 flights between these three cities. Therefore, the total minimum number of direct flights that must be scheduled = 12 + 8 + 8 + 12 = 40

Answer: 40

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 62

*The underlying principle that they are working on is the following:*

**Q.**

**Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups Gl, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following:**

**1. Both cities are in G1**

**2. Between A and any city in G2**

**3. Between B and any city in G3**

**4. Between C and any city in G4**

**However, due to operational difficulties at A, it was later decided that the only flights that would operate at A would be those to and from B. Cities in G2 would have to be assigned to G3 or to G4.**

**What would be the maximum reduction in the number of direct flights as compared to the situation before the operational difficulties arose?**

Solution:

It is given that the cities in G2 will be assigned to G3 or G4. However, this, by itself, will not result in any reduction in the number of flights because the cities in G2 will still have to be connected to either B or C. However, it is also given that there are now no flights between A and C. Hence, the 4 flights that would have been scheduled in the previous case, will now not be scheduled.

Hence, the reduction in the number of flights can be a maximum of 4.

Answer: 4

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 63

*Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute.*

*The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.*

**Q.**

**How many cars would loe asked to take the route A-N-B, that is Akala-Nanur-Bakala route, by the police department?**

Solution:

When two cars go from the route A – N – B

Total time taken = 30 minutes

When two cars go from the route A – M – B

Total time taken = 29.9 minutes

So, the number of cars that can go from the route A-N-B are 2

Answer: 2

QUESTION: 64

*Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute.*

*The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.*

**Q.**

**If all the cars follow the police order, what is the difference in travel time (in minutes) between a car which takes the route A-N-B and a car that takes the route A-M-B?**

Solution:

As we can see from the above question, the difference in time will be 30-29.9 = 0.1 minutes

Option (B)

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 65

*Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute.*

*The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.*

**Q.**

**A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-B, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route.**

**How many cars would the police department order to take the A-M-N-B route so that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order while the other cars follow the order? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.)**

Solution:

When only one care takes the route A – N –B

Total time = 26 minutes

When only one car takes the route A – M – B

Total time = 26 minutes

So, police department will ask 2 cars to take the route A – M – N – B

Answer: 2

QUESTION: 66

**Q.**

**A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-E, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route.**

**If all the cars follow the police order, what is the minimum travel time (in minutes) from A to B? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.)**

Solution:

When all cars follow the police order the time taken would be A-M-B (1 car) = 12 + 20 = 32 minutes.

A-M-N-B (2cars) = 12 + 8 + 12 = 32 minutes. A-N-B (1 car) = 20 + 12 =32 minutes.

Option (B)

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 67

Arun's present age in years is 40% of Barun's. In another few years, Arun's age will be half of Barun's. By what percentage will Barun's age increase during this period?

Solution:

We can assume that

Age of Arun = A and age of Barun = B

Let us assume, A=0.4 B —– (1)

After a few years, A+x = 0.5(B+x) —– (2)

On putting value of A in eq (2), we get x = 0.2B

% increase in the age of B = (0.2B/B) *100 = 20%

Answer: 20%

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 68

A person can complete a job in 120 days. He works alone on Day 1. On Day 2, he is joined by another person who also can complete the job in exactly 120 days. On Day 3, they are joined by another person of equal efficiency. Like this, everyday a new person with the same efficiency joins the work. How many days are required to complete the job?

Solution:

We can see that,

On Day 1, the person works alone.

So, work done on Day 1 = 1/120

Next day, another person joins him, Work done on Day 2 = 2/120

And so on, until the final day

So, sum total of work done = 1/120 + 2/120 +………+ n/120 = 1

(1/120) (1 + 2+3+……+n) = 1

(1/120) [n(n+1)/2] = 1 (Sum of n positive integers)

On solving, we get n = 15.

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 69

*An elevator has a weight limit of 630 kg. It is carrying a group of people of whom the heaviest weighs 57 kg and the lightest weighs 53 kg. What is the maximum possible number of people in the group?*

Solution:

We can see that,

53 + …….. + 57 = 630

Remaining sum of weights = 630 – 53 – 57 = 520

Now, the minimum weight can be 53. So, to find maximum number of people

N(max) = 520/53 = 9.81

So, maximum number of people possible = 9+2 = 11

Answer: 11

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 70

A man leaves his home and walks at a speed of 12 km per hour, reaching the railway station 10 minutes after the train had departed. If instead he had walked at a speed of 15 km per hour, he would have reached the station 10 minutes before the train's departure. The distance (in km) from his home to the railway station is

Solution:

We can see that,

Speed in first case: s

Speed in second case: s’ = 5s/4

We know that, time is inversely proportional with speed

Therefore, the time would be 4/5 times the time, i.e., 1/5 less. This one fifth is 20 min. Therefore, the time taken in the first case is 100 min.

The distance = 12*(5/3) = 20 km

Answer: 20

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 71

Ravi invests 50% of his monthly savings in fixed deposits. Thirty percent of the rest of his savings is invested in stocks and the rest goes into Ravi's savings bank account. If the total amount deposited by him in the bank (for savings account and fixed deposits) is Rs 59500, then Ravi's total monthly savings (in Rs) is

Solution:

We can assume that,

Total amount of savings as ‘s’

Amount kept in FD = 0.5s

Savings left = 0.5s

Amount kept in stocks = (0.3) * (0.5) * s = 0.15s

Amount kept in Bank Account = (0.7) * (0.5) * s = 0.35s

Amount deposited in the bank = 0.5s + 0.35s = 0.85s = 59500. So, s = 70000.

Answer: 70000

QUESTION: 72

If a seller gives a discount of 15% on retail price, she still makes a profit of 2%. Which of the following ensures that she makes a profit of 20%?

Solution:

Let Retail Price = MP

Cost Price = CP

When a discount of 15% is given,

[(0.85CP – CP)/CP] *100 = 2

So, 85 * MP = 102 * CP

Let us take SP = xMP

So, [ (xMP-CP)/CP ] * 100 = 20.

On calculating, we get x = 100

So, we should sell at Retail Price to get a profit of 20%.

QUESTION: 73

A man travels by a motor boat down a river to his office and back. With the speed of the river unchanged, if he doubles the speed of his motor boat, then his total travel time gets reduced by 75%. The ratio of the original speed of the motor boat to the speed of the river is

Solution:

Total travel time gets reduced by 75%. So, total travel time becomes 1/4th of the original.

So, s’(New speed) = 4s(Original speed)

Speed of boat : Speed of river = x:1

When the speed of boat is normal

Speed Upstream = x-1

Speed Downstream = x+1

Here, the distance is constant. So, average speed can be found out by the harmonic mean of two speeds = 2ab/ (a+b)

Here, average speed will be 2(x^{2}-1)/2x = (x^{2}-1)/x

When the speed of boat is doubled

Speed upstream = 2x-1

Speed downstream = 2x+1

Here, the distance is constant. So, average speed can be found out by the harmonic mean of two speeds = 2ab/(a+b)

Here, average speed will be 2(4x^{2}-1)/4x = (4x^{2}-1)/2x

Now, we know that

New speed = 4*Original speed

So,

(4x^{2}-1)/2x = 4(x^{2}-1)/x

4x^{2} – 1 = 8x^{2} – 8

4x^{2} = 7

x = √7/2

Ratio = x:1 = √7/2

Option (B)

QUESTION: 74

Suppose, Cl, C2, C3, C4, and C5 are five companies. The profits made by Cl, C2, and C3 are in the ratio 9 :10:8 while the profits made by C2, C4, and C5 are in the ratio 18 : 19 : 20. If C5 has made a profit of Rs 19 crore more than Cl, then the total profit (in Rs) made Py all five companies is

Solution:

Profit of C1 = 9x

Profit of C2 = 10x = 18y — (1)

Profit of C3 = 8x

Profit of C4 = 19y

Profit of C5 = 20y

Taking eq(1), we get x = 9y/5

20y = 19 + 9x

Putting value of x and y in the above eq we get, x=9 and y=5

So, Total profit = 9x +10x + 8x + 19y + 20y = 438 crore

Option (A)

QUESTION: 75

The number of girls appearing for an admission test is twice the number of boys. If 30% of the girls and 45% of the boys get admission, the percentage of candidates who do not get admission is

Solution:

No of girls = g

No of boys = b

g = 2b

No of girls who do not get admission = 0.7g = 1.4b

No of boys who do not get admission = 0.55b

% = [ (1.4b + 0.55b)/3b ] * 100 = 65%

Option (D)

QUESTION: 76

A stall sells popcorn and chips in packets of three sizes: large, super, and jumbo. The numbers of large, super, and jumbo packets in its stock are in the ratio 7 : 17 : 16 for popcorn and 6 : 15 : 14 for chips. If the total number of popcorn packets in its stock is the same as that of chips packets, then the numbers of jumbo popcorn packets and jumbo chips packets are in the ratio

Solution:

Total no of popcorn = 40x

Total no of chips = 35y

40x = 35y

x/y = 7/8

Jumbo popcorn = 16x

Jumbo chips = 14y

Ratio = 16x/14y

Putting values of x and y, we get 1:1 as answer

Option (A)

QUESTION: 77

**I**n a market, the price of medium quality mangoes is half that of good mangoes. A shopkeeper buys 80 kg good mangoes and 40 kg medium quality mangoes from the market and then sells all these at a common price which is 10% less than the price at which he bought the good ones. His overall profit is

Solution:

Price of good Quality mangoes = p

Price of medium Quality mangoes = p/2

Price at which mangoes are sold = 0.9p

Profit = [ (0.9p * 120 – 100p)/100p ] * 100 = 8%

Option (B)

QUESTION: 78

If Fatima sells 60 identical toys at a 40% discount on the printed price, then she makes 20% profit. Ten of these toys are destroyed in fire. While selling the rest, how much discount should Pe given on the printed price so that she can make the same amount of profit?

Solution:

Market Price = MP

Cost Price = CP

[(60/100 MP * 60 – 60CP)/60CP] * 100 = 20

MP = 2CP

When 10 toys are burnt in fire, then

[(x/100 *50 * MP – 60CP )/60CP] * 100 = 20

x = 72

So discount given = 100-72 = 28%

Option (D)

QUESTION: 79

If a and b are integers of opposite signs such that (a + 3)^{2} : b^{2} = 9:1 and (a-1)^{2} : (b-1)^{2} = 4:1 then the ratio a^{2} : b^{2} is

Solution:

We get 4 cases

► CASE – 1

a+3 = 3b

a-1 = 2b-2

► CASE – 2

a+3 = 3b

a-1 = 2b + 2

► CASE – 3

a+3 = -3b

a-1 = 2b-2

► CASE – 4

a+3 = -3b

a-1 = -2b+2

Subtracting the second equation from the first we get,

__ Case 1:__ 4 = b+2

⇒ b = 2, a = 3 (Rejected as a and b should be of opposite sign)

__ Case 2__: 4 = b-2

⇒ b = 6, a = 15 (Rejected as a and b should be of opposite sign)

__ Case 3__: 4 = -5b+2

⇒ b = -2/5 (Rejected as both a and b are integers)

* Case 4: * 4 = -b-2

⇒ b = -6, a = 15 (Accepted)

So, a^{2}/b^{2} = (15/6)^{2} = 25/4

Option (D)

QUESTION: 80

A class consists of 20 boys and 30 girls. In the mid-semester examination, the average score of the girls was 5 higher than that of the boys. In the final exam, however, the average score of the girls dropped by 3 while the average score of the entire class increased by 2. The increase in the average score of the Poys is

Solution:

Score of girls = x

Score of boys = y

As per the question, x/30 = y/20 + 5

Average of class = (x + y)/ 50

New score of girls = x’

New score of boys = y’

x/30 – 3 = x’/30

(x’ + y’)/50 = (x + y)/50 + 2

x’ = x – 90

On solving we get, y’ = y + 190

New average of boys = (y + 190)/20 = y/20 + 9.5

So, average of boys increases by 9.5

Option (A)

QUESTION: 81

The area of the closed region bounded by the equation | x | + | y | = 2 in the two-dimensional plane is

Solution:

Remember the formula |x| + |y| = n

Here, area bounded by the region = 2n^{2}

In the question, n=2

So, area = 8

Option (C)

QUESTION: 82

From a triangle ABC with sides of lengths 40 ft, 25 ft and 35 ft, a triangular portion GBC is cut off where G is the centroid of ABC. The area, in sq ft, of the remaining portion of triangle ABC is

Solution:

Area of triangle = √ (s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c))

S = 50

Area = 250 * √(3)

Centroid divides triangle in the ratio 2:1

Area of remaining portion of triangle: 2/3 * (Area of Triangle) = 500/√3

Option (B)

QUESTION: 83

Let ABC be a right-angled isosceles triangle with hypotenuse BC. Let BQC be a semi-circle, away from A, with diameter BC. Let BPC be an arc of a circle centered at A and lying between BC and BQC. If AB has length 6 cm then the area, in sq cm, of the region enclosed by BPC and BQC is

Solution:

Let AB = a (a = 6)

CQB is a semicircle of radius a/√2

CPB is a quarter circle (quadrant) of radius a

So, area of semicircle = π*a^{2}/4

Area of quadrant =π*a^{2}/4

So, area of region enclosed by BPC, BQC = Area of Δ(ABC) = 18.

Option (B)

QUESTION: 84

A solid metallic cube is melted to form five solid cubes whose volumes are in the ratio 1 : 1 : 8 : 27 : 27. The percentage by which the sum of the surface areas of these five cubes exceeds the surface area of the original cube is nearest to

Solution:

Ratio of volumes of 5 smaller cubes and original big one = 1 : 1 : 8 : 27 : 27 : 64

Ratio of sides = 1 : 1 : 2 : 3 : 3 : 4

Ratio of areas = 1 : 1 : 4 : 9 : 9 : 16

The sum of the areas of the 5 smaller cubes is 24 parts while that of the big cube is 16 parts. The sum is 50% greater.

Option (B)

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 85

A ball of diameter 4 cm is kept on top of a hollow cylinder standing vertically. The height of the cylinder is 3cm, while its volume is 9π cm^{3} . Then the vertical distance, in cm, of the topmost point of the ball from the base of the cylinder is

Solution:

The height of the cylinder (h) = 3

The volume = 9π

πr2h = 9π ⇒ r = √3

The radius of the ball (R) = 2

The height of O, the centre of the ball, above the line representing the top of the cylinder is say a. (a = 1) ∴ The height of the topmost point of the ball from the base of the cylinder is h + a +R = 3 + 1 + 2 = 6

Answer: 6

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 86

Let ABC be a right-angled triangle with BC as the hypotenuse. Lengths of AB and AC are 15 km and 20 km, respectively. The minimum possible time, in minutes, required to reach the hypotenuse from A at a speed of 30 km per hour is

Solution:

BC^{2} = AB^{2} + AC^{2} = 625

BC = 25

Shortest Distance from A to hypotenuse = altitude on BC = AP

AP * BC = AB * AC

So, AP = 12

Time taken = (12/30) * 60 mins = 24 mins

Answer: 24 mins

QUESTION: 87

Suppose, log_{3} x = log_{12} y = a, where x, y are positive numbers. If G is the geometric mean of x and y, and log_{6 }G is equal

Solution:

x=3^{a} and y=12^{a}

G = √(3^{a} * 12^{a}) = 6^{a}

Log_{6} 6^{a} = a

Option (D)

QUESTION: 88

If x + 1 = x^{z} and x > 0, then 2x^{4} is

Solution:

We can see that

x+1=x^{2}

Find out the roots of x = [1+/- √(5)] /2

X2 = [3 +/- √5]/2

X4 = [7 +/- 3√5]/2

2×4 = 7 +/- 3√5

As the only option is 7 + 3√5 So, we go with that.

Option (D)

QUESTION: 89

The value of log_{0.008} √5 + log_{√3} 81 -7 equal to

Solution:

log_{0.008 }5^{1/2} = -1/6

Log_{31/2} 3^{4} = 8

So, -1/6 + 8 – 7 = 5/6

Option (C)

QUESTION: 90

if 9^{2x-1 }- 81^{x-1}= 1944, then x is

Solution:

Algebra – Polynomials, we can see that,

9^{2x-1} – 9^{2x-2} = 1944

It can be written as 3^{4x/9} – 3^{4x/81} = 1944

8(3^{4x/81}) = 1944

x = 9/4

QUESTION: 91

The number of solutions (x, y, 2) to the equation x - y - 2 = 25, where x, y, and 2 are positive integers such that x ≤ 40, y ≤ 12, and z ≤ 12 is

Solution:

We can see that,

x = 25 + y + z. The possible values of x, y, z and the corresponding number of values of y, z are tabulated below (x, y, z are positive integers).

We see that 27 ≤ x ≤ 40

The number of solutions is 1 + 2 + …… + 12 + 11 + 10 = 78 + 21 = 99

Option (B)

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 92

For how many integers n, will the inequality (n - 3) (n - 10) - 3(n - 2) ≤ 0 be satisfied?

Solution:

On solving the equation, we get

n^{2} – 18n + 56 ≤ 0

Factorize and we get,

(n-4)(n-14) ≤ 0

4 ≤ n ≤ 14

No of values of n =11

Answer: 11

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 93

If f_{1} (x) = x^{2} + 11 x + n and f_{2}(x) = x, then the largest positive integer n for which the equation f_{1}(x) = f_{2 }(x) has two distinct real roots, is

Solution:

f_{1}(x) = f_{2}(x)

x^{2} + 11x +n = x

x^{2} + 10x + n =0

To have distinct and real roots, D>0

D = b^{2}-4ac = 100 – 4n > 0

On solving the inequality, we get, n<25 So, max positive integer value of n = 24. Answer: 24

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 94

If a, b, c, and d are integers such that a+b + c + d = 30, then the minimum possible value of (a - b)^{2} + (a - c)^{2} + (a - d)^{2} is

Solution:

We can see that,

a + b + c + d = 30

a, b, c, d are integers.

(a – b)^2 + (a – c)^2 + (a – d)^2 would have its minimum value when each bracket has the least possible value.

Let (a, b, c, d) = (8, 8, 7, 7) The given expression would be 2. It cannot have a smaller value.

Answer: 2

*Answer can only contain numeric values

QUESTION: 95

Let AB, CD, EF, GH, and JK be five diameters of a circle with center at O. In how many ways can three points be chosen out of A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J, K, and O so as to form a triangle?

Solution:

There are 11 points from which a triangle can be formed.

But there are 5 lines which have 3 points linearly.

Number of triangles formed = ^{11}C_{3} – 5 (because of the lines)

165 – 5 = 160 triangles

Answer: 160

QUESTION: 96

The shortest distance of the point (1/2, 1) from the curve y = [x-l| + | x +1) is

Solution:

The graph of y = |x – 1| + |x + 1| is shown above.

The shortest distance of (1/2, 1) from the graph is 1.

Option (A)

QUESTION: 97

If the square of the 7^{th} term of an arithmetic progression with positive common difference equals the product of the 3^{rd} and 17^{th} terms, then the ratio of the first term to the common difference is

Solution:

(a+6d)^{2} = (a+2d)(a+16d)

a^{2} + 12 ad + 36d^{2} = a^{2}+ 18 ad + 32d^{2}

Since, d is positive,

We get the ratio of a:d = 2:3

Option (A)

QUESTION: 98

In how many ways can 7 identical erasers be distributed among 4 kids in such a way that each kid gets at least one eraser but nobody gets more than 3 erasers?

Solution:

⇒ a + b + c + d = 7

Since, each kid gets 1 eraser,

so a + b + c + d = 3

Now, no child can get more than 3 erasers.

There can be two cases. 2, 1, 0, 0 which can be represented in 4!/2! Ways = 12 ways

And 1,1,1,0 which can be represented in 4!/3! Ways = 4 ways

Answer: 16

Option (A)

QUESTION: 99

if f(x) and g(x) = x^{2 }- 2x -1, then the value of g(f(f(3))) is

Solution:

QUESTION: 100

Let a_{1},a_{2}, .... a_{n} be an arithmetic progression with a_{1} = 3 and a_{2 }= 7. if a_{1}+a_{2}+ .... +a_{3n} = 1830, then what is the smallest positive integer m such that m(a_{1}+a_{2}+ .... +a_{n}) > 1830 ?

Solution:

Progressions, we can see that,

a = 3

a + d = 7

⇒ d=4

Applying formula of sum for AP

(3n/2) [6 + (3n-1)4] = 1830

On solving, we get n = 10

m>61/7

Max positive integer value of m = 9

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