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CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Class 10 MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test - CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test)

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CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 1
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The functional group present in ethanol is

Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 1
Functional Group in Ethanol:
The functional group present in ethanol is the alcoholic group.
Explanation:
Ethanol is a commonly known alcohol and it contains a specific functional group called the alcoholic group. This group is also known as the hydroxyl group (OH) and is characterized by the presence of an oxygen atom bonded to a hydrogen atom. Here are some key points to understand the functional group in ethanol:
- Definition: The alcoholic group is a functional group that consists of an oxygen atom bonded to a hydrogen atom. It is written as -OH or -OH group.
- Chemical Formula of Ethanol: The chemical formula of ethanol is C2H5OH. The "OH" in the formula represents the presence of the alcoholic group.
- Properties: The alcoholic group imparts certain properties to ethanol, such as its ability to dissolve in water, its characteristic odor, and its ability to form hydrogen bonds with other molecules.
- Reactivity: The presence of the alcoholic group in ethanol makes it reactive and capable of undergoing various chemical reactions, such as oxidation, esterification, and dehydration.
In conclusion, the functional group present in ethanol is the alcoholic group, which is characterized by the presence of an oxygen atom bonded to a hydrogen atom.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 2
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Reduction is the process of

Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 2
Reduction is the process of:
- Definition: Reduction is a chemical reaction that involves the addition of hydrogen or the removal of oxygen from a compound.
- Objective: To determine the correct option for the process of reduction.
- Options:
- A: Addition of hydrogen
- B: Removal of oxygen
- C: Both removal of oxygen and addition of hydrogen
- D: None of these
-
- Reduction is a process that involves the gain of electrons or the decrease in oxidation state of an atom, ion, or molecule.
- Reduction reactions are commonly seen in organic chemistry, where compounds are often reduced by the addition of hydrogen atoms.
- In some cases, reduction can also involve the removal of oxygen from a compound, resulting in a decrease in the oxidation state of the atom or molecule.
- Therefore, the correct option for the process of reduction is C: Both removal of oxygen and addition of hydrogen.
- Answer: C
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CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 3
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Match the following with correct response. 
(1) Alcohol 
(2) Aldehyde 
(3) Ketone 
(4) Haloalkane 

(A) - X 
(B) - CHO 
(C) - OH-
(D) - CO-

Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 3

To match the given compounds with their correct responses, we need to understand the properties and functional groups of each compound.
Alcohol:
- Contains a hydroxyl group (-OH)
- General formula: R-OH
Aldehyde:
- Contains a carbonyl group (C=O) at the end of a carbon chain
- General formula: R-CHO
Ketone:
- Contains a carbonyl group (C=O) in the middle of a carbon chain
- General formula: R-CO-R'
Haloalkane:
- Contains a halogen atom (F, Cl, Br, or I) attached to a carbon atom
- General formula: R-X, where X represents a halogen atom
Now, let's match each compound with its correct response:
(1) Alcohol - C
(2) Aldehyde - B
(3) Ketone - D
(4) Haloalkane - A
Therefore, the correct matching is:
A: 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 4
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Hydrocarbon with molecular formula C4H10 has
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 4

The molecular formula of the hydrocarbon is C4H10. This means that the hydrocarbon contains 4 carbon atoms and 10 hydrogen atoms. To determine the number of covalent bonds in the hydrocarbon, we need to calculate the total number of valence electrons.
Calculating the valence electrons:
- Carbon has 4 valence electrons, and there are 4 carbon atoms in the hydrocarbon. So, the total number of valence electrons from carbon is 4 * 4 = 16.
- Hydrogen has 1 valence electron, and there are 10 hydrogen atoms in the hydrocarbon. So, the total number of valence electrons from hydrogen is 1 * 10 = 10.
Total valence electrons:
The total number of valence electrons in the hydrocarbon is 16 + 10 = 26.
Calculating the number of covalent bonds:
In a covalent bond, two atoms share a pair of electrons. Each covalent bond contributes 2 electrons.
- The hydrocarbon contains 26 valence electrons.
- Each covalent bond contributes 2 electrons.
- Therefore, the number of covalent bonds is 26 / 2 = 13.
Conclusion:
The hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C4H10 has 13 covalent bonds. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 5
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Which of the following compounds contain carboxylic group -
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 5
Explanation:
To identify the compound that contains a carboxylic group, we need to understand the structure and properties of a carboxylic group.
A carboxylic group, also known as a carboxyl group, is a functional group consisting of a carbonyl group (C=O) and a hydroxyl group (OH) attached to the same carbon atom. It is represented as -COOH or -CO2H.
Now, let's analyze each compound:
A: CH3COOC2H5
- This compound does not contain a carboxylic group. It contains an ester functional group (-COOC-), which is different from a carboxylic group.
B: CH3CH2COOH
- This compound contains a carboxylic group. The structure of the compound shows a carbonyl group (C=O) and a hydroxyl group (OH) attached to the same carbon atom.
C: CH3-CH2-CH3-CH3-CH2-CH3
- This compound does not contain a carboxylic group. It is a linear alkane with no functional groups present.
D: CH3CH2OH
- This compound does not contain a carboxylic group. It is an alcohol functional group (-OH), which is different from a carboxylic group.
Therefore, the compound that contains a carboxylic group is B: CH3CH2COOH.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 6
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An organic compound A of molecular formula C2H6O on oxidation gives an acid B with the same number of carbon atoms in the molecule as A. Compound A is of the used for sterilization of skin by doctors name compound A and B
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 6
Identification of Compound A:
- The molecular formula of Compound A is given as C2H6O.
- It is mentioned that Compound A is used for sterilization of skin by doctors.
Identification of Compound B:
- On oxidation, Compound A gives an acid B.
- Compound B has the same number of carbon atoms in the molecule as Compound A.
Analysis:
- Compound A has the molecular formula C2H6O, which indicates it is an alcohol.
- The only alcohol with the molecular formula C2H6O is ethanol (C2H5OH).

- Compound A is ethanol (C2H5OH).
- On oxidation, ethanol (Compound A) gives acetic acid (CH3COOH).
- Therefore, Compound B is acetic acid (CH3COOH).
Final Answer:
Compound A is ethanol (C2H5OH) and Compound B is acetic acid (CH3COOH).
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 7
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The boiling point of alcohols goes on increasing with increasing molecular weight.
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 7
Explanation:
The statement is true; the boiling point of alcohols generally increases with increasing molecular weight. This can be explained by the following factors:
1. Intermolecular forces: The boiling point of a substance is determined by the strength of intermolecular forces between its molecules. In alcohols, the main intermolecular force is hydrogen bonding, which occurs between the hydrogen atom of one alcohol molecule and the oxygen atom of another alcohol molecule. Hydrogen bonding is stronger than other intermolecular forces, such as London dispersion forces and dipole-dipole interactions.
2. Molecular size: As the molecular weight of alcohols increases, the size of the alcohol molecules also increases. Larger molecules have a greater surface area and more sites for intermolecular forces to act upon, resulting in stronger intermolecular forces and higher boiling points.
3. Increased electron density: With increasing molecular weight, alcohols have more atoms, and therefore, more electrons. This leads to a higher electron density, which increases the strength of intermolecular forces.
4. Increased molecular complexity: Alcohols with higher molecular weights often have more complex structures, with branching or multiple functional groups. These structural features can enhance intermolecular interactions and further raise the boiling point.
Overall, the increasing molecular weight of alcohols leads to stronger intermolecular forces, which require more energy to break during boiling, resulting in higher boiling points.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 8
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How does the valency vary in going down a group?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 8
Valency Variation in Going Down a Group:
The valency of an element refers to its ability to form chemical bonds with other elements. It determines the number of electrons an atom can gain, lose, or share in order to achieve a stable electron configuration. When going down a group in the periodic table, the valency of elements tends to remain the same. Here's why:
1. Electrons in the Outermost Shell:
- Elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons, which are the electrons in the outermost shell.
- Valency is determined by the number of valence electrons an atom possesses.
- As you move down a group, the number of valence electrons remains the same, resulting in the same valency.
2. Similar Electron Configurations:
- Elements within a group have similar electron configurations, with the same number of electron shells.
- The valency of an element is influenced by its electron configuration.
- Since elements in the same group have similar electron configurations, their valencies also tend to be the same.
3. Alkali Metals and Halogens Exceptions:
- Alkali metals (Group 1) and halogens (Group 17) are exceptions to the general trend of valency remaining the same down a group.
- Alkali metals tend to lose one electron to achieve a stable noble gas configuration, resulting in a valency of +1.
- Halogens tend to gain one electron to achieve a stable noble gas configuration, resulting in a valency of -1.
In conclusion, while there are exceptions for certain groups, the general trend is that the valency remains the same when going down a group in the periodic table.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 9
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What is the nature of an element having atomic number 20?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 9
Nature of an Element with Atomic Number 20
The element with atomic number 20 is calcium (Ca), and its nature can be determined based on its position in the periodic table and its properties.
1. Metallic Nature:
- Calcium is a metal element.
- Metals are typically found on the left side of the periodic table.
- They are good conductors of heat and electricity.
- Metals generally have high melting and boiling points.
- They are malleable and ductile, meaning they can be easily shaped and drawn into wires.
- They tend to lose electrons and form positive ions.
2. Non-Metallic Nature:
- Non-metal elements are usually found on the right side of the periodic table.
- They are poor conductors of heat and electricity.
- Non-metals generally have low melting and boiling points.
- They are brittle and cannot be easily shaped.
- They tend to gain electrons and form negative ions.
3. Metalloid, Semi-Metallic Nature:
- Metalloids or semi-metals have properties that are intermediate between metals and non-metals.
- They are found along the "stair-step" line on the periodic table.
- Metalloids exhibit characteristics of both metals and non-metals, such as varying conductivity.
Conclusion:
Based on the above information, we can conclude that the element with atomic number 20, calcium (Ca), has a metallic nature.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 10
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Match the following with correct response. 
(1) Alkali metals 
(2) Alkaline earth metal 
(3) Halogen 
(4) Inert gas 

(A) Magnesium 
(B) Krypton 
(C) chlorine 
(D) Sodium
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 10
Explanation:
To match the given elements with their correct responses, let's analyze each element one by one.
(1) Alkali metals:
- Alkali metals are found in Group 1 of the periodic table.
- They are highly reactive and have one valence electron.
- Examples of alkali metals include lithium, sodium, and potassium.
(2) Alkaline earth metals:
- Alkaline earth metals are found in Group 2 of the periodic table.
- They are reactive but less so than alkali metals.
- They have two valence electrons.
- Examples of alkaline earth metals include magnesium, calcium, and strontium.
(3) Halogens:
- Halogens are found in Group 17 of the periodic table.
- They are highly reactive nonmetals.
- They have seven valence electrons.
- Examples of halogens include chlorine, fluorine, and iodine.
(4) Inert gases:
- Inert gases, also known as noble gases, are found in Group 18 of the periodic table.
- They are nonreactive due to their stable electron configuration.
- They have a full outer electron shell.
- Examples of inert gases include helium, neon, and krypton.
Now, let's match the elements with their correct responses:
- Alkali metals: (4) Sodium
- Alkaline earth metals: (A) Magnesium
- Halogens: (C) Chlorine
- Inert gases: (B) Krypton
Therefore, the correct match is D: 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 11
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Horizontal rows in a periodic table are called -
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 11
Explanation:
The correct answer is C: Period.
The periodic table is organized into rows and columns. The horizontal rows in the periodic table are called periods. Each period represents a different energy level or electron shell in an atom.
Here is a detailed explanation of the options:
A: Columns:
- Columns in the periodic table are called groups or families.
- Groups are the vertical columns that contain elements with similar properties.
- Elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons and exhibit similar chemical behavior.
B: Group:
- This is the correct term for the vertical columns in the periodic table.
- Elements within the same group have similar properties due to the same number of valence electrons.
C: Period:
- This is the correct term for the horizontal rows in the periodic table.
- Each period represents a different energy level or electron shell in an atom.
- Elements in the same period do not necessarily have similar properties.
D: None of these:
- This option is not correct, as the horizontal rows are called periods.
In conclusion, the horizontal rows in the periodic table are called periods, not columns or groups.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 12
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Which of the following statement is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to right across the periodic table.
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 12
Explanation:
When going from left to right across the periodic table, there are several trends that occur. However, one of the statements listed is not a correct statement about these trends. Let's examine each statement and determine which one is not correct.
A: The number of valence electrons increases
- This statement is correct. As you move from left to right across a period, the number of valence electrons increases by one with each element.
B: The elements become less metallic in nature
- This statement is correct. Elements on the left side of the periodic table are more metallic in nature, while elements on the right side are generally less metallic.
C: The oxides become more acidic
- This statement is correct. As you move from left to right across the periodic table, the oxides of the elements become more acidic in nature.
D: The atoms lose their electrons more easily
- This statement is not correct. As you move from left to right across the periodic table, the atoms do not lose their electrons more easily. In fact, they tend to gain electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration.
Therefore, the correct answer is D: The atoms lose their electrons more easily. This statement is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to right across the periodic table.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 13
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Which type of compound is formed by the elements of group 1 and group 7?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 13
Group 1 and Group 7 Elements
- Group 1 elements are known as alkali metals and include elements such as lithium, sodium, potassium, etc.
- Group 7 elements are known as halogens and include elements such as fluorine, chlorine, bromine, etc.
Formation of Compounds
- When elements from Group 1 and Group 7 combine, they form an ionic compound.
- Ionic compounds are formed by the transfer of electrons from the Group 1 element to the Group 7 element.
- The Group 1 element loses one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration, forming a positively charged ion (cation), while the Group 7 element gains one electron to achieve a stable electron configuration, forming a negatively charged ion (anion).
Properties of Ionic Compounds
- Ionic compounds have a high melting and boiling point.
- They are usually soluble in polar solvents, such as water.
- They conduct electricity when dissolved in water or molten state due to the presence of ions.
Conclusion
- Therefore, the compound formed by the elements of Group 1 and Group 7 is an ionic compound.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 14
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The specific scientific term for the release of ovum from ovary into body cavity is
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 14
Answer:
The specific scientific term for the release of ovum from the ovary into the body cavity is ovulation. Here is a detailed explanation of the term:
Ovulation:
- Ovulation is a part of the menstrual cycle in females.
- It is the process in which a mature egg or ovum is released from the ovary.
- Ovulation typically occurs once during each menstrual cycle, usually around the midpoint of the cycle.
- The released egg then travels down the fallopian tube towards the uterus where it can be fertilized by sperm.
- If fertilization occurs, it may lead to pregnancy.
Other options:
- Menstrual cycle: The menstrual cycle refers to the series of events that occur in females, including the release of an egg during ovulation, shedding of the uterine lining during menstruation, and preparation for potential pregnancy.
- Menopause: Menopause is the stage in a woman's life when she stops menstruating and is no longer fertile.
- Puberty: Puberty is the period of development during which a child's body matures into an adult body, including the onset of sexual maturation.
Therefore, the correct answer is C: ovulation.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 15
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Which of these is not a sexually transmitted disease?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 15
Which of these is not a sexually transmitted disease?

A: AIDS


B: Typhoid


C: Gonorrhoea


D: Syphilis


Answer: B
Explanation:
Here is a detailed explanation of each option to identify the correct answer:

A: AIDS


- AIDS stands for Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome.
- It is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
- HIV is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, blood transfusions, and the sharing of needles.

B: Typhoid


- Typhoid is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi.
- It is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water.
- Sexual contact is not a common mode of transmission for typhoid.

C: Gonorrhoea


- Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
- It is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, including vaginal, anal, and oral sex.

D: Syphilis


- Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Treponema pallidum.
- It is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, including vaginal, anal, and oral sex.
Based on the information provided, the correct answer is B: Typhoid. Typhoid is not a sexually transmitted disease.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 16
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Where does the embryo develop in a human female?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 16
Embryo Development in a Human Female:
The embryo develops in the uterus of a human female. Here's a detailed explanation:
1. Uterus:
- The uterus, also known as the womb, is a pear-shaped organ located in the pelvis of a female.
- It is specifically designed to support the development of a fertilized egg, which eventually becomes an embryo.
- The inner lining of the uterus, called the endometrium, provides a suitable environment for the implantation and growth of the embryo.
2. Fallopian Tube:
- The fallopian tubes, also known as oviducts, are not the site of embryo development, but they play a crucial role in fertilization.
- After ovulation, the fallopian tubes transport the released egg towards the uterus.
- Fertilization usually takes place in the fallopian tubes, where the sperm meets the egg.
3. Vagina:
- The vagina is the canal that connects the uterus to the external opening of the female reproductive system.
- While the vagina is involved in sexual intercourse and childbirth, it is not the site of embryo development.
4. Seminal Vesicles:
- The seminal vesicles are part of the male reproductive system and are not directly involved in embryo development in a female.
Therefore, the correct answer is option A: Uterus, as the embryo develops and grows in the uterus of a human female.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 17
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Match the following with correct response. 
(1) Spirogyra
(2) Hydra 
(3) Plasmodium 
(4) Rhizopus 

(A) Budding 
(B) Spore Formation 
(C) Multiple fission 
(D) Fragmentation
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 17
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct matching of the given organisms with their respective modes of reproduction is as follows:
- Spirogyra: Fragmentation
- Hydra: Budding
- Plasmodium: Multiple fission
- Rhizopus: Spore formation
Reasoning:
- Spirogyra is a filamentous green algae that reproduces through fragmentation. In this process, the filaments break into fragments, and each fragment can grow into a new individual.
- Hydra is a freshwater polyp that reproduces through budding. In this process, a bud grows out of the parent organism and eventually detaches to form a new individual.
- Plasmodium is a parasite that causes malaria. It reproduces through multiple fission. In this process, the nucleus of the organism undergoes multiple divisions to produce multiple daughter cells.
- Rhizopus is a bread mold fungus that reproduces through spore formation. Spores are produced in specialized structures called sporangia, and these spores can disperse and grow into new individuals.
Therefore, the correct match is option C: 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 18
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Which hormone causes contraction of the uterus during birth?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 18
Hormone that causes contraction of the uterus during birth: Oxytocin

  • Oxytocin is a hormone that is responsible for causing contractions of the uterus during childbirth. It is produced by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary gland.

  • During labor, oxytocin is released in increasing amounts, leading to stronger and more frequent contractions of the uterus.

  • Oxytocin stimulates the smooth muscles of the uterus, causing them to contract, which helps to push the baby down the birth canal.

  • The release of oxytocin is triggered by the stretching of the cervix and the pressure of the baby's head on the cervix.

  • Oxytocin also plays a role in breastfeeding, as it helps to stimulate the let-down reflex, allowing milk to be released from the breasts.


Therefore, the correct answer is A: oxytocin.

CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 19
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Which of the following method of reproduction induces over-crowding in plants?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 19
Introduction:
In plants, different methods of reproduction can lead to different outcomes in terms of population density. Over-crowding in plants can occur when a particular method of reproduction results in the production of a large number of offspring in a limited space.
Detailed
1. Tissue Culture:
- Tissue culture is a method of plant reproduction that involves the growth of plant cells or tissues in a laboratory.
- It does not directly induce over-crowding in plants as it does not involve the production of a large number of offspring.
- Tissue culture is commonly used for the mass production of plants in a controlled environment.
2. Sexual Reproduction:
- Sexual reproduction in plants involves the fusion of male and female gametes to produce seeds.
- It does not necessarily induce over-crowding in plants as the dispersal of seeds allows for the colonization of new areas.
- However, if the conditions are favorable and the seeds are not dispersed, the germination and growth of a large number of offspring in a limited space may lead to over-crowding.
3. Vegetative Propagation:
- Vegetative propagation is a method of plant reproduction that involves the production of new plants from vegetative structures such as stems, roots, or leaves.
- It can induce over-crowding in plants as it allows for the production of numerous identical offspring from a single parent plant.
- These offspring can grow in close proximity to each other, leading to over-crowding if not properly managed.
4. Asexual Reproduction:
- Asexual reproduction in plants involves the production of offspring without the involvement of gametes.
- It can induce over-crowding in plants as it allows for the production of numerous identical offspring from a single parent plant.
- These offspring can grow in close proximity to each other, leading to over-crowding if not properly managed.
Conclusion:
Among the given options, both vegetative propagation and asexual reproduction can induce over-crowding in plants. These methods allow for the production of numerous identical offspring from a single parent plant, which can result in over-crowding if not properly controlled.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 20
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Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring are present in -
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 20
Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring are present in:

  • Genes: Genes are the units of heredity that are transmitted from parents to offspring. They are composed of DNA and contain the instructions for building and maintaining an organism.

CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 21
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What is the another name for tissue culture?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 21
Another Name for Tissue Culture: Micro-propagation
- Tissue culture is a technique used to propagate plants in a controlled environment.
- It involves the growth and development of plant cells, tissues, or organs in an artificial medium under sterile conditions.
- The term "micro-propagation" is often used as another name for tissue culture.
- It refers to the process of producing large numbers of genetically identical plants from a small number of plant cells or tissues.
- Micro-propagation is commonly used for mass production of plants with desirable traits, such as disease resistance or improved yield.
- This technique allows for the rapid multiplication of plants, bypassing the need for traditional methods like seed germination or cuttings.
- The process of micro-propagation involves several stages, including initiation, multiplication, rooting, and acclimatization.
- It requires specialized laboratory equipment and techniques to maintain sterile conditions and ensure the successful growth of plant cells.
- Micro-propagation has wide applications in agriculture, horticulture, and forestry, as it allows for the production of uniform and disease-free plants on a large scale.
- Overall, micro-propagation is an important aspect of tissue culture and plays a crucial role in plant propagation and biotechnology.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 22
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What are the carriers of factor?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 22
Carriers of Factor:
The carriers of factor are the entities that carry the genetic information or traits from one generation to another. These carriers play a crucial role in the inheritance of traits and the transmission of genetic material. The carriers of factor can be classified into different levels, such as alleles, genes, DNA, and chromosomes.
1. Alleles: Alleles are different forms of a gene that occupy the same position on a chromosome. They are responsible for the variations in traits that can be observed within a population. Alleles can be dominant or recessive and determine the expression of specific traits in an organism.
2. Genes: Genes are segments of DNA that contain the instructions for building and maintaining an organism. They are the basic units of heredity and determine the characteristics and traits of an individual. Each gene carries a specific set of information and can be passed from parents to offspring.
3. DNA: DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is the molecule that carries the genetic instructions for the development, functioning, and reproduction of all known living organisms. It is composed of nucleotides and forms the double helix structure. DNA carries the genetic information in the form of genes and is responsible for the transmission of traits across generations.
4. Chromosomes: Chromosomes are structures within cells that contain DNA and genes. They exist in pairs, with one chromosome inherited from each parent. Chromosomes play a vital role in the transmission of genetic information during cell division and reproduction. They carry the complete set of genetic material necessary for the development and functioning of an organism.
In summary, the carriers of factor include alleles, genes, DNA, and chromosomes. These entities are responsible for the transmission of genetic information and the inheritance of traits from one generation to another.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 23
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Which of these is a fossil that had wings and teeth?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 23
Answer:
The fossil that had wings and teeth is the Archaeopteryx. Here is a detailed explanation:
Introduction:
The question asks about a fossil that possessed both wings and teeth. By analyzing the given options, we can determine that the correct answer is the Archaeopteryx.
Explanation:
The Archaeopteryx is a well-known fossil that provides a crucial link between dinosaurs and modern birds. It lived during the late Jurassic period, approximately 150 million years ago. Here's why it is the correct answer:
1. Archaeopteryx:
- Archaeopteryx is often referred to as the "first bird" because it possessed features of both dinosaurs and modern birds.
- It had wings, which were similar to the wings of birds, with feathers that allowed it to fly.
- In addition to wings, Archaeopteryx also had teeth, which is a characteristic not found in modern birds.
- The presence of teeth in Archaeopteryx indicates its reptilian ancestry.
2. Bird:
- While birds are known for their wings, they do not have teeth. Modern birds have evolved to have beaks instead, which are used for eating and catching prey.
- Therefore, option A (Bird) is incorrect because birds do not possess teeth.
3. Reptile:
- Reptiles, including dinosaurs, are known for their scaly skin and lack of wings.
- While some reptiles may have teeth, they do not possess wings.
- Therefore, option C (Reptile) is incorrect as it does not have both wings and teeth.
4. Equus:
- Equus refers to the genus that includes horses, zebras, and donkeys.
- Horses and related animals do not possess wings or teeth.
- Therefore, option D (Equus) is incorrect as it does not match the description of having both wings and teeth.
In conclusion, the correct answer is option B (Archaeopteryx) as it is a fossil that had both wings and teeth, making it a crucial transitional species between dinosaurs and modern birds.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 24
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Statement A : genetic recombination is one of the sources of variation. 

Statement B : Natural selection may lead to the evolution of a new group.
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 24
Statement A: Genetic recombination is one of the sources of variation.

Genetic recombination is a process that occurs during meiosis, where genetic material from two parent individuals is combined to create a new individual. This process leads to the creation of unique combinations of genes in offspring, resulting in genetic variation within a population.
Statement B: Natural selection may lead to the evolution of a new group.

Natural selection is the process by which certain traits become more or less common in a population over time. It occurs when individuals with advantageous traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on those traits to future generations. Over time, this can lead to the evolution of new groups or species as populations diverge and accumulate differences in traits.
Explanation:

Both Statement A and Statement B are true.
- Statement A: Genetic recombination is a well-established mechanism that contributes to genetic variation within a population. It allows for the shuffling and mixing of genetic material from different individuals, resulting in offspring with unique combinations of genes.
- Statement B: Natural selection is a driving force of evolution. It acts on the genetic variation present in a population and favors individuals with traits that increase their chances of survival and reproduction. Over time, this can lead to the formation of new groups or species as populations diverge and accumulate different adaptations.
Therefore, both genetic recombination and natural selection play important roles in shaping the variation and evolution of populations and are fundamental concepts in the study of biology.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 25
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What will be the sex of the embryo if an egg is fertilized by a sperm having a ‘22 + X’ composition?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 25
Explanation:
In humans, the sex of an individual is determined by the combination of sex chromosomes inherited from their parents. Females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY).
If an egg is fertilized by a sperm with a '22 X' composition, it means that the sperm has two X chromosomes. In this case, the resulting embryo will have an XX chromosome composition, which is characteristic of females.
Therefore, the sex of the embryo in this scenario will be female.
Summary:
An egg fertilized by a sperm with a '22 X' composition will result in a female embryo.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 26
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Match the following with correct response. 
(1) Transmission of characters from parent to offspring 
(2) Differences among the individual of same species 
(3) Branch of science deals with heredity and variation 
(4) Development of new organism by modifications in pre-existing ones 

(A) Hereditary 
(B) Genetics 
(C) Variation 
(D) Evolution
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 26

To match the given statements with their correct responses, we can analyze each statement and determine the corresponding term.
(1) Transmission of characters from parent to offspring: This refers to the passing of genetic information from parents to their offspring.
- Response: A. Hereditary
(2) Differences among individuals of the same species: This refers to the variations that exist among individuals within a species.
- Response: C. Variation
(3) Branch of science deals with heredity and variation: This refers to the specific field of study that focuses on the study of genes, heredity, and variations.
- Response: B. Genetics
(4) Development of a new organism by modifications in pre-existing ones: This refers to the process by which new organisms evolve through changes or modifications in pre-existing organisms.
- Response: D. Evolution
Therefore, the correct matching of the statements and their responses is:
- 1-A
- 2-C
- 3-B
- 4-D
Hence, the correct answer is C. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 27
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Which of the following is not true about Eukaryotes?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 27
Eukaryotes and their Chromosomes
Statement: Eukaryote chromosomes are haploid.
Explanation:
Eukaryotes are organisms that have cells with a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. They include plants, animals, fungi, and protists. Chromosomes in eukaryotes contain the genetic material, which is organized into DNA and associated proteins.
Let's analyze each option to determine which one is not true about eukaryotes:
A: Eukaryote chromosomes can be seen during the process of cell division:
- This statement is true. Eukaryote chromosomes become visible and can be observed under a microscope during cell division.
B: Eukaryote chromosomes are linear in shape:
- This statement is true. Eukaryote chromosomes are linear structures, meaning they have distinct ends.
C: Eukaryote chromosomes are haploid:
- This statement is not true. Eukaryote chromosomes are typically diploid, meaning they exist in pairs, with one set inherited from each parent.
D: Eukaryote chromosomes are made of DNA:
- This statement is true. Eukaryote chromosomes consist of DNA molecules tightly coiled around histone proteins.
Therefore, the answer is C: Eukaryote chromosomes are haploid, which is not true.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 28
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How are the two strands in a DNA molecule held together?
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 28
Explanation:
The two strands in a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds. Here's a detailed explanation of how this bonding occurs:
Structure of DNA:
- DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is a double-stranded molecule that consists of two long chains of nucleotides.
- Each nucleotide is composed of a sugar molecule (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine).
Hydrogen Bonding:
- The two strands of DNA are arranged in an antiparallel manner, where they run in opposite directions.
- The nitrogenous bases of the two strands are paired together, forming the rungs of the DNA ladder.
- Adenine (A) always pairs with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) always pairs with guanine (G).
- The base pairs are held together by hydrogen bonds.
- Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine, and cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds with guanine.
- These hydrogen bonds are relatively weak compared to covalent or ionic bonds but are strong enough to hold the two strands together.
Stability of DNA:
- The hydrogen bonding between the base pairs provides stability to the DNA molecule.
- The complementary base pairing allows for accurate replication and transcription of genetic information.
In conclusion, the two strands in a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds between the complementary nitrogenous bases. These hydrogen bonds play a crucial role in maintaining the structure and stability of DNA.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 29
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Name the disease which is likely to be caused due to ozone depletion.
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 29
Ozone Depletion and Disease:
Ozone depletion refers to the thinning of the ozone layer in the Earth's stratosphere, primarily caused by the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances. This depletion has significant consequences for human health and can lead to the development of various diseases. One such disease likely to be caused due to ozone depletion is skin cancer.
Explanation:
Here is a detailed explanation of why skin cancer is likely to be caused due to ozone depletion:
1. Increased Ultraviolet (UV) Radiation: Ozone depletion leads to an increase in UV radiation reaching the Earth's surface. UV radiation is known to be a major risk factor for skin cancer development.
2. Direct DNA Damage: UV radiation can directly damage the DNA in skin cells, leading to mutations that can promote the development of cancer.
3. Reduced Immune Response: Excessive UV radiation can weaken the immune system, making it less effective in detecting and eliminating cancerous cells.
4. Changes in Melanin Production: UV radiation can affect the production of melanin, the pigment responsible for skin color. Changes in melanin production can increase the risk of skin cancer.
5. Increasing Incidence: Studies have shown a correlation between ozone depletion and the increasing incidence of skin cancer, particularly melanoma, which is the most deadly form of skin cancer.
Therefore, due to ozone depletion and the subsequent increase in UV radiation, there is a higher risk of developing skin cancer. It is important to take precautions such as using sunscreen, wearing protective clothing, and seeking shade to minimize the harmful effects of UV radiation and reduce the risk of skin cancer.
CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 30
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‘Hug the trees movement’ was the result of grass root level effort to
Detailed Solution for CBSE Science 2017 - Final Preparation (Score Predictor Test) - Question 30
Explanation:
The 'Hug the trees movement' was a grass root level effort aimed at addressing the issue of alienation of people from their forests. Here is a detailed explanation of why option C is the correct answer:
1. Alienation of people from their forests:
- The movement was initiated to raise awareness about the importance of forests and the need to conserve them.
- It aimed to highlight the connection between people and forests, emphasizing the role of forests in providing various benefits such as clean air, water, and biodiversity.
- By hugging the trees, people showed their love and respect for the forests, which helped in ending the alienation and fostering a sense of ownership and responsibility towards them.
2. Improve the quality of soil and sources of water:
- While the movement indirectly contributed to improving the quality of soil and water sources, it was not the primary focus of the movement.
- The main objective of the movement was to address the issue of alienation and promote the conservation of forests.
3. Motivate industrialists to make industries based on forest products:
- The movement did not specifically target industrialists or aim to motivate them to make industries based on forest products.
- Its focus was on creating awareness and reconnecting people with forests, rather than promoting industrial activities.
4. All of these:
- Although improving the quality of soil and water sources is important and promoting industries based on forest products can be beneficial, these aspects were not the main goals of the 'Hug the trees movement'.
- The movement primarily aimed to end the alienation of people from their forests, making option C the correct answer.
In conclusion, the 'Hug the trees movement' was a grass root level effort to address the issue of alienation of people from their forests and promote the conservation of forests.
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