CDS I - English Question Paper 2019


119 Questions MCQ Test CDS (Combined Defence Services) Previous Years Papers | CDS I - English Question Paper 2019


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This mock test of CDS I - English Question Paper 2019 for Defence helps you for every Defence entrance exam. This contains 119 Multiple Choice Questions for Defence CDS I - English Question Paper 2019 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CDS I - English Question Paper 2019 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. Defence students definitely take this CDS I - English Question Paper 2019 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CDS I - English Question Paper 2019 extra questions, long questions & short questions for Defence on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

​Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

Out of the given options only “Upon and On” are grammatically correct options but the difference is that 'upon' is far more formal. So, “upon” will be used in the sentence.

QUESTION: 2

​Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

“painful” is the correct word in the context of the passage as war is being discussed and be its outcome or reason, the word that fits the blank should have a negative context. Thus, the other options including delightful, pleasant and lovely are incorrect.

QUESTION: 3

​Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

 “crime” is the correct option. As war can never be a duty, responsibility or moral obligation.

QUESTION: 4

​Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

A feeling is an emotion and it is related to thought which is already mentioned in the sentence. Sentiment is the outcome of feelings. So ‘feeling’ is more contextually correct.

QUESTION: 5

​Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

‘and’ and ‘both’ are used in pair as a conjunction. This gives us a hint that “both” is the correct answer. Thus, other options are eliminated.

QUESTION: 6

Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

“intimated” is the most appropriate option. It means to hint or imply. Thus it is most appropriate in the context of the passage.
Thought takes “of/about” after it, and suggested takes “to” after it thus these two are eliminated and “held” is out of context.

QUESTION: 7

Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

“questions” is the correct option contextually. It is because when one judging a situation ethically, it is moreover seen as a question of right or wrong.

QUESTION: 8

Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

“attempt” is the correct option contextually. The author here is admitting his feeling and calls this process as “attempt”.

QUESTION: 9

Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and it so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

“considered” is the correct option contextually. Here, the context is of bringing the question of right or wrongs into consideration. Rest of the options do not suit the context.

QUESTION: 10

Directions:
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The question of whether war is ever justified, and if so under what circumstances, is one which has been forcing itself ________ (1) the attention of all thoughtful men. On this question I find myself in the somewhat _______ (2) position of holding that no single one of the combatants is justified in the present war, while not taking the extreme Tolstoyan view that war is under all circumstances a _______ (3). Opinions on such a subject as war are the outcome of _________(4) rather than of thought: given a man’s emotional temperament, his convictions, ________(5) on war in general, and on any particular war which may occur during his lifetime, can be __________(6) with tolerable certainty. The arguments used will be mere reinforcements to convictions otherwise reached. The fundamental facts in this as in all ethical _________(7) are feelings; all that thought can do is to clarify and systematize the expression of those feelings, and it ¡s such clarifying and systematizing of my own feelings that I wish to __________(8) in the present article. In fact, the question of right and wrongs of a particular war is generally________(9) from a judicial or quasi-juridical ____________ (10).

Solution:

“standpoint” is the correct option contextually. It means a set of beliefs from which opinions are formed.

QUESTION: 11

The Nobel Prize for Chemistry this year is a tribute to the power of _____(11)____The laureates harnessed evolution and used it in the __(12)____with amazing results. Frances H. Arnold, an American who was given one-half of the prize, used ‘directed evolution’ to ___(13)______ variants of naturally occurring enzymes that could be used to ____(14)_____biofuels and pharmaceuticals. The other half went to George P. Smith, also of the U.S., and Sir Gregory P. Winter, from the U.K., who evolved antibodies to ___(15)______. Autoimmune diseases and even metastatic cancer through a process called phase display.

Solution:

“evolution” is the correct option contextually. As in the latter part of the passage, evolution has been discussed.

QUESTION: 12

The Nobel Prize for Chemistry this year is a tribute to the power of _____(11)____The laureates harnessed evolution and used it in the __(12)____with amazing results. Frances H. Arnold, an American who was given one-half of the prize, used ‘directed evolution’ to ___(13)______ variants of naturally occurring enzymes that could be used to ____(14)_____biofuels and pharmaceuticals. The other half went to George P. Smith, also of the U.S., and Sir Gregory P. Winter, from the U.K., who evolved antibodies to ___(15)______. Autoimmune diseases and even metastatic cancer through a process called phase display.

Solution:

“Laboratory” is the correct option contextually. As in the passage, chemical enzymes have been discussed. Thus, a laboratory is the most appropriate option.

QUESTION: 13

The Nobel Prize for Chemistry this year is a tribute to the power of _____(11)____The laureates harnessed evolution and used it in the __(12)____with amazing results. Frances H. Arnold, an American who was given one-half of the prize, used ‘directed evolution’ to ___(13)______ variants of naturally occurring enzymes that could be used to ____(14)_____biofuels and pharmaceuticals. The other half went to George P. Smith, also of the U.S., and Sir Gregory P. Winter, from the U.K., who evolved antibodies to ___(15)______. Autoimmune diseases and even metastatic cancer through a process called phase display.

Solution:

“synthesize” is the correct option contextually. It means to produce a substance by a chemical reaction in plants or animals or another micro-organism. The context here is regarding the evolution of enzymes, ‘synthesize’ is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 14

The Nobel Prize for Chemistry this year is a tribute to the power of _____(11)____The laureates harnessed evolution and used it in the __(12)____with amazing results. Frances H. Arnold, an American who was given one-half of the prize, used ‘directed evolution’ to ___(13)______ variants of naturally occurring enzymes that could be used to ____(14)_____biofuels and pharmaceuticals. The other half went to George P. Smith, also of the U.S., and Sir Gregory P. Winter, from the U.K., who evolved antibodies to ___(15)______. Autoimmune diseases and even metastatic cancer through a process called phase display.

Solution:

“manufacture” is the correct option contextually. It is because the context here is creating biofuels and pharmaceuticals from enzymes. So, “manufacture” is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 15

The Nobel Prize for Chemistry this year is a tribute to the power of _____(11)____The laureates harnessed evolution and used it in the __(12)____with amazing results. Frances H. Arnold, an American who was given one-half of the prize, used ‘directed evolution’ to ___(13)______ variants of naturally occurring enzymes that could be used to ____(14)_____biofuels and pharmaceuticals. The other half went to George P. Smith, also of the U.S., and Sir Gregory P. Winter, from the U.K., who evolved antibodies to ___(15)______. Autoimmune diseases and even metastatic cancer through a process called phase display.

Solution:

The work of antibodies it to fight with diseases like cancer. The word “combat” is a synonym of the fight and thus, it is the correct option contextually.

QUESTION: 16

Directions :
In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: He no longer dreamed of storms, nor of women, nor of great occurrences, nor of great fish, nor fights, nor contests of strength, nor of his wife.
S6: He urinated outside the shack and then went up the road to wake the boy.
P: He never dreamed about the boy.
Q: He only dreamed of places and of the lions on the beach now.
R: He simply woke, looked out through the open door at the moon and unrolled his trousers and put them on.
S: They played like young cats in the dusk and he loved them as he loved the boy.
The correct sequence should be

Solution:

QSPR is the correct order in which sentences should be arranged. When arranged in the correct sequence, they read as “He no longer dreamed of storms, nor of women, nor of great occurrences, nor of great fish, nor fights, nor contests of strength, nor of his wife. He simply woke, looked out through the open door at the moon and unrolled his trousers and put them on. He only dreamed of places now and of the lions on the beach. They played like young cats in the dusk and he loved them as he loved the boy. He never dreamed about the boy. He urinated outside the shack and then went up the road to wake the boy.”

QUESTION: 17

Directions :
In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: We do not know, after 60 years of the equation, how to protect ourselves against epidemics like cholera and plague.
S6: This is the disastrous result of the system under which we are educated.
P: If our doctors could have started learning medicine at an earlier age, they would not make such a poor show as they do.
Q: I have seen hundreds of homes. I cannot say that I have found any evidence in them of knowledge of hygiene.
R: I consider it a very serious blot on the state of our education that our doctors have not found it possible to eradicate these diseases.
S: I have the greatest doubt whether our graduates know what one should do in the case one is bitten by a snake.
The correct sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 18

Directions :
In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: The weak have no place here, in this life or in any other life. Weakness leads to slavery.
S6: This is a great fact: strength is life, weakness is death. Strength is felicity, life eternal, immortal; weakness is constant strain and misery: weakness is death.
P: They dare not approach us, they have no power to get a hold on us, until the mind is weakened.
Q: Weakness leads to all kinds of misery, physical and mental. Weakness is death.
R: But they cannot harm us unless we become weak until the body is ready and predisposed to receive them.
S: There are hundreds of thousands of microbes surrounding us.
The correct sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 19

Directions :
In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: The Nobel Prize for Economics in 2018 was awarded to Paul Romer and William Nordhaus for their work in two separate areas: economic growth and environmental economics respectively.
S6: Among recent winners of Nobel Prize in Economics, it’s hard to think of one issue which is more topical and relevant to India.
P: But there is a common thread in their work.
Q: In economic jargon, it’s termed as an externality.
R: Productive activity often has spillovers, meaning that it can impact an unrelated party.
S: Romer and Nordhaus both studied the impact of externalities and came up with profound insights and economic models.
The correct sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 20

Directions :
In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: India’s museums tend to be dreary experiences.
S6: Because it’s better to attract crowds than dust.
P: Even the Louvre that attracted an eye-popping 8.1 million visitors last year compared to India’s 10.18 million foreign tourists, has hooked up with Beyonce and Jay-Z for promotion, where they take a selfie with Mona Lisa.
Q: Our museums need to get cool too.
R: A change of approach is clearly called for.
S: Troops of restless schoolchildren are often the most frequent visitors, endlessly being told to lower their voices and not touch the art.
The correct sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 21

Directions :
In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: A decade ago UN recognized that rape can constitute a war crime and a constitutive act of genocide.
S6: The fact that these two peace laureates come from two different nations underlines that this problem has been widespread, from Rwanda to Myanmar.
P: This year’s Nobel peace prize has been awarded to two exceptional individuals for their fight to end the use of sexual violence as a weapon of war.
Q: Denis Mukwege is a doctor who has spent decades treating rape survivors in the Democratic Republic of Congo, where a long civil war has repeatedly witnessed the horror of mass rapes.
R: Nadia Murad is herself a survivor of sexual war crimes, perpetrated by IS against the Yazidis.
S: Today she campaigns tirelessly to put those IS leaders in the dock in international courts.
The correct sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 22

Directions :
In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: The climate question presents a leapfrog era for India’s development paradigm.
S6: This presents a good template for India, building on its existing plans to introduce electric mobility through buses first, and cars by 2030.
P: It is aimed at achieving a shift to sustainable fuels, getting cities to commit to eco-friendly mobility and delivering more walkable communities, all of which will improve the quality of urban life.
Q: At the Bonn conference, a new Transport Decarbonisation Alliance has been declared.
R: This has to be resolutely pursued, breaking down the barriers to wider adoption of rooftop solar energy at every level and implementing net metering systems for all categories of consumers.
S: Already, the country has chalked out an ambitious policy on renewable energy, hoping to generate 175 gigawatts of power from green sources by 2022.
The correct sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 23

Directions :
In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: In a globalized world, no country can hope to impose tariffs without affecting its own economic interests.
S6: The ongoing trade war also threatens the rules-based global trade order which has managed to amicably handle trade disputes between countries for decades.
P: So both the U.S. and China, which have blamed each other for the ongoing trade war, are doing no good to their own economic fortunes by engaging in this tit-for-tat tariff battle.
Q: Apart from disadvantaging its consumers, who will have to pay higher prices for certain goods, tariffs will also disrupt the supply chain of producers who rely on foreign imports.
R : China, which is fighting an economic slowdown, will be equally affected.
S: The minutes of the U.S. Federal Reserve June policy meeting show that economic uncertainty due to the trade war is already affecting private investment in the U.S., with many investors deciding to scale back or delay their investment plans.
The correct sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 24

Directions :
In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labeled as P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: The dawn of the information age opened up great opportunities for the beneficial use of data.
S6: To some, in this era of Big Data analytics and automated, algorithm-based processing of zettabytes of information, the fear that their personal data may be unprotected may conjure up visions of a dystopian world in which individual liberties are compromised.
P: But it is the conflict between the massive scope for progress provided by the digital era and the fear of loss of individual autonomy that is foregrounded in any debates about data protection laws.
Q: It also enhanced the perils of unregulated and arbitrary use of personal data.
R: It is against this backdrop that the White Paper made public to elicit views from the public on the shape and substance of a comprehensive data protection law assumes significances.
S: Unauthorised leaks, hacking, and other cyber crimes have rendered databases vulnerable.
The correct sequence should be

Solution:
QUESTION: 25

Directions :
In this section, you have a few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Passage — I
From 1600 to 1757 the East India Company’s role in India was that of a trading corporation which brought goods or precious metals into India and exchanged them for Indian goods like textiles and spices, which it sold abroad. Its profits came primarily from the sale of Indian goods abroad. Naturally, it tried constantly to open new markets for Indian goods in Britain and other countries. Thereby, it increased the export of Indian manufacturers, and thus encouraged their production. This is the reason why Indian rulers tolerated and even encouraged the establishment of the Company’s factories in India. But, from the very beginning, the British manufacturers were jealous of the popularity that India textiles enjoyed in Britain. All of a sudden, dress fashions changed and light cotton textiles began to replace the coarse woolens of the English, Before, the author of the famous novel, Robinson Crusoe, complained that Indian cloth had “crept into our houses, our closets and bedchambers; curtains, cushions, chairs, and at last beds themselves were nothing but calicos or India stuffs”. The British manufacturers put pressure on their government to restrict and prohibit the sale of Indian goods in England. By 1720, laws had been passed forbidding the wear or use of printed or dyed cotton cloth, in 1760 a lady had to pay a fine of 200 for possessing an imported handkerchief! Moreover, heavy duties were imposed on the import of plain cloth. Other European countries, except Holland. also either prohibited the import of Indian cloth or imposed heavy import duties. In spite of these laws, however, Indian silk and cotton textiles still held their own in foreign markets, until the middle of the eighteenth century when the English textile industry began to develop on the basis of new and advanced technology.

Q. ​The people of England used Indian clothes because

Solution:

“The Indian textile was light cotton” is the correct reason as per the passage.

QUESTION: 26

Directions :
In this section, you have a few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Passage — I
From 1600 to 1757 the East India Company’s role in India was that of a trading corporation which brought goods or precious metals into India and exchanged them for Indian goods like textiles and spices, which it sold abroad. Its profits came primarily from the sale of Indian goods abroad. Naturally, it tried constantly to open new markets for Indian goods in Britain and other countries. Thereby, it increased the export of Indian manufacturers, and thus encouraged their production. This is the reason why Indian rulers tolerated and even encouraged the establishment of the Company’s factories in India. But, from the very beginning, the British manufacturers were jealous of the popularity that India textiles enjoyed in Britain. All of a sudden, dress fashions changed and light cotton textiles began to replace the coarse woolens of the English, Before, the author of the famous novel, Robinson Crusoe, complained that Indian cloth had “crept into our houses, our closets and bedchambers; curtains, cushions, chairs, and at last beds themselves were nothing but calicos or India stuffs”. The British manufacturers put pressure on their government to restrict and prohibit the sale of Indian goods in England. By 1720, laws had been passed forbidding the wear or use of printed or dyed cotton cloth, in 1760 a lady had to pay a fine of 200 for possessing an imported handkerchief! Moreover, heavy duties were imposed on the import of plain cloth. Other European countries, except Holland. also either prohibited the import of Indian cloth or imposed heavy import duties. In spite of these laws, however, Indian silk and cotton textiles still held their own in foreign markets, until the middle of the eighteenth century when the English textile industry began to develop on the basis of new and advanced technology.

Q. ​The East India Company was encouraging the export of Indian manufacturers because

Solution:

“it profited from the sale of Indian goods in the foreign market” is the correct reason as per the passage.

QUESTION: 27

Directions :
In this section, you have a few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Passage — I
From 1600 to 1757 the East India Company’s role in India was that of a trading corporation which brought goods or precious metals into India and exchanged them for Indian goods like textiles and spices, which it sold abroad. Its profits came primarily from the sale of Indian goods abroad. Naturally, it tried constantly to open new markets for Indian goods in Britain and other countries. Thereby, it increased the export of Indian manufacturers, and thus encouraged their production. This is the reason why Indian rulers tolerated and even encouraged the establishment of the Company’s factories in India. But, from the very beginning, the British manufacturers were jealous of the popularity that India textiles enjoyed in Britain. All of a sudden, dress fashions changed and light cotton textiles began to replace the coarse woolens of the English, Before, the author of the famous novel, Robinson Crusoe, complained that Indian cloth had “crept into our houses, our closets and bedchambers; curtains, cushions, chairs, and at last beds themselves were nothing but calicos or India stuffs”. The British manufacturers put pressure on their government to restrict and prohibit the sale of Indian goods in England. By 1720, laws had been passed forbidding the wear or use of printed or dyed cotton cloth, in 1760 a lady had to pay a fine of 200 for possessing an imported handkerchief! Moreover, heavy duties were imposed on the import of plain cloth. Other European countries, except Holland. also either prohibited the import of Indian cloth or imposed heavy import duties. In spite of these laws, however, Indian silk and cotton textiles still held their own in foreign markets, until the middle of the eighteenth century when the English textile industry began to develop on the basis of new and advanced technology.

Q. ​What did the British manufacturer do to compete with the Indian manufacturers?

Solution:

“they pressurized the government….” is the correct option as per the passage.

QUESTION: 28

Directions :
In this section, you have a few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Passage — I
From 1600 to 1757 the East India Company’s role in India was that of a trading corporation which brought goods or precious metals into India and exchanged them for Indian goods like textiles and spices, which is sold abroad. Its profits came primarily from the sale of Indian goods abroad. Naturally, it tried constantly to open new markets for Indian goods in Britain and other countries. Thereby, it increased the export of Indian manufacturers, and thus encouraged their production. This is the reason why Indian rulers tolerated and even encouraged the establishment of the Company’s factories in India. But, from the very beginning, the British manufacturers were jealous of the popularity that India textiles enjoyed in Britain. All of a sudden, dress fashions changed and light cotton textiles began to replace the coarse woolens of the English, Before, the author of the famous novel, Robinson Crusoe, complained that Indian cloth had “crept into our houses, our closets and bedchambers; curtains, cushions, chairs, and at last beds themselves were nothing but calicos or India stuffs”. The British manufacturers put pressure on their government to restrict and prohibit the sale of Indian goods in England. By 1720, laws had been passed forbidding the wear or use of printed or dyed cotton cloth, in 1760 a lady had to pay a fine of 200 for possessing an imported handkerchief! Moreover, heavy duties were imposed on the import of plain cloth. Other European countries, except Holland. also either prohibited the import of Indian cloth or imposed heavy import duties. In spite of these laws, however, Indian silk and cotton textiles still held their own in foreign markets, until the middle of the eighteenth century when the English textile industry began to develop on the basis of new and advanced technology.

Q. ​Which source is cited by the author to argue that Indian textile was in huge demand in 18th century England?

Solution:

“literary source” has been cited by the author.

QUESTION: 29

Directions :
In this section, you have a few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.
Passage — I
From 1600 to 1757 the East India Company’s role in India was that of a trading corporation which brought goods or precious metals into India and exchanged them for Indian goods like textiles and spices, which is sold abroad. Its profits came primarily from the sale of Indian goods abroad. Naturally, it tried constantly to open new markets for Indian goods in Britain and other countries. Thereby, it increased the export of Indian manufacturers, and thus encouraged their production. This is the reason why Indian rulers tolerated and even encouraged the establishment of the Company’s factories in India. But, from the very beginning, the British manufacturers were jealous of the popularity that India textiles enjoyed in Britain. All of a sudden, dress fashions changed and light cotton textiles began to replace the coarse woolens of the English, Before, the author of the famous novel, Robinson Crusoe, complained that Indian cloth had “crept into our houses, our closets and bedchambers; curtains, cushions, chairs, and at last beds themselves were nothing but calicos or India stuffs”. The British manufacturers put pressure on their government to restrict and prohibit the sale of Indian goods in England. By 1720, laws had been passed forbidding the wear or use of printed or dyed cotton cloth, in 1760 a lady had to pay a fine of 200 for possessing an imported handkerchief! Moreover, heavy duties were imposed on the import of plain cloth. Other European countries, except Holland. also either prohibited the import of Indian cloth or imposed heavy import duties. In spite of these laws, however, Indian silk and cotton textiles still held their own in foreign markets, until the middle of the eighteenth century when the English textile industry began to develop on the basis of new and advanced technology.

Q. “New and advanced technology” in the paragraph refers to

Solution:

“revolution” is referred to in the paragraph.

QUESTION: 30

Zimbabwe’s prolonged political crisis reached the boiling point earlier this month when President Robert Mugabe dismissed the Vice-President, Emmerson Mnangagwa. A battle to succeed the 93-year-old liberation hero-turned President had already been brewing within the ruling Zimbabwe African National Union-Patriotic Front (Zanu-PF), with the old guard backing Mr. Mnangagwa, himself a freedom fighter, and ‘Generation 40’, a grouping of younger leaders supporting Mr, Mugabe’s 52-year-old wife, Grace. Ms. Mugabe, known, for her extravagant lifestyle and interfering ways, has been vocal in recent months about her political ambitions. Mr. Mugabe was seen to have endorsed iii when on November 6 he dismissed Mr. Mnangagwa. But Mr. Mugabe who has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence in 1980, erred on Two counts: he underimat&1 the deep connections Mr. Mnangagwa has within the establishment and overestimated his own power in a system he has helped shape. In the good old days, Mr. Mugabe was able to rule with an iron grip. But those days are gone. Age and health problems have weakened his hold on power, while there is a groundswell of anger among the public over economic mismanagement. So when he turned against a man long seen by the establishment as his successor, Mr. Mugabe left little doubt that he was acting from a position of political weakness. This gave the security forces the confidence to turn against him and make it clear they didn’t want a Mugabe dynasty. The military doesn’t want to call its action a coup d’etat, for obvious reasons. A coup would attract international condemnation, even sanctions. But it is certain that the army chief, General. Constantine Chiwenga is in charge. His plan as it emerges is to force Mr. Mugabe to resign and install a transitional government, perhaps under Mr. Mnangagwa, until elections are held.

Q. In the paragraph, who has been called liberation hero?

Solution:
QUESTION: 31

Zimbabwe’s prolonged political crisis reached the boiling point earlier this month when President Robert Mugabe dismissed the Vice-President, Emmerson Mnangagwa. A battle to succeed the 93-year-old liberation hero-turned President had already been brewing within the ruling Zimbabwe African National Union-Patriotic Front (Zanu-PF), with the old guard backing Mr. Mnangagwa, himself a freedom fighter, and ‘Generation 40’, a grouping of younger leaders supporting Mr, Mugabe’s 52-year-old wife, Grace. Ms. Mugabe, known, for her extravagant lifestyle and interfering ways, has been vocal in recent months about her political ambitions. Mr. Mugabe was seen to have endorsed iii when on November 6 he dismissed Mr. Mnangagwa. But Mr. Mugabe who has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence in 1980, erred on Two counts: he underimat&1 the deep connections Mr. Mnangagwa has within the establishment and overestimated his own power in a system he has helped shape. In the good old days, Mr. Mugabe was able to rule with an iron grip. But those days are gone. Age and health problems have weakened his hold on power, while there is a groundswell of anger among the public over economic mismanagement. So when he turned against a man long seen by the establishment as his successor, Mr. Mugabe left little doubt that he was acting from a position of political weakness. This gave the security forces the confidence to turn against him and make it clear they didn’t want a Mugabe dynasty. The military doesn’t want to call its action a coup d’etat, for obvious reasons. A coup would attract international condemnation, even sanctions. But it is certain that the army chief, General. Constantine Chiwenga is in charge. His plan as it emerges is to force Mr. Mugabe to resign and install a transitional government, perhaps under Mr. Mnangagwa, until elections are held.

Q. Mrs. Mugabe is supported by

Solution:
QUESTION: 32

Zimbabwe’s prolonged political crisis reached the boiling point earlier this month when President Robert Mugabe dismissed the Vice-President, Emmerson Mnangagwa. A battle to succeed the 93-year-old liberation hero-turned President had already been brewing within the ruling Zimbabwe African National Union-Patriotic Front (Zanu-PF), with the old guard backing Mr. Mnangagwa, himself a freedom fighter, and ‘Generation 40’, a grouping of younger leaders supporting Mr, Mugabe’s 52-year-old wife, Grace. Ms. Mugabe, known, for her extravagant lifestyle and interfering ways, has been vocal in recent months about her political ambitions. Mr. Mugabe was seen to have endorsed iii when on November 6 he dismissed Mr. Mnangagwa. But Mr. Mugabe who has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence in 1980, erred on Two counts: he underimat&1 the deep connections Mr. Mnangagwa has within the establishment and overestimated his own power in a system he has helped shape. In the good old days, Mr. Mugabe was able to rule with an iron grip. But those days are gone. Age and health problems have weakened his hold on power, while there is a groundswell of anger among the public over economic mismanagement. So when he turned against a man long seen by the establishment as his successor, Mr. Mugabe left little doubt that he was acting from a position of political weakness. This gave the security forces the confidence to turn against him and make it clear they didn’t want a Mugabe dynasty. The military doesn’t want to call its action a coup d’etat, for obvious reasons. A coup would attract international condemnation, even sanctions. But it is certain that the army chief, General. Constantine Chiwenga is in charge. His plan as it emerges is to force Mr. Mugabe to resign and install a transitional government, perhaps under Mr. Mnangagwa, until elections are held.

Q. Mr. Mugabe’s political weakness became apparent when

Solution:
QUESTION: 33

Zimbabwe’s prolonged political crisis reached the boiling point earlier this month when President Robert Mugabe dismissed the Vice-President, Emmerson Mnangagwa. A battle to succeed the 93-year-old liberation hero-turned President had already been brewing within the ruling Zimbabwe African National Union-Patriotic Front (Zanu-PF), with the old guard backing Mr. Mnangagwa, himself a freedom fighter, and ‘Generation 40’, a grouping of younger leaders supporting Mr, Mugabe’s 52-year-old wife, Grace. Ms. Mugabe, known, for her extravagant lifestyle and interfering ways, has been vocal in recent months about her political ambitions. Mr. Mugabe was seen to have endorsed iii when on November 6 he dismissed Mr. Mnangagwa. But Mr. Mugabe who has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence in 1980, erred on Two counts: he underimat&1 the deep connections Mr. Mnangagwa has within the establishment and overestimated his own power in a system he has helped shape. In the good old days, Mr. Mugabe was able to rule with an iron grip. But those days are gone. Age and health problems have weakened his hold on power, while there is a groundswell of anger among the public over economic mismanagement. So when he turned against a man long seen by the establishment as his successor, Mr. Mugabe left little doubt that he was acting from a position of political weakness. This gave the security forces the confidence to turn against him and make it clear they didn’t want a Mugabe dynasty. The military doesn’t want to call its action a coup d’etat, for obvious reasons. A coup would attract international condemnation, even sanctions. But it is certain that the army chief, General. Constantine Chiwenga is in charge. His plan as it emerges is to force Mr. Mugabe to resign and install a transitional government, perhaps under Mr. Mnangagwa, until elections are held.

Q. The security forces of Zimbabwe staged a coup against the President because

Solution:
QUESTION: 34

Zimbabwe’s prolonged political crisis reached the boiling point earlier this month when President Robert Mugabe dismissed the Vice-President, Emmerson Mnangagwa. A battle to succeed the 93-year-old liberation hero-turned President had already been brewing within the ruling Zimbabwe African National Union-Patriotic Front (Zanu-PF), with the old guard backing Mr. Mnangagwa, himself a freedom fighter, and ‘Generation 40’, a grouping of younger leaders supporting Mr, Mugabe’s 52-year-old wife, Grace. Ms. Mugabe, known, for her extravagant lifestyle and interfering ways, has been vocal in recent months about her political ambitions. Mr. Mugabe was seen to have endorsed iii when on November 6 he dismissed Mr. Mnangagwa. But Mr. Mugabe who has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence in 1980, erred on Two counts: he underimat&1 the deep connections Mr. Mnangagwa has within the establishment and overestimated his own power in a system he has helped shape. In the good old days, Mr. Mugabe was able to rule with an iron grip. But those days are gone. Age and health problems have weakened his hold on power, while there is a groundswell of anger among the public over economic mismanagement. So when he turned against a man long seen by the establishment as his successor, Mr. Mugabe left little doubt that he was acting from a position of political weakness. This gave the security forces the confidence to turn against him and make it clear they didn’t want a Mugabe dynasty. The military doesn’t want to call its action a coup d’etat, for obvious reasons. A coup would attract international condemnation, even sanctions. But it is certain that the army chief, General. Constantine Chiwenga is in charge. His plan as it emerges is to force Mr. Mugabe to resign and install a transitional government, perhaps under Mr. Mnangagwa, until elections are held.

Q. Why does the military not want to call it a coup d’etat?

Solution:
QUESTION: 35

Over-eating is one of the most wonderful practices among those who think that they can afford it. In fact, authorities say that nearly all who can get as much as they desire, over-eat to their disadvantage. This class of people could save a great more food than they can save by missing one meal per week and at the same time they could improve their health. A heavy meal at night, the so-called “dinner”, is the fashion with many and often is taken shortly before retiring. It is unnecessary and could be forgone, not only once a week but daily without loss of strength. From three to five hours are needed to digest food. While sleeping, this food not being required to give energy for work, is in many cases converted into excess fat, giving rise to overweight. The evening meal should be light, taken three or four hours before retiring. This prevents overeating, conserves energy and reduces the cost of food. 

Q. Why should those who over-eat refrain from doing so?

Solution:
QUESTION: 36

Over-eating is one of the most wonderful practices among those who think that they can afford it. In fact, authorities say that nearly all who can get as much as they desire, over-eat to their disadvantage. This class of people could save a great more food than they can save by missing one meal per week and at the same time they could improve their health. A heavy meal at night, the so-called “dinner”, is the fashion with many and often is taken shortly before retiring. It is unnecessary and could be forgone, not only once a week but daily without loss of strength. From three to five hours are needed to digest food. While sleeping, this food not being required to give energy for work is in many cases converted into excess fat, giving rise to overweight. The evening meal should be light, taken three or four hours before retiring. This prevents overeating, conserves energy and reduces the cost of food. 

Q. Over-eating is more prevalent among

Solution:
QUESTION: 37

Over-eating is one of the most wonderful practices among those who think that they can afford it. In fact, authorities say that nearly all who can get as much as they desire, over-eat to their disadvantage. This class of people could save a great more food than they can save by missing one meal per week and at the same time they could improve their health. A heavy meal at night, the so-called “dinner”, is the fashion with many and often is taken shortly before retiring. It is unnecessary and could be forgone, not only once a week but daily without loss of strength. From three to five hours are needed to digest food. While sleeping, this food not being required to give energy for work is in many cases converted into excess fat, giving rise to overweight. The evening meal should be light, taken three or four hours before retiring. This prevents overeating, conserves energy and reduces the cost of food. 

Q. The writer is asking the readers

Solution:
QUESTION: 38

Over-eating is one of the most wonderful practices among those who think that they can afford it. In fact, authorities say that nearly all who can get as much as they desire, over-eat to their disadvantage. This class of people could save a great more food than they can save by missing one meal per week and at the same time they could improve their health. A heavy meal at night, the so-called “dinner”, is the fashion with many and often is taken shortly before retiring. It is unnecessary and could be forgone, not only once a week but daily without loss of strength. From three to five hours are needed to digest food. While sleeping, this food not being required to give energy for work is in many cases converted into excess fat, giving rise to overweight. The evening meal should be light, taken three or four hours before retiring. This prevents overeating, conserves energy and reduces the cost of food. 

Q. What is the most appropriate time for having an evening meal?

Solution:
QUESTION: 39

Over-eating is one of the most wonderful practices among those who think that they can afford it. In fact, authorities say that nearly all who can get as much as they desire, over-eat to their disadvantage. This class of people could save a great more food than they can save by missing one meal per week and at the same time they could improve their health. A heavy meal at night, the so-called “dinner”, is the fashion with many and often is taken shortly before retiring. It is unnecessary and could be forgone, not only once a week but daily without loss of strength. From three to five hours are needed to digest food. While sleeping, this food not being required to give energy for work is in many cases converted into excess fat, giving rise to overweight. The evening meal should be light, taken three or four hours before retiring. This prevents overeating, conserves energy and reduces the cost of food. 

Q. According to the passage, how many times a day should we have food?

Solution:
QUESTION: 40

Over-eating is one of the most wonderful practices among those who think that they can afford it. In fact, authorities say that nearly all who can get as much as they desire, over-eat to their disadvantage. This class of people could save a great more food than they can save by missing one meal per week and at the same time they could improve their health. A heavy meal at night, the so-called “dinner”, is the fashion with many and often is taken shortly before retiring. It is unnecessary and could be forgone, not only once a week but daily without loss of strength. From three to five hours are needed to digest food. While sleeping, this food not being required to give energy for work is in many cases converted into excess fat, giving rise to overweight. The evening meal should be light, taken three or four hours before retiring. This prevents overeating, conserves energy and reduces the cost of food. 

Q. According to the passage, people overeat

Solution:
QUESTION: 41

Much has been said of the common ground of religious unity. I am not going just now to venture own theory. But if anyone here hopes that this unity will come by the triumph of any one of the religions and the destruction of the others, to him I say, “Bother, yours is an impossible hope.” Do I wish that the Christian would become Hindu? God forbid. Do I wish that the Hindu or Buddhist would become Christian? God forbid.
The seed is put in the ground, and earth and air and water are placed around it. Does the seed become the earth, or the air, or the water? No. It becomes a plant. ¡t develops after the law of its own growth, assimilates the air, the earth, and the water, converts them into plant substance, and grows into a plant.
Similar is the case with religion. The Christian is not to become a Hindu or a Buddhist, nor a Hindu or a Buddhist to become a Christian. But each must assimilate the spirit of the others and yet preserve his individuality and grow according to his own law of growth.
If the Parliament of Religions has shown anything to the world, it is this: it has proved to the world that holiness, purity, and charity are not the exclusive possessions of any church in the world and that every system has produced men and women of the most exalted character. In the face of this evidence, if anybody dreams of the exclusive survival of his own religion and the destruction of the others, I pity him from the bottom of my heart, and point out to him that upon the banner of every religion will soon be written in spite of resistance: “Help and not fight,” “Assimilation and not Destruction,” “Harmony and Peace and not Dissension.”

Q. According to the author of the passage, people should

Solution:
QUESTION: 42

Much has been said of the common ground of religious unity. I am not going just now to venture own theory. But if anyone here hopes that this unity will come by the triumph of any one of the religions and the destruction of the others, to him I say, “Bother, yours is an impossible hope.” Do I wish that the Christian would become Hindu? God forbid. Do I wish that the Hindu or Buddhist would become Christian? God forbid.
The seed is put in the ground, and earth and air and water are placed around it. Does the seed become the earth, or the air, or the water? No. It becomes a plant. ¡t develops after the law of its own growth, assimilates the air, the earth, and the water, converts them into plant substance, and grows into a plant.
Similar is the case with religion. The Christian is not to become a Hindu or a Buddhist, nor a Hindu or a Buddhist to become a Christian. But each must assimilate the spirit of the others and yet preserve his individuality and grow according to his own law of growth.
If the Parliament of Religions has shown anything to the world, it is this: it has proved to the world that holiness, purity, and charity are not the exclusive possessions of any church in the world and that every system has produced men and women of the most exalted character. In the face of this evidence, if anybody dreams of the exclusive survival of his own religion and the destruction of the others, I pity him from the bottom of my heart, and point out to him that upon the banner of every religion will soon be written in spite of resistance: “Help and not fight,” “Assimilation and not Destruction,” “Harmony and Peace and not Dissension.”

Q. The Parliament of Religions is

Solution:
QUESTION: 43

Much has been said of the common ground of religious unity. I am not going just now to venture own theory. But if anyone here hopes that this unity will come by the triumph of any one of the religions and the destruction of the others, to him I say, “Bother, yours is an impossible hope.” Do I wish that the Christian would become Hindu? God forbid. Do I wish that the Hindu or Buddhist would become Christian? God forbid.
The seed is put in the ground, and earth and air and water are placed around it. Does the seed become the earth, or the air, or the water? No. It becomes a plant. ¡t develops after the law of its own growth, assimilates the air, the earth, and the water, converts them into plant substance, and grows into a plant.
Similar is the case with religion. The Christian is not to become a Hindu or a Buddhist, nor a Hindu or a Buddhist to become a Christian. But each must assimilate the spirit of the others and yet preserve his individuality and grow according to his own law of growth.
If the Parliament of Religions has shown anything to the world, it is this: it has proved to the world that holiness, purity, and charity are not the exclusive possessions of any church in the world and that every system has produced men and women of the most exalted character. In the face of this evidence, if anybody dreams of the exclusive survival of his own religion and the destruction of the others, I pity him from the bottom of my heart, and point out to him that upon the banner of every religion will soon be written in spite of resistance: “Help and not fight,” “Assimilation and not Destruction,” “Harmony and Peace and not Dissension.”

Q. What does the author think about those who dream about the exclusive survival of their own religions and the destruction of the others?

Solution:
QUESTION: 44

Much has been said of the common ground of religious unity. I am not going just now to venture own theory. But if anyone here hopes that this unity will come by the triumph of any one of the religions and the destruction of the others, to him I say, “Bother, yours is an impossible hope.” Do I wish that the Christian would become Hindu? God forbid. Do I wish that the Hindu or Buddhist would become Christian? God forbid.
The seed is put in the ground, and earth and air and water are placed around it. Does the seed become the earth, or the air, or the water? No. It becomes a plant. ¡t develops after the law of its own growth, assimilates the air, the earth, and the water, converts them into plant substance, and grows into a plant.
Similar is the case with religion. The Christian is not to become a Hindu or a Buddhist, nor a Hindu or a Buddhist to become a Christian. But each must assimilate the spirit of the others and yet preserve his individuality and grow according to his own law of growth.
If the Parliament of Religions has shown anything to the world, it is this: it has proved to the world that holiness, purity, and charity are not the exclusive possessions of any church in the world and that every system has produced men and women of the most exalted character. In the face of this evidence, if anybody dreams of the exclusive survival of his own religion and the destruction of the others, I pity him from the bottom of my heart, and point out to him that upon the banner of every religion will soon be written in spite of resistance: “Help and not fight,” “Assimilation and not Destruction,” “Harmony and Peace and not Dissension.”

Q. According to the passage, what is “impossible hope”?

Solution:
QUESTION: 45

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. How we _________ to aging is a choice we must make wisely.

Solution:

“respond” is the correct option. It is because only “respond” takes the preposition “to” after it in the given options.

QUESTION: 46

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Complementary medicine _______ fewer risks, since it is used along with standard remedies, often to lessen side-effects and enhance feelings of well-being.

Solution:

“carries” is the correct option. It is because the context here is of having fewer risk and the verb “carry” is also used in the context of having something with you all the time.

QUESTION: 47

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Stress may ___________ fertility in men and women.

Solution:

“reduce” is the correct option. Reduce means make smaller or less in amount, degree, or size and the context here is reducing fertility in men and women.

QUESTION: 48

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The football match had to be __________ because of the weather.

Solution:

The sentence gives us a sense that the football match was canceled due to bad weather. So, the phrasal verb which means to cancel will be used in the given context. “Call off” means to cancel something such a sports event, or to end an activity because it is no longer useful or possible.

QUESTION: 49

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Nobody believed Ram at first but he _____________ to be right.

Solution:

“turned out” is the correct option it means to be disclosed. The context here is believing something final when no one was doing it earlier. In this context, “turn out” is the correct answer as it means to be known or discovered finally and surprisingly.

QUESTION: 50

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. How are you ___________ in your new job? Are you enjoying it?

Solution:

“going on” is the correct option as it denotes the progressive state of anything. The sentence also talks about enjoying something in a progressive state.

QUESTION: 51

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. We live __________ a tower block. Our apartment is on the fifteenth floor.

Solution:

“in” is the correct option. The preposition “in” is used to denote a location within a larger area.

QUESTION: 52

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. You were going to apply for the job, and then you decided not to. So what _________?

Solution:

The sentence shows two states of mind. The person was going to apply for a job initially but later he did not. So, “turned you off” is the correct option. It means to lose interest in something after mind changes its opinion.

QUESTION: 53

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. _________ it was raining, he went out without a raincoat.

Solution:

“Although” is the correct option. Although is a conjunction which is used to join two clauses denoting “despite the fact that”. In the sentence, the person went out without wearing a raincoat despite the fact that it was raining.

QUESTION: 54

Directions :
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words are given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. I parked my car in a no-parking zone, but I__________ it.

Solution:

“got away with” is the correct option as it means to escape a situation. In the sentence, the person parked his car in an un-authorized area but escape the situation without getting into any trouble.

QUESTION: 55

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. A provocative message had been doing rounds on social media to instigate the mob against migrants.

Solution:

“Inflammatory” is the correct option.
Provocative: Causing anger deliberately.
Inflammatory: Causing anger deliberately.
Dexterous: showing or having a skill, especially with the hands
Valiant = possessing or showing courage or determination.
Prudent = acting with or showing care and thought for the future.

QUESTION: 56

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The differences include an increase in mean temperature and heavy precipitation in several regions.

Solution:

Precipitation: water that falls from the clouds towards the ground, especially as rain or snow
Drought = a long period when there is little or no rain
Oasis = a region in the desert area where there is greenery due to the presence of water
“rainfall” is the correct option.

QUESTION: 57

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The portal will help victims and complainants to anonymously report cybercrime.

Solution:

Anonymously: Not defined by name; made or done by someone whose name is not known or not made public
Incognito = having one's true identity concealed
In situ = in the original place
So, option A is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 58

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. He is suffering from a terminal disease.

Solution:

Terminal = (of a disease) predicted to lead to death, especially slowly; incurable.
Sublunary = situated beneath the moon or between the earth and the moon
Chronic = persisting for a long time or constantly recurring.
“incurable” is the correct option as terminal diseases are the end stage incurable diseases.

QUESTION: 59

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Doctors are reluctant to take rural postings despite big salary offers.

Solution:

Reluctant = unwilling and hesitant; disinclined.
Disinclined: unwilling; reluctant.
“disinclined” is the correct option.
Eager = strongly wanting to do or have something.
Fervent = used to describe beliefs that are strongly and sincerely felt or people who have strong and sincere beliefs
Unrepentant = showing no regret for one's wrongdoings.

QUESTION: 60

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. The authorities have reprimanded the subordinate officer for violating the protocol.

Solution:

Reprimand means to express to someone your strong official disapproval of them.
Extol means praise enthusiastically.
Purported means appearing or stated to be true, though not necessarily so; alleged.
Admonish means to warn or reprimand someone firmly.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “admonished” is a synonym of “reprimanded”. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 61

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. For Gandhiji, India’s religious and linguistic diversity was an asset, not a liability.

Solution:

Asset means a useful or valuable thing or person.
Obligation means an act or course of action to which a person is morally or legally bound; a duty or commitment.
Advantage means a condition or circumstance that puts one in a favourable or superior position.
Attribute means a quality or feature regarded as a characteristic or inherent part of someone or something.
Reinforcement means the action or process of reinforcing or strengthening.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “advantage” is a synonym of “asset”. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 62

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. How hysterical he is!

Solution:

Hysterical means affected by or deriving from wildly uncontrolled emotion.
Berserk means out of control with anger or excitement; wild or frenzied.
Inconsistent means not staying the same throughout.
Duplicitous means deceitful.
Insincere means not expressing genuine feelings.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “berserk” is a synonym of “hysterical”. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 63

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Mahesh is mostly prejudiced in his political opinion.

Solution:

Prejudiced means having or showing a dislike or distrust that is derived from prejudice; bigoted.
Objectionable means arousing distaste or opposition; unpleasant or offensive.
Predatory means seeking to exploit others.
Jaundiced means affected by bitterness, resentment, or cynicism.
Intimate means closely acquainted; familiar.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “jaundiced” is a synonym of “prejudiced”. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 64

Directions :
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. Do not indulge in tautology

Solution:

Tautology means the saying of the same thing twice over in different words, generally considered to be a fault of style.
Prolixity means extended to great, unnecessary, or tedious length; long and wordy. 
Foretelling means predict (the future or a future event).
Telepathic means supposedly capable of transmitting thoughts to other people and of knowing their thoughts; psychic.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “prolixity” is a synonym of “tautology”. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 65

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. His religious views are rather fanatical.

Solution:

Fanatical means filled with excessive and single-minded zeal.
Bigoted means obstinately or unreasonably attached to a belief, opinion, or faction, and intolerant towards other people's beliefs and practices.
Rabid means having or proceeding from an extreme or fanatical support of or belief in something.
Moderate means average in amount, intensity, quality, or degree.
Militant means favoring confrontational or violent methods in support of a political or social cause.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “moderate” is an antonym of “fanatical”. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 66

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. Religious fundamentalists often consider the followers of other religions to be heretics.

Solution:

Heretics means a person holding an opinion at odds with what is generally accepted.
Dissenter means a person who dissents.
Believer means a person who believes in the truth or existence of something.
Renegade means a person who deserts and betrays an organization, country, or set of principles.
Apostate means a person who renounces a religious or political belief or principle.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “believer” is an antonym of “heretics”. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 67

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. According to G B shaw, men have become inert. Therefore, the life force has chosen women to perform its functions.

Solution:

Inert means lacking the ability or strength to move.
Lively means full of life and energy; active and outgoing.
Quiescent means in a state or period of inactivity or dormancy.
Dormant means (of an animal) having normal physical functions suspended or slowed down for a period of time; in or as if in a deep sleep.
Apathetic means showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “lively” is an antonym of “inert”. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 68

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. Some of the men are highly misanthropic.

Solution:

Misanthropic means having or showing a dislike of other people; unsociable.
Antisocial means not sociable or wanting the company of others.
Philosophic means relating or devoted to the study of the fundamental nature of knowledge, reality, and existence.
Atrophic means (of body tissue or an organ) having atrophied.
Philanthropic means (of a person or organization) seeking to promote the welfare of others; generous and benevolent.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “philanthropic” is an antonym of “misanthropic”. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 69

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. The teacher was a very profound man.

Solution:

Profound means (of a person or statement) having or showing great knowledge or insight.
Sincere means free from deceit; proceeding from genuine feelings.
Erudite means having or showing great knowledge or learning.
Scholarly means involving or relating to serious academic study.
Superficial means appearing to be true or real only until examined more closely.
It is clear from the meanings of the options that “superficial” is an antonym of “profound”. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 70

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. His handwriting is readable.

Solution:

Well-written means written properly in a clear and concise manner.
Decipherable means something that can be read, decoded and interpreted.
Illegible refers to something that is clear enough to be read.
Comprehensible means something that can be understood.
It is therefore clear from the meaning of these words that meaning of Illegible is the opposite of ‘readable’. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 71

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. Mohan is his steadfast friend

Solution:

Steadfast means dutifully firm towards something.
Committed means dedicated to or loyal to something wholeheartedly.
Unwavering means steady and firm.
Unfaltering also means firm, steady and resolute.
Unreliable means something/someone who can be trusted or relied upon.
From the meanings of these words, it is clear that ‘Unreliable’ has the meaning opposite to ‘steadfast’. Therefore, D is the correct option.

QUESTION: 72

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. Radha often goes tempestuous while debating.

Solution:

Tempestuous means characterized by strong or conflicting emotion.
Calm means not showing strong, aggressive or angry emotions.
Violent means involving physical force intended to hurt or damage someone or something.
Fierce means having or displaying an intense or ferocious aggressiveness.
Vehement means showing strong feeling.
It is therefore clear from the meaning of these words that meaning of Tempestuous is the opposite of Calm. So, the correct answer is A.

QUESTION: 73

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. The thief had very vital information to pass on to the police.

Solution:

Vital means something that is important.
Crucial also refers to something/ someone that is critical and of great importance.
Inessential means not-essential, not absolutely necessary.
Indispensable means absolutely necessary.
Fundamental means something that is central, primary and important.
It is clear from the meanings of these words that Inessential is the antonym of Vital. Therefore, B is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 74

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and marks your response on your answer sheet accordingly.

Q. His lectures are often wordy and pointless.

Solution:

Wordy means expressed in too many words.
Diffuse means spread out or not concentrated.
Concise means expressing in a clear, comprehensive and brief manner.
Garrulous means very talkative or pointless talking.
Voluble is something characterized by ready or rapid speech.
The meaning of the word ‘concise’ is the opposite of ‘wordy’. So, B is the correct option.

QUESTION: 75

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. the prize money (P) for refusing her (Q) Pepsico was ordered (R) to compensate the woman(S)

Solution:

The verb “ordered” is generally followed by an infinitive and “to compensate” is an infinitive. So, RS is a pair here. Out of Q and P, only Q makes sense after S. Therefore, we need an option with a sequence of RSQ and it is only present in option A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 76

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. trade operating from a colony (P) held a meeting (Q) demanding a probe into the illegal drug (R) The residents of the city (S)

Solution:

The word “drug” from part R can only be connected to “trade” from part P out of the given options as “drug trade” is a commonly used phrase and nothing else from the options goes with “drug”. So, it can be concluded that PR is a pair and it is only present in option A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 77

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. the university authorities canceled the ongoing students’ union election and (P) Following students’ unrest on campus (Q) closed till further orders (R) declared the institution (S)

Solution:

Among the given parts, only “the institution” can be the subject of the verb “closed”. So, it can be concluded that SR is a pair and it is only present in option B. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 78

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. brushed past the latter’s pet dog (P) stabbed to death by a man (Q) after his vehicle accidentally (R) a cargo van driver was allegedly (S)

Solution:

Among the given parts, only “brushed past” can be the verb of the subject “his vehicle accidentally”. So, it can be concluded that RP is a pair and it is only present in option C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 79

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. an earthquake and tsunami (P) the disaster mitigation agency (Q) said that the death toll from (R) In Indonesia has crossed 1500 (S)

Solution:

“Death toll” can be only be caused “earthquake or tsunami” out of the given options. So, RP is a pair here and out of S and Q, only “said” can be the verb for “agency” which is in Q. Therefore, we need an option with a sequence of QRP and it is only present in option D. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 80

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. Scientists say they have developed a new (P) illnesses such as heart disease and cancer (Q) DNA tool that uses machine learning to accurately (R) Predict people’s height and assess their risk for serious (S)

Solution:

The adjective “serious” goes with only “illness” so SQ is pair and it leaves “new” goes with “DNA” so PR is a pair. These are only present in option A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 81

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. say from their forties onwards (P) it is thus a good idea (Q) And continue to exercise early enough (R) For senior citizens to start (S)

Solution:

“And” is a coordinating conjunction. We use and to connect two words, phrases, clauses or prefixes together (similar grammatical items). R begins with “and” followed by a verb and S ends with a verb so “and” can connect the end verb of S and the initial verb of R. therefore it can be concluded that SR is a pair and it is only present in option C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 82

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. a rare evergreen tree in the Southern Western Ghats (P) researchers have found that (Q) Common white-footed ants are the best pollinators of (R) Bees might be the best-known pollinators but (S)

Solution:

We use “but” to link items which are the same grammatical type (coordinating conjunction). “But” is used to connect ideas that contrast. S and R have the same grammatical type and also, they are contradictory. So, it can be concluded that SR is a pair and it is only present in option C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 83

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. scientists have determined (P) injury in animals and humans (Q) That is linked to the severity of spinal cord (R) a gene signature (S)

Solution:

In the given sentence, Q seems to be the ending of the sentence as the words “animals and humans” can’t make further connections with any of the given options. Only option A ends with Q. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 84

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled as P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. like a muscle and repeating the process (P) and stable reading circuit (Q) Helps the child build a strong (R) the brain works (S)

Solution:

In the given sentence, Q seems to be the ending of the sentence as the words “reading circuit” can’t make further connections with any of the given options. Only option B ends with Q. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 85

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. A match made in heaven

Solution:

The phrase “a match made in heaven meaning” means “a relationship or pairing where each member perfectly complements the other.” It matches option C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 86

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. A culture vulture

Solution:

The phrase “a culture vulture” means “a person who is very interested in the arts.” It matches option A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 87

​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. A death blow

Solution:

The phrase “a death blow” means “an action or event that causes the sudden and complete end of something important.” It matches option D. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 88

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. The jewel in the crown

Solution:

The phrase “the jewel in the crown” means “the most valuable or successful part of something.” It matches option C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 89

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. To live in a fool’s paradise

Solution:

The phrase “to live in a fool's paradise” means “State of delusive contentment or false hope.” It matches option C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 90

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. A rotten apple

Solution:

The phrase “a rotten apple” means “a bad or corrupt person in a group, especially one whose behavior is likely to have a detrimental influence on the others.” It matches option B. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 91

​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. To vote with your feet

Solution:

The phrase “to vote with your feet” means “to show your opinion by leaving an organization or by no longer supporting, using, or buying something.” It matches option A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 92

​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. Verbal diarrhoea

Solution:

The phrase “verbal diarrhea” means “the quality or habit of talking too much.” It matches option B. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 93

​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. To sail close to the wind

Solution:

The phrase “to sail close to the wind” means “To behave in a manner that is on the verge of being dangerous, improper or illegal.” It matches option D. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 94

​​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. A double entendre

Solution:

The phrase “a double entendre” means “a word or phrase open to two interpretations, one of which is usually risqué or indecent.” It matches option C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 95

​​​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. To cut your own throat

Solution:

The phrase “to cut your own throat” means “bring about one's own downfall by one's actions.” It matches option B. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 96

​​​​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. Cook the books

Solution:

The phrase “cook the books” means “alter facts or figures dishonestly or illegally.” It matches option A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 97

​​​​​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. Change your tune

Solution:

The phrase “change your tune” means “express a very different opinion or behave in a very different way.” It matches option C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 98

​​​​​​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. Blue blood

Solution:

The phrase “blue blood” means “noble birth.” It matches option D. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 99

​​​​​Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Q. Cut the crap

Solution:

The phrase “cut the crap” means “get to the point; state the real situation.” It matches option A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 100

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Except for few days (a) in a year during the monsoon (b) the river cannot flow on its own (c) No error (d)

Solution:

Few, when used without a preceding 'a', means "very few" or "none at all". On the other hand, a few are used to indicate "not a large number". The question talks about the days of monsoon which are not many in number. So there should be an “a” before few in the question. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 101

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Being apprised with our approach, (a) the whole neighbourhood (b)came out to meet the minister (c) No error (d)

Solution:

The verb “apprised” does not take “with” as a preposition. It should be replaced with “apprised of”. So, the error is in part A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 102

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. The celebrated grammarian Patanjali (a) was (b) a contemporary to Pushyamitra Sunga (c) No error (d)

Solution:

The correct phrase is “contemporary of someone” but the part C “to” is used which is wrong. So, the error is in part C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 103

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. His appeal for funds (a) met (b) a poor response (c) No error (d)

Solution:

In order to express “to unexpectedly experience trouble, danger, difficulty etc” we use the verb “meet with” but in part B, only “met” is used which is incorrect. It should be replaced with “met with”. So, the error is in part B. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 104

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Buddhism teaches that (a) freedom from desires (b) will lead to escape suffering (c) No error (d)

Solution:

The given sentence is totally grammatical and has no error. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 105

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. This hardly won liberty (a) was not to be (b) lightly abandoned (c) No error (d)

Solution:

The correct phrase is “hard won something” but the part A “hardly” is used which is wrong. So, the error is in part A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 106

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. My friend said (a) he never remembered (b) having read a more enjoyable book (c) No error (d)

Solution:

We can’t replace “no” with “never” as it means “at no time in past”. In part C the sentence demands “did not” instead of “never”. So, the error is in part B. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 107

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. With a population of over one billion, (a) India is second most populous country (b) In the world after China (c) No error (d)

Solution:

We use “the” before superlatives and ordinal numbers. In part B, second is an ordinal number but there is no “the” before it which is incorrect. So, the error is in part B.

QUESTION: 108

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. There are hundred of superstitions (a) which survive (b) In the various parts of the country(c) No error (d)

Solution:

“Hundreds" is used not for a specific number but just to show a large quantity and it is used with “of”. In part A, the singular form is used instead of correct “hundreds”. So, the error is in part A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 109

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. It is (a) in the temperate countries of northern Europe (b) that the beneficial effects of cold is most manifest (c) No error (d)

Solution:

In part C the subject of clause “beneficial effects” is a plural and the verb used with it is a singular “is” which is incorrect. It should be replaced with “are”. So the error is in part C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 110

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. The effect of female employment (a) on gender equality (b) Now appear to be trickling at the next generation (c) No error (d)

Solution:

In the context of the sentence, the verb” trickling” does not take “out” as a preposition. It should be replaced with “tricking with”. So, the error is in part C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 111

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Since the 15 minutes that she drives (a) she confesses that she feels like (b) A woman with wings (c) No error (d)

Solution:

“Since” is used to refer to a specific point in time but in part A it is used for period of time which is incorrect. It should be replaced with “for”. So, the error is in part A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 112

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. India won (a) by an innings (b) and three runs (c) No error (d)

Solution:

The given sentence is totally grammatical and has no error. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 113

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Each one (a) of these chairs (b) are broken (c) No error (d)

Solution:

“Each” takes a singular verb but in part C a plural verb “are” is used. It should be replaced with “is”. So, the error is in part C. Hence option C is correct.

QUESTION: 114

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Few creatures (a) outwit (b) the fox in Aesop’s Fables (c) No error (d)

Solution:

We always use a plural noun after the word “few” but in part A, singular noun “creature” is used which is incorrect. So, the error is in part A. Hence option A is correct.

QUESTION: 115

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Anywhere in the world (a) when there is conflict (b) the fox in Aesop’s Fables (c) No error (d)

Solution:

“When” as a conjunction means “at or during the time that” whereas “where” refers to a place. The context of the sentence suggests a word that refers to the place. So, the conjunction in part B is incorrect. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 116

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. The man is (a) the foundational director (b) of this company (c) No error (d)

Solution:

The correct phrase is “foundation director” but the part B “foundational director” is used which is wrong. So, the error is in part B. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 117

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Parents of LGBT community members (a) are coming in (b) with a little help from NGOs (c) No error (d)

Solution:

The phrasal work “come in” means “to enter” or “to go to work” which is incorrect according to the context. The context suggests a phrase like “come out” that could mean “to say something in an open, honest, or public way that often makes someone feel surprised, embarrassed, or offended”. So, the error is in part B. Hence option B is correct.

QUESTION: 118

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. To love one art form is great (a) but to be able to appreciate another (b) And find lateral connections are priceless (c) No error (d)

Solution:

The given sentence is totally grammatical and has no error. Hence option D is correct.

QUESTION: 119

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. Female literacy rate has gone up by 11% (a) in the past decade as opposed to (b) A 3% increase in male literacy (c) No error (d)

Solution:

“As opposed to” is used to express two contradictory statements but part A and part C are similar statement. So, the use of “as opposed to” in part B is incorrect. Hence option B is correct.

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