CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern)- 1


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2020 | CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern)- 1


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern)- 1 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern)- 1 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern)- 1 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern)- 1 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test (New Pattern)- 1 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The Centre on Friday announced that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act will come into force from January 10. In a gazette notification, the Union home ministry said the act under which non-Muslim refugees from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan will be given Indian citizenship, will come into force from January 10.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of the section 1 of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (47 of 2019), the Central government hereby appoints the 10th day of January, 2020, as the date on which the provisions of the said Act shall come into force," the government notification said. It amended the Citizenship Act of 1955 by providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan before December 2014.The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on Wednesday December 11, 2019, with the Rajya Sabha voting 125-99 in favour of the Bill.
CAA won't apply to areas under the sixth schedule of the Constitution – which deals with autonomous tribal-dominated regions in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The bill will also not apply to states that have the inner-line permit regime (Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram). The passage came amidst largescale protests in Assam, where the military had to be called in to control protesting crowds, despite assurances from the Centre that special measures will be taken under clause 6 of the 1985 Assam Accord to address Assamese concerns. 
The Lok Sabha had approved the Bill by a significant majority on December 2, 2019. The legislation applies to those who were “forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion”. It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration. The cut-off date for citizenship was December 31, 2014 which means the applicant should have entered India on or before that date. Indian citizenship, under previous law, was given either to those born in India or if they have resided in the country for a minimum of 11 years. 

Q. From which date the Citizenship (Amendment) Act has come into force?

Solution:

After receiving assent from the President of India on 12 December 2019, the bill assumed the status of an act. The act came into force on 10 January 2020.

QUESTION: 2

The Centre on Friday announced that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act will come into force from January 10. In a gazette notification, the Union home ministry said the act under which non-Muslim refugees from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan will be given Indian citizenship, will come into force from January 10.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of the section 1 of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (47 of 2019), the Central government hereby appoints the 10th day of January, 2020, as the date on which the provisions of the said Act shall come into force," the government notification said. It amended the Citizenship Act of 1955 by providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan before December 2014.The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on Wednesday December 11, 2019, with the Rajya Sabha voting 125-99 in favour of the Bill.
CAA won't apply to areas under the sixth schedule of the Constitution – which deals with autonomous tribal-dominated regions in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The bill will also not apply to states that have the inner-line permit regime (Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram). The passage came amidst largescale protests in Assam, where the military had to be called in to control protesting crowds, despite assurances from the Centre that special measures will be taken under clause 6 of the 1985 Assam Accord to address Assamese concerns. 
The Lok Sabha had approved the Bill by a significant majority on December 2, 2019. The legislation applies to those who were “forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion”. It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration. The cut-off date for citizenship was December 31, 2014 which means the applicant should have entered India on or before that date. Indian citizenship, under previous law, was given either to those born in India or if they have resided in the country for a minimum of 11 years. 

Q. Migrants from which of the following country is not included in Citizenship Act?

Solution:

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act is providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan.

QUESTION: 3

The Centre on Friday announced that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act will come into force from January 10. In a gazette notification, the Union home ministry said the act under which non-Muslim refugees from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan will be given Indian citizenship, will come into force from January 10.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of the section 1 of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (47 of 2019), the Central government hereby appoints the 10th day of January, 2020, as the date on which the provisions of the said Act shall come into force," the government notification said. It amended the Citizenship Act of 1955 by providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan before December 2014.The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on Wednesday December 11, 2019, with the Rajya Sabha voting 125-99 in favour of the Bill.
CAA won't apply to areas under the sixth schedule of the Constitution – which deals with autonomous tribal-dominated regions in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The bill will also not apply to states that have the inner-line permit regime (Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram). The passage came amidst largescale protests in Assam, where the military had to be called in to control protesting crowds, despite assurances from the Centre that special measures will be taken under clause 6 of the 1985 Assam Accord to address Assamese concerns. 
The Lok Sabha had approved the Bill by a significant majority on December 2, 2019. The legislation applies to those who were “forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion”. It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration. The cut-off date for citizenship was December 31, 2014 which means the applicant should have entered India on or before that date. Indian citizenship, under previous law, was given either to those born in India or if they have resided in the country for a minimum of 11 years. 

Q. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act is for religious minority groups persecuted in Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh does not include_______.

Solution:

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act is providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan.

QUESTION: 4

The Centre on Friday announced that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act will come into force from January 10. In a gazette notification, the Union home ministry said the act under which non-Muslim refugees from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan will be given Indian citizenship, will come into force from January 10.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of the section 1 of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (47 of 2019), the Central government hereby appoints the 10th day of January, 2020, as the date on which the provisions of the said Act shall come into force," the government notification said. It amended the Citizenship Act of 1955 by providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan before December 2014.The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on Wednesday December 11, 2019, with the Rajya Sabha voting 125-99 in favour of the Bill.
CAA won't apply to areas under the sixth schedule of the Constitution – which deals with autonomous tribal-dominated regions in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The bill will also not apply to states that have the inner-line permit regime (Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram). The passage came amidst largescale protests in Assam, where the military had to be called in to control protesting crowds, despite assurances from the Centre that special measures will be taken under clause 6 of the 1985 Assam Accord to address Assamese concerns. 
The Lok Sabha had approved the Bill by a significant majority on December 2, 2019. The legislation applies to those who were “forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion”. It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration. The cut-off date for citizenship was December 31, 2014 which means the applicant should have entered India on or before that date. Indian citizenship, under previous law, was given either to those born in India or if they have resided in the country for a minimum of 11 years. 

Q. New Citizenship Act amended which of the following act?

Solution:

New Citizenship Act amended the Citizenship Act of 1955 by providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan before December 2014.

QUESTION: 5

The Centre on Friday announced that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act will come into force from January 10. In a gazette notification, the Union home ministry said the act under which non-Muslim refugees from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan will be given Indian citizenship, will come into force from January 10.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of the section 1 of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (47 of 2019), the Central government hereby appoints the 10th day of January, 2020, as the date on which the provisions of the said Act shall come into force," the government notification said. It amended the Citizenship Act of 1955 by providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan before December 2014.The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on Wednesday December 11, 2019, with the Rajya Sabha voting 125-99 in favour of the Bill.
CAA won't apply to areas under the sixth schedule of the Constitution – which deals with autonomous tribal-dominated regions in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The bill will also not apply to states that have the inner-line permit regime (Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram). The passage came amidst largescale protests in Assam, where the military had to be called in to control protesting crowds, despite assurances from the Centre that special measures will be taken under clause 6 of the 1985 Assam Accord to address Assamese concerns. 
The Lok Sabha had approved the Bill by a significant majority on December 2, 2019. The legislation applies to those who were “forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion”. It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration. The cut-off date for citizenship was December 31, 2014 which means the applicant should have entered India on or before that date. Indian citizenship, under previous law, was given either to those born in India or if they have resided in the country for a minimum of 11 years. 

Q. The assurances of Centre government that special measures will be taken under which clause of Assam Accord to address Assamese concerns?

Solution:

Clause: 6. Constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards, as may be appropriate, shall be provided to protect, preserve and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of the Assamese people.

QUESTION: 6

The Centre on Friday announced that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act will come into force from January 10. In a gazette notification, the Union home ministry said the act under which non-Muslim refugees from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan will be given Indian citizenship, will come into force from January 10.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of the section 1 of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (47 of 2019), the Central government hereby appoints the 10th day of January, 2020, as the date on which the provisions of the said Act shall come into force," the government notification said. It amended the Citizenship Act of 1955 by providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan before December 2014.The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on Wednesday December 11, 2019, with the Rajya Sabha voting 125-99 in favour of the Bill.
CAA won't apply to areas under the sixth schedule of the Constitution – which deals with autonomous tribal-dominated regions in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The bill will also not apply to states that have the inner-line permit regime (Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram). The passage came amidst largescale protests in Assam, where the military had to be called in to control protesting crowds, despite assurances from the Centre that special measures will be taken under clause 6 of the 1985 Assam Accord to address Assamese concerns. 
The Lok Sabha had approved the Bill by a significant majority on December 2, 2019. The legislation applies to those who were “forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion”. It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration. The cut-off date for citizenship was December 31, 2014 which means the applicant should have entered India on or before that date. Indian citizenship, under previous law, was given either to those born in India or if they have resided in the country for a minimum of 11 years. 

Q. The Citizenship Amendment Bill 2019 was approved by The Lok Sabha on

Solution:

After hours of intense debate, the Lok Sabha passed
The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 on Monday (Dec 2). The legislation seeks to make it easier for non-Muslim refugees from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan to gain citizenship in the country.

QUESTION: 7

The Centre on Friday announced that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act will come into force from January 10. In a gazette notification, the Union home ministry said the act under which non-Muslim refugees from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan will be given Indian citizenship, will come into force from January 10.
"In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of the section 1 of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (47 of 2019), the Central government hereby appoints the 10th day of January, 2020, as the date on which the provisions of the said Act shall come into force," the government notification said. It amended the Citizenship Act of 1955 by providing a path to Indian citizenship for members of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian religious minorities, who had fled persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan before December 2014.The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was passed by Parliament on Wednesday December 11, 2019, with the Rajya Sabha voting 125-99 in favour of the Bill.
CAA won't apply to areas under the sixth schedule of the Constitution – which deals with autonomous tribal-dominated regions in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. The bill will also not apply to states that have the inner-line permit regime (Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram). The passage came amidst largescale protests in Assam, where the military had to be called in to control protesting crowds, despite assurances from the Centre that special measures will be taken under clause 6 of the 1985 Assam Accord to address Assamese concerns. 
The Lok Sabha had approved the Bill by a significant majority on December 2, 2019. The legislation applies to those who were “forced or compelled to seek shelter in India due to persecution on the ground of religion”. It aims to protect such people from proceedings of illegal migration. The cut-off date for citizenship was December 31, 2014 which means the applicant should have entered India on or before that date. Indian citizenship, under previous law, was given either to those born in India or if they have resided in the country for a minimum of 11 years. 

Q. What was the time to be resided in India for eligibility of citizenship in citizenship Act of 1955?

Solution:

Indian citizenship, under previous law, was given either to those born in India or if they have resided in the country for a minimum of 11 years.

QUESTION: 8

The ICICI bank has approached the Bombay High Court seeking effect to "termination of appointment" of Chanda Kochhar as its Managing Director and CEO, and also sought recovery of various amounts from her.
In a monetary suit filed on 10 January, the bank sought dismissal of Kochhar's petition and stated that the issue can be decided in a commercial suit.
"ICICI has filed a suit seeking recovery of amounts towards the claw back of bonuses given to the petitioner (Kochhar) from April 2006 to March 2018 pursuant to the termination of the petitioner's services," the bank said in its affidavit.
A claw back is a provision in which incentive-based pay, like a bonus, is taken back from an employee by an employer following misconduct or declining profits.
The affidavit was submitted in response to a petition filed by Kochhar challenging her sacking, months after she voluntarily left the second largest private sector lender.
"On December 8, 2016, Kochhar executed a claw back agreement with the bank pursuant to which ICICI is entitled to a return of the previously paid variable pay or deferred variable pay from the petitioner in the event of a determination of a gross negligence or an integrity breach by Kochhar.
"The petitioner's conduct has caused substantial embarrassment to the bank and all the stakeholders, and has led to irreparable reputational loss to the bank," it stated.
The bank further stated that Kochhar flagrantly violated the ICICI Group Code of Business Conduct and Ethics.
"The petitioner (Kochhar) deliberately committed violation with a malafide intent to obtain illegal benefits," it stated.
The affidavit further said that Kochhar's petition challenging her sacking by the bank claiming violation of RBI rules is an "malafide attempt" to secure valuable stock options of the bank.
A division bench of Justices R.V. More and S.P. Tavade on Monday directed Kochhar's advocate Sujoy Kantawalla to go through the affidavit. It posted the matter for further hearing on 20 January.
Kochhar moved the HC on 30 November 2019 challenging "termination" of her employment by ICICI Bank, which also denied her remuneration for her alleged role in granting "out of turn loans worth ?3250 crore to Videocon Group which benefitted her husband Deepak Kochhar".
Kantawalla argued that Kochhar's termination from her post came months after the bank approved her voluntary resignation on 5 October 2018 and therefore the bank's action is "illegal, untenable, and unsustainable in law".

Q. What is the name of provision in which incentive-based pay, like a bonus, is taken back from an employee by an employer following misconduct or declining profits?

Solution:

A claw back is a contractual provision whereby money already paid to an employee must be returned to an employer or benefactor, sometimes with a penalty. Many companies use claw back policies in employee contracts for incentive-based pay like bonuses

QUESTION: 9

The ICICI bank has approached the Bombay High Court seeking effect to "termination of appointment" of Chanda Kochhar as its Managing Director and CEO, and also sought recovery of various amounts from her.
In a monetary suit filed on 10 January, the bank sought dismissal of Kochhar's petition and stated that the issue can be decided in a commercial suit.
"ICICI has filed a suit seeking recovery of amounts towards the claw back of bonuses given to the petitioner (Kochhar) from April 2006 to March 2018 pursuant to the termination of the petitioner's services," the bank said in its affidavit.
A claw back is a provision in which incentive-based pay, like a bonus, is taken back from an employee by an employer following misconduct or declining profits.
The affidavit was submitted in response to a petition filed by Kochhar challenging her sacking, months after she voluntarily left the second largest private sector lender.
"On December 8, 2016, Kochhar executed a claw back agreement with the bank pursuant to which ICICI is entitled to a return of the previously paid variable pay or deferred variable pay from the petitioner in the event of a determination of a gross negligence or an integrity breach by Kochhar.
"The petitioner's conduct has caused substantial embarrassment to the bank and all the stakeholders, and has led to irreparable reputational loss to the bank," it stated.
The bank further stated that Kochhar flagrantly violated the ICICI Group Code of Business Conduct and Ethics.
"The petitioner (Kochhar) deliberately committed violation with a malafide intent to obtain illegal benefits," it stated.
The affidavit further said that Kochhar's petition challenging her sacking by the bank claiming violation of RBI rules is an "malafide attempt" to secure valuable stock options of the bank.
A division bench of Justices R.V. More and S.P. Tavade on Monday directed Kochhar's advocate Sujoy Kantawalla to go through the affidavit. It posted the matter for further hearing on 20 January.
Kochhar moved the HC on 30 November 2019 challenging "termination" of her employment by ICICI Bank, which also denied her remuneration for her alleged role in granting "out of turn loans worth ?3250 crore to Videocon Group which benefitted her husband Deepak Kochhar".
Kantawalla argued that Kochhar's termination from her post came months after the bank approved her voluntary resignation on 5 October 2018 and therefore the bank's action is "illegal, untenable, and unsustainable in law".

Q. Kochhar executed a claw back agreement with the bank pursuant to which ICICI is entitled to a return of the______ from the petitioner in the event of a determination of a gross negligence or an integrity breach by Kochhar.

Solution:

"On December 8, 2016, Kochhar executed a claw back agreement with the bank pursuant to which ICICI is entitled to a return of the previously paid variable pay or deferred variable pay from the petitioner in the event of a determination of a gross negligence or an integrity breach by Kochhar.

QUESTION: 10

The ICICI bank has approached the Bombay High Court seeking effect to "termination of appointment" of Chanda Kochhar as its Managing Director and CEO, and also sought recovery of various amounts from her.
In a monetary suit filed on 10 January, the bank sought dismissal of Kochhar's petition and stated that the issue can be decided in a commercial suit.
"ICICI has filed a suit seeking recovery of amounts towards the claw back of bonuses given to the petitioner (Kochhar) from April 2006 to March 2018 pursuant to the termination of the petitioner's services," the bank said in its affidavit.
A claw back is a provision in which incentive-based pay, like a bonus, is taken back from an employee by an employer following misconduct or declining profits.
The affidavit was submitted in response to a petition filed by Kochhar challenging her sacking, months after she voluntarily left the second largest private sector lender.
"On December 8, 2016, Kochhar executed a claw back agreement with the bank pursuant to which ICICI is entitled to a return of the previously paid variable pay or deferred variable pay from the petitioner in the event of a determination of a gross negligence or an integrity breach by Kochhar.
"The petitioner's conduct has caused substantial embarrassment to the bank and all the stakeholders, and has led to irreparable reputational loss to the bank," it stated.
The bank further stated that Kochhar flagrantly violated the ICICI Group Code of Business Conduct and Ethics.
"The petitioner (Kochhar) deliberately committed violation with a malafide intent to obtain illegal benefits," it stated.
The affidavit further said that Kochhar's petition challenging her sacking by the bank claiming violation of RBI rules is an "malafide attempt" to secure valuable stock options of the bank.
A division bench of Justices R.V. More and S.P. Tavade on Monday directed Kochhar's advocate Sujoy Kantawalla to go through the affidavit. It posted the matter for further hearing on 20 January.
Kochhar moved the HC on 30 November 2019 challenging "termination" of her employment by ICICI Bank, which also denied her remuneration for her alleged role in granting "out of turn loans worth ?3250 crore to Videocon Group which benefitted her husband Deepak Kochhar".
Kantawalla argued that Kochhar's termination from her post came months after the bank approved her voluntary resignation on 5 October 2018 and therefore the bank's action is "illegal, untenable, and unsustainable in law".

Q. The ICICI bank has approached to which High Court seeking effect to "termination of appointment" of Chanda Kochhar as its Managing Director and CEO?

Solution:

The ICICI bank has approached the Bombay High Court seeking effect to "termination of appointment" of Chanda Kochhar as its Managing Director and CEO, and also sought recovery of various amounts from her.

QUESTION: 11

The ICICI bank has approached the Bombay High Court seeking effect to "termination of appointment" of Chanda Kochhar as its Managing Director and CEO, and also sought recovery of various amounts from her.
In a monetary suit filed on 10 January, the bank sought dismissal of Kochhar's petition and stated that the issue can be decided in a commercial suit.
"ICICI has filed a suit seeking recovery of amounts towards the claw back of bonuses given to the petitioner (Kochhar) from April 2006 to March 2018 pursuant to the termination of the petitioner's services," the bank said in its affidavit.
A claw back is a provision in which incentive-based pay, like a bonus, is taken back from an employee by an employer following misconduct or declining profits.
The affidavit was submitted in response to a petition filed by Kochhar challenging her sacking, months after she voluntarily left the second largest private sector lender.
"On December 8, 2016, Kochhar executed a claw back agreement with the bank pursuant to which ICICI is entitled to a return of the previously paid variable pay or deferred variable pay from the petitioner in the event of a determination of a gross negligence or an integrity breach by Kochhar.
"The petitioner's conduct has caused substantial embarrassment to the bank and all the stakeholders, and has led to irreparable reputational loss to the bank," it stated.
The bank further stated that Kochhar flagrantly violated the ICICI Group Code of Business Conduct and Ethics.
"The petitioner (Kochhar) deliberately committed violation with a malafide intent to obtain illegal benefits," it stated.
The affidavit further said that Kochhar's petition challenging her sacking by the bank claiming violation of RBI rules is an "malafide attempt" to secure valuable stock options of the bank.
A division bench of Justices R.V. More and S.P. Tavade on Monday directed Kochhar's advocate Sujoy Kantawalla to go through the affidavit. It posted the matter for further hearing on 20 January.
Kochhar moved the HC on 30 November 2019 challenging "termination" of her employment by ICICI Bank, which also denied her remuneration for her alleged role in granting "out of turn loans worth ?3250 crore to Videocon Group which benefitted her husband Deepak Kochhar".
Kantawalla argued that Kochhar's termination from her post came months after the bank approved her voluntary resignation on 5 October 2018 and therefore the bank's action is "illegal, untenable, and unsustainable in law".

Q. Who violated the ICICI Group Code of Business Conduct and Ethics?

Solution:

ICICI bank stated that Kochhar flagrantly violated the ICICI Group Code of Business Conduct and Ethics.

QUESTION: 12

The ICICI bank has approached the Bombay High Court seeking effect to "termination of appointment" of Chanda Kochhar as its Managing Director and CEO, and also sought recovery of various amounts from her.
In a monetary suit filed on 10 January, the bank sought dismissal of Kochhar's petition and stated that the issue can be decided in a commercial suit.
"ICICI has filed a suit seeking recovery of amounts towards the claw back of bonuses given to the petitioner (Kochhar) from April 2006 to March 2018 pursuant to the termination of the petitioner's services," the bank said in its affidavit.
A claw back is a provision in which incentive-based pay, like a bonus, is taken back from an employee by an employer following misconduct or declining profits.
The affidavit was submitted in response to a petition filed by Kochhar challenging her sacking, months after she voluntarily left the second largest private sector lender.
"On December 8, 2016, Kochhar executed a claw back agreement with the bank pursuant to which ICICI is entitled to a return of the previously paid variable pay or deferred variable pay from the petitioner in the event of a determination of a gross negligence or an integrity breach by Kochhar.
"The petitioner's conduct has caused substantial embarrassment to the bank and all the stakeholders, and has led to irreparable reputational loss to the bank," it stated.
The bank further stated that Kochhar flagrantly violated the ICICI Group Code of Business Conduct and Ethics.
"The petitioner (Kochhar) deliberately committed violation with a malafide intent to obtain illegal benefits," it stated.
The affidavit further said that Kochhar's petition challenging her sacking by the bank claiming violation of RBI rules is an "malafide attempt" to secure valuable stock options of the bank.
A division bench of Justices R.V. More and S.P. Tavade on Monday directed Kochhar's advocate Sujoy Kantawalla to go through the affidavit. It posted the matter for further hearing on 20 January.
Kochhar moved the HC on 30 November 2019 challenging "termination" of her employment by ICICI Bank, which also denied her remuneration for her alleged role in granting "out of turn loans worth ?3250 crore to Videocon Group which benefitted her husband Deepak Kochhar".
Kantawalla argued that Kochhar's termination from her post came months after the bank approved her voluntary resignation on 5 October 2018 and therefore the bank's action is "illegal, untenable, and unsustainable in law".

Q. Kochhar moved the HC on 30 November 2019, to challenge "termination" of her employment by

Solution:

Kochhar moved the HC on 30 November 2019 challenging "termination" of her employment by ICICI Bank, which also denied her remuneration for her alleged role in granting "out of turn loans worth ?3250 crore to Videocon Group which benefitted her husband Deepak Kochhar”.

QUESTION: 13

The ICICI bank has approached the Bombay High Court seeking effect to "termination of appointment" of Chanda Kochhar as its Managing Director and CEO, and also sought recovery of various amounts from her.
In a monetary suit filed on 10 January, the bank sought dismissal of Kochhar's petition and stated that the issue can be decided in a commercial suit.
"ICICI has filed a suit seeking recovery of amounts towards the claw back of bonuses given to the petitioner (Kochhar) from April 2006 to March 2018 pursuant to the termination of the petitioner's services," the bank said in its affidavit.
A claw back is a provision in which incentive-based pay, like a bonus, is taken back from an employee by an employer following misconduct or declining profits.
The affidavit was submitted in response to a petition filed by Kochhar challenging her sacking, months after she voluntarily left the second largest private sector lender.
"On December 8, 2016, Kochhar executed a claw back agreement with the bank pursuant to which ICICI is entitled to a return of the previously paid variable pay or deferred variable pay from the petitioner in the event of a determination of a gross negligence or an integrity breach by Kochhar.
"The petitioner's conduct has caused substantial embarrassment to the bank and all the stakeholders, and has led to irreparable reputational loss to the bank," it stated.
The bank further stated that Kochhar flagrantly violated the ICICI Group Code of Business Conduct and Ethics.
"The petitioner (Kochhar) deliberately committed violation with a malafide intent to obtain illegal benefits," it stated.
The affidavit further said that Kochhar's petition challenging her sacking by the bank claiming violation of RBI rules is an "malafide attempt" to secure valuable stock options of the bank.
A division bench of Justices R.V. More and S.P. Tavade on Monday directed Kochhar's advocate Sujoy Kantawalla to go through the affidavit. It posted the matter for further hearing on 20 January.
Kochhar moved the HC on 30 November 2019 challenging "termination" of her employment by ICICI Bank, which also denied her remuneration for her alleged role in granting "out of turn loans worth ?3250 crore to Videocon Group which benefitted her husband Deepak Kochhar".
Kantawalla argued that Kochhar's termination from her post came months after the bank approved her voluntary resignation on 5 October 2018 and therefore the bank's action is "illegal, untenable, and unsustainable in law".

Q. Who argued that Kochhar's termination from her post?

Solution:

Kantawalla argued that Kochhar's termination from her post came months after the bank approved her voluntary resignation on 5 October 2018 and therefore the bank's action is "illegal, untenable, and unsustainable in law".

QUESTION: 14

The ICICI bank has approached the Bombay High Court seeking effect to "termination of appointment" of Chanda Kochhar as its Managing Director and CEO, and also sought recovery of various amounts from her.
In a monetary suit filed on 10 January, the bank sought dismissal of Kochhar's petition and stated that the issue can be decided in a commercial suit.
"ICICI has filed a suit seeking recovery of amounts towards the claw back of bonuses given to the petitioner (Kochhar) from April 2006 to March 2018 pursuant to the termination of the petitioner's services," the bank said in its affidavit.
A claw back is a provision in which incentive-based pay, like a bonus, is taken back from an employee by an employer following misconduct or declining profits.
The affidavit was submitted in response to a petition filed by Kochhar challenging her sacking, months after she voluntarily left the second largest private sector lender.
"On December 8, 2016, Kochhar executed a claw back agreement with the bank pursuant to which ICICI is entitled to a return of the previously paid variable pay or deferred variable pay from the petitioner in the event of a determination of a gross negligence or an integrity breach by Kochhar.
"The petitioner's conduct has caused substantial embarrassment to the bank and all the stakeholders, and has led to irreparable reputational loss to the bank," it stated.
The bank further stated that Kochhar flagrantly violated the ICICI Group Code of Business Conduct and Ethics.
"The petitioner (Kochhar) deliberately committed violation with a malafide intent to obtain illegal benefits," it stated.
The affidavit further said that Kochhar's petition challenging her sacking by the bank claiming violation of RBI rules is an "malafide attempt" to secure valuable stock options of the bank.
A division bench of Justices R.V. More and S.P. Tavade on Monday directed Kochhar's advocate Sujoy Kantawalla to go through the affidavit. It posted the matter for further hearing on 20 January.
Kochhar moved the HC on 30 November 2019 challenging "termination" of her employment by ICICI Bank, which also denied her remuneration for her alleged role in granting "out of turn loans worth ?3250 crore to Videocon Group which benefitted her husband Deepak Kochhar".
Kantawalla argued that Kochhar's termination from her post came months after the bank approved her voluntary resignation on 5 October 2018 and therefore the bank's action is "illegal, untenable, and unsustainable in law".

Q. The ICICI bank stated that "The petitioner (Kochhar) deliberately committed violation with a malafide intent to obtain________,"

Solution:

The ICICI bank stated that "The petitioner (Kochhar) deliberately committed violation with a malafide intent to obtain illegal benefits".

QUESTION: 15

The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (KA-REAT) is a tribunal which was formed by the Government of Karnataka under Section 43 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016. The tribunal is entrusted with the jurisdiction to hear appeals from the orders of the Adjudicating Officer, RERA and the Real Estate Regulatory Authority from 7th January 2020. As of 2020, the Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is presided over by a chairperson, Hon'ble Justice Shri. B. Sreenivase Gowda, a judicial member, Shri. Dinesh K. P., and administrative member, Shri. Somashekhar P. S.
The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body that adjudicates issues arising between Developers and Homebuyers or Developers / Allottees and RERA. All appeals arising under The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, including proceedings relating to compensation, project registration/s and penalties under the Act shall be disposed of by the KA-REAT.
The bench is chaired by a chairperson who is a retired / presiding High Court Judge, a judicial member who has held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least fifteen years or has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and has held the post of Additional Secretary of that service or any equivalent post, or has been an advocate for at least twenty years with experience in dealing with real estate matters and a technical member who he is a person wellversed in the field of urban development, housing, real estate development, infrastructure, economics, planning, law, commerce, accountancy, industry, management, public affairs or administration and possesses experience of at least twenty years in the field or who has held the post in the Central Government or a State Government equivalent to the post of Additional Secretary to the Government of India or an equivalent post in the Central Government or an equivalent post in the State Government.
Under Section 58 of The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the KA-REAT is entitled to prefer an appeal before the High Court of Karnataka within a period of sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of KA-REAT to him. Such an appeal can be filed on any one or more grounds specified in Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908).
As per Section 57 of the RERA Act and Rule 26 of the Karnataka Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Rules 2017, every judgement, order made by the appellate tribunal shall be executed by the tribunal as a decree of civil court. Notwithstanding the said powers of the tribunal, the appellate tribunal may transmit any order made by it to a civil court having local Jurisdiction and such civil court shall execute the order as if it were a decree made by the court.

Q. Under which section of the Real state Act,2016 The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (KA-REAT) was formed?

Solution:

The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (KA-REAT) is a tribunal which was formed by the Government of Karnataka under Section 43 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016.

QUESTION: 16

The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (KA-REAT) is a tribunal which was formed by the Government of Karnataka under Section 43 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016. The tribunal is entrusted with the jurisdiction to hear appeals from the orders of the Adjudicating Officer, RERA and the Real Estate Regulatory Authority from 7th January 2020. As of 2020, the Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is presided over by a chairperson, Hon'ble Justice Shri. B. Sreenivase Gowda, a judicial member, Shri. Dinesh K. P., and administrative member, Shri. Somashekhar P. S.
The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body that adjudicates issues arising between Developers and Homebuyers or Developers / Allottees and RERA. All appeals arising under The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, including proceedings relating to compensation, project registration/s and penalties under the Act shall be disposed of by the KA-REAT.
The bench is chaired by a chairperson who is a retired / presiding High Court Judge, a judicial member who has held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least fifteen years or has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and has held the post of Additional Secretary of that service or any equivalent post, or has been an advocate for at least twenty years with experience in dealing with real estate matters and a technical member who he is a person wellversed in the field of urban development, housing, real estate development, infrastructure, economics, planning, law, commerce, accountancy, industry, management, public affairs or administration and possesses experience of at least twenty years in the field or who has held the post in the Central Government or a State Government equivalent to the post of Additional Secretary to the Government of India or an equivalent post in the Central Government or an equivalent post in the State Government.
Under Section 58 of The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the KA-REAT is entitled to prefer an appeal before the High Court of Karnataka within a period of sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of KA-REAT to him. Such an appeal can be filed on any one or more grounds specified in Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908).
As per Section 57 of the RERA Act and Rule 26 of the Karnataka Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Rules 2017, every judgement, order made by the appellate tribunal shall be executed by the tribunal as a decree of civil court. Notwithstanding the said powers of the tribunal, the appellate tribunal may transmit any order made by it to a civil court having local Jurisdiction and such civil court shall execute the order as if it were a decree made by the court.

Q. The tribunal body which adjudicates issues arising between Developers and Homebuyers or Developers / Allottees and RERA can be termed as 

Solution:

A quasi-judicial body is a non-judicial body which can interpret law. It is an entity such as an arbitrator or tribunal board, generally of a public administrative agency, which has powers and procedures resembling those of a court of law or judge, and which is obliged to objectively determine facts and draw conclusions from them so as to provide the basis of an official action. Such actions are able to remedy a situation or impose legal penalties, and they may affect the legal rights, duties or privileges of specific parties.

QUESTION: 17

The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (KA-REAT) is a tribunal which was formed by the Government of Karnataka under Section 43 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016. The tribunal is entrusted with the jurisdiction to hear appeals from the orders of the Adjudicating Officer, RERA and the Real Estate Regulatory Authority from 7th January 2020. As of 2020, the Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is presided over by a chairperson, Hon'ble Justice Shri. B. Sreenivase Gowda, a judicial member, Shri. Dinesh K. P., and administrative member, Shri. Somashekhar P. S.
The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body that adjudicates issues arising between Developers and Homebuyers or Developers / Allottees and RERA. All appeals arising under The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, including proceedings relating to compensation, project registration/s and penalties under the Act shall be disposed of by the KA-REAT.
The bench is chaired by a chairperson who is a retired / presiding High Court Judge, a judicial member who has held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least fifteen years or has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and has held the post of Additional Secretary of that service or any equivalent post, or has been an advocate for at least twenty years with experience in dealing with real estate matters and a technical member who he is a person wellversed in the field of urban development, housing, real estate development, infrastructure, economics, planning, law, commerce, accountancy, industry, management, public affairs or administration and possesses experience of at least twenty years in the field or who has held the post in the Central Government or a State Government equivalent to the post of Additional Secretary to the Government of India or an equivalent post in the Central Government or an equivalent post in the State Government.
Under Section 58 of The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the KA-REAT is entitled to prefer an appeal before the High Court of Karnataka within a period of sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of KA-REAT to him. Such an appeal can be filed on any one or more grounds specified in Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908).
As per Section 57 of the RERA Act and Rule 26 of the Karnataka Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Rules 2017, every judgement, order made by the appellate tribunal shall be executed by the tribunal as a decree of civil court. Notwithstanding the said powers of the tribunal, the appellate tribunal may transmit any order made by it to a civil court having local Jurisdiction and such civil court shall execute the order as if it were a decree made by the court.

Q. A bench of KA-REAT can be chaired by a judicial member who has held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least __________.

Solution:

The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is chaired by a chairperson who is a retired / presiding High Court Judge, a judicial member who has held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least fifteen years or has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and has held the post of Additional Secretary of that service or any equivalent post, or has been an advocate for at least twenty years with experience in dealing with real estate matters and a technical member who he is a person well-versed in the field of urban development, housing, real estate development, infrastructure, economics, planning, law, commerce, accountancy, industry, management, public affairs.

QUESTION: 18

The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (KA-REAT) is a tribunal which was formed by the Government of Karnataka under Section 43 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016. The tribunal is entrusted with the jurisdiction to hear appeals from the orders of the Adjudicating Officer, RERA and the Real Estate Regulatory Authority from 7th January 2020. As of 2020, the Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is presided over by a chairperson, Hon'ble Justice Shri. B. Sreenivase Gowda, a judicial member, Shri. Dinesh K. P., and administrative member, Shri. Somashekhar P. S.
The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body that adjudicates issues arising between Developers and Homebuyers or Developers / Allottees and RERA. All appeals arising under The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, including proceedings relating to compensation, project registration/s and penalties under the Act shall be disposed of by the KA-REAT.
The bench is chaired by a chairperson who is a retired / presiding High Court Judge, a judicial member who has held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least fifteen years or has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and has held the post of Additional Secretary of that service or any equivalent post, or has been an advocate for at least twenty years with experience in dealing with real estate matters and a technical member who he is a person wellversed in the field of urban development, housing, real estate development, infrastructure, economics, planning, law, commerce, accountancy, industry, management, public affairs or administration and possesses experience of at least twenty years in the field or who has held the post in the Central Government or a State Government equivalent to the post of Additional Secretary to the Government of India or an equivalent post in the Central Government or an equivalent post in the State Government.
Under Section 58 of The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the KA-REAT is entitled to prefer an appeal before the High Court of Karnataka within a period of sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of KA-REAT to him. Such an appeal can be filed on any one or more grounds specified in Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908).
As per Section 57 of the RERA Act and Rule 26 of the Karnataka Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Rules 2017, every judgement, order made by the appellate tribunal shall be executed by the tribunal as a decree of civil court. Notwithstanding the said powers of the tribunal, the appellate tribunal may transmit any order made by it to a civil court having local Jurisdiction and such civil court shall execute the order as if it were a decree made by the court.

Q. Under which section of The Real Estate Act, 2016 the order of the KA-REAT is entitled to prefer an appeal before the High Court of Karnataka within a period of sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of KA-REAT to him?

Solution:

Under Section 58 of The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the KA-REAT is entitled to prefer an appeal before the High Court of Karnataka within a period of sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of KA-REAT to him.

QUESTION: 19

The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal (KA-REAT) is a tribunal which was formed by the Government of Karnataka under Section 43 of the Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016. The tribunal is entrusted with the jurisdiction to hear appeals from the orders of the Adjudicating Officer, RERA and the Real Estate Regulatory Authority from 7th January 2020. As of 2020, the Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is presided over by a chairperson, Hon'ble Justice Shri. B. Sreenivase Gowda, a judicial member, Shri. Dinesh K. P., and administrative member, Shri. Somashekhar P. S.
The Karnataka Real Estate Appellate Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body that adjudicates issues arising between Developers and Homebuyers or Developers / Allottees and RERA. All appeals arising under The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, including proceedings relating to compensation, project registration/s and penalties under the Act shall be disposed of by the KA-REAT.
The bench is chaired by a chairperson who is a retired / presiding High Court Judge, a judicial member who has held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least fifteen years or has been a member of the Indian Legal Service and has held the post of Additional Secretary of that service or any equivalent post, or has been an advocate for at least twenty years with experience in dealing with real estate matters and a technical member who he is a person wellversed in the field of urban development, housing, real estate development, infrastructure, economics, planning, law, commerce, accountancy, industry, management, public affairs or administration and possesses experience of at least twenty years in the field or who has held the post in the Central Government or a State Government equivalent to the post of Additional Secretary to the Government of India or an equivalent post in the Central Government or an equivalent post in the State Government.
Under Section 58 of The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act, 2016, any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the KA-REAT is entitled to prefer an appeal before the High Court of Karnataka within a period of sixty days from the date of communication of the decision or order of KA-REAT to him. Such an appeal can be filed on any one or more grounds specified in Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908).
As per Section 57 of the RERA Act and Rule 26 of the Karnataka Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Rules 2017, every judgement, order made by the appellate tribunal shall be executed by the tribunal as a decree of civil court. Notwithstanding the said powers of the tribunal, the appellate tribunal may transmit any order made by it to a civil court having local Jurisdiction and such civil court shall execute the order as if it were a decree made by the court.

Q. By using which section and rule of the Karnataka Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Rules 2017, every judgement, order made by the appellate tribunal shall be executed by the tribunal as a decree of civil court?

Solution:

As per Section 57 of the RERA Act and Rule 26 of the Karnataka Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Rules 2017, every judgement, order made by the appellate tribunal shall be executed by the tribunal as a decree of civil court. Notwithstanding the said powers of the tribunal, the appellate tribunal may transmit any order made by it to a civil court having local Jurisdiction and such civil court shall execute the order as if it were a decree made by the court.

QUESTION: 20

A prenuptial agreement ("prenup" for short) is a written contract created by two people before they are married. A prenup typically lists all of the property each person owns (as well as any debts) and specifies what each person's property rights will be after the marriage.
In some states, a prenuptial agreement is known as an "antenuptial agreement," or in more modern terms, a "premarital agreement." Sometimes the word "contract" is substituted for "agreement," as in "prenuptial contract." An agreement made during marriage, rather than before, is known as a "postnuptial," "post marital," or "marital" agreement.
As prenuptial agreements become more common, the law is becoming friendlier toward them. Traditionally, courts scrutinized prenups with a suspicious eye, because they almost always involved a waiver of legal and financial benefits by a less wealthy spouse and they were thought to encourage breakups.
As divorce and remarriage have become more prevalent, and with more equality between the sexes, courts and legislatures are increasingly willing to uphold premarital agreements. Today, every state permits them, although a prenup that is judged unfair or otherwise fails to meet state requirements will still be set aside.
However, because courts still look carefully at prenups, it is important that you negotiate and write up your agreement in a way that is clear, understandable, and legally sound. If you draft your own agreement, which we recommend, you'll want to have separate lawyers review it and at least briefly advise you about it -- otherwise a court is much more likely to question its validity.
Whether you need a prenup depends on where you live and what you want to accomplish with the contract. For example, if you live in a community property state, the general rule is that all assets acquired during your marriage will be divided 50/50 between you and your spouse if you divorce. And typically, separate property, including gifts, inheritances, and any property you owned before the marriage will not be divided in the divorce, and you will keep what you own individually.
If you live in a community property state and you're comfortable relying on these general rules, you may not need to go through the unromantic and sometimes stressful process of drafting a prenuptial agreement.
However, if you have specific ideas of how things should be divided or if you have separate property you want to make sure remains exclusively yours after a divorce, you may want to consider a prenup. Additionally, if you're certain that neither of you want to pay alimony in the event of a breakup, you may need a prenup to ensure you don't end up paying spousal support.

Q. A written contract created by two people before they are married is a 

Solution:

A prenuptial agreement ("prenup" for short) is a written contract created by two people before they are married. A prenup typically lists all of the property each person owns (as well as any debts) and specifies what each person's property rights will be after the marriage.

QUESTION: 21

A prenuptial agreement ("prenup" for short) is a written contract created by two people before they are married. A prenup typically lists all of the property each person owns (as well as any debts) and specifies what each person's property rights will be after the marriage.
In some states, a prenuptial agreement is known as an "antenuptial agreement," or in more modern terms, a "premarital agreement." Sometimes the word "contract" is substituted for "agreement," as in "prenuptial contract." An agreement made during marriage, rather than before, is known as a "postnuptial," "post marital," or "marital" agreement.
As prenuptial agreements become more common, the law is becoming friendlier toward them. Traditionally, courts scrutinized prenups with a suspicious eye, because they almost always involved a waiver of legal and financial benefits by a less wealthy spouse and they were thought to encourage breakups.
As divorce and remarriage have become more prevalent, and with more equality between the sexes, courts and legislatures are increasingly willing to uphold premarital agreements. Today, every state permits them, although a prenup that is judged unfair or otherwise fails to meet state requirements will still be set aside.
However, because courts still look carefully at prenups, it is important that you negotiate and write up your agreement in a way that is clear, understandable, and legally sound. If you draft your own agreement, which we recommend, you'll want to have separate lawyers review it and at least briefly advise you about it -- otherwise a court is much more likely to question its validity.
Whether you need a prenup depends on where you live and what you want to accomplish with the contract. For example, if you live in a community property state, the general rule is that all assets acquired during your marriage will be divided 50/50 between you and your spouse if you divorce. And typically, separate property, including gifts, inheritances, and any property you owned before the marriage will not be divided in the divorce, and you will keep what you own individually.
If you live in a community property state and you're comfortable relying on these general rules, you may not need to go through the unromantic and sometimes stressful process of drafting a prenuptial agreement.
However, if you have specific ideas of how things should be divided or if you have separate property you want to make sure remains exclusively yours after a divorce, you may want to consider a prenup. Additionally, if you're certain that neither of you want to pay alimony in the event of a breakup, you may need a prenup to ensure you don't end up paying spousal support.

Q. Postnuptial agreement is 

Solution:

A postnuptial agreement is a written agreement executed after a couple gets married, or have entered a civil union, to settle the couple's affairs and assets in the event of a separation or divorce. It may be "notarized" or acknowledged and may be the subject of the statute of frauds.

QUESTION: 22

A prenuptial agreement ("prenup" for short) is a written contract created by two people before they are married. A prenup typically lists all of the property each person owns (as well as any debts) and specifies what each person's property rights will be after the marriage.
In some states, a prenuptial agreement is known as an "antenuptial agreement," or in more modern terms, a "premarital agreement." Sometimes the word "contract" is substituted for "agreement," as in "prenuptial contract." An agreement made during marriage, rather than before, is known as a "postnuptial," "post marital," or "marital" agreement.
As prenuptial agreements become more common, the law is becoming friendlier toward them. Traditionally, courts scrutinized prenups with a suspicious eye, because they almost always involved a waiver of legal and financial benefits by a less wealthy spouse and they were thought to encourage breakups.
As divorce and remarriage have become more prevalent, and with more equality between the sexes, courts and legislatures are increasingly willing to uphold premarital agreements. Today, every state permits them, although a prenup that is judged unfair or otherwise fails to meet state requirements will still be set aside.
However, because courts still look carefully at prenups, it is important that you negotiate and write up your agreement in a way that is clear, understandable, and legally sound. If you draft your own agreement, which we recommend, you'll want to have separate lawyers review it and at least briefly advise you about it -- otherwise a court is much more likely to question its validity.
Whether you need a prenup depends on where you live and what you want to accomplish with the contract. For example, if you live in a community property state, the general rule is that all assets acquired during your marriage will be divided 50/50 between you and your spouse if you divorce. And typically, separate property, including gifts, inheritances, and any property you owned before the marriage will not be divided in the divorce, and you will keep what you own individually.
If you live in a community property state and you're comfortable relying on these general rules, you may not need to go through the unromantic and sometimes stressful process of drafting a prenuptial agreement.
However, if you have specific ideas of how things should be divided or if you have separate property you want to make sure remains exclusively yours after a divorce, you may want to consider a prenup. Additionally, if you're certain that neither of you want to pay alimony in the event of a breakup, you may need a prenup to ensure you don't end up paying spousal support.

Q. Why did Courts scrutinize prenups with a suspicious eye?

Solution:

Traditionally, courts scrutinized prenups with a suspicious eye, because they almost always involved a waiver of legal and financial benefits by a less wealthy spouse and they were thought to encourage breakups.

QUESTION: 23

A prenuptial agreement ("prenup" for short) is a written contract created by two people before they are married. A prenup typically lists all of the property each person owns (as well as any debts) and specifies what each person's property rights will be after the marriage.
In some states, a prenuptial agreement is known as an "antenuptial agreement," or in more modern terms, a "premarital agreement." Sometimes the word "contract" is substituted for "agreement," as in "prenuptial contract." An agreement made during marriage, rather than before, is known as a "postnuptial," "post marital," or "marital" agreement.
As prenuptial agreements become more common, the law is becoming friendlier toward them. Traditionally, courts scrutinized prenups with a suspicious eye, because they almost always involved a waiver of legal and financial benefits by a less wealthy spouse and they were thought to encourage breakups.
As divorce and remarriage have become more prevalent, and with more equality between the sexes, courts and legislatures are increasingly willing to uphold premarital agreements. Today, every state permits them, although a prenup that is judged unfair or otherwise fails to meet state requirements will still be set aside.
However, because courts still look carefully at prenups, it is important that you negotiate and write up your agreement in a way that is clear, understandable, and legally sound. If you draft your own agreement, which we recommend, you'll want to have separate lawyers review it and at least briefly advise you about it -- otherwise a court is much more likely to question its validity.
Whether you need a prenup depends on where you live and what you want to accomplish with the contract. For example, if you live in a community property state, the general rule is that all assets acquired during your marriage will be divided 50/50 between you and your spouse if you divorce. And typically, separate property, including gifts, inheritances, and any property you owned before the marriage will not be divided in the divorce, and you will keep what you own individually.
If you live in a community property state and you're comfortable relying on these general rules, you may not need to go through the unromantic and sometimes stressful process of drafting a prenuptial agreement.
However, if you have specific ideas of how things should be divided or if you have separate property you want to make sure remains exclusively yours after a divorce, you may want to consider a prenup. Additionally, if you're certain that neither of you want to pay alimony in the event of a breakup, you may need a prenup to ensure you don't end up paying spousal support.

Q. If you live in a community property state, then what is the general rule about the Prenups?

Solution:

For example, if you live in a community property state, the general rule is that all assets acquired during your marriage will be divided 50/50 between you and your spouse if you divorce. 

QUESTION: 24

A prenuptial agreement ("prenup" for short) is a written contract created by two people before they are married. A prenup typically lists all of the property each person owns (as well as any debts) and specifies what each person's property rights will be after the marriage.
In some states, a prenuptial agreement is known as an "antenuptial agreement," or in more modern terms, a "premarital agreement." Sometimes the word "contract" is substituted for "agreement," as in "prenuptial contract." An agreement made during marriage, rather than before, is known as a "postnuptial," "post marital," or "marital" agreement.
As prenuptial agreements become more common, the law is becoming friendlier toward them. Traditionally, courts scrutinized prenups with a suspicious eye, because they almost always involved a waiver of legal and financial benefits by a less wealthy spouse and they were thought to encourage breakups.
As divorce and remarriage have become more prevalent, and with more equality between the sexes, courts and legislatures are increasingly willing to uphold premarital agreements. Today, every state permits them, although a prenup that is judged unfair or otherwise fails to meet state requirements will still be set aside.
However, because courts still look carefully at prenups, it is important that you negotiate and write up your agreement in a way that is clear, understandable, and legally sound. If you draft your own agreement, which we recommend, you'll want to have separate lawyers review it and at least briefly advise you about it -- otherwise a court is much more likely to question its validity.
Whether you need a prenup depends on where you live and what you want to accomplish with the contract. For example, if you live in a community property state, the general rule is that all assets acquired during your marriage will be divided 50/50 between you and your spouse if you divorce. And typically, separate property, including gifts, inheritances, and any property you owned before the marriage will not be divided in the divorce, and you will keep what you own individually.
If you live in a community property state and you're comfortable relying on these general rules, you may not need to go through the unromantic and sometimes stressful process of drafting a prenuptial agreement.
However, if you have specific ideas of how things should be divided or if you have separate property you want to make sure remains exclusively yours after a divorce, you may want to consider a prenup. Additionally, if you're certain that neither of you want to pay alimony in the event of a breakup, you may need a prenup to ensure you don't end up paying spousal support.

Q. In prenuptial agreement, what will not be divided after the marriage?

Solution:

If you divorce and typically, separate property, including gifts, inheritances, and any property you owned before the marriage will not be divided in the divorce, and you will keep what you own individually.

QUESTION: 25

A prenuptial agreement ("prenup" for short) is a written contract created by two people before they are married. A prenup typically lists all of the property each person owns (as well as any debts) and specifies what each person's property rights will be after the marriage.
In some states, a prenuptial agreement is known as an "antenuptial agreement," or in more modern terms, a "premarital agreement." Sometimes the word "contract" is substituted for "agreement," as in "prenuptial contract." An agreement made during marriage, rather than before, is known as a "postnuptial," "post marital," or "marital" agreement.
As prenuptial agreements become more common, the law is becoming friendlier toward them. Traditionally, courts scrutinized prenups with a suspicious eye, because they almost always involved a waiver of legal and financial benefits by a less wealthy spouse and they were thought to encourage breakups.
As divorce and remarriage have become more prevalent, and with more equality between the sexes, courts and legislatures are increasingly willing to uphold premarital agreements. Today, every state permits them, although a prenup that is judged unfair or otherwise fails to meet state requirements will still be set aside.
However, because courts still look carefully at prenups, it is important that you negotiate and write up your agreement in a way that is clear, understandable, and legally sound. If you draft your own agreement, which we recommend, you'll want to have separate lawyers review it and at least briefly advise you about it -- otherwise a court is much more likely to question its validity.
Whether you need a prenup depends on where you live and what you want to accomplish with the contract. For example, if you live in a community property state, the general rule is that all assets acquired during your marriage will be divided 50/50 between you and your spouse if you divorce. And typically, separate property, including gifts, inheritances, and any property you owned before the marriage will not be divided in the divorce, and you will keep what you own individually.
If you live in a community property state and you're comfortable relying on these general rules, you may not need to go through the unromantic and sometimes stressful process of drafting a prenuptial agreement.
However, if you have specific ideas of how things should be divided or if you have separate property you want to make sure remains exclusively yours after a divorce, you may want to consider a prenup. Additionally, if you're certain that neither of you want to pay alimony in the event of a breakup, you may need a prenup to ensure you don't end up paying spousal support.

Q. If you want to ensure that you don't end up paying spousal support then you need a 

Solution:

This passage is about Prenuptial agreement .
and it given that, in some state prenuptial agreement is
known as Antenupital agreement ( 1st para 8th line) .
for this question , correct answer is prenuptial agrrement but it is not given in the options ..so option D , antenuptial agreement is the right answer.

QUESTION: 26

A prenuptial agreement ("prenup" for short) is a written contract created by two people before they are married. A prenup typically lists all of the property each person owns (as well as any debts) and specifies what each person's property rights will be after the marriage.
In some states, a prenuptial agreement is known as an "antenuptial agreement," or in more modern terms, a "premarital agreement." Sometimes the word "contract" is substituted for "agreement," as in "prenuptial contract." An agreement made during marriage, rather than before, is known as a "postnuptial," "post marital," or "marital" agreement.
As prenuptial agreements become more common, the law is becoming friendlier toward them. Traditionally, courts scrutinized prenups with a suspicious eye, because they almost always involved a waiver of legal and financial benefits by a less wealthy spouse and they were thought to encourage breakups.
As divorce and remarriage have become more prevalent, and with more equality between the sexes, courts and legislatures are increasingly willing to uphold premarital agreements. Today, every state permits them, although a prenup that is judged unfair or otherwise fails to meet state requirements will still be set aside.
However, because courts still look carefully at prenups, it is important that you negotiate and write up your agreement in a way that is clear, understandable, and legally sound. If you draft your own agreement, which we recommend, you'll want to have separate lawyers review it and at least briefly advise you about it -- otherwise a court is much more likely to question its validity.
Whether you need a prenup depends on where you live and what you want to accomplish with the contract. For example, if you live in a community property state, the general rule is that all assets acquired during your marriage will be divided 50/50 between you and your spouse if you divorce. And typically, separate property, including gifts, inheritances, and any property you owned before the marriage will not be divided in the divorce, and you will keep what you own individually.
If you live in a community property state and you're comfortable relying on these general rules, you may not need to go through the unromantic and sometimes stressful process of drafting a prenuptial agreement.
However, if you have specific ideas of how things should be divided or if you have separate property you want to make sure remains exclusively yours after a divorce, you may want to consider a prenup. Additionally, if you're certain that neither of you want to pay alimony in the event of a breakup, you may need a prenup to ensure you don't end up paying spousal support.

Q. As divorce and remarriage have become more prevalent, and with more equality between the sexes, courts and legislatures

Solution:

As divorce and remarriage have become more prevalent, and with more equality between the sexes, courts and legislatures are increasingly willing to uphold premarital agreements. Today, every state permits them, although a prenup that is judged unfair or otherwise fails to meet state requirements will still be set aside.

QUESTION: 27

Intellectual property rights (IPR) are basically negative rights, which allow the right-holder to (i) utilize, (ii) dispose of his rights and (iii) initiate legal action against those who infringe them. Anybody who misappropriates the property is faced with civil and/ or criminal consequences. While the traditional remedies include injunction, cost, damages, etc., what has assumed more popularity in these days is the non-traditional forms of remedies like, Anton Piller order, interlocutory injunction, etc. Anton Piller order is a very potent weapon in the plaintiff’s arsenal. Often dubbed as the ‘nuclear weapon’, it has the power even to destroy the defendant’s reputation and business. This potential of its being abused makes the order a force to reckon with. Generally, while granting an Anton Piller order, the Court has to balance between two conflicting interests- combating infringements of IPR and safeguarding the defendant’s right to privacy and privilege against self-incrimination. In this paper, various aspects of Anton Piller order, like jurisdictional aspect, requirements, safeguards against abuse, etc., through English cases are analyzed. In the end, scope of the application of Anton Piller order in Indian legal system through discussion of cases and various Acts is examined.
Anton Piller Order in UK -The Anton Piller order is a form of discovery preservation granted on ex parte application. It can comprise of an injunction to restrain infringement, permission to enter defendant's premises to inspect documents and remove originals or copies of the originals, permission to remove allegedly infringing goods, and an injunction to restrain defendant from disclosing contents of the injunction to third parties for a specified period. The purpose of the order was explained in Yousuf v Salama, where Lord Denning MR observed that the order intends to prevent the danger of destruction of evidence.

Q. The Intellectual Property India is administered by the Office of the:

Solution:

The Intellectual Property India is administered by the Office of the Controller General of Patents, Designs & Trade Marks (CGPDTM). This is a subordinate office of the Government of India and administers the Indian law of Patents, Designs, Trade Marks and Geographical Indications.

QUESTION: 28

Intellectual property rights (IPR) are basically negative rights, which allow the right-holder to (i) utilize, (ii) dispose of his rights and (iii) initiate legal action against those who infringe them. Anybody who misappropriates the property is faced with civil and/ or criminal consequences. While the traditional remedies include injunction, cost, damages, etc., what has assumed more popularity in these days is the non-traditional forms of remedies like, Anton Piller order, interlocutory injunction, etc. Anton Piller order is a very potent weapon in the plaintiff’s arsenal. Often dubbed as the ‘nuclear weapon’, it has the power even to destroy the defendant’s reputation and business. This potential of its being abused makes the order a force to reckon with. Generally, while granting an Anton Piller order, the Court has to balance between two conflicting interests- combating infringements of IPR and safeguarding the defendant’s right to privacy and privilege against self-incrimination. In this paper, various aspects of Anton Piller order, like jurisdictional aspect, requirements, safeguards against abuse, etc., through English cases are analyzed. In the end, scope of the application of Anton Piller order in Indian legal system through discussion of cases and various Acts is examined.
Anton Piller Order in UK -The Anton Piller order is a form of discovery preservation granted on ex parte application. It can comprise of an injunction to restrain infringement, permission to enter defendant's premises to inspect documents and remove originals or copies of the originals, permission to remove allegedly infringing goods, and an injunction to restrain defendant from disclosing contents of the injunction to third parties for a specified period. The purpose of the order was explained in Yousuf v Salama, where Lord Denning MR observed that the order intends to prevent the danger of destruction of evidence.

Q. What protects the intellectual property created by artists?

Solution:

Copyright protects the intellectual property created by artists.

QUESTION: 29

Intellectual property rights (IPR) are basically negative rights, which allow the right-holder to (i) utilize, (ii) dispose of his rights and (iii) initiate legal action against those who infringe them. Anybody who misappropriates the property is faced with civil and/ or criminal consequences. While the traditional remedies include injunction, cost, damages, etc., what has assumed more popularity in these days is the non-traditional forms of remedies like, Anton Piller order, interlocutory injunction, etc. Anton Piller order is a very potent weapon in the plaintiff’s arsenal. Often dubbed as the ‘nuclear weapon’, it has the power even to destroy the defendant’s reputation and business. This potential of its being abused makes the order a force to reckon with. Generally, while granting an Anton Piller order, the Court has to balance between two conflicting interests- combating infringements of IPR and safeguarding the defendant’s right to privacy and privilege against self-incrimination. In this paper, various aspects of Anton Piller order, like jurisdictional aspect, requirements, safeguards against abuse, etc., through English cases are analyzed. In the end, scope of the application of Anton Piller order in Indian legal system through discussion of cases and various Acts is examined.
Anton Piller Order in UK -The Anton Piller order is a form of discovery preservation granted on ex parte application. It can comprise of an injunction to restrain infringement, permission to enter defendant's premises to inspect documents and remove originals or copies of the originals, permission to remove allegedly infringing goods, and an injunction to restrain defendant from disclosing contents of the injunction to third parties for a specified period. The purpose of the order was explained in Yousuf v Salama, where Lord Denning MR observed that the order intends to prevent the danger of destruction of evidence.

Q. Which of the following is a form of discovery preservation granted on ex parte application.

Solution:

The Anton Piller order is a form of discovery preservation granted on ex parte application.

QUESTION: 30

Intellectual property rights (IPR) are basically negative rights, which allow the right-holder to (i) utilize, (ii) dispose of his rights and (iii) initiate legal action against those who infringe them. Anybody who misappropriates the property is faced with civil and/ or criminal consequences. While the traditional remedies include injunction, cost, damages, etc., what has assumed more popularity in these days is the non-traditional forms of remedies like, Anton Piller order, interlocutory injunction, etc. Anton Piller order is a very potent weapon in the plaintiff’s arsenal. Often dubbed as the ‘nuclear weapon’, it has the power even to destroy the defendant’s reputation and business. This potential of its being abused makes the order a force to reckon with. Generally, while granting an Anton Piller order, the Court has to balance between two conflicting interests- combating infringements of IPR and safeguarding the defendant’s right to privacy and privilege against self-incrimination. In this paper, various aspects of Anton Piller order, like jurisdictional aspect, requirements, safeguards against abuse, etc., through English cases are analyzed. In the end, scope of the application of Anton Piller order in Indian legal system through discussion of cases and various Acts is examined.
Anton Piller Order in UK -The Anton Piller order is a form of discovery preservation granted on ex parte application. It can comprise of an injunction to restrain infringement, permission to enter defendant's premises to inspect documents and remove originals or copies of the originals, permission to remove allegedly infringing goods, and an injunction to restrain defendant from disclosing contents of the injunction to third parties for a specified period. The purpose of the order was explained in Yousuf v Salama, where Lord Denning MR observed that the order intends to prevent the danger of destruction of evidence.

Q. What is the purpose of the Anton Piller order?

Solution:

The purpose of the order was explained in Yousuf v Salama, where Lord Denning MR observed that the order intends to prevent the danger of destruction of evidence.

QUESTION: 31

Intellectual property rights (IPR) are basically negative rights, which allow the right-holder to (i) utilize, (ii) dispose of his rights and (iii) initiate legal action against those who infringe them. Anybody who misappropriates the property is faced with civil and/ or criminal consequences. While the traditional remedies include injunction, cost, damages, etc., what has assumed more popularity in these days is the non-traditional forms of remedies like, Anton Piller order, interlocutory injunction, etc. Anton Piller order is a very potent weapon in the plaintiff’s arsenal. Often dubbed as the ‘nuclear weapon’, it has the power even to destroy the defendant’s reputation and business. This potential of its being abused makes the order a force to reckon with. Generally, while granting an Anton Piller order, the Court has to balance between two conflicting interests- combating infringements of IPR and safeguarding the defendant’s right to privacy and privilege against self-incrimination. In this paper, various aspects of Anton Piller order, like jurisdictional aspect, requirements, safeguards against abuse, etc., through English cases are analyzed. In the end, scope of the application of Anton Piller order in Indian legal system through discussion of cases and various Acts is examined.
Anton Piller Order in UK -The Anton Piller order is a form of discovery preservation granted on ex parte application. It can comprise of an injunction to restrain infringement, permission to enter defendant's premises to inspect documents and remove originals or copies of the originals, permission to remove allegedly infringing goods, and an injunction to restrain defendant from disclosing contents of the injunction to third parties for a specified period. The purpose of the order was explained in Yousuf v Salama, where Lord Denning MR observed that the order intends to prevent the danger of destruction of evidence.

Q. Anton Piller order is often dubbed as the ‘nuclear weapon’ because it has the power:

Solution:

Anton Piller order is a very potent weapon in the plaintiff’s arsenal, often dubbed as the ‘nuclear weapon’, because it has the power even to destroy the defendant’s reputation and business.

QUESTION: 32

Intellectual property rights (IPR) are basically negative rights, which allow the right-holder to (i) utilize, (ii) dispose of his rights and (iii) initiate legal action against those who infringe them. Anybody who misappropriates the property is faced with civil and/ or criminal consequences. While the traditional remedies include injunction, cost, damages, etc., what has assumed more popularity in these days is the non-traditional forms of remedies like, Anton Piller order, interlocutory injunction, etc. Anton Piller order is a very potent weapon in the plaintiff’s arsenal. Often dubbed as the ‘nuclear weapon’, it has the power even to destroy the defendant’s reputation and business. This potential of its being abused makes the order a force to reckon with. Generally, while granting an Anton Piller order, the Court has to balance between two conflicting interests- combating infringements of IPR and safeguarding the defendant’s right to privacy and privilege against self-incrimination. In this paper, various aspects of Anton Piller order, like jurisdictional aspect, requirements, safeguards against abuse, etc., through English cases are analyzed. In the end, scope of the application of Anton Piller order in Indian legal system through discussion of cases and various Acts is examined.
Anton Piller Order in UK -The Anton Piller order is a form of discovery preservation granted on ex parte application. It can comprise of an injunction to restrain infringement, permission to enter defendant's premises to inspect documents and remove originals or copies of the originals, permission to remove allegedly infringing goods, and an injunction to restrain defendant from disclosing contents of the injunction to third parties for a specified period. The purpose of the order was explained in Yousuf v Salama, where Lord Denning MR observed that the order intends to prevent the danger of destruction of evidence.

Q. While granting an Anton Piller order, the Court has to balance between two conflicting interests- combating infringements of IPR and safeguarding the defendant’s right to privacy and privilege against ______________.

Solution:

While granting an Anton Piller order, the Court has to balance between two conflicting interests- combating infringements of IPR and safeguarding the defendant’s right to privacy and privilege against self-incrimination (the act of saying or doing something that shows that you are guilty of a crime).

QUESTION: 33

Kalyani Kaul, a prominent barrister of Indian-origin who has handled high-profile cases, has been sworn in as a Circuit Judge in the UK.
54-year-old Kalyani, who has spent much of the past 32 years defending serious and highprofile cases, is known for her extensive and wide-ranging experience in heavy-weight criminal Defence work.
She was called to the Bar in 1983 and became a Recorder in 2009. As a Recorder she prepared cases for trial and presided over hearings in county courts.
She took Silk in 2011 -- in order to "take silk" a lawyer usually has to serve as a barrister or a Scottish advocate for at least 10 years.
Kalyani was sworn in as a Circuit Judge yesterday and will be sitting at Snaresbrook Crown Court with immediate effect.
In the last 10 years, she has prosecuted offences of murder, manslaughter, serious sexual offences and fraud.
Kalyani was the third highest-paid barrister in terms of legal aid payments in 2005. She studied law from the London School of Economics (LSE).
She was the Senior Circuit representative on the Bar Council (2013-14), a vice president (former chair) of the Association of Women Barristers, and one of the two Diversity Officers for the South Eastern Circuit.
Kalyani is the daughter of well-known British journalists Mahendra Kaul and Rajni Kaul, both of whom worked for long years with the Voice of America and the British Broadcasting Corporation.
Mahendra was the first Asian to be honored with the Order of the British Empire (OBE) in 1975.

Q. Kalyani Kaul has been sworn in as a ______________ in the UK.

Solution:

Kalyani Kaul, a prominent barrister of Indian-origin who has handled high-profile cases, has been sworn in as a Circuit Judge in the UK.

QUESTION: 34

Kalyani Kaul, a prominent barrister of Indian-origin who has handled high-profile cases, has been sworn in as a Circuit Judge in the UK.
54-year-old Kalyani, who has spent much of the past 32 years defending serious and highprofile cases, is known for her extensive and wide-ranging experience in heavy-weight criminal Defence work.
She was called to the Bar in 1983 and became a Recorder in 2009. As a Recorder she prepared cases for trial and presided over hearings in county courts.
She took Silk in 2011 -- in order to "take silk" a lawyer usually has to serve as a barrister or a Scottish advocate for at least 10 years.
Kalyani was sworn in as a Circuit Judge yesterday and will be sitting at Snaresbrook Crown Court with immediate effect.
In the last 10 years, she has prosecuted offences of murder, manslaughter, serious sexual offences and fraud.
Kalyani was the third highest-paid barrister in terms of legal aid payments in 2005. She studied law from the London School of Economics (LSE).
She was the Senior Circuit representative on the Bar Council (2013-14), a vice president (former chair) of the Association of Women Barristers, and one of the two Diversity Officers for the South Eastern Circuit.
Kalyani is the daughter of well-known British journalists Mahendra Kaul and Rajni Kaul, both of whom worked for long years with the Voice of America and the British Broadcasting Corporation.
Mahendra was the first Asian to be honored with the Order of the British Empire (OBE) in 1975.

Q. Who was the first Asian to be honored with the Order of the British Empire (OBE)?

Solution:

Mahendra Kaul was the first Asian to be honored with the Order of the British Empire (OBE) in 1975.

QUESTION: 35

Kalyani Kaul, a prominent barrister of Indian-origin who has handled high-profile cases, has been sworn in as a Circuit Judge in the UK.
54-year-old Kalyani, who has spent much of the past 32 years defending serious and highprofile cases, is known for her extensive and wide-ranging experience in heavy-weight criminal Defence work.
She was called to the Bar in 1983 and became a Recorder in 2009. As a Recorder she prepared cases for trial and presided over hearings in county courts.
She took Silk in 2011 -- in order to "take silk" a lawyer usually has to serve as a barrister or a Scottish advocate for at least 10 years.
Kalyani was sworn in as a Circuit Judge yesterday and will be sitting at Snaresbrook Crown Court with immediate effect.
In the last 10 years, she has prosecuted offences of murder, manslaughter, serious sexual offences and fraud.
Kalyani was the third highest-paid barrister in terms of legal aid payments in 2005. She studied law from the London School of Economics (LSE).
She was the Senior Circuit representative on the Bar Council (2013-14), a vice president (former chair) of the Association of Women Barristers, and one of the two Diversity Officers for the South Eastern Circuit.
Kalyani is the daughter of well-known British journalists Mahendra Kaul and Rajni Kaul, both of whom worked for long years with the Voice of America and the British Broadcasting Corporation.
Mahendra was the first Asian to be honored with the Order of the British Empire (OBE) in 1975.

Q. Who was the third highest-paid barrister in terms of legal aid payments in 2005?

Solution:

Kalyani Kaul was the third highest-paid barrister in terms of legal aid payments in 2005.

QUESTION: 36

Kalyani Kaul, a prominent barrister of Indian-origin who has handled high-profile cases, has been sworn in as a Circuit Judge in the UK.
54-year-old Kalyani, who has spent much of the past 32 years defending serious and highprofile cases, is known for her extensive and wide-ranging experience in heavy-weight criminal Defence work.
She was called to the Bar in 1983 and became a Recorder in 2009. As a Recorder she prepared cases for trial and presided over hearings in county courts.
She took Silk in 2011 -- in order to "take silk" a lawyer usually has to serve as a barrister or a Scottish advocate for at least 10 years.
Kalyani was sworn in as a Circuit Judge yesterday and will be sitting at Snaresbrook Crown Court with immediate effect.
In the last 10 years, she has prosecuted offences of murder, manslaughter, serious sexual offences and fraud.
Kalyani was the third highest-paid barrister in terms of legal aid payments in 2005. She studied law from the London School of Economics (LSE).
She was the Senior Circuit representative on the Bar Council (2013-14), a vice president (former chair) of the Association of Women Barristers, and one of the two Diversity Officers for the South Eastern Circuit.
Kalyani is the daughter of well-known British journalists Mahendra Kaul and Rajni Kaul, both of whom worked for long years with the Voice of America and the British Broadcasting Corporation.
Mahendra was the first Asian to be honored with the Order of the British Empire (OBE) in 1975.

Q. Where is the sitting of Kalyani Kaul after sworn in as a Circuit Judge?

Solution:

Kalyani Kaul will be sitting at Snaresbrook Crown Court with immediate effect.

QUESTION: 37

Kalyani Kaul, a prominent barrister of Indian-origin who has handled high-profile cases, has been sworn in as a Circuit Judge in the UK.
54-year-old Kalyani, who has spent much of the past 32 years defending serious and highprofile cases, is known for her extensive and wide-ranging experience in heavy-weight criminal Defence work.
She was called to the Bar in 1983 and became a Recorder in 2009. As a Recorder she prepared cases for trial and presided over hearings in county courts.
She took Silk in 2011 -- in order to "take silk" a lawyer usually has to serve as a barrister or a Scottish advocate for at least 10 years.
Kalyani was sworn in as a Circuit Judge yesterday and will be sitting at Snaresbrook Crown Court with immediate effect.
In the last 10 years, she has prosecuted offences of murder, manslaughter, serious sexual offences and fraud.
Kalyani was the third highest-paid barrister in terms of legal aid payments in 2005. She studied law from the London School of Economics (LSE).
She was the Senior Circuit representative on the Bar Council (2013-14), a vice president (former chair) of the Association of Women Barristers, and one of the two Diversity Officers for the South Eastern Circuit.
Kalyani is the daughter of well-known British journalists Mahendra Kaul and Rajni Kaul, both of whom worked for long years with the Voice of America and the British Broadcasting Corporation.
Mahendra was the first Asian to be honored with the Order of the British Empire (OBE) in 1975.

Q. Kalyani Kaul was the vice president of which association in UK?

Solution:

Kalyani Kaul was the Senior Circuit representative on the Bar Council (2013-14), a vice president (former chair) of the Association of Women Barristers, and one of the two Diversity Officers for the South Eastern Circuit.

QUESTION: 38

Kalyani Kaul, a prominent barrister of Indian-origin who has handled high-profile cases, has been sworn in as a Circuit Judge in the UK.
54-year-old Kalyani, who has spent much of the past 32 years defending serious and highprofile cases, is known for her extensive and wide-ranging experience in heavy-weight criminal Defence work.
She was called to the Bar in 1983 and became a Recorder in 2009. As a Recorder she prepared cases for trial and presided over hearings in county courts.
She took Silk in 2011 -- in order to "take silk" a lawyer usually has to serve as a barrister or a Scottish advocate for at least 10 years.
Kalyani was sworn in as a Circuit Judge yesterday and will be sitting at Snaresbrook Crown Court with immediate effect.
In the last 10 years, she has prosecuted offences of murder, manslaughter, serious sexual offences and fraud.
Kalyani was the third highest-paid barrister in terms of legal aid payments in 2005. She studied law from the London School of Economics (LSE).
She was the Senior Circuit representative on the Bar Council (2013-14), a vice president (former chair) of the Association of Women Barristers, and one of the two Diversity Officers for the South Eastern Circuit.
Kalyani is the daughter of well-known British journalists Mahendra Kaul and Rajni Kaul, both of whom worked for long years with the Voice of America and the British Broadcasting Corporation.
Mahendra was the first Asian to be honored with the Order of the British Empire (OBE) in 1975.

Q. At which post Kalyani Kaul was on the Bar Council (2013-14)?

Solution:

Kalyani Kaul was the Senior Circuit representative on the Bar Council (2013-14).

QUESTION: 39

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The Government of India has decided to interlink 60 rivers, including the mighty Ganges, which the government hopes will cut farmers' dependence on fickle monsoon rains by bringing millions of hectares of cultivable land under irrigation. But some experts say India would be better off investing in water conservation and better farm practices. Environmentalists and wildlife enthusiasts have also warned of ecological damage due to interlinking of river.
1) Floods are important for the country because they increase the water level.
2) There will be a marked improvement in food grains production.
3) A flood-like situation in different parts of the country due to heavy rain at the time of monsoon can be minimized.
4) Instead of interlinking the rivers it will be better for the government to focus on water conservation and better farm practices in the country.
5) Depending on monsoon rains is depending on fate.
6) Many of the people and wildlife will have to shift to new locations at the time of interlinking the rivers.

Q. Which of the following among 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 will be valid effects of the interlinking of the rivers in the country?

Solution:

Statement 2, 3 and 6 represent the effects of the interlinking of the rivers in the country, but 1 is an opinion on a flood. 4 states a suggestion and 5 states an opinion. Thus, 1, 4 and 5 can be eliminated as they cannot be the possible effects.
Now, since the paragraph indicates that the interlinking would bear negative results, 2 cannot follow. As suggested by the experts, in contrast to resolving the problem of irrigation, interlinking of rivers would cause more harm. Thus, only 3 and 6 can follow. Option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 40

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The Government of India has decided to interlink 60 rivers, including the mighty Ganges, which the government hopes will cut farmers' dependence on fickle monsoon rains by bringing millions of hectares of cultivable land under irrigation. But some experts say India would be better off investing in water conservation and better farm practices. Environmentalists and wildlife enthusiasts have also warned of ecological damage due to interlinking of river.
1) Floods are important for the country because they increase the water level.
2) There will be a marked improvement in food grains production.
3) A flood-like situation in different parts of the country due to heavy rain at the time of monsoon can be minimized.
4) Instead of interlinking the rivers it will be better for the government to focus on water conservation and better farm practices in the country.
5) Depending on monsoon rains is depending on fate.
6) Many of the people and wildlife will have to shift to new locations at the time of interlinking the rivers.

Q. Which of the following among 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 can be inferred from the given information?
(An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information.)

Solution:

Statement 5 is an assumption, statement 1 is an opinion on a flood, and statement 4 is an opinion negating the government's decision of interlinking of rivers.
Statement 2 gives a positive effect of the interlinking of rivers. Since the process targets at increasing food grain production, only 2 can be inferred from the given information.

QUESTION: 41

Direction: A statement is given followed by three inferences numbered I, II, and III. Consider the statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statement: About 5.5 million people are registered to vote in Zimbabwe, a nation anxious for change after decades of economic paralysis and the nearly four-decade rule of their former President, the 94-year-old Robert Mugabe.
Inferences: 
I. Robert Mugabe was clearly not a very popular President.
II. Millions of people registered to vote in the hope that this would be their best chance to end the toxic situation in their country that lasted for decades.
III. This was the first time in 40 years that Robert Mugabe wasn’t on the ballot list.

Solution:

Both I and II inferences follow. The given statement says that the voters are anxious for change after their country suffered from decades of economic paralysis under the rule of their former President, Robert Mugabe. This clearly indicates that the President wasn’t a very popular leader. Also, the fact that millions of people registered to vote indicates that the people are hoping their votes will make a difference and end the toxic rule that existed for all these years. And finally, we cannot infer that he isn’t on the ballot list, he can be in the list. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 42

Direction: A statement is given followed by three inferences numbered I, II, and III. Consider the statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statement: A French skier who went missing more than 60 years ago has finally been identified after details of a probe into his disappearance were posted on social media, Italian police said on Sunday.
Inferences:
I. Missing people can be identified and found if the family members along with the police make enough efforts.
II. The French Skier went missing in Italy.
III. The police were able to identify the missing guy only because of social media.

Solution:

None of the inferences follow. I is a generalized conclusion that cannot be inferred from a particular incident as stated in the given statement. II cannot be deduced even though the Italian police were the ones who made the comment. Maybe, the French police had taken help from the Italian police. Finally, the use of the word ‘only’ negates III as well. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 43

Direction: A statement is given followed by three inferences numbered I, II, and III. Consider the statement to be true even if it is at variance with commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statement: The Supreme Court on Monday dismissed former Union Telecom Minister Dayanidhi Maran’s plea and asked him to face trial in the case related to the alleged setting up of “illegal” telephone exchanges to benefit his brother Kalanithi Maran’s Sun TV Network.
Inferences:
I. Dayanidhi Maran was hoping the Supreme Court would listen to his plea simply because he was a former Union Minister.
II. The Maran brothers were sure that their illegal telephone exchanges will not come to light.
III. The Supreme Court dismissed Dayanidhi’s plea more so because he was a former minister with a history of illegal dealings.

Solution:

Only II can be inferred. The very reason the illegal telephone exchange was set up by the brothers was because they believed that no one would be able to bring their dishonest activities to light. I and III do not follow because they are slightly beyond the scope of the given statement and contain extraneous information. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 44

Direction: In the question below, two statements are given, followed by two conclusions . You have to consider the given statements as true, even if they are at variance from commonly known facts. From the given options, choose the one that provides the correct combination of conclusions that follow/ can be derived from the given statements.
Statements:
A. Some great discoveries have been made in the same sense as a gold-digger discovers the gold for which he is searching.
B. Madame Curie and her husband were searching deliberately for a radioactive substance when they discovered Radium.
Conclusions:
I. Madame Curie's discovery of Radium can be compared to a gold-digger's discovery of gold.
II. Some great discoveries may also be by accident.

Solution:

A tells us how a gold-digger discovers gold he is already searching for. Thus, I follows.
B tells us how Madame Curie was searching for a radioactive substance when she found Radium. So, it means that her discovery can be compared to a gold-digger's discovery of gold.
II also follows as the statements say that some discoveries are done deliberately, which automatically implies that some may be by accident.
Hence, option (c) is the correct response.

QUESTION: 45

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow: The debate over corporal punishment, especially in schools, remains vigorous. Corporal punishment is defined as a "physical punishment" and a "punishment that involves hitting someone." In most schools, corporal punishment is often spanking, with either a hand or paddle, or striking a student across his/her hand with a ruler or leather strap. While some parents believe that corporal punishment is the appropriate discipline for certain children when used in moderation, most parents are of the opinion that corporal punishment should be abolished as it can inflict long-lasting physical and mental harm on students.
Q. Which of the following statements, if true, most strongly supports the view that corporal punishment should be abolished?

Solution:

The paragraph above firstly gives an explanation of what corporal punishment is and then goes on to say that most parents believe such form of punishment should be abolished for good because it can inflict long-lasting mental and physical harm on students. Option B supports the abolishment view by stating how children who are punished this way tend to think that it is okay to hit or use other forms of violence against people to get their way, thereby putting other children at risk.
Options A and D on the other hand support the opposite view that corporal punishment is the appropriate discipline for students.

QUESTION: 46

Direction: In the following question, some statements followed by some conclusions are given. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows the given statements.
Statement:
(I) India's GDP continues to grow at one of the reasonable rates but job creation is not picking up the similar pace. (II) Every year over 20 million young Indians join the workforce.
Conclusions:
(I) Population increase is more than the job creation rate.
(II) Supply basket is less and the demand basket for jobs is very high.

Solution:

While we read the original sentences, we can interpret that although GDP has risen, the ability to provide a job is still less. Moreover, there is nothing mentioned about the population.
So, we can draw conclusions II but not I. Hence, option A is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 47

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are three married couples in the family. D is the only son of A. E is the only sister in law of N. B is the grandmother of K who is the daughter of D. F is the father of L who is the only daughter of E.

Q. How is K related to L?

Solution:


Clearly K and L are cousins.

QUESTION: 48

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
There are three married couples in the family. D is the only son of A. E is the only sister in law of N. B is the grandmother of K who is the daughter of D. F is the father of L who is the only daughter of E.

Q. How many males are there in the family?

Solution:


Clearly, there are three male members in the family.

QUESTION: 49

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
i. There is a group of five working girls.
ii. Kai is second in height but lighter than Rina
iii. Piya is taller than Mina but lighter in weight.
iv. Rina and Mina are of the same weight, but Rina is taller between them.
v. Nina is taller than Piya but shorter than Rina and heavier than Rina.
vi. Kai is not the lightest in the group.

Q. If the girls are arranged in the ascending order of heights, who will be in 3rd position?

Solution:

i. There is a group of five working girls.
ii. Kai is second in height but lighter than Rina
iii. Piya is taller than Mina but lighter in weight.
iv. Rina and Mina are of the same weight, but Rina is taller between them.
v. Nina is taller than Piya and heavier than Rina.
vi. Kai is not the lightest in the group.

Mina<Piya<Nina<Kai<Rina

QUESTION: 50

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
i. There is a group of five working girls.
ii. Kai is second in height but lighter than Rina
iii. Piya is taller than Mina but lighter in weight.
iv. Rina and Mina are of the same weight, but Rina is taller between them.
v. Nina is taller than Piya but shorter than Rina and heavier than Rina.
vi. Kai is not the lightest in the group.

Q. If they are arranged in the descending order of their weights, who will be on last position?

Solution:

i. There is a group of five working girls.
ii. Kai is second in height but lighter than Rina
iii. Piya is taller than Mina but lighter in weight.
iv. Rina and Mina are of the same weight, but Rina is taller between them.
v. Nina is taller than Piya and heavier than Rina.
vi. Kai is not the lightest in the group.

Nina>Rina=Mina>Kai>Piya

QUESTION: 51

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
i. There is a group of five working girls.
ii. Kai is second in height but lighter than Rina
iii. Piya is taller than Mina but lighter in weight.
iv. Rina and Mina are of the same weight, but Rina is taller between them.
v. Nina is taller than Piya but shorter than Rina and heavier than Rina.
vi. Kai is not the lightest in the group.

Q. To answer the question “who is the heaviest person in the group”, which of the given statement(s) is/are superfluous?

Solution:

i. There is a group of five working girls.
ii. Kai is second in height but lighter than Rina
iii. Piya is taller than Mina but lighter in weight
iv. Rina and Mina are of the same weight, but Rina is taller between them.
v. Nina is taller than Piya and heavier than Rina.
vi. Kai is not the lightest in the group.

(vi) statement is not necessary i.e. Kai is not the lightest in the group.

QUESTION: 52

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Akash walks 3m east to reach point C. Aayush walks 4m west to reach point D. From point C, Akash took a right turn and walks 2m. He took a left turn and walks 1m to reach point O. Meanwhile, Aayush took a right turn from point D and walks 2m. He again took a right turn and walks 1m. He took a left turn and saw point O straight ahead.

Q. In which direction is point D with respect to point O?

Solution:

The diagram is as under:

QUESTION: 53

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Akash walks 3m east to reach point C. Aayush walks 4m west to reach point D. From point C, Akash took a right turn and walks 2m. He took a left turn and walks 1m to reach point O. Meanwhile, Aayush took a right turn from point D and walks 2m. He again took a right turn and walks 1m. He took a left turn and saw point O straight ahead.

Q. Aayush has to walk 2m to reach point O after taking the final left turn. Calculate the distance covered by him from point D to O?

Solution:

The diagram is as follows:

The distance covered by Aayush = 2 + 1 + 2 = 5m

QUESTION: 54

Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Akash walks 3m east to reach point C. Aayush walks 4m west to reach point D. From point C, Akash took a right turn and walks 2m. He took a left turn and walks 1m to reach point O. Meanwhile, Aayush took a right turn from point D and walks 2m. He again took a right turn and walks 1m. He took a left turn and saw point O straight ahead.

Q. Determine the shortest distance between the starting points of Akash and Aayush?

Solution:

The diagram is as follows:

QUESTION: 55

Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
There are six people A, B, C, D, E, and F, seating around a rectangular table facing outwards. Four of them are seating at the longer sides (two people on each of the longer side) and remaining are seating at the shorter sides (one person on each of the shorter side). D and E are not immediate neighbors. A is sitting diagonally opposite to B. F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other. B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table. E is sitting two places away from A.

Q. How many persons are sitting between C and E?

Solution:

1) B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table.
2) A is sitting diagonally opposite to B.

3) E is sitting two places away from A.

4) F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other.
(Here, case 1 will be eliminated and we will continue with case 2)
5) D and E are not immediate neighbors.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 56

Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
There are six people A, B, C, D, E, and F, seating around a rectangular table facing outwards. Four of them are seating at the longer sides (two people on each of the longer side) and remaining are seating at the shorter sides (one person on each of the shorter side). D and E are not immediate neighbors. A is sitting diagonally opposite to B. F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other. B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table. E is sitting two places away from A.

Q. What is the position of F from D?

Solution:

1) B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table.
2) A is sitting diagonally opposite to B.

3) E is sitting two places away from A.

4) F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other.
(Here, case 1 will be eliminated and we will continue with case 2)
5) D and E are not immediate neighbors.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 57

Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
There are six people A, B, C, D, E, and F, seating around a rectangular table facing outwards. Four of them are seating at the longer sides (two people on each of the longer side) and remaining are seating at the shorter sides (one person on each of the shorter side). D and E are not immediate neighbors. A is sitting diagonally opposite to B. F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other. B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table. E is sitting two places away from A.

Q. Who among the following are the immediate neighbors of E?

Solution:

1) B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table.

3) E is sitting two places away from A.

4) F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other.
(Here, case 1 will be eliminated and we will continue with case 2)
5) D and E are not immediate neighbors.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 58

Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
There are six people A, B, C, D, E, and F, seating around a rectangular table facing outwards. Four of them are seating at the longer sides (two people on each of the longer side) and remaining are seating at the shorter sides (one person on each of the shorter side). D and E are not immediate neighbors. A is sitting diagonally opposite to B. F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other. B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table. E is sitting two places away from A.

Q. Who is sitting second to the left of A?

Solution:

1) B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table.
2) A is sitting diagonally opposite to B.

3) E is sitting two places away from A.

4) F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other.
(Here, case 1 will be eliminated and we will continue with case 2)
5) D and E are not immediate neighbors.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 59

Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
There are six people A, B, C, D, E, and F, seating around a rectangular table facing outwards. Four of them are seating at the longer sides (two people on each of the longer side) and remaining are seating at the shorter sides (one person on each of the shorter side). D and E are not immediate neighbors. A is sitting diagonally opposite to B. F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other. B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table. E is sitting two places away from A.

Q. Who is sitting opposite to F?

Solution:

1) B is sitting second to the left of C, who is sitting at the shorter side of the table.
2) A is sitting diagonally opposite to B.

3) E is sitting two places away from A.

4) F and D sit diagonally opposite to each other.
(Here, case 1 will be eliminated and we will continue with case 2)
5) D and E are not immediate neighbors.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 60

Direction: In question there are some statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All banks are exams.
All work are exams.
All time are exams.
Conclusions:
I. Some work are banks.
II. Some time are banks.

Solution:


I. Some work are banks. - False - There is no direct relationship between work and bank.
II. Some time are banks. - False - There is no direct relationship between time and bank.
Hence, none of the conclusion follows.

QUESTION: 61

Direction: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
The administration of a private primary school has justified the increase in the annual fees structure citing the increased spending on the salaries of the teachers and not on strengthening infrastructure for the students. However, the budget of this year indicates that the salary of the teachers constitutes only a small part of the school’s expenditure and the only notable increases in scholarship aid have gone to academic scholarships awarded regardless of need. The administration’s explanation is not believable.
Q. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument that the administration’s explanation is not believable?

Solution:

The reason given by the administration behind rise in fees was the increased spending on the salaries of the teachers and not on strengthening infrastructure for the students. Further the passage mentions, ‘the salary of the teachers constitutes only a small part of the school’s expenditure and the only notable increases in scholarship aid have gone to academic scholarships awarded regardless of need’. The statement that would make the explanation unbelievable would support the same fact i.e. increase in amount given as scholarship. Out of the given options, only option B mentions the same.
So, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 62

Direction: The questions in this section are based on the reasoning contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards implausible, superfluous, or incompatible with the passage. After you have chosen the best answer, blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.
The cinema viewers’ interests are not limited to certain specific genres and the cinema makers must endeavor to serve them all. It is possible that most cinema goers would prefer an action movie to a documentary. But a constant cycle of cinemas based on action genre showing at all multiplexes is not in the interest of the viewers. Thus, __________
Q. Which one of the following most logically completes the argument?

Solution:

The passage revolves around the idea that it is possible that interest of different people lie in different genre and thus, it is imperative that the ones making cinema are obliged to cater to the varied interests. They shouldn’t be focused on repeatedly making movies on the same genre. And if they are doing so (which is the actual case) they are failing to fulfil their responsibilities. The same idea has been implied in option D.
Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 63

Direction: Two statements are followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements and indicate your answer accordingly.
Statements:
I. Two Ukrainian men used online quizzes to lure more than 60,000 Facebook users into installing malicious browser extensions that leaked their profile data and friends lists to offshore servers, according to a federal lawsuit filed by the company.
II. Andrey Gorbachov and Gleb Sluchevsky allegedly used the browser extensions to overlay their own advertisements onto Facebook's news feed and this resulted in the victims visiting through the compromised browsers.
Conclusions:
I. As a result of installing the malicious extensions, the app users effectively compromised their own browsers because the malicious extensions were designed to scrape information and inject unauthorized advertisements when the app users visited Facebook.
II. In total, defendants compromised approximately 63,000 browsers used by Facebook users and caused over $75,000 in damages to Facebook.

Solution:

The correct answer is option (d), i.e. Only conclusion I follows.
In this type of question, conclusion is not specifically mentioned. It needs to be deduced from the given statements. We study the given statements provided and then on the basis of elimination we reach to the appropriate answer choice.
Conclusion 1 is the correct conclusion that can be drawn on the basis of the information provided. The information stated in it highlights the fact that because of installing the malicious extensions, the app users effectively compromised their own browsers because the malicious extensions were designed to scrape information and inject unauthorized advertisements when the app users visited Facebook. All the information presented in this conclusion is evident from the first statement and thus, this is the most appropriate conclusion that can be drawn on the basis of the given information.
Conclusion 2 is rejected as the figures presented in it are not backed up by the information provided. As we cannot conclude anything on our own therefore, it is rejected.
Thus, the most correct answer choice is option (d) and rest of the options can be rejected.

QUESTION: 64

Direction: Two statements are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements and indicate your answer accordingly.
Statements:
I. Saudi Arabia is set to become the biggest and only beneficiary of India’s tightly managed foreign flying rights regime with the Centre giving the oil-rich nation a 40% hike in quota from April 1.
II. The move, which follows the India visit of Saudi crown prince Mohammed bin Salman last month, will make Saudi Arabia the only country within a 5,000-km flying distance from India to have its quota increased by the Narendra Modi-led government.
Conclusions:
I. Indian carriers have objected to any increase in foreign flying rights because that would hamper their international plans to Europe and the US. The traffic that Saudi airlines would carry would be largely restricted to destinations in that country. Hence, this should not hamper plans of Indian carriers.
II. Saudi Arabia has unilaterally allowed Indian carriers to add as many flights as they want to Dammam. If flights to Dammam were to be included, India operates more flights to Saudi Arabia than vice versa.
III. The aviation ministry feels traffic to Saudi Arabia from India is point-to-point and does not impact the plans of Indian carriers.

Solution:

The correct answer is option (d), i.e. None follows.
In this type of question, conclusion is not specifically mentioned. It needs to be deduced from the given statements. We study the given statements provided and then on the basis of elimination we reach to the appropriate answer choice.
Conclusion I is vague as it captures the response of Indian carriers in regard to the increase in foreign flying rights because that would hamper their international plans to Europe and the US. The given statement does not state any such thing thus, the given conclusion is rejected.
Conclusion II states independent fact that ‘Saudi Arabia has unilaterally allowed Indian carriers to add as many flights as they want to Dammam’. No information given in the passage supports this idea. Something which is not presented in the given context cannot be concluded, thus, it is rejected.
Conclusion III is rejected as the views of aviation ministry is nowhere mentioned in the given context.
As all the given conclusions are irrelevant thus, the most correct answer choice is option (d).

QUESTION: 65

Direction: In the question below, are given a statement followed by three courses of actions numbered I, II and III. On the basis of the information given, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement: The new methodology to calculate foreign ownership limit that global index provider MSCI has proposed could lead to a sharp outflow from Indian stocks.
Courses of action:
I. The overall weight of India in the MSCI Emerging Markets (EM) index is expected to fall by 25 basis points to 8.55 per cent if the proposal goes into effect.
II. MSCI will seek to exclude the shares being offered through global and American depository receipts (GDRs, ADRs) while calculating foreign ownership limits.
III. While determining the weight of a company, MSCI will take into consideration parameters including the foreign inclusion factor (FIF), which determines the total proportion of shares of a company that offshore investors can buy from exchanges.

Solution:

The correct answer is option (c), i.e. Both II and III follows.
A course of action is something that needs to be done considering the present scenario in mind.
From the given statement, we can infer that a suitable course of action should be the course of action followed by the MSCI for proceeding with its new methodology or the action taken by India to stabilize its stocks.
Course of action (I) can be rejected as it is not an action. It is the effect of the said proposal on the overall weight of India in the EM index.
Course of action (II) is a suitable course of action followed by MSCI to proceed with its said proposal.
Based on similar grounds, course of action (III) is also correct as it is in the same direction and highlights the action that will be followed by the MSCI to carry out the said proposal effectively.
Thus, all the course of actions except I are relevant and as a result the correct answer is option (c).

QUESTION: 66

Direction: In the question below, are given a statement followed by three courses of actions numbered I and II. On the basis of the information given, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement: Sports and games are recommended for everyone. These serve as an exercise that must form a part of our daily routine if we want to stay fit and active. The key to staying fit is following a healthy lifestyle that includes a healthy diet and exercise.
Course of action:
I. All the educational institutes should have a section of Extra Curriculum activities which make sure that both the mind and body of students are in balance.
II. Sports and games play an important role, particularly in a student’s life. It is a growing age and students must be involved in sports activities to ensure their all-round development.

Solution:

A large number of institutes are fast becoming health conscious and have started to understand the value of healthcare for which sports and other activities are necessary which is another word is the course of the action for the given statement which signifies about the importance of health education.

QUESTION: 67

Read the following and answer the question based on it.
We have come a long way from the stone age to the Digital Age. The internet had changed the way we study, chat, work, play and spend money. Information is just a click away. It has made life and systems much easier than they were. The internet has become more of a necessity than a luxury today. But it has its own disadvantages too.
Q. Which conclusion follows the given statement?

Solution:

The passage talks about the benefits of digital age. The Internet is one of the greatest creations and gives everyone in the world with Internet instant access to an endless supply of knowledge and entertainment.
Hence, option (d) is the correct response.

QUESTION: 68

The number of television sets sold per year by Dakota Electronics has been approximately the same over the last five years suggesting the continued trust consumers have shown on the quality of television sets sold by Dakota.
Q. Which of the following casts a doubt on the above reasoning?

Solution:

We need to identity an answer choice that weakens the reasoning in the argument. Choice (a) is irrelevant since it gives information about a rival company. Choice (b) is irrelevant too since the given argument only that the trust on the quality of television sets has been the driving force behind the consistent sales. Hence, we cannot make any inferences about any other electronics items that Dakota manufactures Choice (d) is also irrelevant since, in spite of the few technological changes, the sales have not been affected. Also, it is in comparison to another company. Only choice (c) weakens it since it implies that the price but not the quality that has been the driving force behind the almost consistent sales.

QUESTION: 69

China on Friday launched its heaviest and most advanced communications satellite on the country's largest new carrier rocket Long March-5 that will lay the foundation for the development of highly sensitive space probes. Aboard the third Long March-5 rocket, Shijian20, a new technology test and verification satellite, successfully entered its orbit Friday night, state-run Xinhua news agency reported. Launched from the Wenchang Space Launch Centre in south China's Hainan Province, Shijian-20, weighing more than eight tonnes, is the country's heaviest and most advanced communications satellite in geosynchronous orbit, according to its maker, the China Academy of Space Technology (CAST) under the China Aerospace Science and Technology Corporation (CASC).
The Long March-5, China's most powerful rocket and a critical ingredient in the nation's ambitious space programme, can carry a maximum payload of 25 tonnes into low Earth orbit and 14 tonnes into geosynchronous orbit. The successful launch is a major step forward for its planned mission to Mars in 2020. The satellite will carry out orbit experiments for a series of key technologies, the CAST said in a press release.
It will demonstrate in orbit its heat transfer technology based on cryogenic loop heat pipes, an efficient thermal control device for space applications, to lay the foundation for the development of highly sensitive space probes. The satellite will test the controllable deformation of shape memory polymers, a type of smart material that can switch between temporary shapes, to pave the way for the development of large variable space structures.

Q. Which country’s launched advanced communications satellite Long March-5?

Solution:

China's Huge Long March 5 Rocket Returns to Flight in Dazzling Nighttime Launch. China's biggest rocket, the Long March 5, returned to flight for the first time since a 2017 failure Friday (Dec. 27) in a dazzling nighttime launch for the Chinese space program.

QUESTION: 70

China on Friday launched its heaviest and most advanced communications satellite on the country's largest new carrier rocket Long March-5 that will lay the foundation for the development of highly sensitive space probes. Aboard the third Long March-5 rocket, Shijian20, a new technology test and verification satellite, successfully entered its orbit Friday night, state-run Xinhua news agency reported. Launched from the Wenchang Space Launch Centre in south China's Hainan Province, Shijian-20, weighing more than eight tonnes, is the country's heaviest and most advanced communications satellite in geosynchronous orbit, according to its maker, the China Academy of Space Technology (CAST) under the China Aerospace Science and Technology Corporation (CASC).
The Long March-5, China's most powerful rocket and a critical ingredient in the nation's ambitious space programme, can carry a maximum payload of 25 tonnes into low Earth orbit and 14 tonnes into geosynchronous orbit. The successful launch is a major step forward for its planned mission to Mars in 2020. The satellite will carry out orbit experiments for a series of key technologies, the CAST said in a press release.
It will demonstrate in orbit its heat transfer technology based on cryogenic loop heat pipes, an efficient thermal control device for space applications, to lay the foundation for the development of highly sensitive space probes. The satellite will test the controllable deformation of shape memory polymers, a type of smart material that can switch between temporary shapes, to pave the way for the development of large variable space structures.

Q. Which Space Centre launched Long March-5?

Solution:

China's heavy-lift Long March 5 rocket is being readied for its comeback flight at the Wenchang Space Launch Center in south China's Hainan Province.

QUESTION: 71

China on Friday launched its heaviest and most advanced communications satellite on the country's largest new carrier rocket Long March-5 that will lay the foundation for the development of highly sensitive space probes. Aboard the third Long March-5 rocket, Shijian20, a new technology test and verification satellite, successfully entered its orbit Friday night, state-run Xinhua news agency reported. Launched from the Wenchang Space Launch Centre in south China's Hainan Province, Shijian-20, weighing more than eight tonnes, is the country's heaviest and most advanced communications satellite in geosynchronous orbit, according to its maker, the China Academy of Space Technology (CAST) under the China Aerospace Science and Technology Corporation (CASC).
The Long March-5, China's most powerful rocket and a critical ingredient in the nation's ambitious space programme, can carry a maximum payload of 25 tonnes into low Earth orbit and 14 tonnes into geosynchronous orbit. The successful launch is a major step forward for its planned mission to Mars in 2020. The satellite will carry out orbit experiments for a series of key technologies, the CAST said in a press release.
It will demonstrate in orbit its heat transfer technology based on cryogenic loop heat pipes, an efficient thermal control device for space applications, to lay the foundation for the development of highly sensitive space probes. The satellite will test the controllable deformation of shape memory polymers, a type of smart material that can switch between temporary shapes, to pave the way for the development of large variable space structures.

Q. What is Currency of China?

Solution:

The renminbi is the official currency of the People's Republic of China, and one of the world's major reserve currencies. The yuan is the basic unit of the renminbi but is also used to refer to the Chinese currency generally, especially in international contexts where "Chinese yuan" is widely used to refer to the renminbi. The distinction between renminbi and yuan is that renminbi is the name of the currency and yuan refers to its primary unit. One yuan is subdivided into 10 Jiao, and a Jiao in turn is subdivided into 10 fens. The renminbi is issued by the People's Bank of China, the monetary authority of China.

QUESTION: 72

China on Friday launched its heaviest and most advanced communications satellite on the country's largest new carrier rocket Long March-5 that will lay the foundation for the development of highly sensitive space probes. Aboard the third Long March-5 rocket, Shijian20, a new technology test and verification satellite, successfully entered its orbit Friday night, state-run Xinhua news agency reported. Launched from the Wenchang Space Launch Centre in south China's Hainan Province, Shijian-20, weighing more than eight tonnes, is the country's heaviest and most advanced communications satellite in geosynchronous orbit, according to its maker, the China Academy of Space Technology (CAST) under the China Aerospace Science and Technology Corporation (CASC).
The Long March-5, China's most powerful rocket and a critical ingredient in the nation's ambitious space programme, can carry a maximum payload of 25 tonnes into low Earth orbit and 14 tonnes into geosynchronous orbit. The successful launch is a major step forward for its planned mission to Mars in 2020. The satellite will carry out orbit experiments for a series of key technologies, the CAST said in a press release.
It will demonstrate in orbit its heat transfer technology based on cryogenic loop heat pipes, an efficient thermal control device for space applications, to lay the foundation for the development of highly sensitive space probes. The satellite will test the controllable deformation of shape memory polymers, a type of smart material that can switch between temporary shapes, to pave the way for the development of large variable space structures.

Q. What is maximum payload of Long March -5 into low Earth orbit?

Solution:

The Long March-5, China's most powerful rocket and a critical ingredient in the nation's ambitious space programme, can carry a maximum payload of 25 tonnes into low Earth orbit.

QUESTION: 73

In Madhya Pradesh, the 5-day Mandu festival has been started from today in Mandu, a worldfamous picturesque tourist destination located in Dhar district of the state.
The Mandu festival, which will run till January 1, will see the amalgamation of cultural activities as well as adventure sports. The rich classical and traditional folk arts of dance, singing and playing will once again come alive through the Mandu festival.
Based on the idea of “Khojne Me Kho Jao”, the Mandu festival is offering an eclectic mix of performing arts, workshops, nature trails, food, architecture and music to the visitors. Visitors can also explore the trail on cycling tours, walking tours or jump onto the Hop-In-Hop-Out buses to dive deep into the rich history of the city.

Q. Which State Organized this festival?

Solution:

Madhya Pradesh is one such land in India that emits vibrancy from every nook and corner. The heart of India hosts the best cultural and heritage festivals that can't be seen anywhere else in the world. People of various caste, religions and tribes are currently nestled in Madhya Pradesh. All these fairs and festivals interweave souls of different religion and drench them in the color of festivities. Riots of colors, when scatters on the land of Madhya Pradesh, creates such an aura that nobody can resist it charm. During the festival season of Madhya Pradesh, tourists can see the best of Madhya Pradesh that is classical and beautiful.

QUESTION: 74

In Madhya Pradesh, the 5-day Mandu festival has been started from today in Mandu, a worldfamous picturesque tourist destination located in Dhar district of the state.
The Mandu festival, which will run till January 1, will see the amalgamation of cultural activities as well as adventure sports. The rich classical and traditional folk arts of dance, singing and playing will once again come alive through the Mandu festival.
Based on the idea of “Khojne Me Kho Jao”, the Mandu festival is offering an eclectic mix of performing arts, workshops, nature trails, food, architecture and music to the visitors. Visitors can also explore the trail on cycling tours, walking tours or jump onto the Hop-In-Hop-Out buses to dive deep into the rich history of the city.

Q. What is the idea of Mandu festival?

Solution:

The rich classical and traditional folk arts of dance, singing and playing will once again come alive through the Mandu festival. Based on the idea of Khojne Me Kho Jao, the Mandu festival is offering an eclectic mix of performing arts, workshops, nature trails, food, architecture and music to the visitors.

QUESTION: 75

In Madhya Pradesh, the 5-day Mandu festival has been started from today in Mandu, a worldfamous picturesque tourist destination located in Dhar district of the state.
The Mandu festival, which will run till January 1, will see the amalgamation of cultural activities as well as adventure sports. The rich classical and traditional folk arts of dance, singing and playing will once again come alive through the Mandu festival.
Based on the idea of “Khojne Me Kho Jao”, the Mandu festival is offering an eclectic mix of performing arts, workshops, nature trails, food, architecture and music to the visitors. Visitors can also explore the trail on cycling tours, walking tours or jump onto the Hop-In-Hop-Out buses to dive deep into the rich history of the city.

Q. Who is the Present governor of Madhya Pradesh?

Solution:

Veteran BJP leader and Bihar governor Lalji Tandon replaces Patel in Madhya Pradesh.

QUESTION: 76

In Madhya Pradesh, the 5-day Mandu festival has been started from today in Mandu, a worldfamous picturesque tourist destination located in Dhar district of the state.
The Mandu festival, which will run till January 1, will see the amalgamation of cultural activities as well as adventure sports. The rich classical and traditional folk arts of dance, singing and playing will once again come alive through the Mandu festival.
Based on the idea of “Khojne Me Kho Jao”, the Mandu festival is offering an eclectic mix of performing arts, workshops, nature trails, food, architecture and music to the visitors. Visitors can also explore the trail on cycling tours, walking tours or jump onto the Hop-In-Hop-Out buses to dive deep into the rich history of the city.

Q. The Mandu festival concludes on which date?

Solution:

The festival commenced from Dec 28th,2019 and concluded on Jan 1st, 2020.

QUESTION: 77

Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde was administered oath as the 47th Chief Justice of India by President Ram Nath Kovind. Justice Bobde, 63, succeeds Justice Ranjan Gogoi who demitted office on Sunday. Justice Bobde took oath in English in the name of God at a brief ceremony held at the Durbar Hall of Rashtrapati Bhawan.
Justice Bobde will have a tenure of over 17 months as the CJI and is due to retire on April 23, 2021. Justice Bobde was chosen following the rule of seniority and his name was recommended by Justice Gogoi in a letter to the Centre.
Justice Bobde completed a Bachelor of Arts and LLB degrees from Nagpur University. He was enrolled as an advocate of the Bar Council of Maharashtra in 1978. He practised law at the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court with appearances at Bombay before the Principal Seat and before the Supreme Court for over 21 years. He was designated as a senior advocate in 1998. Justice Bobde was elevated to the Bombay High Court on March 29, 2000, as Additional Judge and sworn in as Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court on October 16, 2012. He was elevated as a judge of the Supreme Court on April 12, 2013.

Q. Who is the 46th Chief Justice of India?

Solution:

Ranjan Gogoi is the 46th Chief Justice of India.

QUESTION: 78

Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde was administered oath as the 47th Chief Justice of India by President Ram Nath Kovind. Justice Bobde, 63, succeeds Justice Ranjan Gogoi who demitted office on Sunday. Justice Bobde took oath in English in the name of God at a brief ceremony held at the Durbar Hall of Rashtrapati Bhawan.
Justice Bobde will have a tenure of over 17 months as the CJI and is due to retire on April 23, 2021. Justice Bobde was chosen following the rule of seniority and his name was recommended by Justice Gogoi in a letter to the Centre.
Justice Bobde completed a Bachelor of Arts and LLB degrees from Nagpur University. He was enrolled as an advocate of the Bar Council of Maharashtra in 1978. He practised law at the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court with appearances at Bombay before the Principal Seat and before the Supreme Court for over 21 years. He was designated as a senior advocate in 1998. Justice Bobde was elevated to the Bombay High Court on March 29, 2000, as Additional Judge and sworn in as Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court on October 16, 2012. He was elevated as a judge of the Supreme Court on April 12, 2013.

Q. Who is the 47th Chief Justice of India?

Solution:

Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde, who has decided several key cases and was part of the recent historic Ayodhya verdict, administered oath as the 47th Chief Justice of India by President Ram Nath Kovind.

QUESTION: 79

Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde was administered oath as the 47th Chief Justice of India by President Ram Nath Kovind. Justice Bobde, 63, succeeds Justice Ranjan Gogoi who demitted office on Sunday. Justice Bobde took oath in English in the name of God at a brief ceremony held at the Durbar Hall of Rashtrapati Bhawan.
Justice Bobde will have a tenure of over 17 months as the CJI and is due to retire on April 23, 2021. Justice Bobde was chosen following the rule of seniority and his name was recommended by Justice Gogoi in a letter to the Centre.
Justice Bobde completed a Bachelor of Arts and LLB degrees from Nagpur University. He was enrolled as an advocate of the Bar Council of Maharashtra in 1978. He practised law at the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court with appearances at Bombay before the Principal Seat and before the Supreme Court for over 21 years. He was designated as a senior advocate in 1998. Justice Bobde was elevated to the Bombay High Court on March 29, 2000, as Additional Judge and sworn in as Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court on October 16, 2012. He was elevated as a judge of the Supreme Court on April 12, 2013.

Q. Justice Bobde’s take the oath in which language?

Solution:

Meet Sharad Arvind Bobde, the 47th CJI
Justice Bobde took oath in English in the name of God at a brief ceremony held at the Durbar Hall of Rashtrapati Bhawan.

QUESTION: 80

Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde was administered oath as the 47th Chief Justice of India by President Ram Nath Kovind. Justice Bobde, 63, succeeds Justice Ranjan Gogoi who demitted office on Sunday. Justice Bobde took oath in English in the name of God at a brief ceremony held at the Durbar Hall of Rashtrapati Bhawan.
Justice Bobde will have a tenure of over 17 months as the CJI and is due to retire on April 23, 2021. Justice Bobde was chosen following the rule of seniority and his name was recommended by Justice Gogoi in a letter to the Centre.
Justice Bobde completed a Bachelor of Arts and LLB degrees from Nagpur University. He was enrolled as an advocate of the Bar Council of Maharashtra in 1978. He practised law at the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court with appearances at Bombay before the Principal Seat and before the Supreme Court for over 21 years. He was designated as a senior advocate in 1998. Justice Bobde was elevated to the Bombay High Court on March 29, 2000, as Additional Judge and sworn in as Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court on October 16, 2012. He was elevated as a judge of the Supreme Court on April 12, 2013.

Q. What is the retirement date of Justice Bobde?

Solution:

Justice Bobde will have a tenure of over 17 months as the CJI and will retire on April 23, 2021.

QUESTION: 81

Mumbai Indians won the 2019 Indian Premier League after defeating Chennai Super Kings by 1 run in a last-ball thriller in Hyderabad on Sunday. MI are now the first team to win the Indian Premier League 4 times while defending champions Chennai Super Kings were left t rue a few close chances.
On Sunday, after MI sealed a thrilling victory, there were plenty of awards to be given away after 48 match days and 60 matches. David Warner won the Orange Cap while Imran Tahir snatched the Purple Cap from his South African teammate Kagiso Rabada.
All the award winners were given a cheque of Rs 10 lakh each.
Imran Tahir, who became the oldest player to feature in an IPL final, is only the 2nd spinner after Pragyan Ojha to win the Purple Cap.
Meanwhile, David Warner, who missed the 2018 Indian Premier League because of the balltampering scandal, came back with a bang and smashed 692 runs to win the Orange Cap. Andre Russell, who hit the most sixes in the season, finished with the highest strike rate and won the Super Striker of the Season and the Most Valuable Player of the Season.
Here are all the awards of the 12th edition of the IPL:
Player of the Match in the Final: Jasprit Bumrah (MI), 2 for 14
Most Valuable Player: Andre Russell (KKR), 510 runs, 11 wickets
Fairplay: Sunrisers Hyderabad
Purple Cap: Imran Tahir (CSK), 26 wickets
Orange Cap: David Warner (SRH), 692 runs
Fastest Fifty of the Season: Hardik Pandya (MI)
Perfect Catch of the Season: Kieron Pollard (MI)
Super Striker of the Season: Andre Russell (KKR), strike rate of 204.81
Stylish Player of the Season: KL Rahul (KXIP)
Emerging Player Award: Shubhman Gill (KKR)
Game Changer of the Season: Rahul Chahar (MI)

Q. Where held the final match of IPL 2019?

Solution:

The 2019 Indian Premier League Final was a Twenty20 cricket match played between Chennai Super Kings and the Mumbai Indians on 12 May 2019 at the Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium in Hyderabad. It was the culmination of the 2019 season of the Indian Premier League (IPL), an annual Twenty20 tournament held in India. Mumbai won the match by a single run and claimed their fourth Indian Premier League title.

QUESTION: 82

Mumbai Indians won the 2019 Indian Premier League after defeating Chennai Super Kings by 1 run in a last-ball thriller in Hyderabad on Sunday. MI are now the first team to win the Indian Premier League 4 times while defending champions Chennai Super Kings were left t rue a few close chances.
On Sunday, after MI sealed a thrilling victory, there were plenty of awards to be given away after 48 match days and 60 matches. David Warner won the Orange Cap while Imran Tahir snatched the Purple Cap from his South African teammate Kagiso Rabada.
All the award winners were given a cheque of Rs 10 lakh each.
Imran Tahir, who became the oldest player to feature in an IPL final, is only the 2nd spinner after Pragyan Ojha to win the Purple Cap.
Meanwhile, David Warner, who missed the 2018 Indian Premier League because of the balltampering scandal, came back with a bang and smashed 692 runs to win the Orange Cap. Andre Russell, who hit the most sixes in the season, finished with the highest strike rate and won the Super Striker of the Season and the Most Valuable Player of the Season.
Here are all the awards of the 12th edition of the IPL:
Player of the Match in the Final: Jasprit Bumrah (MI), 2 for 14
Most Valuable Player: Andre Russell (KKR), 510 runs, 11 wickets
Fairplay: Sunrisers Hyderabad
Purple Cap: Imran Tahir (CSK), 26 wickets
Orange Cap: David Warner (SRH), 692 runs
Fastest Fifty of the Season: Hardik Pandya (MI)
Perfect Catch of the Season: Kieron Pollard (MI)
Super Striker of the Season: Andre Russell (KKR), strike rate of 204.81
Stylish Player of the Season: KL Rahul (KXIP)
Emerging Player Award: Shubhman Gill (KKR)
Game Changer of the Season: Rahul Chahar (MI)

Q. Which team won final match of IPL 2019?

Solution:

The 2019 Indian Premier League Final was a Twenty20 cricket match played between Chennai Super Kings and the Mumbai Indians on 12 May 2019 at the Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium in Hyderabad. It was the culmination of the 2019 season of the Indian Premier League (IPL), an annual Twenty20 tournament held in India. Mumbai won the match by a single run and claimed their fourth Indian Premier League title.

QUESTION: 83

Mumbai Indians won the 2019 Indian Premier League after defeating Chennai Super Kings by 1 run in a last-ball thriller in Hyderabad on Sunday. MI are now the first team to win the Indian Premier League 4 times while defending champions Chennai Super Kings were left t rue a few close chances.
On Sunday, after MI sealed a thrilling victory, there were plenty of awards to be given away after 48 match days and 60 matches. David Warner won the Orange Cap while Imran Tahir snatched the Purple Cap from his South African teammate Kagiso Rabada.
All the award winners were given a cheque of Rs 10 lakh each.
Imran Tahir, who became the oldest player to feature in an IPL final, is only the 2nd spinner after Pragyan Ojha to win the Purple Cap.
Meanwhile, David Warner, who missed the 2018 Indian Premier League because of the balltampering scandal, came back with a bang and smashed 692 runs to win the Orange Cap. Andre Russell, who hit the most sixes in the season, finished with the highest strike rate and won the Super Striker of the Season and the Most Valuable Player of the Season.
Here are all the awards of the 12th edition of the IPL:
Player of the Match in the Final: Jasprit Bumrah (MI), 2 for 14
Most Valuable Player: Andre Russell (KKR), 510 runs, 11 wickets
Fairplay: Sunrisers Hyderabad
Purple Cap: Imran Tahir (CSK), 26 wickets
Orange Cap: David Warner (SRH), 692 runs
Fastest Fifty of the Season: Hardik Pandya (MI)
Perfect Catch of the Season: Kieron Pollard (MI)
Super Striker of the Season: Andre Russell (KKR), strike rate of 204.81
Stylish Player of the Season: KL Rahul (KXIP)
Emerging Player Award: Shubhman Gill (KKR)
Game Changer of the Season: Rahul Chahar (MI)

Q. Which team won IPL match 4th time?

Solution:

Mumbai Indians beats Chennai Super Kings in a last-ball thriller to lift a record fourth IPL crown.

QUESTION: 84

Mumbai Indians won the 2019 Indian Premier League after defeating Chennai Super Kings by 1 run in a last-ball thriller in Hyderabad on Sunday. MI are now the first team to win the Indian Premier League 4 times while defending champions Chennai Super Kings were left t rue a few close chances.
On Sunday, after MI sealed a thrilling victory, there were plenty of awards to be given away after 48 match days and 60 matches. David Warner won the Orange Cap while Imran Tahir snatched the Purple Cap from his South African teammate Kagiso Rabada.
All the award winners were given a cheque of Rs 10 lakh each.
Imran Tahir, who became the oldest player to feature in an IPL final, is only the 2nd spinner after Pragyan Ojha to win the Purple Cap.
Meanwhile, David Warner, who missed the 2018 Indian Premier League because of the balltampering scandal, came back with a bang and smashed 692 runs to win the Orange Cap. Andre Russell, who hit the most sixes in the season, finished with the highest strike rate and won the Super Striker of the Season and the Most Valuable Player of the Season.
Here are all the awards of the 12th edition of the IPL:
Player of the Match in the Final: Jasprit Bumrah (MI), 2 for 14
Most Valuable Player: Andre Russell (KKR), 510 runs, 11 wickets
Fairplay: Sunrisers Hyderabad
Purple Cap: Imran Tahir (CSK), 26 wickets
Orange Cap: David Warner (SRH), 692 runs
Fastest Fifty of the Season: Hardik Pandya (MI)
Perfect Catch of the Season: Kieron Pollard (MI)
Super Striker of the Season: Andre Russell (KKR), strike rate of 204.81
Stylish Player of the Season: KL Rahul (KXIP)
Emerging Player Award: Shubhman Gill (KKR)
Game Changer of the Season: Rahul Chahar (MI)

Q. Name of the player who won the Orange cap IPL 2019?

Solution:

David Warner won the Orange Cap.

QUESTION: 85

Mumbai Indians won the 2019 Indian Premier League after defeating Chennai Super Kings by 1 run in a last-ball thriller in Hyderabad on Sunday. MI are now the first team to win the Indian Premier League 4 times while defending champions Chennai Super Kings were left t rue a few close chances.
On Sunday, after MI sealed a thrilling victory, there were plenty of awards to be given away after 48 match days and 60 matches. David Warner won the Orange Cap while Imran Tahir snatched the Purple Cap from his South African teammate Kagiso Rabada.
All the award winners were given a cheque of Rs 10 lakh each.
Imran Tahir, who became the oldest player to feature in an IPL final, is only the 2nd spinner after Pragyan Ojha to win the Purple Cap.
Meanwhile, David Warner, who missed the 2018 Indian Premier League because of the balltampering scandal, came back with a bang and smashed 692 runs to win the Orange Cap. Andre Russell, who hit the most sixes in the season, finished with the highest strike rate and won the Super Striker of the Season and the Most Valuable Player of the Season.
Here are all the awards of the 12th edition of the IPL:
Player of the Match in the Final: Jasprit Bumrah (MI), 2 for 14
Most Valuable Player: Andre Russell (KKR), 510 runs, 11 wickets
Fairplay: Sunrisers Hyderabad
Purple Cap: Imran Tahir (CSK), 26 wickets
Orange Cap: David Warner (SRH), 692 runs
Fastest Fifty of the Season: Hardik Pandya (MI)
Perfect Catch of the Season: Kieron Pollard (MI)
Super Striker of the Season: Andre Russell (KKR), strike rate of 204.81
Stylish Player of the Season: KL Rahul (KXIP)
Emerging Player Award: Shubhman Gill (KKR)
Game Changer of the Season: Rahul Chahar (MI)

Q. Name of the player who won the Purple cap IPL 2019?

Solution:

Imran Tahir won the Purple Cap.

QUESTION: 86

Mumbai Indians won the 2019 Indian Premier League after defeating Chennai Super Kings by 1 run in a last-ball thriller in Hyderabad on Sunday. MI are now the first team to win the Indian Premier League 4 times while defending champions Chennai Super Kings were left t rue a few close chances.
On Sunday, after MI sealed a thrilling victory, there were plenty of awards to be given away after 48 match days and 60 matches. David Warner won the Orange Cap while Imran Tahir snatched the Purple Cap from his South African teammate Kagiso Rabada.
All the award winners were given a cheque of Rs 10 lakh each.
Imran Tahir, who became the oldest player to feature in an IPL final, is only the 2nd spinner after Pragyan Ojha to win the Purple Cap.
Meanwhile, David Warner, who missed the 2018 Indian Premier League because of the balltampering scandal, came back with a bang and smashed 692 runs to win the Orange Cap. Andre Russell, who hit the most sixes in the season, finished with the highest strike rate and won the Super Striker of the Season and the Most Valuable Player of the Season.
Here are all the awards of the 12th edition of the IPL:
Player of the Match in the Final: Jasprit Bumrah (MI), 2 for 14
Most Valuable Player: Andre Russell (KKR), 510 runs, 11 wickets
Fairplay: Sunrisers Hyderabad
Purple Cap: Imran Tahir (CSK), 26 wickets
Orange Cap: David Warner (SRH), 692 runs
Fastest Fifty of the Season: Hardik Pandya (MI)
Perfect Catch of the Season: Kieron Pollard (MI)
Super Striker of the Season: Andre Russell (KKR), strike rate of 204.81
Stylish Player of the Season: KL Rahul (KXIP)
Emerging Player Award: Shubhman Gill (KKR)
Game Changer of the Season: Rahul Chahar (MI)

Q. Which player won the player of the match prize in final IPL 2019?

Solution:

Jasprit Bumrah was awarded the player of the match for his spell of two for 14, in his four overs.

QUESTION: 87

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was organized in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh from 21-23 January 2019. The theme of the three day long convention was "Role of Indian Diaspora in building New India". Hon'ble Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurate the convention on 22 January 2019. Prime Minister of Mauritius Mr. Pravind Jugnauth was the Chief Guest and Himanshu Gulati, Member of Parliament of Norway was the special guest at the PBD convention. For the first time, the three-day-long convention was organized from January 21-23 instead of January 9 to allow participants to visit the Kumbh mela in Prayagraj and attend the Republic Day parade in New Delhi.

Q. Which city hosted the 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas in 2019?

Solution:

Varanasi hosted the 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas in 2019.

QUESTION: 88

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was organized in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh from 21-23 January 2019. The theme of the three day long convention was "Role of Indian Diaspora in building New India". Hon'ble Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurate the convention on 22 January 2019. Prime Minister of Mauritius Mr. Pravind Jugnauth was the Chief Guest and Himanshu Gulati, Member of Parliament of Norway was the special guest at the PBD convention. For the first time, the three-day-long convention was organized from January 21-23 instead of January 9 to allow participants to visit the Kumbh mela in Prayagraj and attend the Republic Day parade in New Delhi.

Q. What is the theme of 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas 2019?

Solution:

Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention is the flagship event of the Government and provides an important platform to engage and connect with the overseas Diaspora. The theme of PBD 2019 is "Role of Indian Diaspora in building a New India.”

QUESTION: 89

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was organized in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh from 21-23 January 2019. The theme of the three day long convention was "Role of Indian Diaspora in building New India". Hon'ble Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurate the convention on 22 January 2019. Prime Minister of Mauritius Mr. Pravind Jugnauth was the Chief Guest and Himanshu Gulati, Member of Parliament of Norway was the special guest at the PBD convention. For the first time, the three-day-long convention was organized from January 21-23 instead of January 9 to allow participants to visit the Kumbh mela in Prayagraj and attend the Republic Day parade in New Delhi.

Q. Who inaugurated 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas 2019?

Solution:

The Prime Minister, Narendra Modi inaugurated the 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas on January 22, 2019 in his parliamentary constituency, Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.

QUESTION: 90

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was organized in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh from 21-23 January 2019. The theme of the three day long convention was "Role of Indian Diaspora in building New India". Hon'ble Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurate the convention on 22 January 2019. Prime Minister of Mauritius Mr. Pravind Jugnauth was the Chief Guest and Himanshu Gulati, Member of Parliament of Norway was the special guest at the PBD convention. For the first time, the three-day-long convention was organized from January 21-23 instead of January 9 to allow participants to visit the Kumbh mela in Prayagraj and attend the Republic Day parade in New Delhi.

Q. Who is the Present CM of Uttar Pradesh?

Solution:

Yogi Adityanath. Yogi Adityanath (born Ajay Mohan Bisht; 5 June 1972) is an Indian monk and Hindu nationalist politician serving as the 22nd and current Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, in office since 19 March 2017.

QUESTION: 91

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was organized in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh from 21-23 January 2019. The theme of the three day long convention was "Role of Indian Diaspora in building New India". Hon'ble Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurate the convention on 22 January 2019. Prime Minister of Mauritius Mr. Pravind Jugnauth was the Chief Guest and Himanshu Gulati, Member of Parliament of Norway was the special guest at the PBD convention. For the first time, the three-day-long convention was organized from January 21-23 instead of January 9 to allow participants to visit the Kumbh mela in Prayagraj and attend the Republic Day parade in New Delhi.

Q. Who is the Chief Guest of 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas 2019?

Solution:

Prime Minister of Mauritius Mr. Pravind Jugnauth is the Chief Guest of 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas 2019.

QUESTION: 92

Indian Space Research Organization will establish a second launch port in Thoothukodi district in Tamil Nadu exclusively to launch small satellite launch vehicles.
Speaking to media persons in Bengaluru, ISRO Chairman K Sivan informed that this would come up in 2300 acres.
On the lines of GPS navigation system developed by America, the Indian navigation system called Navic with the indigenous atomic clock will be operational with mobile phone manufacturers coming forward to install the regional navigation device.
On future programmes, the ISRO Chairman said that Chandrayaan 3 mission to the moon, comprising of a lander and a rover is approved by the Government.
On the progress made in India’s first manned mission to outer space Gaganyaan, he said, the process of Astronaut selection is over, and four men selected from Indian Air Force will leave for Russia in the third week of January to get training.
The Gaganyaan mission is targeted to be launched by 2022.Before that unmanned missions will be launched to test the crew module with robots resembling humans.
This unmanned space mission will test spacecraft re-entry technology, space capsule recovery experiment and effect of microgravity on the crew module necessary for the human space travel.

Q. ISRO to set up second launch port in which state?

Solution:

Indian Space Research Organization will establish a second launch port in Thoothukodi district in Tamil Nadu exclusively to launch small satellite launch vehicles.

QUESTION: 93

Indian Space Research Organization will establish a second launch port in Thoothukodi district in Tamil Nadu exclusively to launch small satellite launch vehicles.
Speaking to media persons in Bengaluru, ISRO Chairman K Sivan informed that this would come up in 2300 acres.
On the lines of GPS navigation system developed by America, the Indian navigation system called Navic with the indigenous atomic clock will be operational with mobile phone manufacturers coming forward to install the regional navigation device.
On future programmes, the ISRO Chairman said that Chandrayaan 3 mission to the moon, comprising of a lander and a rover is approved by the Government.
On the progress made in India’s first manned mission to outer space Gaganyaan, he said, the process of Astronaut selection is over, and four men selected from Indian Air Force will leave for Russia in the third week of January to get training.
The Gaganyaan mission is targeted to be launched by 2022.Before that unmanned missions will be launched to test the crew module with robots resembling humans.
This unmanned space mission will test spacecraft re-entry technology, space capsule recovery experiment and effect of microgravity on the crew module necessary for the human space travel.

Q. Where is the headquarters of ISRO situated?

Solution:

The Secretariat of DOS and ISRO Headquarters are located at Antariksh Bhavan in Bangalore.

QUESTION: 94

Indian Space Research Organization will establish a second launch port in Thoothukodi district in Tamil Nadu exclusively to launch small satellite launch vehicles.
Speaking to media persons in Bengaluru, ISRO Chairman K Sivan informed that this would come up in 2300 acres.
On the lines of GPS navigation system developed by America, the Indian navigation system called Navic with the indigenous atomic clock will be operational with mobile phone manufacturers coming forward to install the regional navigation device.
On future programmes, the ISRO Chairman said that Chandrayaan 3 mission to the moon, comprising of a lander and a rover is approved by the Government.
On the progress made in India’s first manned mission to outer space Gaganyaan, he said, the process of Astronaut selection is over, and four men selected from Indian Air Force will leave for Russia in the third week of January to get training.
The Gaganyaan mission is targeted to be launched by 2022.Before that unmanned missions will be launched to test the crew module with robots resembling humans.
This unmanned space mission will test spacecraft re-entry technology, space capsule recovery experiment and effect of microgravity on the crew module necessary for the human space travel.

Q. Who is the Present Chairman of ISRO?

Solution:

Kailasavadivoo Sivan (born 14 April 1957) is an Indian space scientist and the chairperson of the Indian Space Research Organization. He has previously served as the Director of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Center and the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre.

QUESTION: 95

Indian Space Research Organization will establish a second launch port in Thoothukodi district in Tamil Nadu exclusively to launch small satellite launch vehicles.
Speaking to media persons in Bengaluru, ISRO Chairman K Sivan informed that this would come up in 2300 acres.
On the lines of GPS navigation system developed by America, the Indian navigation system called Navic with the indigenous atomic clock will be operational with mobile phone manufacturers coming forward to install the regional navigation device.
On future programmes, the ISRO Chairman said that Chandrayaan 3 mission to the moon, comprising of a lander and a rover is approved by the Government.
On the progress made in India’s first manned mission to outer space Gaganyaan, he said, the process of Astronaut selection is over, and four men selected from Indian Air Force will leave for Russia in the third week of January to get training.
The Gaganyaan mission is targeted to be launched by 2022.Before that unmanned missions will be launched to test the crew module with robots resembling humans.
This unmanned space mission will test spacecraft re-entry technology, space capsule recovery experiment and effect of microgravity on the crew module necessary for the human space travel.

Q. Which mission is targeted to be launched by 2022?

Solution:

India's First Human Space Mission Planned For 2022 It hopes to become the fourth nation, after the United States, China and Russia, to send people into space. The mission is targeted for 2022. Gaganyaan is an Indian crewed orbital spacecraft intended to be the basis of the Indian Human Spaceflight Programme. The spacecraft is being designed to carry three people, and a planned upgraded version will be equipped with rendezvous and docking capability.

QUESTION: 96

The second privately operated IRCTC’s premium Tejas train, which will ply between Ahmedabad and Mumbai, will be launched on January 17, sources said on Saturday.
Like in the first Tejas, which runs on the Delhi-Lucknow route, the Railway will compensate passengers if the train gets delayed.
The first commercial run of the Tejas train will be on January 19.
It will ply on Ahmedabad - Mumbai- Ahmedabad route for six days a week with Thursday as an off-day for maintenance, the sources added.
The train will be equipped with all modern on board facilities for ensuring high-level comfort to passengers.
Besides this, all passengers travelling on the train will be provided with Rail Travel Insurance of up to ₹25 lakhs, free of cost by the IRCTC.

Q. When IRCTC to run second Tejas train from Ahmedabad to Mumbai?

Solution:

The second Tejas Express train to be operated by the Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC) will start running between Mumbai-Ahmedabad from January 19, 2020.

QUESTION: 97

The second privately operated IRCTC’s premium Tejas train, which will ply between Ahmedabad and Mumbai, will be launched on January 17, sources said on Saturday.
Like in the first Tejas, which runs on the Delhi-Lucknow route, the Railway will compensate passengers if the train gets delayed.
The first commercial run of the Tejas train will be on January 19.
It will ply on Ahmedabad - Mumbai- Ahmedabad route for six days a week with Thursday as an off-day for maintenance, the sources added.
The train will be equipped with all modern on board facilities for ensuring high-level comfort to passengers.
Besides this, all passengers travelling on the train will be provided with Rail Travel Insurance of up to ₹25 lakhs, free of cost by the IRCTC.

Q. The first Tejas train launched between which cities?

Solution:

First Tejas train launched between Lucknow- New Delhi.

QUESTION: 98

The second privately operated IRCTC’s premium Tejas train, which will ply between Ahmedabad and Mumbai, will be launched on January 17, sources said on Saturday.
Like in the first Tejas, which runs on the Delhi-Lucknow route, the Railway will compensate passengers if the train gets delayed.
The first commercial run of the Tejas train will be on January 19.
It will ply on Ahmedabad - Mumbai- Ahmedabad route for six days a week with Thursday as an off-day for maintenance, the sources added.
The train will be equipped with all modern on board facilities for ensuring high-level comfort to passengers.
Besides this, all passengers travelling on the train will be provided with Rail Travel Insurance of up to INR 25 lakhs, free of cost by the IRCTC.

Q. Who is the current Railway Minister of India?

Solution:

An important responsibility of the railway minister was to present in Parliament the Railway Budget, the Annual Financial Statement of Indian Railways. Piyush Goyal of the Bharatiya Janata Party is the current Minister of Railways, serving since 3 September 2017.

QUESTION: 99

The second privately operated IRCTC’s premium Tejas train, which will ply between Ahmedabad and Mumbai, will be launched on January 17, sources said on Saturday.
Like in the first Tejas, which runs on the Delhi-Lucknow route, the Railway will compensate passengers if the train gets delayed.
The first commercial run of the Tejas train will be on January 19.
It will ply on Ahmedabad - Mumbai- Ahmedabad route for six days a week with Thursday as an off-day for maintenance, the sources added.
The train will be equipped with all modern on board facilities for ensuring high-level comfort to passengers.
Besides this, all passengers travelling on the train will be provided with Rail Travel Insurance of up to INR 25 lakhs, free of cost by the IRCTC.

Q. What is the Rail Travel Insurance provided by IRCTC in second Tejas train?

Solution:

All passengers travelling via the Tejas train will be provided free of cost Rail Travel Insurance worth up to Rs 25 Lakh by IRCTC. This complimentary travel insurance also includes an exclusive coverage of Rs 1 lakh against theft and robbery during the travel period of the passengers.

QUESTION: 100

Hemant Soren, executive president of the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha, was sworn in as the 11th Chief Minister of Jharkhand at the Morabadi Ground in Ranchi on Sunday.
Governor Draupadi Murmu administered the oath to Mr. Soren, while three others, two MLAs from the Congress and one from the Rashtriya Janata Dal, were inducted into the Ministry.
The 44-year-old JMM leader took over as Chief Minister of tribal-dominated Jharkhand for the second time. He was deputy Chief Minister in the Arjun Munda Ministry in 2010 and went on to become Chief Minister in 2013.

Q. Who is the 11th Chief Minister of Jharkhand?

Solution:

Hemant Soren of the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha is the incumbent chief minister.

QUESTION: 101

Hemant Soren, executive president of the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha, was sworn in as the 11th Chief Minister of Jharkhand at the Morabadi Ground in Ranchi on Sunday.
Governor Draupadi Murmu administered the oath to Mr. Soren, while three others, two MLAs from the Congress and one from the Rashtriya Janata Dal, were inducted into the Ministry.
The 44-year-old JMM leader took over as Chief Minister of tribal-dominated Jharkhand for the second time. He was deputy Chief Minister in the Arjun Munda Ministry in 2010 and went on to become Chief Minister in 2013.

Q. Who is the governor of Jharkhand?

Solution:

Draupadi Murmu (born 20 June 1958) is an Indian politician who is the 8th and current Governor of Jharkhand since May 2015.

QUESTION: 102

Hemant Soren, executive president of the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha, was sworn in as the 11th Chief Minister of Jharkhand at the Morabadi Ground in Ranchi on Sunday.
Governor Draupadi Murmu administered the oath to Mr. Soren, while three others, two MLAs from the Congress and one from the Rashtriya Janata Dal, were inducted into the Ministry.
The 44-year-old JMM leader took over as Chief Minister of tribal-dominated Jharkhand for the second time. He was deputy Chief Minister in the Arjun Munda Ministry in 2010 and went on to become Chief Minister in 2013.

Q. What is the capital of Jharkhand?

Solution:

Jharkhand has an area of 79,710 km2 (30,778 sq. mi). It is the 15th largest state by area, and the 14th largest by population. Hindi is the official language of the state. The city of Ranchi is its capital and Dumka its sub capital.

QUESTION: 103

Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal on Monday inaugurated National Stock Exchange (NSE) Knowledge Hub, an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-powered learning ecosystem that will assist the banking, financial services, and insurance (BFSI) sector.
Speaking on the occasion, Goyal said that India has come up as the second- largest fintech hub in the world but a lot of work still needs to be done in the BFSI sector.
He said that the industry-driven learning ecosystem will help India in building next-generation skills and capabilities in the BFSI sector.
The minister said AI and machine learning will contribute USD 1 trillion by 2035 and it was a good beginning by NSE to tap the potential of AI and use it as a tool to create a workforce in the BFSI sector in India.
The minister assured continued government support to investors and start-ups and said that India was a safe investment destination for investors.

Q. Which Union Minister inaugurated NSE Knowledge Hub?

Solution:

Piyush Goyal inaugurates NSE Knowledge Hub. Union Minister for Commerce and Industries Piyush Goyal has said that Artificial Intelligence and machine learning will contribute one trillion dollars by the year 2035.

QUESTION: 104

Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal on Monday inaugurated National Stock Exchange (NSE) Knowledge Hub, an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-powered learning ecosystem that will assist the banking, financial services, and insurance (BFSI) sector.
Speaking on the occasion, Goyal said that India has come up as the second- largest fintech hub in the world but a lot of work still needs to be done in the BFSI sector.
He said that the industry-driven learning ecosystem will help India in building next-generation skills and capabilities in the BFSI sector.
The minister said AI and machine learning will contribute USD 1 trillion by 2035 and it was a good beginning by NSE to tap the potential of AI and use it as a tool to create a workforce in the BFSI sector in India.
The minister assured continued government support to investors and start-ups and said that India was a safe investment destination for investors.

Q. Where is the headquarters of NSE?

Solution:

The National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSE) is the leading stock exchange of India, located in Mumbai.

QUESTION: 105

Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal on Monday inaugurated National Stock Exchange (NSE) Knowledge Hub, an Artificial Intelligence (AI)-powered learning ecosystem that will assist the banking, financial services, and insurance (BFSI) sector.
Speaking on the occasion, Goyal said that India has come up as the second- largest fintech hub in the world but a lot of work still needs to be done in the BFSI sector.
He said that the industry-driven learning ecosystem will help India in building next-generation skills and capabilities in the BFSI sector.
The minister said AI and machine learning will contribute USD 1 trillion by 2035 and it was a good beginning by NSE to tap the potential of AI and use it as a tool to create a workforce in the BFSI sector in India.
The minister assured continued government support to investors and start-ups and said that India was a safe investment destination for investors.

Q. According to Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal, how much AI and machine learning will contribute by 2035?

Solution:

The minister said AI and machine learning will contribute USD 1 trillion by 2035 and it was a good beginning by NSE to tap the potential of AI and use it as a tool to create a workforce in the BFSI sector in India.

QUESTION: 106

Direction: Study the table and answer the given questions.

Q. What is the difference in the number of children in between colony C and F?

Solution:


From the table,
For colony C:
No. of family = 8
Average no. of members per family = 12
So, the total members in colony C = 12 × 8 = 96
The ratio of men, women and children in colony C = 13 : 7 : 4
Then, the no. of children in colony C = 96 × (4/24) = 16
For colony F:
No. of family = 15
Average no. of members per family = 9
So, the total members in colony F = 15 × 9 = 135
The ratio of men, women and children in colony F = 8 : 6 : 13
Then, the no. of children in colony F = 135 × (13/27) = 65
∴ The required difference in the no. of children = 65 – 16 = 49.

QUESTION: 107

Direction: Study the table and answer the given questions.

Q. Which pair of the colonies has number of men twice of another?

Solution:

From the table,


∴ We can clearly observe that no. of men in colony F is twice of that in colony A.

QUESTION: 108

Direction: Study the table and answer the given questions.

Q. The number of women in colony C is what percent of that in colony E?

Solution:

From the table,
For Colony C:
No. of family = 8
Average no. of members per family = 12
So, the total members in colony C = 12 × 8 = 96
The ratio of men, women and children in colony C = 13 : 7 : 4
Then, the no. of women in colony C = 96 × (7/24) = 28
For colony E:
No. of family = 12
Average no. of members per family = 16
So, the total members in colony E = 12 × 16 = 192
The ratio of men, women and children in colony E = 13 : 12 : 7
Then, the no. of women in colony E = 192 × (12/32) = 72
∴ The required percentage = [(28/72) × 100]% = 38.88% ≈ 39%.

QUESTION: 109

Direction: Study the table and answer the given questions.

Q. What is the average number of men for the given colonies?

Solution:


Total no. of male given in the colonies =

= 306
Avg. No. of male in 6 colonies = 306/6  =51

QUESTION: 110

Direction: Study the table and answer the given questions.

Q. What is the ratio of no. of women in colony D to the no. of children in colony E?

Solution:

For Colony D:
No. of family = 14
Average no. of members per family = 13
So, the total members in colony D = 14 × 13 = 182
The ratio of men, women and children in colony D = 5 : 7 : 2
Then, the no. of women in colony D = 182 × (7/24) = 91
For colony E:
No. of family = 12
Average no. of members per family = 16
So, the total members in colony E = 12 × 16 = 192
The ratio of men, women and children in colony E = 13 : 12 : 7
Then, the no. of children in colony E = 192 × (7/32) = 42
∴ The required ratio = 91 : 42 = 13 : 6.

QUESTION: 111

Study the following line graph carefully and answer the following questions. Number of boys and number of girls visiting a place from Monday to Friday is given in the line graph.

Q. Find the ratio of the total number of boys visited the place on Wednesday and Friday together to the total number of girls visited the place on Monday and Thursday?

Solution:

Total number of boys visited on Wednesday and Friday = 350 + 400 = 750
Total number of girls visited on Monday and Thursday = 390 + 300 = 690
Required ratio = 750 : 690 = 25 : 23

QUESTION: 112

Study the following line graph carefully and answer the following questions. Number of boys and number of girls visiting a place from Monday to Friday is given in the line graph.

Q. Total number of boys and girls together visited the place on Tuesday are what percent more/less than the total number of boys and girls together visited the place on Thursday?

Solution:

Total number of boys and girls together on Tuesday = 300 + 600 = 900
Total number of boys and girls together on Thursday = 200 + 300 = 500

QUESTION: 113

Study the following line graph carefully and answer the following questions. Number of boys and number of girls visiting a place from Monday to Friday is given in the line graph.

Q. Find the difference between the total number of girls visited the place from Monday to Wednesday and the total number of boys visited the place from Wednesday to Friday?

Solution:

Total number of girls visited from Monday to Wednesday = 390 + 300 + 550 = 1240
Total number of boys visited from Wednesday to Friday = 350 + 200 + 400 = 950
Required difference = 1240 – 950 = 290

QUESTION: 114

Study the following line graph carefully and answer the following questions. Number of boys and number of girls visiting a place from Monday to Friday is given in the line graph.

Q. If on Sunday, the number of boys and number of girls increased 21.5% by and 16 2/3 %  respectively as compared to that on Thursday then find the total number of boys and girls together visited the place on Sunday?

Solution:

On Sunday – Total number of girls visited the place = 300 + 300 
On Sunday – Total number of boys visited the place = 200 + 200 
Required boys and girls = 350 + 243 = 593

QUESTION: 115

Study the following line graph carefully and answer the following questions. Number of boys and number of girls visiting a place from Monday to Friday is given in the line graph.

Q. Total number of boys and girls visited the place on Wednesday and Friday together is how more than the total number of boys and girls visited the place on Monday and Thursday?

Solution:

Total boys and girls visited the place on Wednesday and Friday = 350 + 550 + 310 + 400 = 1610
Total boys and girls visited the place on Monday and Thursday = 390 + 450 + 200 + 300 = 1340
Required number of persons = 1610 – 1340 = 270

QUESTION: 116

Direction: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow. In the line graph, data is given about passed boys and girls of a school in 5 different years.

Q. If passing percentage of boys and girls in 2015 is 40% and 80% respectively then what is passing percentage of students in this year?

Solution:

QUESTION: 117

Direction: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow. In the line graph, data is given about passed boys and girls of a school in 5 different years.

Q. What is difference between average number of passed boys and passed girls in all the year together?

Solution:

Avg. no. of boys passed all years
Avg no. of girls passed in all years
= 1120
Required difference = 1120-1120 =0

QUESTION: 118

Direction: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow. In the line graph, data is given about passed boys and girls of a school in 5 different years.

Q. What is respective ratio of total number of passed students in 2014 to the students passed in 2016?

Solution:

Required ratio =
(1500 + 900) : (1800 + 1500)
= 2400 : 3300 = 8 : 11

QUESTION: 119

Direction: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow. In the line graph, data is given about passed boys and girls of a school in 5 different years.

Q. What is average number of passed students in all year together?

Solution:

Required average 

QUESTION: 120

Direction: Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow. In the line graph, data is given about passed boys and girls of a school in 5 different years.

Q. If 30% students are passed in 2013 and 40% students are passed in 2015 then number of students in 2015 is what percent more/less than that of 2013?

Solution:

Since total students passed in 2015 = no of boys passed + no of girls passed
= 1000+ 1600 =2600
Now, since the passing percentage is 40%
Therefore, (number of students appeared in 2015) * (40/100) = 2600 (i.e. passes students)
→ Number of students appeared in 2015 = 2600*(100/40) = 6500
→ Similarly, number of students in 2013 = (400 + 1100) * (100/30) =5000

QUESTION: 121

Directions: Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention.
The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) said international and intra-regional trade costs of India remained higher compared with the trade costs of best-performing economies in Asia and the Pacific, although a declining trend has been observed since 2009. However, it said in addition to India’s robust economic growth and large domestic market, the Government’s “Make in India” initiative and easing of FDI regulations for about 15 sectors including aviation, defence and pharmaceuticals may contribute to the FDI attractiveness of India. On the other hand, overseas investment from India contracted considerably by 36 percent, which may reflect FDI diversion as Indian investors start to invest more at home than overseas, ESCAP said in its recently released Asia-Pacific Trade and Investment Report 2016.
FDI inflows to India expanded by 10 percent on average during 2010-2015, while in 2015 inflows recorded an even stronger expansion at 27.8 per cent, which was significantly higher than the Asia-Pacific region’s average 5.6 per cent, ESCAP said. The services, construction development, computer software and hardware, and telecommunications sectors attracted the highest investments, it added.
Asia-Pacific trade flows were wavering amid sluggish global economic and trade growth, downward movement of world commodity prices and an uncertain policy environment, the report said. Sluggish growth in trade is expected to continue through to the end of 2016. In 2015, Indian goods exports shrank by 17.2 percent, which was close to twice as much as the Asia-Pacific region decline of 9.7 percent, it said. However, it added that India was the largest partner with several economies in South Asia, such as Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Since India is the fastest-growing emerging economy, it is somewhat expected to start filling the void in demand for intraregional exports that will emerge with the rebalancing of China’s trade patterns, the report said.
Rebounding somewhat, exports from Asia-Pacific are expected to increase by 4.5 percent and imports by 6.5 per cent in developing countries of Asia and the Pacific in 2017, but the Report forecasts more modest growth in exports and imports in volume terms, at 2.2 per cent and 3.8 per cent, respectively, ESCAP said in a statement.
A worrying trend on another front is the increased usage of restrictive trade policies, especially non-tariff measures, within the Asia-Pacific region, which is partly driven by past distortive trade measures and current excess capacity in several key sectors, ESCAP said. Additionally, the region is seeing a proliferation of preferential trade agreements (PTA), with Asia and the Pacific rim contributing to almost 63 percent of world PTAs, curbing a momentum towards regionwide free trade, it added.
The report revealed that the region had improved its market share in the commercial services trade, with the services trade more than doubling between 2005 and 2015, from just under $600 billion to close to $1,400 billion.
These aggregates, however, conceal the fall in the region’s export and import of services by 4.5 percent and 4.9 per cent in 2015, respectively, compared with the previous year, mainly due to persisting economic uncertainty resulting in the global decline in merchandise trade and a depressed demand for the services sector including transport.

Q. By what % did good exports from Asia Pacific region shrink during 2015?

Solution:

This sentence in the third paragraph of the passage points to the correct answer.' Sluggish growth ion trade is expected to continue through to the end of 2016. In 2015, India goods exports shrank by 17.2 percent, which was close to twice as much as the Asia-Pacific region decline of 9.7 per cent, it said.'

QUESTION: 122

Directions: Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention.
The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) said international and intra-regional trade costs of India remained higher compared with the trade costs of best-performing economies in Asia and the Pacific, although a declining trend has been observed since 2009. However, it said in addition to India’s robust economic growth and large domestic market, the Government’s “Make in India” initiative and easing of FDI regulations for about 15 sectors including aviation, defence and pharmaceuticals may contribute to the FDI attractiveness of India. On the other hand, overseas investment from India contracted considerably by 36 percent, which may reflect FDI diversion as Indian investors start to invest more at home than overseas, ESCAP said in its recently released Asia-Pacific Trade and Investment Report 2016.
FDI inflows to India expanded by 10 percent on average during 2010-2015, while in 2015 inflows recorded an even stronger expansion at 27.8 per cent, which was significantly higher than the Asia-Pacific region’s average 5.6 per cent, ESCAP said. The services, construction development, computer software and hardware, and telecommunications sectors attracted the highest investments, it added.
Asia-Pacific trade flows were wavering amid sluggish global economic and trade growth, downward movement of world commodity prices and an uncertain policy environment, the report said. Sluggish growth in trade is expected to continue through to the end of 2016. In 2015, Indian goods exports shrank by 17.2 percent, which was close to twice as much as the Asia-Pacific region decline of 9.7 percent, it said. However, it added that India was the largest partner with several economies in South Asia, such as Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Since India is the fastest-growing emerging economy, it is somewhat expected to start filling the void in demand for intraregional exports that will emerge with the rebalancing of China’s trade patterns, the report said.
Rebounding somewhat, exports from Asia-Pacific are expected to increase by 4.5 percent and imports by 6.5 per cent in developing countries of Asia and the Pacific in 2017, but the Report forecasts more modest growth in exports and imports in volume terms, at 2.2 per cent and 3.8 per cent, respectively, ESCAP said in a statement.
A worrying trend on another front is the increased usage of restrictive trade policies, especially non-tariff measures, within the Asia-Pacific region, which is partly driven by past distortive trade measures and current excess capacity in several key sectors, ESCAP said. Additionally, the region is seeing a proliferation of preferential trade agreements (PTA), with Asia and the Pacific rim contributing to almost 63 percent of world PTAs, curbing a momentum towards regionwide free trade, it added.
The report revealed that the region had improved its market share in the commercial services trade, with the services trade more than doubling between 2005 and 2015, from just under $600 billion to close to $1,400 billion.
These aggregates, however, conceal the fall in the region’s export and import of services by 4.5 per cent and 4.9 percent in 2015, respectively, compared with the previous year, mainly due to persisting economic uncertainty resulting in the global decline in merchandise trade and a depressed demand for the services sector including transport.

Q. From when has the declining trend in trade costs been observed for India?

Solution:

The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAO) said international and intra-regional trade costs of India remained higher compared with the trade costs of best-performing economies in Asia and the Pacific, although a declining trend has been observed since 2009'. This first sentence of the passage points to the correct answer.

QUESTION: 123

Directions: Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention.
The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) said international and intra-regional trade costs of India remained higher compared with the trade costs of best-performing economies in Asia and the Pacific, although a declining trend has been observed since 2009. However, it said in addition to India’s robust economic growth and large domestic market, the Government’s “Make in India” initiative and easing of FDI regulations for about 15 sectors including aviation, defence and pharmaceuticals may contribute to the FDI attractiveness of India. On the other hand, overseas investment from India contracted considerably by 36 percent, which may reflect FDI diversion as Indian investors start to invest more at home than overseas, ESCAP said in its recently released Asia-Pacific Trade and Investment Report 2016.
FDI inflows to India expanded by 10 percent on average during 2010-2015, while in 2015 inflows recorded an even stronger expansion at 27.8 per cent, which was significantly higher than the Asia-Pacific region’s average 5.6 per cent, ESCAP said. The services, construction development, computer software and hardware, and telecommunications sectors attracted the highest investments, it added.
Asia-Pacific trade flows were wavering amid sluggish global economic and trade growth, downward movement of world commodity prices and an uncertain policy environment, the report said. Sluggish growth in trade is expected to continue through to the end of 2016. In 2015, Indian goods exports shrank by 17.2 percent, which was close to twice as much as the Asia-Pacific region decline of 9.7 percent, it said. However, it added that India was the largest partner with several economies in South Asia, such as Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Since India is the fastest-growing emerging economy, it is somewhat expected to start filling the void in demand for intraregional exports that will emerge with the rebalancing of China’s trade patterns, the report said.
Rebounding somewhat, exports from Asia-Pacific are expected to increase by 4.5 percent and imports by 6.5 per cent in developing countries of Asia and the Pacific in 2017, but the Report forecasts more modest growth in exports and imports in volume terms, at 2.2 per cent and 3.8 per cent, respectively, ESCAP said in a statement.
A worrying trend on another front is the increased usage of restrictive trade policies, especially non-tariff measures, within the Asia-Pacific region, which is partly driven by past distortive trade measures and current excess capacity in several key sectors, ESCAP said. Additionally, the region is seeing a proliferation of preferential trade agreements (PTA), with Asia and the Pacific rim contributing to almost 63 percent of world PTAs, curbing a momentum towards regionwide free trade, it added.
The report revealed that the region had improved its market share in the commercial services trade, with the services trade more than doubling between 2005 and 2015, from just under $600 billion to close to $1,400 billion.
These aggregates, however, conceal the fall in the region’s export and import of services by 4.5 per cent and 4.9 percent in 2015, respectively, compared with the previous year, mainly due to persisting economic uncertainty resulting in the global decline in merchandise trade and a depressed demand for the services sector including transport.

Q. Which of these sectors have attracted the highest FDI?

Solution:

'The services, construction development, computer software and hardware, and telecommunications sectors attracted the highest investments, it added.' This sentence given in the second paragraph of the passage makes option 4 the correct answer.

QUESTION: 124

Directions: Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention.
The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) said international and intra-regional trade costs of India remained higher compared with the trade costs of best-performing economies in Asia and the Pacific, although a declining trend has been observed since 2009. However, it said in addition to India’s robust economic growth and large domestic market, the Government’s “Make in India” initiative and easing of FDI regulations for about 15 sectors including aviation, defence and pharmaceuticals may contribute to the FDI attractiveness of India. On the other hand, overseas investment from India contracted considerably by 36 percent, which may reflect FDI diversion as Indian investors start to invest more at home than overseas, ESCAP said in its recently released Asia-Pacific Trade and Investment Report 2016.
FDI inflows to India expanded by 10 percent on average during 2010-2015, while in 2015 inflows recorded an even stronger expansion at 27.8 per cent, which was significantly higher than the Asia-Pacific region’s average 5.6 per cent, ESCAP said. The services, construction development, computer software and hardware, and telecommunications sectors attracted the highest investments, it added.
Asia-Pacific trade flows were wavering amid sluggish global economic and trade growth, downward movement of world commodity prices and an uncertain policy environment, the report said. Sluggish growth in trade is expected to continue through to the end of 2016. In 2015, Indian goods exports shrank by 17.2 percent, which was close to twice as much as the Asia-Pacific region decline of 9.7 percent, it said. However, it added that India was the largest partner with several economies in South Asia, such as Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Since India is the fastest-growing emerging economy, it is somewhat expected to start filling the void in demand for intraregional exports that will emerge with the rebalancing of China’s trade patterns, the report said.
Rebounding somewhat, exports from Asia-Pacific are expected to increase by 4.5 percent and imports by 6.5 per cent in developing countries of Asia and the Pacific in 2017, but the Report forecasts more modest growth in exports and imports in volume terms, at 2.2 per cent and 3.8 per cent, respectively, ESCAP said in a statement.
A worrying trend on another front is the increased usage of restrictive trade policies, especially non-tariff measures, within the Asia-Pacific region, which is partly driven by past distortive trade measures and current excess capacity in several key sectors, ESCAP said. Additionally, the region is seeing a proliferation of preferential trade agreements (PTA), with Asia and the Pacific rim contributing to almost 63 percent of world PTAs, curbing a momentum towards regionwide free trade, it added.
The report revealed that the region had improved its market share in the commercial services trade, with the services trade more than doubling between 2005 and 2015, from just under $600 billion to close to $1,400 billion.
These aggregates, however, conceal the fall in the region’s export and import of services by 4.5 per cent and 4.9 percent in 2015, respectively, compared with the previous year, mainly due to persisting economic uncertainty resulting in the global decline in merchandise trade and a depressed demand for the services sector including transport.

Q. What has been mentioned in the passage as something that will contribute to the FDI attractiveness of India?

Solution:

If you read the first paragraph carefully, all of these factors have been mentioned as reasons contributing to the FDI attractiveness of India.

QUESTION: 125

Directions: Read the passage given below and then answer the questions given below the passage. Some words may be highlighted for your attention. Pay careful attention.
The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) said international and intra-regional trade costs of India remained higher compared with the trade costs of best-performing economies in Asia and the Pacific, although a declining trend has been observed since 2009. However, it said in addition to India’s robust economic growth and large domestic market, the Government’s “Make in India” initiative and easing of FDI regulations for about 15 sectors including aviation, defence and pharmaceuticals may contribute to the FDI attractiveness of India. On the other hand, overseas investment from India contracted considerably by 36 percent, which may reflect FDI diversion as Indian investors start to invest more at home than overseas, ESCAP said in its recently released Asia-Pacific Trade and Investment Report 2016.
FDI inflows to India expanded by 10 percent on average during 2010-2015, while in 2015 inflows recorded an even stronger expansion at 27.8 per cent, which was significantly higher than the Asia-Pacific region’s average 5.6 per cent, ESCAP said. The services, construction development, computer software and hardware, and telecommunications sectors attracted the highest investments, it added.
Asia-Pacific trade flows were wavering amid sluggish global economic and trade growth, downward movement of world commodity prices and an uncertain policy environment, the report said. Sluggish growth in trade is expected to continue through to the end of 2016. In 2015, Indian goods exports shrank by 17.2 percent, which was close to twice as much as the Asia-Pacific region decline of 9.7 percent, it said. However, it added that India was the largest partner with several economies in South Asia, such as Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Since India is the fastest-growing emerging economy, it is somewhat expected to start filling the void in demand for intraregional exports that will emerge with the rebalancing of China’s trade patterns, the report said.
Rebounding somewhat, exports from Asia-Pacific are expected to increase by 4.5 percent and imports by 6.5 per cent in developing countries of Asia and the Pacific in 2017, but the Report forecasts more modest growth in exports and imports in volume terms, at 2.2 per cent and 3.8 per cent, respectively, ESCAP said in a statement.
A worrying trend on another front is the increased usage of restrictive trade policies, especially non-tariff measures, within the Asia-Pacific region, which is partly driven by past distortive trade measures and current excess capacity in several key sectors, ESCAP said. Additionally, the region is seeing a proliferation of preferential trade agreements (PTA), with Asia and the Pacific rim contributing to almost 63 percent of world PTAs, curbing a momentum towards regionwide free trade, it added.
The report revealed that the region had improved its market share in the commercial services trade, with the services trade more than doubling between 2005 and 2015, from just under $600 billion to close to $1,400 billion.
These aggregates, however, conceal the fall in the region’s export and import of services by 4.5 per cent and 4.9 percent in 2015, respectively, compared with the previous year, mainly due to persisting economic uncertainty resulting in the global decline in merchandise trade and a depressed demand for the services sector including transport.

Q. Why must India not worry about its export sector shrinking?

Solution:

The answer can be inferred from the given sentence of the passage 'However, it added that India was the largest partner with several economies in South Asia, such as Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Since India is the fastest-growing emerging economy, it is somewhat expected to start filling the void in demand for intraregional exports that will emerge with the rebalancing of china's trade patterns, the report said.' The word 'however' after the data for the shrinking of export sector helps in inferring the answer.

QUESTION: 126

Directions: Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Ismat Chughtai’s celebrated masterpiece “Lihaf” needs to be analyzed under the interwoven themes of marriage, the subjugation of women and the oppression and neglect of female sexuality and desire. Here, in her typical style, Chughtai raises important questions on marriage as an economic and social enterprise, the socially constructed subordinate role of women in marriage, her sexual fantasies and frustrations and her subsequent sense of loneliness.
The fact that Nawab “installed her (Begum Jan) in the house along with furniture”, highlights how the institution of marriage commodifies women and reduces them to the object of a mere business transaction. Chughtai critiques the mercenary aspect of marriage that dehumanizes women to fulfill societal obligations and aspirations of upward mobility. Begum Jan was married off to the Nawab by her family, in spite of their age difference, so as to rid themselves of the financial burden and the social taboo of having an unmarried woman in the house. Moreover, since Begum Jan’s family was poor, in her marriage to a rich and influential Nawab, they saw an opportunity to gain economic favour. The status accorded to marriage as an unbreakable social norm, an unquestionable obligation, is also dealt with in the short story. It was and has been till today one of the most important and absolutely essential tenets of the society. Even the Nawab, irrespective of his immense power and formidable position, had to marry, although the opposite sex held no appeal for him owing to his “mysterious hobby”. In the process, poor Begum became a victim to the repressive customs ingrained in the institution of marriage. While the Nawab continued his homosexual exploits, the Begum was condemned to a life of confinement and subjugation. He never displayed any interest in his wife’s life, her wishes, desires and problems and in fact, completely neglected and dismissed her presence in his life. Begum Jan was just his social stamp of approval, a heterosexual cover to escape ridicule and suspicion of society for his inborn homosexual orientation. Beyond that, the Nawab “totally forgot her presence”
In conclusion, it can be said that the redeeming feature of this story, however, lies in the fact that Chughtai does not leave Begum Jan in this state of complete desolation and immense depression, but allows her the agency to make a bold ‘choice’ of homosexuality in indulging with the maidservant Rabbu “who pulled her back from the brink”. Irrespective of whether the story in the end, endorses homosexual behaviour or not, the very fact that Begum Jan is allowed some sort of sexual autonomy in the midst of social confinement, subjugation, repression and social ridicule, leaves behind an emphatic message.

Q. Which one of the following can be inferred from the given passage?

Solution:

Note that the question asks to point out the statement which can be inferred from the given passage. Since option 3 has been clearly stated in the passage, we don’t need to infer it. The given passage does not endorse, advocate or justify the statement given in option 2. Since the passage presents a grim picture in relation to marriage, option 2 can be excluded. The statement in option 1 can be safely inferred from the given passage as through the example of Begum Jan, we see how marriage becomes an institution of subjugation and suppression of women. Also, the Nawab who possesses a homosexual orientation settles with a heterosexual marriage making it a tool to escape ridicule and suspicion of society. So, marriage as an institution tends to affect tends affect both the participants involved.

QUESTION: 127

Directions: Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Ismat Chughtai’s celebrated masterpiece “Lihaf” needs to be analyzed under the interwoven themes of marriage, the subjugation of women and the oppression and neglect of female sexuality and desire. Here, in her typical style, Chughtai raises important questions on marriage as an economic and social enterprise, the socially constructed subordinate role of women in marriage, her sexual fantasies and frustrations and her subsequent sense of loneliness.
The fact that Nawab “installed her (Begum Jan) in the house along with furniture”, highlights how the institution of marriage commodifies women and reduces them to the object of a mere business transaction. Chughtai critiques the mercenary aspect of marriage that dehumanizes women to fulfill societal obligations and aspirations of upward mobility. Begum Jan was married off to the Nawab by her family, in spite of their age difference, so as to rid themselves of the financial burden and the social taboo of having an unmarried woman in the house. Moreover, since Begum Jan’s family was poor, in her marriage to a rich and influential Nawab, they saw an opportunity to gain economic favour. The status accorded to marriage as an unbreakable social norm, an unquestionable obligation, is also dealt with in the short story. It was and has been till today one of the most important and absolutely essential tenets of the society. Even the Nawab, irrespective of his immense power and formidable position, had to marry, although the opposite sex held no appeal for him owing to his “mysterious hobby”. In the process, poor Begum became a victim to the repressive customs ingrained in the institution of marriage. While the Nawab continued his homosexual exploits, the Begum was condemned to a life of confinement and subjugation. He never displayed any interest in his wife’s life, her wishes, desires and problems and in fact, completely neglected and dismissed her presence in his life. Begum Jan was just his social stamp of approval, a heterosexual cover to escape ridicule and suspicion of society for his inborn homosexual orientation. Beyond that, the Nawab “totally forgot her presence”
In conclusion, it can be said that the redeeming feature of this story, however, lies in the fact that Chughtai does not leave Begum Jan in this state of complete desolation and immense depression, but allows her the agency to make a bold ‘choice’ of homosexuality in indulging with the maidservant Rabbu “who pulled her back from the brink”. Irrespective of whether the story in the end, endorses homosexual behaviour or not, the very fact that Begum Jan is allowed some sort of sexual autonomy in the midst of social confinement, subjugation, repression and social ridicule, leaves behind an emphatic message.

Q. Which one of the following is the antonym of the word ‘mercenary’ as used in the context of the passage?

Solution:

The word ‘mercenary’ is used in reference to a person or an approach that is ‘primarily concerned with making money at the expense of ethics’. Thus, the word most opposite in meaning to mercenary would be ‘altruistic’ which means ‘unselfish’, ‘compassionate’, ‘benevolent’ or ‘noble’. ‘Highlighted’ and ‘lucid’ (which means ‘expressed clearly’) are irrelevant here. ‘Refined’ is not an appropriate antonym of ‘mercenary’.

QUESTION: 128

Directions: Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Ismat Chughtai’s celebrated masterpiece “Lihaf” needs to be analyzed under the interwoven themes of marriage, the subjugation of women and the oppression and neglect of female sexuality and desire. Here, in her typical style, Chughtai raises important questions on marriage as an economic and social enterprise, the socially constructed subordinate role of women in marriage, her sexual fantasies and frustrations and her subsequent sense of loneliness.
The fact that Nawab “installed her (Begum Jan) in the house along with furniture”, highlights how the institution of marriage commodifies women and reduces them to the object of a mere business transaction. Chughtai critiques the mercenary aspect of marriage that dehumanizes women to fulfill societal obligations and aspirations of upward mobility. Begum Jan was married off to the Nawab by her family, in spite of their age difference, so as to rid themselves of the financial burden and the social taboo of having an unmarried woman in the house. Moreover, since Begum Jan’s family was poor, in her marriage to a rich and influential Nawab, they saw an opportunity to gain economic favour. The status accorded to marriage as an unbreakable social norm, an unquestionable obligation, is also dealt with in the short story. It was and has been till today one of the most important and absolutely essential tenets of the society. Even the Nawab, irrespective of his immense power and formidable position, had to marry, although the opposite sex held no appeal for him owing to his “mysterious hobby”. In the process, poor Begum became a victim to the repressive customs ingrained in the institution of marriage. While the Nawab continued his homosexual exploits, the Begum was condemned to a life of confinement and subjugation. He never displayed any interest in his wife’s life, her wishes, desires and problems and in fact, completely neglected and dismissed her presence in his life. Begum Jan was just his social stamp of approval, a heterosexual cover to escape ridicule and suspicion of society for his inborn homosexual orientation. Beyond that, the Nawab “totally forgot her presence”
In conclusion, it can be said that the redeeming feature of this story, however, lies in the fact that Chughtai does not leave Begum Jan in this state of complete desolation and immense depression, but allows her the agency to make a bold ‘choice’ of homosexuality in indulging with the maidservant Rabbu “who pulled her back from the brink”. Irrespective of whether the story in the end, endorses homosexual behaviour or not, the very fact that Begum Jan is allowed some sort of sexual autonomy in the midst of social confinement, subjugation, repression and social ridicule, leaves behind an emphatic message.

Q. Which one of the following is the synonym of the word ‘desolation’ as used in the context of the passage?

Solution:

In the context of the passage, ‘desolation’ means ‘misery’ and ‘isolation’. Thus, the word closest in meaning to ‘desolation’ would be ‘loneliness’. ‘Creation’, ‘cheer’ and ‘pursuit’ are completely irrelevant here. ‘Pursuit’ refers to ‘the act of following or chasing someone or something’. 

QUESTION: 129

Directions: Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Ismat Chughtai’s celebrated masterpiece “Lihaf” needs to be analyzed under the interwoven themes of marriage, the subjugation of women and the oppression and neglect of female sexuality and desire. Here, in her typical style, Chughtai raises important questions on marriage as an economic and social enterprise, the socially constructed subordinate role of women in marriage, her sexual fantasies and frustrations and her subsequent sense of loneliness.
The fact that Nawab “installed her (Begum Jan) in the house along with furniture”, highlights how the institution of marriage commodifies women and reduces them to the object of a mere business transaction. Chughtai critiques the mercenary aspect of marriage that dehumanizes women to fulfill societal obligations and aspirations of upward mobility. Begum Jan was married off to the Nawab by her family, in spite of their age difference, so as to rid themselves of the financial burden and the social taboo of having an unmarried woman in the house. Moreover, since Begum Jan’s family was poor, in her marriage to a rich and influential Nawab, they saw an opportunity to gain economic favour. The status accorded to marriage as an unbreakable social norm, an unquestionable obligation, is also dealt with in the short story. It was and has been till today one of the most important and absolutely essential tenets of the society. Even the Nawab, irrespective of his immense power and formidable position, had to marry, although the opposite sex held no appeal for him owing to his “mysterious hobby”. In the process, poor Begum became a victim to the repressive customs ingrained in the institution of marriage. While the Nawab continued his homosexual exploits, the Begum was condemned to a life of confinement and subjugation. He never displayed any interest in his wife’s life, her wishes, desires and problems and in fact, completely neglected and dismissed her presence in his life. Begum Jan was just his social stamp of approval, a heterosexual cover to escape ridicule and suspicion of society for his inborn homosexual orientation. Beyond that, the Nawab “totally forgot her presence”
In conclusion, it can be said that the redeeming feature of this story, however, lies in the fact that Chughtai does not leave Begum Jan in this state of complete desolation and immense depression, but allows her the agency to make a bold ‘choice’ of homosexuality in indulging with the maidservant Rabbu “who pulled her back from the brink”. Irrespective of whether the story in the end, endorses homosexual behaviour or not, the very fact that Begum Jan is allowed some sort of sexual autonomy in the midst of social confinement, subjugation, repression and social ridicule, leaves behind an emphatic message.

Q. Pick out the correct statement from the following:

Solution:

In the second paragraph of the given passage, it has been clearly stated that ‘Chughtai critiques the mercenary aspect of marriage’. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer. Option (a) states the opposite of what has been mentioned in the passage. According to the passage, Begum Jan was married off to the Nawab by her family, in spite of their age difference. This clearly explains that she did not play any role in choosing her marital partner. Option (b) is also incorrect in the context of the passage as the Nawab was least interested in his wife’s life. Option (d) is out of the context of the passage as the ‘evils of dowry and bride burning’ have not been talked about. Instead, Begum Jan was married to a rich and influential Nawab because through this marriage, her family saw an opportunity to gain economic favour as well as upward social mobility.

QUESTION: 130

Directions: Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Ismat Chughtai’s celebrated masterpiece “Lihaf” needs to be analyzed under the interwoven themes of marriage, the subjugation of women and the oppression and neglect of female sexuality and desire. Here, in her typical style, Chughtai raises important questions on marriage as an economic and social enterprise, the socially constructed subordinate role of women in marriage, her sexual fantasies and frustrations and her subsequent sense of loneliness.
The fact that Nawab “installed her (Begum Jan) in the house along with furniture”, highlights how the institution of marriage commodifies women and reduces them to the object of a mere business transaction. Chughtai critiques the mercenary aspect of marriage that dehumanizes women to fulfill societal obligations and aspirations of upward mobility. Begum Jan was married off to the Nawab by her family, in spite of their age difference, so as to rid themselves of the financial burden and the social taboo of having an unmarried woman in the house. Moreover, since Begum Jan’s family was poor, in her marriage to a rich and influential Nawab, they saw an opportunity to gain economic favour. The status accorded to marriage as an unbreakable social norm, an unquestionable obligation, is also dealt with in the short story. It was and has been till today one of the most important and absolutely essential tenets of the society. Even the Nawab, irrespective of his immense power and formidable position, had to marry, although the opposite sex held no appeal for him owing to his “mysterious hobby”. In the process, poor Begum became a victim to the repressive customs ingrained in the institution of marriage. While the Nawab continued his homosexual exploits, the Begum was condemned to a life of confinement and subjugation. He never displayed any interest in his wife’s life, her wishes, desires and problems and in fact, completely neglected and dismissed her presence in his life. Begum Jan was just his social stamp of approval, a heterosexual cover to escape ridicule and suspicion of society for his inborn homosexual orientation. Beyond that, the Nawab “totally forgot her presence”
In conclusion, it can be said that the redeeming feature of this story, however, lies in the fact that Chughtai does not leave Begum Jan in this state of complete desolation and immense depression, but allows her the agency to make a bold ‘choice’ of homosexuality in indulging with the maidservant Rabbu “who pulled her back from the brink”. Irrespective of whether the story in the end, endorses homosexual behaviour or not, the very fact that Begum Jan is allowed some sort of sexual autonomy in the midst of social confinement, subjugation, repression and social ridicule, leaves behind an emphatic message.

Q. Pick out the incorrect statement from the following:

Solution:

Options 1, 2 and 3 are correct in the context of the passage. Option 4, on the other hand, is an incorrect statement as the passage in the very beginning mentions that Begum Jan was installed as a piece of furniture. Moreover, the fact that the Nawab was not interested in her wife’s life and continued his homosexual exploits, confirm that Begum Jan was not at all dear to the Nawab. Thus, option 4 is the incorrect statement, and hence the answer.

QUESTION: 131

Directions: Each passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question
Passage: An old man with steel-rimmed spectacles and very dusty clothes sat by the side of the road. There was a pontoon bridge across the river and carts, trunks, and men, women and children were crossing it. The mule drawn carts staggered up the steel, bank from the bridge with soldiers helping to push against the spokes of the wheels. The trucks ground up and away heading out of it all. The peasants plodded along in the ankle deep dust. But the old man sat there without moving.

Q. What was the old man wearing?

Solution:

The first line of the passage describes the attire of the man and thus option 1 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 132

Directions: Each passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question
Passage: An old man with steel-rimmed spectacles and very dusty clothes sat by the side of the road. There was a pontoon bridge across the river and carts, trunks, and men, women and children were crossing it. The mule drawn carts staggered up the steel, bank from the bridge with soldiers helping to push against the spokes of the wheels. The trucks ground up and away heading out of it all. The peasants plodded along in the ankle deep dust. But the old man sat there without moving.

Q. Mention those which crossed the bridge besides human beings.

Solution:

The second line mentions carts and trucks crossing the bridge besides human beings.

QUESTION: 133

Directions: Each passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question
Passage: An old man with steel-rimmed spectacles and very dusty clothes sat by the side of the road. There was a pontoon bridge across the river and carts, trunks, and men, women and children were crossing it. The mule drawn carts staggered up the steel, bank from the bridge with soldiers helping to push against the spokes of the wheels. The trucks ground up and away heading out of it all. The peasants plodded along in the ankle deep dust. But the old man sat there without moving.

Q. Who were helping to push the mule drawn carts?

Solution:

The third sentence of the passage mentions soldiers helping to push the mule drawn carts.

QUESTION: 134

Directions: Each passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question
Passage: An old man with steel-rimmed spectacles and very dusty clothes sat by the side of the road. There was a pontoon bridge across the river and carts, trunks, and men, women and children were crossing it. The mule drawn carts staggered up the steel, bank from the bridge with soldiers helping to push against the spokes of the wheels. The trucks ground up and away heading out of it all. The peasants plodded along in the ankle deep dust. But the old man sat there without moving.

Q. Where was the old man sitting?

Solution:

The first sentence mentions the fact that the old man was sitting by the side of the road.

QUESTION: 135

Directions: Each passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question
Passage: An old man with steel-rimmed spectacles and very dusty clothes sat by the side of the road. There was a pontoon bridge across the river and carts, trunks, and men, women and children were crossing it. The mule drawn carts staggered up the steel, bank from the bridge with soldiers helping to push against the spokes of the wheels. The trucks ground up and away heading out of it all. The peasants plodded along in the ankle deep dust. But the old man sat there without moving.

Q. Why was he sitting?

Solution:

The passage mentions: He was tired of all the journey he had to undertake.
Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 136

Directions: Four alternative summaries are given below each text. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
It is an important and popular fact that things are not always what they seem. For instance, on the planet Earth, man had always assumed that he was more intelligent than dolphins because he had achieved so much – the wheel, New York, wars and so on -- whilst all the dolphins had ever done was muck about in the water having a good time. But conversely, the dolphins had always believed that they were far more intelligent than man – for precisely the same reasons. 

Solution:

The passage talks about the popular fact of how things are not always what they seem. To support this statement an example of man and dolphins is given where both believe their respective selves to be the more intelligent being. The most suitable summary would be (b) as it covers all the points mentioned in the passage. Also, (a) cannot be the answer as it begins with ‘Appearances are not always true’. Similarly, (c) doesn’t specify what the ‘same reason’ is. (d) is too vague and so can be eliminated. Hence, the answer is (b).

QUESTION: 137

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Whichever superlative description you apply to the Himalayas, the 3,000 kilometers-long mountain range with peaks more than 8,000 meters high, won’t be enough to capture its grandeur. Spectacular... awesome ... majestic ... breathtaking ... stunning ... magnificent .... None of these adjectives does justice to these mountains known as ‘the roof of the world’. Little wonder that local people revere them as sacred, the home of the gods, the abode of the Supreme Soul, and that travelers come from all over the world.
Some of Asia’s greatest rivers spring to life in the Himalayas – the Ganges, Yangtze and Brahmaputra among them. The peaks, foothills and plains are host to species such as the elusive snow leopard, the Bengal tiger, red panda, black bear, bearded vulture ... and perhaps even a yeti or two. And now we at World Wildlife Fund (WWF) can add to that list. Our recent report reveals that no fewer than 244 plants, 16 amphibians, 16 reptiles, 14 fish, two birds, two mammals and at least 60 invertebrates have been discovered by scientists in the Himalayas over the past 10 years. The Himalayan range is home to some 12,000 species of plants, mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and freshwater fish. The number of new species discovered – and investigated and verified by WWF – in the eastern Himalayas between 1998 and 2008 equates to 35 finds every year. ‘They remind us that despite our advances in knowledge, we can still be surprised,’ says our conservation adviser, Mark Wright. ‘If ever you needed a reminder of what we’re striving to protect, discoveries like these have the power to do just that.’
Among the latest discoveries are a bright green frog which uses its long, red, webbed feet to glide through the air; three species of scorpion, one of which is the first scorpion to be found in Nepal; and there’s the miniature muntjac or leaf deer. At just over half a meter tall, this is the world’s smallest deer species. Equally extraordinary is the Namcha Barwa  Canyon. ‘Most people are blissfully unaware of this gorge,’ says Mark. ‘Yet it’s 250 kilometers long and, in places, twice as deep as the Grand Canyon. When a couple of Chinese scientists ventured into it recently, they discovered a new ultramarine blue plant that not only flowers throughout the year but also changes colour according to the air temperature. Other plant discoveries include a pure white orchid and a 15-metre-high palm tree.’
Our study focused on the eastern Himalayas – an area that amazingly spans five countries and a wide range of temperatures. Nature doesn’t respect boundaries and working together on environmental issues is therefore vital. The Himalayas are likely to be hard hit by the effects of climate change. Many regions have their own microclimates and already we’re seeing significant changes. Some species of wildlife and vegetation are moving up hillsides, and seasonal rainfall has become less predictable, which can sometimes result in extreme conditions, ranging from drought to flooding, and uncertainty for farmers. Many communities in the Himalayas still live in isolation, and they remain deeply dependent on the resources nature provides.
Other issues which need discussion and agreement between the governments of the countries affected are cross-border trade in wildlife, timber felling and the harvesting of medicinal plants. Critically, we want to ensure that 50,000 square kilometers of forests, grasslands and wetlands are protected and well connected. This will help to save globally threatened species, such as the Asian elephant and the rhino, whose populations we constantly monitor. And we’ll continue to help local communities to live in harmony with their natural surroundings. With that secured, it’s surely only a matter of time before the Himalayas will reveal yet more secrets.

Q. What is the specialty of the ultramarine blue plant?

Solution:

According to the third paragraph of the passage, 'A couple of Chinese scientists discovered a new ultramarine blue plant that not only flowers throughout the year but also changes colour according to the air temperature.' Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 138

Direction: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Whichever superlative description you apply to the Himalayas, the 3,000 kilometers-long mountain range with peaks more than 8,000 meters high, won’t be enough to capture its grandeur. Spectacular... awesome ... majestic ... breathtaking ... stunning ... magnificent .... None of these adjectives does justice to these mountains known as ‘the roof of the world’. Little wonder that local people revere them as sacred, the home of the gods, the abode of the Supreme Soul, and that travelers come from all over the world.
Some of Asia’s greatest rivers spring to life in the Himalayas – the Ganges, Yangtze and B