CLAT Mock Test- 1


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 1


Description
This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 1 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 1 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 1 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 1 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 1 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Hybrid Air Vehicles' new aircraft is not technically a blimp.
Nor is it a zeppelin, a craft that saw its end with the Hindenburg explosion in 1937 (and a rebirth, of sorts, in the proto-heavy-metal band's name). But it's at least a little of both-a (fittingly) "hybrid air vehicle," or HAV, a mix of airplane, airship, and hovercraft. Hybrid Air Vehicles is attracting business by offering surveillance models (which can fly nonstop for weeks) as well as cargo models (which can tote up to 200 tons). Military contractor Northrop Grumman recently inked a $517 million deal with the firm for its surveillance vehicles, which Northrop will develop for military deployment. Meanwhile, HAV's cargo ships, which the company says are cheaper than comparable airplanes, will debut in northern Canada, where Discovery Air has agreed to pay $3.3 billion for as many as 45 ships outfitted for oil and mining transport. The HAV's hovercraft system usually pushes the ship upward. But when the system's direction is reversed, the ship is pulled down to earth. If the vessel is carrying less than 25 tons, it lands like a helicopter, moving straight down to the ground. The lacquer-coated cotton and linen used for the Hindenburg's exterior proved highly flammable. The HAV's skin is made from a tough, resilient fabric that can last up to 15 years. In the early 20th century, dirigibles were guided by ground crews and docked at giant mooring masts. Thanks to their ability to fly like airplanes-and to land almost anywhere, including on water HAVs can serve as passenger shuttles, landing in empty parking lots to ferry hundreds (or thousands) of passengers.

What is a hybrid air vehicle? 

Solution:

Option (c) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line number 3.

QUESTION: 2

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Hybrid Air Vehicles' new aircraft is not technically a blimp.
Nor is it a zeppelin, a craft that saw its end with the Hindenburg explosion in 1937 (and a rebirth, of sorts, in the proto-heavy-metal band's name). But it's at least a little of both-a (fittingly) "hybrid air vehicle," or HAV, a mix of airplane, airship, and hovercraft. Hybrid Air Vehicles is attracting business by offering surveillance models (which can fly nonstop for weeks) as well as cargo models (which can tote up to 200 tons). Military contractor Northrop Grumman recently inked a $517 million deal with the firm for its surveillance vehicles, which Northrop will develop for military deployment. Meanwhile, HAV's cargo ships, which the company says are cheaper than comparable airplanes, will debut in northern Canada, where Discovery Air has agreed to pay $3.3 billion for as many as 45 ships outfitted for oil and mining transport. The HAV's hovercraft system usually pushes the ship upward. But when the system's direction is reversed, the ship is pulled down to earth. If the vessel is carrying less than 25 tons, it lands like a helicopter, moving straight down to the ground. The lacquer-coated cotton and linen used for the Hindenburg's exterior proved highly flammable. The HAV's skin is made from a tough, resilient fabric that can last up to 15 years. In the early 20th century, dirigibles were guided by ground crews and docked at giant mooring masts. Thanks to their ability to fly like airplanes-and to land almost anywhere, including on water HAVs can serve as passenger shuttles, landing in empty parking lots to ferry hundreds (or thousands) of passengers.

How is the HAV attracting business?

Solution:

Option (d) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line number 4.

QUESTION: 3

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Hybrid Air Vehicles' new aircraft is not technically a blimp.
Nor is it a zeppelin, a craft that saw its end with the Hindenburg explosion in 1937 (and a rebirth, of sorts, in the proto-heavy-metal band's name). But it's at least a little of both-a (fittingly) "hybrid air vehicle," or HAV, a mix of airplane, airship, and hovercraft. Hybrid Air Vehicles is attracting business by offering surveillance models (which can fly nonstop for weeks) as well as cargo models (which can tote up to 200 tons). Military contractor Northrop Grumman recently inked a $517 million deal with the firm for its surveillance vehicles, which Northrop will develop for military deployment. Meanwhile, HAV's cargo ships, which the company says are cheaper than comparable airplanes, will debut in northern Canada, where Discovery Air has agreed to pay $3.3 billion for as many as 45 ships outfitted for oil and mining transport. The HAV's hovercraft system usually pushes the ship upward. But when the system's direction is reversed, the ship is pulled down to earth. If the vessel is carrying less than 25 tons, it lands like a helicopter, moving straight down to the ground. The lacquer-coated cotton and linen used for the Hindenburg's exterior proved highly flammable. The HAV's skin is made from a tough, resilient fabric that can last up to 15 years. In the early 20th century, dirigibles were guided by ground crews and docked at giant mooring masts. Thanks to their ability to fly like airplanes-and to land almost anywhere, including on water HAVs can serve as passenger shuttles, landing in empty parking lots to ferry hundreds (or thousands) of passengers.

Why did military contractor Northrop Grumman ink a $517 million deal with the firm?

Solution:

Option a is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line number 6.

QUESTION: 4

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Hybrid Air Vehicles' new aircraft is not technically a blimp.
Nor is it a zeppelin, a craft that saw its end with the Hindenburg explosion in 1937 (and a rebirth, of sorts, in the proto-heavy-metal band's name). But it's at least a little of both-a (fittingly) "hybrid air vehicle," or HAV, a mix of airplane, airship, and hovercraft. Hybrid Air Vehicles is attracting business by offering surveillance models (which can fly nonstop for weeks) as well as cargo models (which can tote up to 200 tons). Military contractor Northrop Grumman recently inked a $517 million deal with the firm for its surveillance vehicles, which Northrop will develop for military deployment. Meanwhile, HAV's cargo ships, which the company says are cheaper than comparable airplanes, will debut in northern Canada, where Discovery Air has agreed to pay $3.3 billion for as many as 45 ships outfitted for oil and mining transport. The HAV's hovercraft system usually pushes the ship upward. But when the system's direction is reversed, the ship is pulled down to earth. If the vessel is carrying less than 25 tons, it lands like a helicopter, moving straight down to the ground. The lacquer-coated cotton and linen used for the Hindenburg's exterior proved highly flammable. The HAV's skin is made from a tough, resilient fabric that can last up to 15 years. In the early 20th century, dirigibles were guided by ground crews and docked at giant mooring masts. Thanks to their ability to fly like airplanes-and to land almost anywhere, including on water HAVs can serve as passenger shuttles, landing in empty parking lots to ferry hundreds (or thousands) of passengers.

Who has agreed to pay $3.3 billion for as many as 45 ships?

Solution:

Option b is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line number 8.

QUESTION: 5

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Hybrid Air Vehicles' new aircraft is not technically a blimp.
Nor is it a zeppelin, a craft that saw its end with the Hindenburg explosion in 1937 (and a rebirth, of sorts, in the proto-heavy-metal band's name). But it's at least a little of both-a (fittingly) "hybrid air vehicle," or HAV, a mix of airplane, airship, and hovercraft. Hybrid Air Vehicles is attracting business by offering surveillance models (which can fly nonstop for weeks) as well as cargo models (which can tote up to 200 tons). Military contractor Northrop Grumman recently inked a $517 million deal with the firm for its surveillance vehicles, which Northrop will develop for military deployment. Meanwhile, HAV's cargo ships, which the company says are cheaper than comparable airplanes, will debut in northern Canada, where Discovery Air has agreed to pay $3.3 billion for as many as 45 ships outfitted for oil and mining transport. The HAV's hovercraft system usually pushes the ship upward. But when the system's direction is reversed, the ship is pulled down to earth. If the vessel is carrying less than 25 tons, it lands like a helicopter, moving straight down to the ground. The lacquer-coated cotton and linen used for the Hindenburg's exterior proved highly flammable. The HAV's skin is made from a tough, resilient fabric that can last up to 15 years. In the early 20th century, dirigibles were guided by ground crews and docked at giant mooring masts. Thanks to their ability to fly like airplanes-and to land almost anywhere, including on water HAVs can serve as passenger shuttles, landing in empty parking lots to ferry hundreds (or thousands) of passengers.

How were 'airships' that are capable of being steered, guided in the early 20th century?

Solution:

Option d is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line numbers 13 and 14.

QUESTION: 6

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander.
Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.
But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what?
It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.
Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi. It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

Why did John Edward Hollister Montagu need money?

Solution:

Option (c) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line numbers 13 and 14.

QUESTION: 7

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander.
Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.
But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what?
It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.
Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi. It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

What can be said about the exact point of time 'meat and bread' came to be called a Sandwich?

Solution:

Option d is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line numbers 10 and 11.

QUESTION: 8

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander.
Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.
But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what?
It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.
Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi. It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

Which of the following definitions best explains the word 'lineage', as used in the passage?

Solution:

Option (a) is the right answer as lineage means pedigree.

QUESTION: 9

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander.
Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.
But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what?
It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.
Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi. It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

What is 'humankind's greatest lazy meal'?

Solution:

Option (b) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line number 10.

QUESTION: 10

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
There have been 11 earls of Sandwich. The first, bestowed the title in 1660, was a celebrated British naval commander.
Others have been politicians, statesmen, authors, and supporters of the arts. They were important people.
But even now, all anyone seems to know about this proud lineage is that one of them as it turns out, the fourth one, born in 1718 apparently had a liking for meat and bread, or maybe cheese and bread, and he ate it while playing poker because he was a degenerate gambler unable to stop for a meal, or he ate it because he was so busy being a war hero that he had no time for a knife and fork, or he instructed his soldiers to eat it because it traveled well, or you know what?
It doesn't matter. Nobody is quite sure what happened, but we can all agree that, although meat and bread were entered into the historical record as far back as Babylon, humankind's greatest lazy meal became known as the Earl of Sandwich's domain, and so it's been sandwiches all the way down.
Everyone has to be known for something. But the earls busied themselves with more stately things, until the current earl, whose actual name is John Edward Hollister Montagu, needed money to maintain the old family estate, because carrying a fancy title today doesn't pay nearly as much as it did 300 years ago, and a previous earl gave away much of the family wealth. And so hold your noses, ye ghosts of olde: It was time to cash in on the family name, to finally cede history to the hoi polloi. It was time to open up a sandwich shop, and call it Earl of Sandwich.

What kind of people used to be given the title of earl, other than naval commanders?

Solution:

Option (d) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line number 2.

QUESTION: 11

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Silicon Valley companies have notoriously strict hiring standards for engineers. They want graduates from the country's top computer-science programs, like Stanford's and MIT's, or people with sparkling resumes and deep experience. Passey, from Medford, Oregon, didn't even graduate from college. "I briefly studied computer science at college, but I wasn't really excited about the actual degree program," he says.
But he's here because IGN's president, Roy Bahat, is part of a small but growing movement of technology leaders who are rethinking what coders they're looking to hire-and for that matter, how the industry approaches coding in general. "Software is thought of as a science," Bahat says, sitting in a conference room painted to look like the underwater city of BioShock games. "But what if it's not a science? What if it's more like a craft? Or even an art? If you wanted to hire somebody who could be a great craftsperson, you wouldn't look for somebody with a PhD in that craft."
That may sound democratic, but it's also a response to a hard-learned business reality: The battle for talent in Silicon Valley has gotten expensive. Moneyed players like Facebook and Google regularly poach each other's employees by offering big salaries and sweet perks. Smaller startups lure those same developers with promises of greater responsibility, interesting work, and potentially lucrative stock options. IGN is a division of News Corp. But because Rupert Murdoch isn't flooding the firm with Fox News-style cash-and nor is it well- known enough to have top grads pounding down its doors-the company has to find talent in other ways.
And that's why it developed "Code Foo". The program, which ran this summer, brought in people with a core aptitude for programming, then spent six weeks "teaching them something to see if we could get them up to a level where we actually might want to hire them," Bahat says. IGN specifically downplayed the importance of experience and education. "Flipping burgers to scrape together enough cash to buy Portal 2??... Blow our minds while you're here and we'll hire you." read its recruitment advertisement!

What kind of people do the Silicon Valley companies want to hire?

Solution:

Option (c) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line number 2.

QUESTION: 12

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Silicon Valley companies have notoriously strict hiring standards for engineers. They want graduates from the country's top computer-science programs, like Stanford's and MIT's, or people with sparkling resumes and deep experience. Passey, from Medford, Oregon, didn't even graduate from college. "I briefly studied computer science at college, but I wasn't really excited about the actual degree program," he says.
But he's here because IGN's president, Roy Bahat, is part of a small but growing movement of technology leaders who are rethinking what coders they're looking to hire-and for that matter, how the industry approaches coding in general. "Software is thought of as a science," Bahat says, sitting in a conference room painted to look like the underwater city of BioShock games. "But what if it's not a science? What if it's more like a craft? Or even an art? If you wanted to hire somebody who could be a great craftsperson, you wouldn't look for somebody with a PhD in that craft."
That may sound democratic, but it's also a response to a hard-learned business reality: The battle for talent in Silicon Valley has gotten expensive. Moneyed players like Facebook and Google regularly poach each other's employees by offering big salaries and sweet perks. Smaller startups lure those same developers with promises of greater responsibility, interesting work, and potentially lucrative stock options. IGN is a division of News Corp. But because Rupert Murdoch isn't flooding the firm with Fox News-style cash-and nor is it well- known enough to have top grads pounding down its doors-the company has to find talent in other ways.
And that's why it developed "Code Foo". The program, which ran this summer, brought in people with a core aptitude for programming, then spent six weeks "teaching them something to see if we could get them up to a level where we actually might want to hire them," Bahat says. IGN specifically downplayed the importance of experience and education. "Flipping burgers to scrape together enough cash to buy Portal 2??... Blow our minds while you're here and we'll hire you." read its recruitment advertisement!

What were the academic qualifications of Passey, from Medford, Oregon?

Solution:

Option (d) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line numbers 3 and 4.

QUESTION: 13

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Silicon Valley companies have notoriously strict hiring standards for engineers. They want graduates from the country's top computer-science programs, like Stanford's and MIT's, or people with sparkling resumes and deep experience. Passey, from Medford, Oregon, didn't even graduate from college. "I briefly studied computer science at college, but I wasn't really excited about the actual degree program," he says.
But he's here because IGN's president, Roy Bahat, is part of a small but growing movement of technology leaders who are rethinking what coders they're looking to hire-and for that matter, how the industry approaches coding in general. "Software is thought of as a science," Bahat says, sitting in a conference room painted to look like the underwater city of BioShock games. "But what if it's not a science? What if it's more like a craft? Or even an art? If you wanted to hire somebody who could be a great craftsperson, you wouldn't look for somebody with a PhD in that craft."
That may sound democratic, but it's also a response to a hard-learned business reality: The battle for talent in Silicon Valley has gotten expensive. Moneyed players like Facebook and Google regularly poach each other's employees by offering big salaries and sweet perks. Smaller startups lure those same developers with promises of greater responsibility, interesting work, and potentially lucrative stock options. IGN is a division of News Corp. But because Rupert Murdoch isn't flooding the firm with Fox News-style cash-and nor is it well- known enough to have top grads pounding down its doors-the company has to find talent in other ways.
And that's why it developed "Code Foo". The program, which ran this summer, brought in people with a core aptitude for programming, then spent six weeks "teaching them something to see if we could get them up to a level where we actually might want to hire them," Bahat says. IGN specifically downplayed the importance of experience and education. "Flipping burgers to scrape together enough cash to buy Portal 2??... Blow our minds while you're here and we'll hire you." read its recruitment advertisement!

In what context does Bahat express a doubt about the identity of Software?

Solution:

Option (a) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line numbers 9 and 10.

QUESTION: 14

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Silicon Valley companies have notoriously strict hiring standards for engineers. They want graduates from the country's top computer-science programs, like Stanford's and MIT's, or people with sparkling resumes and deep experience. Passey, from Medford, Oregon, didn't even graduate from college. "I briefly studied computer science at college, but I wasn't really excited about the actual degree program," he says.
But he's here because IGN's president, Roy Bahat, is part of a small but growing movement of technology leaders who are rethinking what coders they're looking to hire-and for that matter, how the industry approaches coding in general. "Software is thought of as a science," Bahat says, sitting in a conference room painted to look like the underwater city of BioShock games. "But what if it's not a science? What if it's more like a craft? Or even an art? If you wanted to hire somebody who could be a great craftsperson, you wouldn't look for somebody with a PhD in that craft."
That may sound democratic, but it's also a response to a hard-learned business reality: The battle for talent in Silicon Valley has gotten expensive. Moneyed players like Facebook and Google regularly poach each other's employees by offering big salaries and sweet perks. Smaller startups lure those same developers with promises of greater responsibility, interesting work, and potentially lucrative stock options. IGN is a division of News Corp. But because Rupert Murdoch isn't flooding the firm with Fox News-style cash-and nor is it well- known enough to have top grads pounding down its doors-the company has to find talent in other ways.
And that's why it developed "Code Foo". The program, which ran this summer, brought in people with a core aptitude for programming, then spent six weeks "teaching them something to see if we could get them up to a level where we actually might want to hire them," Bahat says. IGN specifically downplayed the importance of experience and education. "Flipping burgers to scrape together enough cash to buy Portal 2??... Blow our minds while you're here and we'll hire you." read its recruitment advertisement!

How do Facebook and Google regularly poach each other's employees?

Solution:

Option (b) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line numbers 12 and 13.

QUESTION: 15

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Silicon Valley companies have notoriously strict hiring standards for engineers. They want graduates from the country's top computer-science programs, like Stanford's and MIT's, or people with sparkling resumes and deep experience. Passey, from Medford, Oregon, didn't even graduate from college. "I briefly studied computer science at college, but I wasn't really excited about the actual degree program," he says.
But he's here because IGN's president, Roy Bahat, is part of a small but growing movement of technology leaders who are rethinking what coders they're looking to hire-and for that matter, how the industry approaches coding in general. "Software is thought of as a science," Bahat says, sitting in a conference room painted to look like the underwater city of BioShock games. "But what if it's not a science? What if it's more like a craft? Or even an art? If you wanted to hire somebody who could be a great craftsperson, you wouldn't look for somebody with a PhD in that craft."
That may sound democratic, but it's also a response to a hard-learned business reality: The battle for talent in Silicon Valley has gotten expensive. Moneyed players like Facebook and Google regularly poach each other's employees by offering big salaries and sweet perks. Smaller startups lure those same developers with promises of greater responsibility, interesting work, and potentially lucrative stock options. IGN is a division of News Corp. But because Rupert Murdoch isn't flooding the firm with Fox News-style cash-and nor is it well- known enough to have top grads pounding down its doors-the company has to find talent in other ways.
And that's why it developed "Code Foo". The program, which ran this summer, brought in people with a core aptitude for programming, then spent six weeks "teaching them something to see if we could get them up to a level where we actually might want to hire them," Bahat says. IGN specifically downplayed the importance of experience and education. "Flipping burgers to scrape together enough cash to buy Portal 2??... Blow our minds while you're here and we'll hire you." read its recruitment advertisement!

What kind of idea is conveyed by the last line of the passage?

Solution:

Option (d) is the right answer as it is mentioned in the passage, in line numbers 20 , 21 and 22.

QUESTION: 16

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a means of cooking food than as a source of light. Before he discovered less laborious ways of making fire, he had to preserve it, and whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him. His discovery that the firebrand, from which the torch may very well have developed, could be used for illumination was probably incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame.
Lamps, too, were probably developed by accident. Early man may have had his first conception of a lamp while watching a twig or fiber burning in the molten fat dropped from a roasting carcass. All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain and float a lighted reed in it. Such lamps, which were made of hollowed stones or sea shells, have persisted in identical form up to quite recent times.

Primitive man's most important use for fire was

Solution:

Refer to the first sentence, "Primitive...source of warmth... a means of cooking food." Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 17

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a means of cooking food than as a source of light. Before he discovered less laborious ways of making fire, he had to preserve it, and whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him. His discovery that the firebrand, from which the torch may very well have developed, could be used for illumination was probably incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame.
Lamps, too, were probably developed by accident. Early man may have had his first conception of a lamp while watching a twig or fiber burning in the molten fat dropped from a roasting carcass. All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain and float a lighted reed in it. Such lamps, which were made of hollowed stones or sea shells, have persisted in identical form up to quite recent times.

The firebrand was used for which of the following purposes?

Solution:

Refer to the sentence, "His discovery ............. used for illumination... preserving a flame". This clarifies that the primary purpose of the firebrand was to preserve a flame. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 18

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a means of cooking food than as a source of light. Before he discovered less laborious ways of making fire, he had to preserve it, and whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him. His discovery that the firebrand, from which the torch may very well have developed, could be used for illumination was probably incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame.
Lamps, too, were probably developed by accident. Early man may have had his first conception of a lamp while watching a twig or fiber burning in the molten fat dropped from a roasting carcass. All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain and float a lighted reed in it. Such lamps, which were made of hollowed stones or sea shells, have persisted in identical form up to quite recent times.

By 'Primary' the author means

Solution:

Refer to the sentence, "His discovery ....................... .incidental to the primary ........... " This implies that 'primary' refers to firebrand 'mainly' used for preserving. Hence, option (d) is the most appropriate answer.

QUESTION: 19

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a means of cooking food than as a source of light. Before he discovered less laborious ways of making fire, he had to preserve it, and whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him. His discovery that the firebrand, from which the torch may very well have developed, could be used for illumination was probably incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame.
Lamps, too, were probably developed by accident. Early man may have had his first conception of a lamp while watching a twig or fiber burning in the molten fat dropped from a roasting carcass. All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain and float a lighted reed in it. Such lamps, which were made of hollowed stones or sea shells, have persisted in identical form up to quite recent times.

Lamps were probably developed by which of the following?

Solution:

Refer to the sentence, "Lamps .developed by accident". This clearly states that lamps were developed incidentally, without planning. Option (c) 'chance' is the most appropriate answer.

QUESTION: 20

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Primitive man was probably more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a means of cooking food than as a source of light. Before he discovered less laborious ways of making fire, he had to preserve it, and whenever he went on a journey he carried a firebrand with him. His discovery that the firebrand, from which the torch may very well have developed, could be used for illumination was probably incidental to the primary purpose of preserving a flame.
Lamps, too, were probably developed by accident. Early man may have had his first conception of a lamp while watching a twig or fiber burning in the molten fat dropped from a roasting carcass. All he had to do was to fashion a vessel to contain and float a lighted reed in it. Such lamps, which were made of hollowed stones or sea shells, have persisted in identical form up to quite recent times.

Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word 'persisted' as given in the passage?

Solution:

'Persist' means to continue to do something despite difficulties or opposition, in a way that can seem unreasonable. The appropriate antonym from the given options is 'discontinued'. Hence, option (c) is the most appropriate answer.

QUESTION: 21

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Coal was needed in vast quantities for the Industrial Revolution. For centuries, people in Britain had to make do with charcoal if they needed a cheap and easy to acquire fuel. Whatever 'industry' that existed before 1700, did use coal but it came from coal mines that were near to the surface and the coal was relatively easy to get to. The Industrial Revolution changed all of this.
Before the Industrial Revolution, two types of mines existed: drift mines and bell pits. Both were small scale coal mines and the coal which came from these types of pits was used locally in homes and local industry.
However, as the country started to industrialise itself, more and more coal was needed to fuel steam engines and furnaces. The development of factories by Arkwright and the improvement of the steam engine by Watt further increased the demand for coal. As a result, coal mines got deeper and deeper and coal mining became more and more dangerous.
Coal shafts could go hundreds of feet into the ground. Once a coal seam was found, the miners dug horizontally.
However, underground, the miners faced very real and great dangers.
Even with Watt's improved steam engine, flooding was a real problem in mines. Explosive gas (called fire damp) would be found the deeper the miners got. One spark from a digging miner's pick axe or candle could be disastrous. Poison gas was also found. Underground pit collapses were common; the sheer weight of the ground above a worked coal seam was colossal and mines were only held up by wooden beams called props.
Regardless of all these dangers, there was a huge increase in the production of coal in Britain. Very little coal was found in the south, but vast amounts were found in the Midlands, the north, the north-east and parts of Scotland. Because coal was so difficult and expensive to move, towns and other industries grew up around the coal mining areas. This in itself created problems as these towns grew without any obvious planning or thought given to the facilities that the miners and their families would need.

Why was charcoal used as a fuel for centuries by the British?
A. It was inexpensive and easy to get.
B. The coal mines were near the surface.
C. It was used in steam engines and furnaces.

Solution:

Refer to the first paragraph of the passage, where it is stated that Britain "had to make do" with charcoal because it was cheap and easy to acquire.
Statements B and C are not mentioned in relation to charcoal. Hence, the answer is option (a).

QUESTION: 22

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Coal was needed in vast quantities for the Industrial Revolution. For centuries, people in Britain had to make do with charcoal if they needed a cheap and easy to acquire fuel. Whatever 'industry' that existed before 1700, did use coal but it came from coal mines that were near to the surface and the coal was relatively easy to get to. The Industrial Revolution changed all of this.
Before the Industrial Revolution, two types of mines existed: drift mines and bell pits. Both were small scale coal mines and the coal which came from these types of pits was used locally in homes and local industry.
However, as the country started to industrialise itself, more and more coal was needed to fuel steam engines and furnaces. The development of factories by Arkwright and the improvement of the steam engine by Watt further increased the demand for coal. As a result, coal mines got deeper and deeper and coal mining became more and more dangerous.
Coal shafts could go hundreds of feet into the ground. Once a coal seam was found, the miners dug horizontally.
However, underground, the miners faced very real and great dangers.
Even with Watt's improved steam engine, flooding was a real problem in mines. Explosive gas (called fire damp) would be found the deeper the miners got. One spark from a digging miner's pick axe or candle could be disastrous. Poison gas was also found. Underground pit collapses were common; the sheer weight of the ground above a worked coal seam was colossal and mines were only held up by wooden beams called props.
Regardless of all these dangers, there was a huge increase in the production of coal in Britain. Very little coal was found in the south, but vast amounts were found in the Midlands, the north, the north-east and parts of Scotland. Because coal was so difficult and expensive to move, towns and other industries grew up around the coal mining areas. This in itself created problems as these towns grew without any obvious planning or thought given to the facilities that the miners and their families would need.

What led to the upsurge in the demand for coal?
A. Development of factories
B. Improvement of steam engines
C. Increase in demand by local industries

Solution:

The third paragraph states that during the industrial revolution, more and more coal was needed for the steam engine and factories. Hence, option (c) is the answer. Local industries used coal even before the advent of Industrial Revolution. However, it cannot be inferred from the passage that this demand increased at any given point of time.

QUESTION: 23

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Coal was needed in vast quantities for the Industrial Revolution. For centuries, people in Britain had to make do with charcoal if they needed a cheap and easy to acquire fuel. Whatever 'industry' that existed before 1700, did use coal but it came from coal mines that were near to the surface and the coal was relatively easy to get to. The Industrial Revolution changed all of this.
Before the Industrial Revolution, two types of mines existed: drift mines and bell pits. Both were small scale coal mines and the coal which came from these types of pits was used locally in homes and local industry.
However, as the country started to industrialise itself, more and more coal was needed to fuel steam engines and furnaces. The development of factories by Arkwright and the improvement of the steam engine by Watt further increased the demand for coal. As a result, coal mines got deeper and deeper and coal mining became more and more dangerous.
Coal shafts could go hundreds of feet into the ground. Once a coal seam was found, the miners dug horizontally.
However, underground, the miners faced very real and great dangers.
Even with Watt's improved steam engine, flooding was a real problem in mines. Explosive gas (called fire damp) would be found the deeper the miners got. One spark from a digging miner's pick axe or candle could be disastrous. Poison gas was also found. Underground pit collapses were common; the sheer weight of the ground above a worked coal seam was colossal and mines were only held up by wooden beams called props.
Regardless of all these dangers, there was a huge increase in the production of coal in Britain. Very little coal was found in the south, but vast amounts were found in the Midlands, the north, the north-east and parts of Scotland. Because coal was so difficult and expensive to move, towns and other industries grew up around the coal mining areas. This in itself created problems as these towns grew without any obvious planning or thought given to the facilities that the miners and their families would need.

Which among the following is not listed as a problem faced by the coal mine workers while working in the mine?

Solution:

The penultimate paragraph lists several problems (flooding, fire damp, poison gas, underground pit collapses) faced by the mine workers while working in the mine. It also says that the weight of the ground above a worked coal seam was extremely large.
It does not mention anything about splitting of the coal seam. Hence, option (c) is the answer.

QUESTION: 24

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Coal was needed in vast quantities for the Industrial Revolution. For centuries, people in Britain had to make do with charcoal if they needed a cheap and easy to acquire fuel. Whatever 'industry' that existed before 1700, did use coal but it came from coal mines that were near to the surface and the coal was relatively easy to get to. The Industrial Revolution changed all of this.
Before the Industrial Revolution, two types of mines existed: drift mines and bell pits. Both were small scale coal mines and the coal which came from these types of pits was used locally in homes and local industry.
However, as the country started to industrialise itself, more and more coal was needed to fuel steam engines and furnaces. The development of factories by Arkwright and the improvement of the steam engine by Watt further increased the demand for coal. As a result, coal mines got deeper and deeper and coal mining became more and more dangerous.
Coal shafts could go hundreds of feet into the ground. Once a coal seam was found, the miners dug horizontally.
However, underground, the miners faced very real and great dangers.
Even with Watt's improved steam engine, flooding was a real problem in mines. Explosive gas (called fire damp) would be found the deeper the miners got. One spark from a digging miner's pick axe or candle could be disastrous. Poison gas was also found. Underground pit collapses were common; the sheer weight of the ground above a worked coal seam was colossal and mines were only held up by wooden beams called props.
Regardless of all these dangers, there was a huge increase in the production of coal in Britain. Very little coal was found in the south, but vast amounts were found in the Midlands, the north, the north-east and parts of Scotland. Because coal was so difficult and expensive to move, towns and other industries grew up around the coal mining areas. This in itself created problems as these towns grew without any obvious planning or thought given to the facilities that the miners and their families would need.

Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?

Solution:

The last paragraph states that despite the dangers, the production of coal increased. We cannot infer that the increase is because of the increase in the working population. The author mentions "regardless of these dangers" only to emphasise the fact that it did not act as a deterrent. Moreover, we know that the coal shafts were now bigger, which might be the only reason that led to the increase of coal production.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. Options (a) and (c) can be clearly inferred from the third paragraph. Option (d) can be inferred from the last paragraph which states that industries grew around coal mining areas which created problems since no thought was given to the facilities that the people settling around the industries would need.

QUESTION: 25

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Coal was needed in vast quantities for the Industrial Revolution. For centuries, people in Britain had to make do with charcoal if they needed a cheap and easy to acquire fuel. Whatever 'industry' that existed before 1700, did use coal but it came from coal mines that were near to the surface and the coal was relatively easy to get to. The Industrial Revolution changed all of this.
Before the Industrial Revolution, two types of mines existed: drift mines and bell pits. Both were small scale coal mines and the coal which came from these types of pits was used locally in homes and local industry.
However, as the country started to industrialise itself, more and more coal was needed to fuel steam engines and furnaces. The development of factories by Arkwright and the improvement of the steam engine by Watt further increased the demand for coal. As a result, coal mines got deeper and deeper and coal mining became more and more dangerous.
Coal shafts could go hundreds of feet into the ground. Once a coal seam was found, the miners dug horizontally.
However, underground, the miners faced very real and great dangers.
Even with Watt's improved steam engine, flooding was a real problem in mines. Explosive gas (called fire damp) would be found the deeper the miners got. One spark from a digging miner's pick axe or candle could be disastrous. Poison gas was also found. Underground pit collapses were common; the sheer weight of the ground above a worked coal seam was colossal and mines were only held up by wooden beams called props.
Regardless of all these dangers, there was a huge increase in the production of coal in Britain. Very little coal was found in the south, but vast amounts were found in the Midlands, the north, the north-east and parts of Scotland. Because coal was so difficult and expensive to move, towns and other industries grew up around the coal mining areas. This in itself created problems as these towns grew without any obvious planning or thought given to the facilities that the miners and their families would need.

Which among the following is the synonym of the word 'colossal'?

Solution:

'Colossal' means of an exceptional or astonishing degree. 'Pharaonic' means something that is enormous in size or magnitude. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. 'Petite' means having a small trim figure. 'Cosmogony' refers to the theory of the origin of the universe.

QUESTION: 26

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
It will be a mistake to think that he was given only 'bouquets', he also received many 'brickbats'. The Christian missionaries took alarm at his popularity. They used to raise funds by preaching that India was a land of heathens waiting to be saved by Christianity. The American press now began to say that it was a shame that anybody should try to teach India religion, rather the world should sit at her feet to learn it. Vivekananda also said that India did not need religion but material support. The missionaries found that the subscriptions they had so long been receiving from the people were steadily declining. They blamed it on Swamiji. They now started denigrating him in all manner of ways. They even began to spread scandals against his personal character. Strangely enough, even some of his own countrymen joined them in these, for reasons of their own. But 'Truth alone prevails', as Swamiji always preached. He did not try to defend himself, but others stood up for him and vehemently protested. Finally, all such mean attempts failed and his reputation only rose higher and higher.

What does the passage try to teach us?

Solution:

Options (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect as they are not mentioned in the passage. Option (d) is the correct answer as according to the given passage, Vivekananda preached that "Truth alone prevails".

QUESTION: 27

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
It will be a mistake to think that he was given only 'bouquets', he also received many 'brickbats'. The Christian missionaries took alarm at his popularity. They used to raise funds by preaching that India was a land of heathens waiting to be saved by Christianity. The American press now began to say that it was a shame that anybody should try to teach India religion, rather the world should sit at her feet to learn it. Vivekananda also said that India did not need religion but material support. The missionaries found that the subscriptions they had so long been receiving from the people were steadily declining. They blamed it on Swamiji. They now started denigrating him in all manner of ways. They even began to spread scandals against his personal character. Strangely enough, even some of his own countrymen joined them in these, for reasons of their own. But 'Truth alone prevails', as Swamiji always preached. He did not try to defend himself, but others stood up for him and vehemently protested. Finally, all such mean attempts failed and his reputation only rose higher and higher.

Why was Vivekananda criticized by the Christian missionaries?

Solution:

The passage shows that Vivekananda's influence led to a decline in the missionaries' funds. Refer to the sentence, "The missionaries found that the subscriptions they had so long been receiving from the people were steadily declining." Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 28

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
It will be a mistake to think that he was given only 'bouquets', he also received many 'brickbats'. The Christian missionaries took alarm at his popularity. They used to raise funds by preaching that India was a land of heathens waiting to be saved by Christianity. The American press now began to say that it was a shame that anybody should try to teach India religion, rather the world should sit at her feet to learn it. Vivekananda also said that India did not need religion but material support. The missionaries found that the subscriptions they had so long been receiving from the people were steadily declining. They blamed it on Swamiji. They now started denigrating him in all manner of ways. They even began to spread scandals against his personal character. Strangely enough, even some of his own countrymen joined them in these, for reasons of their own. But 'Truth alone prevails', as Swamiji always preached. He did not try to defend himself, but others stood up for him and vehemently protested. Finally, all such mean attempts failed and his reputation only rose higher and higher.

Swami Vivekananda told the American people that India

Solution:

Refer to the line, "Vivekananda also said that India did not need religion but material support." From this we can infer that according to Swami Vivekananda, India was self-sufficient in religion, but required material support.

QUESTION: 29

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
It will be a mistake to think that he was given only 'bouquets', he also received many 'brickbats'. The Christian missionaries took alarm at his popularity. They used to raise funds by preaching that India was a land of heathens waiting to be saved by Christianity. The American press now began to say that it was a shame that anybody should try to teach India religion, rather the world should sit at her feet to learn it. Vivekananda also said that India did not need religion but material support. The missionaries found that the subscriptions they had so long been receiving from the people were steadily declining. They blamed it on Swamiji. They now started denigrating him in all manner of ways. They even began to spread scandals against his personal character. Strangely enough, even some of his own countrymen joined them in these, for reasons of their own. But 'Truth alone prevails', as Swamiji always preached. He did not try to defend himself, but others stood up for him and vehemently protested. Finally, all such mean attempts failed and his reputation only rose higher and higher.

Vivekananda's popularity with the American people

Solution:

The passage states that the missionaries started denigrating Swamiji when they found that the subscriptions they had so long been receiving from the people were steadily declining. From this we can infer that Vivekananda's popularity with the American people caused a drop in the Church's collections.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

QUESTION: 30

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Scientists from the University of [1] have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from [2].
Named [3] after the African clawed [2] (Xenopus laevis) from which they take their stem cells, the machines are less than a millimeter (0.04 inches) wide - - small enough to travel inside human bodies. They can walk and swim, survive for weeks without food, and work together in groups. These are "entirely new life-forms," said the University of [1], which conducted the research with Tufts University's Allen Discovery Center.
Stem cells are unspecialized cells that have the ability to develop into different cell types. The researchers scraped living stem cells from [2] embryos, and left them to incubate.
Then, the cells were cut and reshaped into specific "body forms" designed by a supercomputer -forms "never seen in nature," according to a news release from the University of [1].
Traditional robots "degrade over time and can produce harmful ecological and health side effects," researchers said in the study, which was published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences. As biological machines, [3] are more environmentally friendly and safer for human health, the study said.
The [3] could potentially be used toward a host of tasks, according to the study, which was partially funded by the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency, a federal agency that oversees the development of technology for military use.

Scientists from the University of [1] have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from [2]. Which of the following universities has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

Solution:

Scientists from the University of Vermont have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from frogs.

QUESTION: 31

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Scientists from the University of [1] have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from [2].
Named [3] after the African clawed [2] (Xenopus laevis) from which they take their stem cells, the machines are less than a millimeter (0.04 inches) wide - - small enough to travel inside human bodies. They can walk and swim, survive for weeks without food, and work together in groups. These are "entirely new life-forms," said the University of [1], which conducted the research with Tufts University's Allen Discovery Center.
Stem cells are unspecialized cells that have the ability to develop into different cell types. The researchers scraped living stem cells from [2] embryos, and left them to incubate.
Then, the cells were cut and reshaped into specific "body forms" designed by a supercomputer -forms "never seen in nature," according to a news release from the University of [1].
Traditional robots "degrade over time and can produce harmful ecological and health side effects," researchers said in the study, which was published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences. As biological machines, [3] are more environmentally friendly and safer for human health, the study said.
The [3] could potentially be used toward a host of tasks, according to the study, which was partially funded by the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency, a federal agency that oversees the development of technology for military use.

Scientists while creating the world's first living, selfhealing robots used the stem cells from which of the following animals whose name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

Solution:

Scientists from the University of Vermont have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from frogs.

QUESTION: 32

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Scientists from the University of [1] have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from [2].
Named [3] after the African clawed [2] (Xenopus laevis) from which they take their stem cells, the machines are less than a millimeter (0.04 inches) wide - - small enough to travel inside human bodies. They can walk and swim, survive for weeks without food, and work together in groups. These are "entirely new life-forms," said the University of [1], which conducted the research with Tufts University's Allen Discovery Center.
Stem cells are unspecialized cells that have the ability to develop into different cell types. The researchers scraped living stem cells from [2] embryos, and left them to incubate.
Then, the cells were cut and reshaped into specific "body forms" designed by a supercomputer -forms "never seen in nature," according to a news release from the University of [1].
Traditional robots "degrade over time and can produce harmful ecological and health side effects," researchers said in the study, which was published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences. As biological machines, [3] are more environmentally friendly and safer for human health, the study said.
The [3] could potentially be used toward a host of tasks, according to the study, which was partially funded by the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency, a federal agency that oversees the development of technology for military use.

In February 2019, China has created the world's first female Artificial Intelligence (AI) news anchor, known as

Solution:

China continues to make remarkable strides in making human journalists obsolete. State news outlet Xinhua announced (Feb 19, link in Chinese) that it had, in collaboration with search engine Sogou, created the world's first female AI news anchor, known as Xin Xiaomeng. The announcement comes after Xinhua debuted the world's first male AI news anchor, Qiu Hao, during China's annual World Internet Conference held in November in the town of Wuzhen.

QUESTION: 33

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Scientists from the University of [1] have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from [2].
Named [3] after the African clawed [2] (Xenopus laevis) from which they take their stem cells, the machines are less than a millimeter (0.04 inches) wide - - small enough to travel inside human bodies. They can walk and swim, survive for weeks without food, and work together in groups. These are "entirely new life-forms," said the University of [1], which conducted the research with Tufts University's Allen Discovery Center.
Stem cells are unspecialized cells that have the ability to develop into different cell types. The researchers scraped living stem cells from [2] embryos, and left them to incubate.
Then, the cells were cut and reshaped into specific "body forms" designed by a supercomputer -forms "never seen in nature," according to a news release from the University of [1].
Traditional robots "degrade over time and can produce harmful ecological and health side effects," researchers said in the study, which was published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences. As biological machines, [3] are more environmentally friendly and safer for human health, the study said.
The [3] could potentially be used toward a host of tasks, according to the study, which was partially funded by the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency, a federal agency that oversees the development of technology for military use.

What is the name of the world's first living, self-healing robots whose name has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

Solution:

Scientists from the University of Vermont have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from frogs. Named xenobots after the African clawed frog (Xenopus laevis) from which they take their stem cells, the machines are less than a millimeter (0.04 inches) wide -- small enough to travel inside human bodies. They can walk and swim, survive for weeks without food, and work together in groups.

QUESTION: 34

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Scientists from the University of [1] have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from [2].
Named [3] after the African clawed [2] (Xenopus laevis) from which they take their stem cells, the machines are less than a millimeter (0.04 inches) wide - - small enough to travel inside human bodies. They can walk and swim, survive for weeks without food, and work together in groups. These are "entirely new life-forms," said the University of [1], which conducted the research with Tufts University's Allen Discovery Center.
Stem cells are unspecialized cells that have the ability to develop into different cell types. The researchers scraped living stem cells from [2] embryos, and left them to incubate.
Then, the cells were cut and reshaped into specific "body forms" designed by a supercomputer -forms "never seen in nature," according to a news release from the University of [1].
Traditional robots "degrade over time and can produce harmful ecological and health side effects," researchers said in the study, which was published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences. As biological machines, [3] are more environmentally friendly and safer for human health, the study said.
The [3] could potentially be used toward a host of tasks, according to the study, which was partially funded by the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency, a federal agency that oversees the development of technology for military use.

Which of the following is/are the unique property/ properties of all stem cells?
1. They are capable of dividing and renewing themselves for long periods.
2. They are unspecialized.
3. They can give rise to specialized cell types.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Solution:

Stem cells differ from other kinds of cells in the body. All stem cells-regardless of their source-have three general properties: they are capable of dividing and renewing themselves for long periods; they are unspecialized; and they can give rise to specialized cell types.

QUESTION: 35

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Scientists from the University of [1] have created the world's first living, self-healing robots using stem cells from [2].
Named [3] after the African clawed [2] (Xenopus laevis) from which they take their stem cells, the machines are less than a millimeter (0.04 inches) wide - - small enough to travel inside human bodies. They can walk and swim, survive for weeks without food, and work together in groups. These are "entirely new life-forms," said the University of [1], which conducted the research with Tufts University's Allen Discovery Center.
Stem cells are unspecialized cells that have the ability to develop into different cell types. The researchers scraped living stem cells from [2] embryos, and left them to incubate.
Then, the cells were cut and reshaped into specific "body forms" designed by a supercomputer -forms "never seen in nature," according to a news release from the University of [1].
Traditional robots "degrade over time and can produce harmful ecological and health side effects," researchers said in the study, which was published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences. As biological machines, [3] are more environmentally friendly and safer for human health, the study said.
The [3] could potentially be used toward a host of tasks, according to the study, which was partially funded by the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency, a federal agency that oversees the development of technology for military use.

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the applications of world's first living, selfhealing robots [3]?

Solution:

Xenobots could be used to clean up radioactive waste, collect microplastics in the oceans, carry medicine inside human bodies, or even travel into our arteries to scrape out plaque. The xenobots can survive in aqueous environments without additional nutrients for days or weeks -- making them suitable for internal drug delivery.

QUESTION: 36

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Donald Trump has been acquitted in his Senate trial on both of the articles of impeachment he faced, ending the threat that he would be removed from office and concluding the impeachment process. Voting largely along party lines, the senators found Trump not guilty of the first article of impeachment for [1], by a 52-48 tally, and not guilty of the second article of impeachment, obstruction of Congress, by a 53-47 tally. Trump became the [2] president in US history to be impeached by the House of Representatives but acquitted in a Senate trial. A two-thirds majority of 67 senators would have been required to remove him.
Mitt Romney was the only Republican to vote in favor of convicting Trump - and he became the only senator in history to vote to remove a president from his own party in an impeachment trial. Romney voted "guilty" on article 1, for [1], and "not guilty" on article 2, for obstruction of Congress. [3], who presided at the two-week trial, thanked the senators for their patience "as I attempted to carry out ill-defined responsibilities in an unfamiliar setting". "You have been generous hosts, and I look forward to seeing you again under happier circumstances," [3] said as the trial concluded.

Donald Trump has been acquitted in his Senate trial on both of the articles of impeachment he faced, the senators found that Donald Trump was not guilty of the first article of impeachment for [1]. Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

Solution:

Donald Trump has been acquitted in his Senate trial on both of the articles of impeachment he faced, ending the threat that he would be removed from office and concluding the impeachment process. Voting largely along party lines, the senators found Trump not guilty of the first article of impeachment, abuse of power, by a 52-48 tally, and not guilty of the second article of impeachment, obstruction of Congress, by a 53-47 tally.

QUESTION: 37

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Donald Trump has been acquitted in his Senate trial on both of the articles of impeachment he faced, ending the threat that he would be removed from office and concluding the impeachment process. Voting largely along party lines, the senators found Trump not guilty of the first article of impeachment for [1], by a 52-48 tally, and not guilty of the second article of impeachment, obstruction of Congress, by a 53-47 tally. Trump became the [2] president in US history to be impeached by the House of Representatives but acquitted in a Senate trial. A two-thirds majority of 67 senators would have been required to remove him.
Mitt Romney was the only Republican to vote in favor of convicting Trump - and he became the only senator in history to vote to remove a president from his own party in an impeachment trial. Romney voted "guilty" on article 1, for [1], and "not guilty" on article 2, for obstruction of Congress. [3], who presided at the two-week trial, thanked the senators for their patience "as I attempted to carry out ill-defined responsibilities in an unfamiliar setting". "You have been generous hosts, and I look forward to seeing you again under happier circumstances," [3] said as the trial concluded.

Under the Constitution of India, a charge for the impeachment of the President of India can be preferred by:

Solution:

According to Article 61 of the Constitution, when a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament.

QUESTION: 38

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Donald Trump has been acquitted in his Senate trial on both of the articles of impeachment he faced, ending the threat that he would be removed from office and concluding the impeachment process. Voting largely along party lines, the senators found Trump not guilty of the first article of impeachment for [1], by a 52-48 tally, and not guilty of the second article of impeachment, obstruction of Congress, by a 53-47 tally. Trump became the [2] president in US history to be impeached by the House of Representatives but acquitted in a Senate trial. A two-thirds majority of 67 senators would have been required to remove him.
Mitt Romney was the only Republican to vote in favor of convicting Trump - and he became the only senator in history to vote to remove a president from his own party in an impeachment trial. Romney voted "guilty" on article 1, for [1], and "not guilty" on article 2, for obstruction of Congress. [3], who presided at the two-week trial, thanked the senators for their patience "as I attempted to carry out ill-defined responsibilities in an unfamiliar setting". "You have been generous hosts, and I look forward to seeing you again under happier circumstances," [3] said as the trial concluded.

Donald Trump became the [2] president in US history to be impeached by the House of Representatives but acquitted in a Senate trial. Which of the following is redacted with [2] and who among the following Presidents has also been impeached?

Solution:

The U.S. House of Representatives impeached President Donald Trump on charges of abuse of power and obstructing Congress, the culmination of an effort by Democrats that further inflamed partisan tensions in Washington and deepened the nation's ideological divide. Only two previous presidents have been impeached. The House in 1998 impeached President Bill Clinton on charges of perjury and obstruction of justice arising from a sexual relationship he had with a White House intern, but the Senate acquitted him. The House impeached President Andrew Johnson in 1868, focused on his removal of the secretary of war, but he was acquitted by one vote in the Senate. T rump became the third president in US history to be impeached by the House of Representatives but acquitted in a Senate trial. A two-thirds majority of 67 senators would have been required to remove him.

QUESTION: 39

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Donald Trump has been acquitted in his Senate trial on both of the articles of impeachment he faced, ending the threat that he would be removed from office and concluding the impeachment process. Voting largely along party lines, the senators found Trump not guilty of the first article of impeachment for [1], by a 52-48 tally, and not guilty of the second article of impeachment, obstruction of Congress, by a 53-47 tally. Trump became the [2] president in US history to be impeached by the House of Representatives but acquitted in a Senate trial. A two-thirds majority of 67 senators would have been required to remove him.
Mitt Romney was the only Republican to vote in favor of convicting Trump - and he became the only senator in history to vote to remove a president from his own party in an impeachment trial. Romney voted "guilty" on article 1, for [1], and "not guilty" on article 2, for obstruction of Congress. [3], who presided at the two-week trial, thanked the senators for their patience "as I attempted to carry out ill-defined responsibilities in an unfamiliar setting". "You have been generous hosts, and I look forward to seeing you again under happier circumstances," [3] said as the trial concluded.

The U.S. House of Representatives impeached President Donald T rump for conditioning military aid and a White House meeting for _____________ on the announcement of a pair of investigations.

Solution:

Donald Trump was impeached for conditioning military aid and a White House meeting for Ukraine on the announcement of a pair of investigations: one into his potential rival for the White House in the 2020 election, Joe Biden, and son Hunter; and a second into a conspiracy theory that Ukraine, instead of Russia, was behind foreign tampering in the 2016 US election.

QUESTION: 40

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Donald Trump has been acquitted in his Senate trial on both of the articles of impeachment he faced, ending the threat that he would be removed from office and concluding the impeachment process. Voting largely along party lines, the senators found Trump not guilty of the first article of impeachment for [1], by a 52-48 tally, and not guilty of the second article of impeachment, obstruction of Congress, by a 53-47 tally. Trump became the [2] president in US history to be impeached by the House of Representatives but acquitted in a Senate trial. A two-thirds majority of 67 senators would have been required to remove him.
Mitt Romney was the only Republican to vote in favor of convicting Trump - and he became the only senator in history to vote to remove a president from his own party in an impeachment trial. Romney voted "guilty" on article 1, for [1], and "not guilty" on article 2, for obstruction of Congress. [3], who presided at the two-week trial, thanked the senators for their patience "as I attempted to carry out ill-defined responsibilities in an unfamiliar setting". "You have been generous hosts, and I look forward to seeing you again under happier circumstances," [3] said as the trial concluded.

Who among the following presided over the impeachment process of President Donald Trump in the Senate whose name has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

Solution:

Chief Justice John Roberts, who presided at the two-week trial, thanked the senators for their patience "as I attempted to carry out ill-defined responsibilities in an unfamiliar setting".

QUESTION: 41

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of [1]. The citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice. The bonds are similar to bank notes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are free of interest. An individual or party will be allowed to purchase these bonds digitally or through cheque.
The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill.
On [2] Narendra Modi-led NDA government notified the Electoral Bond Scheme.
Using electoral bonds is quite simple. The electoral bonds are available in denominations from [3]. These will be available at some branches of [1]. A donor with a KYCcompliant account can purchase the bonds and can then donate them to the party or individual of their choice. Now, the receiver can encash the bonds through the party's verified account. The electoral bond will be valid only for [4] days.
Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and has secured at least [5] cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds. The party will be allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account.

An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of [1]. Which of the following banks has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

Solution:

An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of State Bank of India. The citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice.

QUESTION: 42

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of [1]. The citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice. The bonds are similar to bank notes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are free of interest. An individual or party will be allowed to purchase these bonds digitally or through cheque.
The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill.
On [2] Narendra Modi-led NDA government notified the Electoral Bond Scheme.
Using electoral bonds is quite simple. The electoral bonds are available in denominations from [3]. These will be available at some branches of [1]. A donor with a KYCcompliant account can purchase the bonds and can then donate them to the party or individual of their choice. Now, the receiver can encash the bonds through the party's verified account. The electoral bond will be valid only for [4] days.
Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and has secured at least [5] cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds. The party will be allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account.

The electoral bonds were introduced with effect from [2] . Which of the following years has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

Solution:

The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill (2017). On January 29, 2018 the Narendra Modi-led NDA government notified the Electoral Bond Scheme 2018.

QUESTION: 43

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of [1]. The citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice. The bonds are similar to bank notes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are free of interest. An individual or party will be allowed to purchase these bonds digitally or through cheque.
The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill.
On [2] Narendra Modi-led NDA government notified the Electoral Bond Scheme.
Using electoral bonds is quite simple. The electoral bonds are available in denominations from [3]. These will be available at some branches of [1]. A donor with a KYCcompliant account can purchase the bonds and can then donate them to the party or individual of their choice. Now, the receiver can encash the bonds through the party's verified account. The electoral bond will be valid only for [4] days.
Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and has secured at least [5] cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds. The party will be allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account.

The electoral bonds are available in denominations from Rs [3]. What is the range of electoral bonds which has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

Solution:

The electoral bonds are available in denominations from Rs 1,000 to Rs 1 crore.

QUESTION: 44

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of [1]. The citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice. The bonds are similar to bank notes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are free of interest. An individual or party will be allowed to purchase these bonds digitally or through cheque.
The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill.
On [2] Narendra Modi-led NDA government notified the Electoral Bond Scheme.
Using electoral bonds is quite simple. The electoral bonds are available in denominations from [3]. These will be available at some branches of [1]. A donor with a KYCcompliant account can purchase the bonds and can then donate them to the party or individual of their choice. Now, the receiver can encash the bonds through the party's verified account. The electoral bond will be valid only for [4] days.
Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and has secured at least [5] cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds. The party will be allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account.

The electoral bond will be valid only for [4] days. Which of the following has been redacted with [4] in the passage above?

Solution:

Using electoral bonds is quite simple. The bonds will be issued in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 100,000 and Rs 1 crore (the range of a bond is between Rs 1,000 to Rs 1 crore). These will be available at some branches of SBI. A donor with a KYC-compliant account can purchase the bonds and can then donate them to the party or individual of their choice. Now, the receiver can encash the bonds through the party's verified account. The electoral bond will be valid only for fifteen days.

QUESTION: 45

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of [1]. The citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice. The bonds are similar to bank notes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are free of interest. An individual or party will be allowed to purchase these bonds digitally or through cheque.
The electoral bonds were introduced with the Finance Bill.
On [2] Narendra Modi-led NDA government notified the Electoral Bond Scheme.
Using electoral bonds is quite simple. The electoral bonds are available in denominations from [3]. These will be available at some branches of [1]. A donor with a KYCcompliant account can purchase the bonds and can then donate them to the party or individual of their choice. Now, the receiver can encash the bonds through the party's verified account. The electoral bond will be valid only for [4] days.
Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and has secured at least [5] cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds. The party will be allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account.

Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 and has secured at least [5] per cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds. Which of the following has been redacted with [5] in the passage above?

Solution:

Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and has secured at least one per cent of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive electoral bonds. The party will be allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this account.

QUESTION: 46

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
The 15th Finance Commission is a constitutional body formed by the President of India under Article [1] of the Constitution on November 27, 2017 to give suggestions on centre-state financial relations. The 15th Finance Commission headed by [2] was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the 2021-26 period will be submitted by October 30, 2020.
The share of states in the centre's taxes is recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to [3] % for 2020-21. The decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government. This has been necessitated after Article 370 of the Constitution was amended. Following this the State of Jammu & Kashmir was bifurcated into two Union Territories, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. Since the Finance Commission's recommendation on devolution is meant only for the States and as Jammu & Kashmir ceased to be a State, there was a need to change the terms of reference. and Kashmir in its Terms of Reference and make award for the successor Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir."
Normally, grants for a Union Territory are provided by the [4].
All these necessitated for extension of the term and submission of interim report first and final one later. The last time an interim report was submitted was during the term of [5] Finance Commission, when the new States of Jharkhand, Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh were created.

The 15th Finance Commission is formed under Article [1] of the Constitution on November 27, 2017 to give suggestions on centre-state financial relations. Which of the following articles has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

Solution:

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body formed by the President of India under Article 280 of the Constitution on November 27, 2017 to give suggestions on centre-state financial relations.

QUESTION: 47

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
The 15th Finance Commission is a constitutional body formed by the President of India under Article [1] of the Constitution on November 27, 2017 to give suggestions on centre-state financial relations. The 15th Finance Commission headed by [2] was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the 2021-26 period will be submitted by October 30, 2020.
The share of states in the centre's taxes is recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to [3] % for 2020-21. The decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government. This has been necessitated after Article 370 of the Constitution was amended. Following this the State of Jammu & Kashmir was bifurcated into two Union Territories, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. Since the Finance Commission's recommendation on devolution is meant only for the States and as Jammu & Kashmir ceased to be a State, there was a need to change the terms of reference. and Kashmir in its Terms of Reference and make award for the successor Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir."
Normally, grants for a Union Territory are provided by the [4].
All these necessitated for extension of the term and submission of interim report first and final one later. The last time an interim report was submitted was during the term of [5] Finance Commission, when the new States of Jharkhand, Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh were created.

Who is the Chairman of the 1 5th Finance Commission whose name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

Solution:

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body formed by the President of India under Article 280 of the Constitution on November 27, 2017 to give suggestions on centre-state financial relations. The 15th Finance Commission headed by N K Singh was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the 2021-26 period will be submitted by October 30, 2020.

QUESTION: 48

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
The 15th Finance Commission is a constitutional body formed by the President of India under Article [1] of the Constitution on November 27, 2017 to give suggestions on centre-state financial relations. The 15th Finance Commission headed by [2] was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the 2021-26 period will be submitted by October 30, 2020.
The share of states in the centre's taxes is recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to [3] % for 2020-21. The decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government. This has been necessitated after Article 370 of the Constitution was amended. Following this the State of Jammu & Kashmir was bifurcated into two Union Territories, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. Since the Finance Commission's recommendation on devolution is meant only for the States and as Jammu & Kashmir ceased to be a State, there was a need to change the terms of reference. and Kashmir in its Terms of Reference and make award for the successor Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir."
Normally, grants for a Union Territory are provided by the [4].
All these necessitated for extension of the term and submission of interim report first and final one later. The last time an interim report was submitted was during the term of [5] Finance Commission, when the new States of Jharkhand, Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh were created.

According to the 15th Finance Commission, the share of states in the centre's taxes is recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to [3] % for 2020-21. Which of the following has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

Solution:

The share of states in the centre's taxes is recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to 41 % for 2020-21. The 1 % decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government.

QUESTION: 49

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
The 15th Finance Commission is a constitutional body formed by the President of India under Article [1] of the Constitution on November 27, 2017 to give suggestions on centre-state financial relations. The 15th Finance Commission headed by [2] was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the 2021-26 period will be submitted by October 30, 2020.
The share of states in the centre's taxes is recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to [3] % for 2020-21. The decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government. This has been necessitated after Article 370 of the Constitution was amended. Following this the State of Jammu & Kashmir was bifurcated into two Union Territories, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. Since the Finance Commission's recommendation on devolution is meant only for the States and as Jammu & Kashmir ceased to be a State, there was a need to change the terms of reference. and Kashmir in its Terms of Reference and make award for the successor Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir."
Normally, grants for a Union Territory are provided by the [4].
All these necessitated for extension of the term and submission of interim report first and final one later. The last time an interim report was submitted was during the term of [5] Finance Commission, when the new States of Jharkhand, Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh were created.

The last time an interim report submitted was during the term of [5] Finance Commission, when the new States of Jharkhand, Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh were created.
Which of the following finance commissions has been redacted with [5] in the passage above?

Solution:

The last time an interim report was submitted was during the term of 11th Finance Commission (2000-05), when the new States of Jharkhand, Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh were created.

QUESTION: 50

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
The 15th Finance Commission is a constitutional body formed by the President of India under Article [1] of the Constitution on November 27, 2017 to give suggestions on centre-state financial relations. The 15th Finance Commission headed by [2] was required to submit two reports. The first report, consisting of recommendations for the financial year 2020-21, was tabled in Parliament on February 1, 2020. The final report with recommendations for the 2021-26 period will be submitted by October 30, 2020.
The share of states in the centre's taxes is recommended to be decreased from 42% during the 2015-20 period to [3] % for 2020-21. The decrease is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the central government. This has been necessitated after Article 370 of the Constitution was amended. Following this the State of Jammu & Kashmir was bifurcated into two Union Territories, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh. Since the Finance Commission's recommendation on devolution is meant only for the States and as Jammu & Kashmir ceased to be a State, there was a need to change the terms of reference. and Kashmir in its Terms of Reference and make award for the successor Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir."
Normally, grants for a Union Territory are provided by the [4].
All these necessitated for extension of the term and submission of interim report first and final one later. The last time an interim report was submitted was during the term of [5] Finance Commission, when the new States of Jharkhand, Uttarakhand and Chhattisgarh were created.

The Terms of Reference (ToR) in the 15th Finance Commission has become controversial because the devolution of central resources to states hinges on:

Solution:

The 15th Finance Commission (FC) has led to a storm of protest on its proposal to change the base year of computation from 1971 to 2011; as the devolution of central resources to states hinges on population, southern states (Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and the Union territory of Puducherry) that have controlled their population will get a smaller share of the pie if the population dispensation is applied. Hence, they have been crying foul. The Finance Commission determines the devolution of allocation of state funds between the Centre and states.

QUESTION: 51

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Time magazine has chosen [1], a Swedish climate crisis activist, as person of the year 2019. [1 ]is the youngest individual to be recognized. She gained international attention for excoriating world leaders for their inaction in the climate crisis in a viral speech she made at the UN Climate Action Summit in September, 2019. "[1 ] has become the biggest voice on the biggest issue facing the planet-and the avatar of a broader generational shift in our culture that is playing out everywhere from the campuses of Hong Kong to the halls of Congress in Washington," Time editor-in-chief [2] wrote.
Each year, the magazine features the most influential person, group, movement or idea of the previous 12 months. In 2018, it was "The Guardians", a group of journalists who have been targeted or assaulted for their work. In 2017, it was "The Silence Breakers," the group of people who came forward to report sexual misconduct. This marks the third year in a row in which Time has named a person who was not a world leader. President Donald Trump was Person of the Year in 2016 and Germany Chancellor Angela Merkel was recognized the year before that. The magazine has also featured unpopular figures like Adolf Hitler, Ayatollah Khomeini and Joseph Stalin as Person of the Year.
Time also announced winners of four new categories. Athlete of the year is the US women's soccer team, entertainer of the year is Lizzo and business person of the year is Disney CEO [3]. After recognizing "The Guardians," 2018, Time created a new category to recognize a different group of "Guardians" -those who took to the stand and risked their careers in the defense of the rule of law. The public servants in this category include the whistleblower, Marie Yovanovitch, Ambassador William Taylor, Fiona Hill, Lieut. Colonel Alexander Vindman and Mark Sandy.

Time magazine has chosen [1] as person of the year 2019. Who among the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

Solution:

Time magazine has chosen Greta Thunberg, a Swedish climate crisis activist, as person of the year 2019. Thunberg, 16, is the youngest individual to be recognized. She gained international attention for excoriating world leaders for their inaction in the climate crisis in a viral speech she made at the UN Climate Action Summit in September.

QUESTION: 52

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Time magazine has chosen [1], a Swedish climate crisis activist, as person of the year 2019. [1 ]is the youngest individual to be recognized. She gained international attention for excoriating world leaders for their inaction in the climate crisis in a viral speech she made at the UN Climate Action Summit in September, 2019. "[1 ] has become the biggest voice on the biggest issue facing the planet-and the avatar of a broader generational shift in our culture that is playing out everywhere from the campuses of Hong Kong to the halls of Congress in Washington," Time editor-in-chief [2] wrote.
Each year, the magazine features the most influential person, group, movement or idea of the previous 12 months. In 2018, it was "The Guardians", a group of journalists who have been targeted or assaulted for their work. In 2017, it was "The Silence Breakers," the group of people who came forward to report sexual misconduct. This marks the third year in a row in which Time has named a person who was not a world leader. President Donald Trump was Person of the Year in 2016 and Germany Chancellor Angela Merkel was recognized the year before that. The magazine has also featured unpopular figures like Adolf Hitler, Ayatollah Khomeini and Joseph Stalin as Person of the Year.
Time also announced winners of four new categories. Athlete of the year is the US women's soccer team, entertainer of the year is Lizzo and business person of the year is Disney CEO [3]. After recognizing "The Guardians," 2018, Time created a new category to recognize a different group of "Guardians" -those who took to the stand and risked their careers in the defense of the rule of law. The public servants in this category include the whistleblower, Marie Yovanovitch, Ambassador William Taylor, Fiona Hill, Lieut. Colonel Alexander Vindman and Mark Sandy.

Who is the only Indian to be named TIME Person of the Year?

Solution:

Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi is the only Indian to be named TIME Person of the Year, having been given the honour in 1930. The magazine described him as 'Saint Gandhi' and later named him as one of the 25 Political Icons of all time.

QUESTION: 53

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Time magazine has chosen [1], a Swedish climate crisis activist, as person of the year 2019. [1 ]is the youngest individual to be recognized. She gained international attention for excoriating world leaders for their inaction in the climate crisis in a viral speech she made at the UN Climate Action Summit in September, 2019. "[1 ] has become the biggest voice on the biggest issue facing the planet-and the avatar of a broader generational shift in our culture that is playing out everywhere from the campuses of Hong Kong to the halls of Congress in Washington," Time editor-in-chief [2] wrote.
Each year, the magazine features the most influential person, group, movement or idea of the previous 12 months. In 2018, it was "The Guardians", a group of journalists who have been targeted or assaulted for their work. In 2017, it was "The Silence Breakers," the group of people who came forward to report sexual misconduct. This marks the third year in a row in which Time has named a person who was not a world leader. President Donald Trump was Person of the Year in 2016 and Germany Chancellor Angela Merkel was recognized the year before that. The magazine has also featured unpopular figures like Adolf Hitler, Ayatollah Khomeini and Joseph Stalin as Person of the Year.
Time also announced winners of four new categories. Athlete of the year is the US women's soccer team, entertainer of the year is Lizzo and business person of the year is Disney CEO [3]. After recognizing "The Guardians," 2018, Time created a new category to recognize a different group of "Guardians" -those who took to the stand and risked their careers in the defense of the rule of law. The public servants in this category include the whistleblower, Marie Yovanovitch, Ambassador William Taylor, Fiona Hill, Lieut. Colonel Alexander Vindman and Mark Sandy.

Who is the current editor in Chief of the TIME whose name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

Solution:

Time is an American weekly news magazine and news website published in New York City. It was founded in 1923 and for many years it was run by its influential co-founder Henry Luce. Edward Felsenthal is an American journalist. He currently serves as the editor in chief of Time, a weekly news magazine.

QUESTION: 54

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Time magazine has chosen [1], a Swedish climate crisis activist, as person of the year 2019. [1 ]is the youngest individual to be recognized. She gained international attention for excoriating world leaders for their inaction in the climate crisis in a viral speech she made at the UN Climate Action Summit in September, 2019. "[1 ] has become the biggest voice on the biggest issue facing the planet-and the avatar of a broader generational shift in our culture that is playing out everywhere from the campuses of Hong Kong to the halls of Congress in Washington," Time editor-in-chief [2] wrote.
Each year, the magazine features the most influential person, group, movement or idea of the previous 12 months. In 2018, it was "The Guardians", a group of journalists who have been targeted or assaulted for their work. In 2017, it was "The Silence Breakers," the group of people who came forward to report sexual misconduct. This marks the third year in a row in which Time has named a person who was not a world leader. President Donald Trump was Person of the Year in 2016 and Germany Chancellor Angela Merkel was recognized the year before that. The magazine has also featured unpopular figures like Adolf Hitler, Ayatollah Khomeini and Joseph Stalin as Person of the Year.
Time also announced winners of four new categories. Athlete of the year is the US women's soccer team, entertainer of the year is Lizzo and business person of the year is Disney CEO [3]. After recognizing "The Guardians," 2018, Time created a new category to recognize a different group of "Guardians" -those who took to the stand and risked their careers in the defense of the rule of law. The public servants in this category include the whistleblower, Marie Yovanovitch, Ambassador William Taylor, Fiona Hill, Lieut. Colonel Alexander Vindman and Mark Sandy.

Time also announced winners of four new categories in 2019. Who has been named as the business person of the year whose name has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

Solution:

Time also announced winners of four new categories.
Athlete of the year is the US women's soccer team, entertainer of the year is Lizzo and business person of the year is Disney CEO Bob Iger.

QUESTION: 55

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Time magazine has chosen [1], a Swedish climate crisis activist, as person of the year 2019. [1 ]is the youngest individual to be recognized. She gained international attention for excoriating world leaders for their inaction in the climate crisis in a viral speech she made at the UN Climate Action Summit in September, 2019. "[1 ] has become the biggest voice on the biggest issue facing the planet-and the avatar of a broader generational shift in our culture that is playing out everywhere from the campuses of Hong Kong to the halls of Congress in Washington," Time editor-in-chief [2] wrote.
Each year, the magazine features the most influential person, group, movement or idea of the previous 12 months. In 2018, it was "The Guardians", a group of journalists who have been targeted or assaulted for their work. In 2017, it was "The Silence Breakers," the group of people who came forward to report sexual misconduct. This marks the third year in a row in which Time has named a person who was not a world leader. President Donald Trump was Person of the Year in 2016 and Germany Chancellor Angela Merkel was recognized the year before that. The magazine has also featured unpopular figures like Adolf Hitler, Ayatollah Khomeini and Joseph Stalin as Person of the Year.
Time also announced winners of four new categories. Athlete of the year is the US women's soccer team, entertainer of the year is Lizzo and business person of the year is Disney CEO [3]. After recognizing "The Guardians," 2018, Time created a new category to recognize a different group of "Guardians" -those who took to the stand and risked their careers in the defense of the rule of law. The public servants in this category include the whistleblower, Marie Yovanovitch, Ambassador William Taylor, Fiona Hill, Lieut. Colonel Alexander Vindman and Mark Sandy.

Time is an American weekly news magazine and news website published in New York City. It was founded in:

Solution:

Time is an American weekly news magazine and news website published in New York City. It was founded in 1923 and for many years it was run by its influential co-founder Henry Luce. Edward Felsenthal is an American journalist. He currently serves as the editor in chief of Time, a weekly news magazine.

QUESTION: 56

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Also, the Section 83 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reads: "On the appointed day, the President shall make a reference to the Fifteenth Finance Commission to include Union territory of Jammu [1] is an annual race held in karnataka where people sprint 142m through paddy fields with buffalo. During the race, the racers try to bring the buffaloes under control by holding their reins tight and whipping them, making it amply clear that the animal plays an equally important role in achieving the timing.
Traditionally, it is sponsored by local [2] landlords and households in the coastal districts of Dakshina Kannada and Udupi. [3] , a [1] jockey from Karnataka, is all set to get an opportunity to meet 'top' Sports Authority of India coaches after his record-breaking run at a [1] racing event earlier this month. [3] shot to fame after it came to light that the 28-year- old man had broken the record for the fastest run in [1], a sport from Karnataka where farmers sprint with a pair of buffaloes on slush tracks. [3] reportedly completed the 142m race in just 13.42s, setting a new record in the traditional sport of Karnataka. [3], who is a part-time construction worker, was soon compared to sprint great [4] on social media. A section of users calculated that [3] would have completed a 100m race in 9.55s, which is 0.03s faster than [4]'s 100m world record.

What is the name of the annual race held in Karnataka where people sprint 142m through paddy fields with buffalo whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

Solution:

Kambala is an annual race held in Karnataka where people sprint 142m through paddy fields with buffalo.
During the race, the racers try to bring the buffaloes under control by holding their reins tight and whipping them, making it amply clear that the animal plays an equally important role in achieving the timing.

QUESTION: 57

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Also, the Section 83 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reads: "On the appointed day, the President shall make a reference to the Fifteenth Finance Commission to include Union territory of Jammu [1] is an annual race held in karnataka where people sprint 142m through paddy fields with buffalo. During the race, the racers try to bring the buffaloes under control by holding their reins tight and whipping them, making it amply clear that the animal plays an equally important role in achieving the timing.
Traditionally, it is sponsored by local [2] landlords and households in the coastal districts of Dakshina Kannada and Udupi. [3] , a [1] jockey from Karnataka, is all set to get an opportunity to meet 'top' Sports Authority of India coaches after his record-breaking run at a [1] racing event earlier this month. [3] shot to fame after it came to light that the 28-year- old man had broken the record for the fastest run in [1], a sport from Karnataka where farmers sprint with a pair of buffaloes on slush tracks. [3] reportedly completed the 142m race in just 13.42s, setting a new record in the traditional sport of Karnataka. [3], who is a part-time construction worker, was soon compared to sprint great [4] on social media. A section of users calculated that [3] would have completed a 100m race in 9.55s, which is 0.03s faster than [4]'s 100m world record.

Traditionally, [1] is sponsored by local [2] landlords and households in the coastal districts of Dakshina Kannada and Udupi. Who among the following local landlords has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?

Solution:

Kambala is an annual race held in Karnataka where people sprint 142m through paddy fields with buffalo.
During the race, the racers try to bring the buffaloes under control by holding their reins tight and whipping them, making it amply clear that the animal plays an equally important role in achieving the timing.
Traditionally, it is sponsored by local Tuluva landlords and households in the coastal districts of Dakshina Kannada and Udupi.

QUESTION: 58

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Also, the Section 83 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reads: "On the appointed day, the President shall make a reference to the Fifteenth Finance Commission to include Union territory of Jammu [1] is an annual race held in karnataka where people sprint 142m through paddy fields with buffalo. During the race, the racers try to bring the buffaloes under control by holding their reins tight and whipping them, making it amply clear that the animal plays an equally important role in achieving the timing.
Traditionally, it is sponsored by local [2] landlords and households in the coastal districts of Dakshina Kannada and Udupi. [3] , a [1] jockey from Karnataka, is all set to get an opportunity to meet 'top' Sports Authority of India coaches after his record-breaking run at a [1] racing event earlier this month. [3] shot to fame after it came to light that the 28-year- old man had broken the record for the fastest run in [1], a sport from Karnataka where farmers sprint with a pair of buffaloes on slush tracks. [3] reportedly completed the 142m race in just 13.42s, setting a new record in the traditional sport of Karnataka. [3], who is a part-time construction worker, was soon compared to sprint great [4] on social media. A section of users calculated that [3] would have completed a 100m race in 9.55s, which is 0.03s faster than [4]'s 100m world record.

What is the name of the person who had broken the record for the fastest run in [1] whose name has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

Solution:

Srinivas Gowda, a Kambala jockey from Karnataka, is all set to get an opportunity to meet 'top' Sports Authority of India coaches after his record-breaking run at a Kambala racing event earlier this month.
Srinivas Gowda shot to fame after it came to light that the 28-year-old man had broken the record for the fastest run in Kambala, a sport from Karnataka where farmers sprint with a pair of buffaloes on slush tracks.
Srinivas Gowda reportedly completed the 142m race in just 13.42s, setting a new record in the traditional sport of Karnataka.

QUESTION: 59

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Also, the Section 83 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reads: "On the appointed day, the President shall make a reference to the Fifteenth Finance Commission to include Union territory of Jammu [1] is an annual race held in karnataka where people sprint 142m through paddy fields with buffalo. During the race, the racers try to bring the buffaloes under control by holding their reins tight and whipping them, making it amply clear that the animal plays an equally important role in achieving the timing.
Traditionally, it is sponsored by local [2] landlords and households in the coastal districts of Dakshina Kannada and Udupi. [3] , a [1] jockey from Karnataka, is all set to get an opportunity to meet 'top' Sports Authority of India coaches after his record-breaking run at a [1] racing event earlier this month. [3] shot to fame after it came to light that the 28-year- old man had broken the record for the fastest run in [1], a sport from Karnataka where farmers sprint with a pair of buffaloes on slush tracks. [3] reportedly completed the 142m race in just 13.42s, setting a new record in the traditional sport of Karnataka. [3], who is a part-time construction worker, was soon compared to sprint great [4] on social media. A section of users calculated that [3] would have completed a 100m race in 9.55s, which is 0.03s faster than [4]'s 100m world record.

In the passage given above, [3] reportedly completed the 142m race in just 13.42s. A section of users calculated that [3] would have completed a 100m race in 9.55s, which is 0.03s faster than [4]'s 100m world record. Who among the following name has been redacted with [4]?

Solution:

Srinivas Gowda reportedly completed the 142m race in just 13.42s, setting a new record in the traditional sport of Karnataka. Srinivas Gowda, who is a parttime construction worker, was soon compared to sprint great Usain Bolt on social media. A section of users calculated that Srinivas would have completed a 100m race in 9.55s, which is 0.03s faster than Usain Bolt's 100m world record.

QUESTION: 60

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Also, the Section 83 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reads: "On the appointed day, the President shall make a reference to the Fifteenth Finance Commission to include Union territory of Jammu [1] is an annual race held in karnataka where people sprint 142m through paddy fields with buffalo. During the race, the racers try to bring the buffaloes under control by holding their reins tight and whipping them, making it amply clear that the animal plays an equally important role in achieving the timing.
Traditionally, it is sponsored by local [2] landlords and households in the coastal districts of Dakshina Kannada and Udupi. [3] , a [1] jockey from Karnataka, is all set to get an opportunity to meet 'top' Sports Authority of India coaches after his record-breaking run at a [1] racing event earlier this month. [3] shot to fame after it came to light that the 28-year- old man had broken the record for the fastest run in [1], a sport from Karnataka where farmers sprint with a pair of buffaloes on slush tracks. [3] reportedly completed the 142m race in just 13.42s, setting a new record in the traditional sport of Karnataka. [3], who is a part-time construction worker, was soon compared to sprint great [4] on social media. A section of users calculated that [3] would have completed a 100m race in 9.55s, which is 0.03s faster than [4]'s 100m world record.

Who is the current Minister of State (Independent Charge) of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports?

Solution:

Kiren Rijiju is an Indian lawyer and politician from Arunachal Pradesh. A member of the Bharatiya Janata Party, Rijiju is the current Minister of State (Independent Charge) of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and Minister of State in the Ministry of Minority Affairs of India.

QUESTION: 61

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
In November 2019, Supreme Court of India ruled that the office of [1] comes under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court was headed by the then Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, [2] pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The Supreme Court verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging [3] High Court's 2010 order holding that the [1]'s office is a "public authority" and falls under the ambit of the RTI Act. The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person, the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved its verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, ex-Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal, RTI activist, filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an RTI application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

In November 2019, Supreme Court of India ruled that the office of [1] comes under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. Which of the following offices has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

Solution:

The Supreme Court ruled that the office of Chief Justice of India (CJI) comes under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act.

QUESTION: 62

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
In November 2019, Supreme Court of India ruled that the office of [1] comes under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court was headed by the then Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, [2] pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The Supreme Court verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging [3] High Court's 2010 order holding that the [1]'s office is a "public authority" and falls under the ambit of the RTI Act. The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person, the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved its verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, ex-Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal, RTI activist, filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an RTI application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

The members of the five-judge bench of the Supreme Court headed by the then Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi which pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority have been redacted with [2] in the passage above, who among the following was not a member of the verdict?

Solution:

The five-judge bench of the then Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice NV Ramana, Justice DY Chandrachud, Justice Deepak Gupta and Justice Sanjiv Khanna pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.

QUESTION: 63

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
In November 2019, Supreme Court of India ruled that the office of [1] comes under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court was headed by the then Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, [2] pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The Supreme Court verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging [3] High Court's 2010 order holding that the [1]'s office is a "public authority" and falls under the ambit of the RTI Act. The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person, the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved its verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, ex-Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal, RTI activist, filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an RTI application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

The Supreme Court verdict came in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging [3] High Court's 2010 order holding that the [1 ]'s office is a "public authority" and falls under the ambit of the RTI Act. Which of the following has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

Solution:

The Supreme Court comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging Delhi High Court's 2010 order holding that the CJI's office is a "public authority" and falls under the ambit of the RTI Act. The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person, the HC had said in its ruling.

QUESTION: 64

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
In November 2019, Supreme Court of India ruled that the office of [1] comes under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court was headed by the then Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, [2] pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The Supreme Court verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging [3] High Court's 2010 order holding that the [1]'s office is a "public authority" and falls under the ambit of the RTI Act. The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person, the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved its verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, ex-Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal, RTI activist, filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an RTI application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Right to Information (RTI) Act?

Solution:

Right to Information (RTI) is an act of the Parliament of India which sets out the rules and procedures regarding citizens' right to information. It replaced the erstwhile Freedom of Information Act, 2002. Under the provisions of RTI Act, any citizen of India may request information from a "public authority" (a body of Government or "instrumentality of State") which is required to reply expeditiously or within thirty days. In case of matter involving a petitioner's life and liberty, the information has to be provided within 48 hours.
The RTI law was passed by Parliament on 15 June 2005 and came fully into force on 12 October 2005.

QUESTION: 65

Direction: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
In November 2019, Supreme Court of India ruled that the office of [1] comes under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. The five-judge bench of the Supreme Court was headed by the then Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi, [2] pronounced the verdict with a 3:2 majority.
The Supreme Court verdict comes in the matter of a plea filed by Supreme Court Secretary-General challenging [3] High Court's 2010 order holding that the [1]'s office is a "public authority" and falls under the ambit of the RTI Act. The concept of judicial independence is not judge's personal privilege but responsibility cast on the person, the HC had said in its ruling.
In April 2019, the SC bench had reserved its verdict on the appeals. During the hearing, ex-Chief Justice Ranjan Gogoi observed that in the name of transparency, one cannot destroy the institution.
The issue dates back to 2007 when Subhash Chandra Aggarwal, RTI activist, filed a plea in HC seeking details of judges' assets, but the information was denied. In 2009, Agrawal filed an RTI application in the Supreme Court's Central Public Information Officer (CPIO). He had sought details regarding the appointments of three SC judges: justices R.M. Lodha, H.L. Dattu and A.K. Ganguly.

Private bodies are not within the RTI Act's ambit directly. In which of the following cases Central Information Commission reaffirmed that privatised public utility companies fall within the purview of RTI?

Solution:

Private bodies are not within the Act's ambit directly.
In a decision of Sarbjit roy vs Delhi Electricity Regulatory Commission, the Central Information Commission also reaffirmed that privatised public utility companies fall within the purview of RTI. As of 2014, private institutions and NGOs receiving over 95% of their infrastructure funds from the government come under the Act.

QUESTION: 66

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Vicarious liability has been considered by England's highest courts in a flood of cases in recent years and the law has taken another step forward with judgments from the Supreme Court; Originally, the doctrine of vicarious liability was confined to cases where a wrongdoer was employed by a defendant.
It was later recognised that a relationship can give rise to vicarious liability even in the absence of a contract of employment, e.g., where an employer lends his employee to a third party, the third party may be treated as the employer for vicarious liability purposes.
In the Christian Brothers Case, the Court considered the general approach in deciding whether a relationship other than one of employment can give rise to vicarious liability, subject to there being a sufficient connection between that relationship and the tort in question and extended the scope of the doctrine.
That case concerned whether the defendant, an international unincorporated association whose mission was to provide children with a Christian education, was vicariously liable for the sexual abuse of children by members of the institute, otherwise known as brothers, who taught at an approved school. The Supreme Court held that it was.
Lord Phillips stated that: "The relationship that gives rise to vicarious liability is in the vast majority of cases that of employer and employee under a contract of employment. The employer will be vicariously liable when the employee commits a tort in the course of his employment. There is no difficulty in identifying a number of policy reasons that usually make it fair, just and reasonable to impose vicarious liability on the employer when these criteria are satisfied:
1. The employer is more likely to have the means to compensate the victim than the employee and can be expected to have insured against that liability;
2. The tort will have been committed as a result of activity being taken by the employee on behalf of the employer;
3. The employee's activity is likely to be part of the business activity of the employer;
4. The employee will, to a greater or lesser degree, have been under the control of the employer."
He added that: "Where the defendant and tortfeasor are not bound by a contract of employment, but their relationship has the same incidents, that relationship can give rise to vicarious liability on the ground that it's 'akin to that between an employer and an employee."

Which of the following best describes the principle of vicarious liability?

Solution:

Refer to the 3rd point of Lord Phillip's observationThe employee's activity is likely to be part of the business activity of the employer.

QUESTION: 67

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Vicarious liability has been considered by England's highest courts in a flood of cases in recent years and the law has taken another step forward with judgments from the Supreme Court; Originally, the doctrine of vicarious liability was confined to cases where a wrongdoer was employed by a defendant.
It was later recognised that a relationship can give rise to vicarious liability even in the absence of a contract of employment, e.g., where an employer lends his employee to a third party, the third party may be treated as the employer for vicarious liability purposes.
In the Christian Brothers Case, the Court considered the general approach in deciding whether a relationship other than one of employment can give rise to vicarious liability, subject to there being a sufficient connection between that relationship and the tort in question and extended the scope of the doctrine.
That case concerned whether the defendant, an international unincorporated association whose mission was to provide children with a Christian education, was vicariously liable for the sexual abuse of children by members of the institute, otherwise known as brothers, who taught at an approved school. The Supreme Court held that it was.
Lord Phillips stated that: "The relationship that gives rise to vicarious liability is in the vast majority of cases that of employer and employee under a contract of employment. The employer will be vicariously liable when the employee commits a tort in the course of his employment. There is no difficulty in identifying a number of policy reasons that usually make it fair, just and reasonable to impose vicarious liability on the employer when these criteria are satisfied:
1. The employer is more likely to have the means to compensate the victim than the employee and can be expected to have insured against that liability;
2. The tort will have been committed as a result of activity being taken by the employee on behalf of the employer;
3. The employee's activity is likely to be part of the business activity of the employer;
4. The employee will, to a greater or lesser degree, have been under the control of the employer."
He added that: "Where the defendant and tortfeasor are not bound by a contract of employment, but their relationship has the same incidents, that relationship can give rise to vicarious liability on the ground that it's 'akin to that between an employer and an employee."

With reference to the above passage which of the following is its most apt assessment?

Solution:

Refer to the 4th paragraph- In the Christian Brothers Case, the Court considered the general approach in deciding whether a relationship other than one of employment can give rise to vicarious liability, subject to there being a sufficient connection between that relationship and the tort in question and extended the scope of the doctrine.

QUESTION: 68

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Vicarious liability has been considered by England's highest courts in a flood of cases in recent years and the law has taken another step forward with judgments from the Supreme Court; Originally, the doctrine of vicarious liability was confined to cases where a wrongdoer was employed by a defendant.
It was later recognised that a relationship can give rise to vicarious liability even in the absence of a contract of employment, e.g., where an employer lends his employee to a third party, the third party may be treated as the employer for vicarious liability purposes.
In the Christian Brothers Case, the Court considered the general approach in deciding whether a relationship other than one of employment can give rise to vicarious liability, subject to there being a sufficient connection between that relationship and the tort in question and extended the scope of the doctrine.
That case concerned whether the defendant, an international unincorporated association whose mission was to provide children with a Christian education, was vicariously liable for the sexual abuse of children by members of the institute, otherwise known as brothers, who taught at an approved school. The Supreme Court held that it was.
Lord Phillips stated that: "The relationship that gives rise to vicarious liability is in the vast majority of cases that of employer and employee under a contract of employment. The employer will be vicariously liable when the employee commits a tort in the course of his employment. There is no difficulty in identifying a number of policy reasons that usually make it fair, just and reasonable to impose vicarious liability on the employer when these criteria are satisfied:
1. The employer is more likely to have the means to compensate the victim than the employee and can be expected to have insured against that liability;
2. The tort will have been committed as a result of activity being taken by the employee on behalf of the employer;
3. The employee's activity is likely to be part of the business activity of the employer;
4. The employee will, to a greater or lesser degree, have been under the control of the employer."
He added that: "Where the defendant and tortfeasor are not bound by a contract of employment, but their relationship has the same incidents, that relationship can give rise to vicarious liability on the ground that it's 'akin to that between an employer and an employee."

Which of the following can be reasonably inferred from the passage?

Solution:

This option talks about works where the employee may indulge in a tortious act and he didn't have to work his way unnaturally to commit the wrong. This forms a fundamental part of the doctrine of vicarious liability and is implicit in the passage.

QUESTION: 69

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Vicarious liability has been considered by England's highest courts in a flood of cases in recent years and the law has taken another step forward with judgments from the Supreme Court; Originally, the doctrine of vicarious liability was confined to cases where a wrongdoer was employed by a defendant.
It was later recognised that a relationship can give rise to vicarious liability even in the absence of a contract of employment, e.g., where an employer lends his employee to a third party, the third party may be treated as the employer for vicarious liability purposes.
In the Christian Brothers Case, the Court considered the general approach in deciding whether a relationship other than one of employment can give rise to vicarious liability, subject to there being a sufficient connection between that relationship and the tort in question and extended the scope of the doctrine.
That case concerned whether the defendant, an international unincorporated association whose mission was to provide children with a Christian education, was vicariously liable for the sexual abuse of children by members of the institute, otherwise known as brothers, who taught at an approved school. The Supreme Court held that it was.
Lord Phillips stated that: "The relationship that gives rise to vicarious liability is in the vast majority of cases that of employer and employee under a contract of employment. The employer will be vicariously liable when the employee commits a tort in the course of his employment. There is no difficulty in identifying a number of policy reasons that usually make it fair, just and reasonable to impose vicarious liability on the employer when these criteria are satisfied:
1. The employer is more likely to have the means to compensate the victim than the employee and can be expected to have insured against that liability;
2. The tort will have been committed as a result of activity being taken by the employee on behalf of the employer;
3. The employee's activity is likely to be part of the business activity of the employer;
4. The employee will, to a greater or lesser degree, have been under the control of the employer."
He added that: "Where the defendant and tortfeasor are not bound by a contract of employment, but their relationship has the same incidents, that relationship can give rise to vicarious liability on the ground that it's 'akin to that between an employer and an employee."

X was the driver of Y Z a friend of Y asked him to lend his driver to drop his in laws to the airport. X was asked by Z to go directly come to his house after dropping them. While returning from the airport he fell asleep and ran into a car of the plaintiff. Decide.

Solution:

Refer to the 3rd paragraph- It was later recognised that a relationship can give rise to vicarious liability even in the absence of a contract of employment, e.g., where an employer lends his employee to a third party, the third party may be treated as the employer for vicarious liability purposes.

QUESTION: 70

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Vicarious liability has been considered by England's highest courts in a flood of cases in recent years and the law has taken another step forward with judgments from the Supreme Court; Originally, the doctrine of vicarious liability was confined to cases where a wrongdoer was employed by a defendant.
It was later recognised that a relationship can give rise to vicarious liability even in the absence of a contract of employment, e.g., where an employer lends his employee to a third party, the third party may be treated as the employer for vicarious liability purposes.
In the Christian Brothers Case, the Court considered the general approach in deciding whether a relationship other than one of employment can give rise to vicarious liability, subject to there being a sufficient connection between that relationship and the tort in question and extended the scope of the doctrine.
That case concerned whether the defendant, an international unincorporated association whose mission was to provide children with a Christian education, was vicariously liable for the sexual abuse of children by members of the institute, otherwise known as brothers, who taught at an approved school. The Supreme Court held that it was.
Lord Phillips stated that: "The relationship that gives rise to vicarious liability is in the vast majority of cases that of employer and employee under a contract of employment. The employer will be vicariously liable when the employee commits a tort in the course of his employment. There is no difficulty in identifying a number of policy reasons that usually make it fair, just and reasonable to impose vicarious liability on the employer when these criteria are satisfied:
1. The employer is more likely to have the means to compensate the victim than the employee and can be expected to have insured against that liability;
2. The tort will have been committed as a result of activity being taken by the employee on behalf of the employer;
3. The employee's activity is likely to be part of the business activity of the employer;
4. The employee will, to a greater or lesser degree, have been under the control of the employer."
He added that: "Where the defendant and tortfeasor are not bound by a contract of employment, but their relationship has the same incidents, that relationship can give rise to vicarious liability on the ground that it's 'akin to that between an employer and an employee."

Mrs X worked as the catering manager, where she had day to day charge of the operation of the kitchen. She supervised four members of staff and there were also about 20 prisoners who worked in the kitchen and came under her supervision. While taking delivery of some kitchen supplies, a prisoner attempted to carry two sacks past Mrs Cox, lost his balance, and dropped one of the sacks onto her back, causing her injury. Decide.

Solution:

Option (a) is correct as Mrs X would be liable as the job was assigned to the prisoner by her and she would be vicariously liable for his act.

QUESTION: 71

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Vicarious liability has been considered by England's highest courts in a flood of cases in recent years and the law has taken another step forward with judgments from the Supreme Court; Originally, the doctrine of vicarious liability was confined to cases where a wrongdoer was employed by a defendant.
It was later recognised that a relationship can give rise to vicarious liability even in the absence of a contract of employment, e.g., where an employer lends his employee to a third party, the third party may be treated as the employer for vicarious liability purposes.
In the Christian Brothers Case, the Court considered the general approach in deciding whether a relationship other than one of employment can give rise to vicarious liability, subject to there being a sufficient connection between that relationship and the tort in question and extended the scope of the doctrine.
That case concerned whether the defendant, an international unincorporated association whose mission was to provide children with a Christian education, was vicariously liable for the sexual abuse of children by members of the institute, otherwise known as brothers, who taught at an approved school. The Supreme Court held that it was.
Lord Phillips stated that: "The relationship that gives rise to vicarious liability is in the vast majority of cases that of employer and employee under a contract of employment. The employer will be vicariously liable when the employee commits a tort in the course of his employment. There is no difficulty in identifying a number of policy reasons that usually make it fair, just and reasonable to impose vicarious liability on the employer when these criteria are satisfied:
1. The employer is more likely to have the means to compensate the victim than the employee and can be expected to have insured against that liability;
2. The tort will have been committed as a result of activity being taken by the employee on behalf of the employer;
3. The employee's activity is likely to be part of the business activity of the employer;
4. The employee will, to a greater or lesser degree, have been under the control of the employer."
He added that: "Where the defendant and tortfeasor are not bound by a contract of employment, but their relationship has the same incidents, that relationship can give rise to vicarious liability on the ground that it's 'akin to that between an employer and an employee."

A is a servant in B's house. He is employed exclusively for taking care of B's sick father. His working hours are from 10 am to 8 pm. B works at a company as an insurance agent. Once, when he was sick home, he needed some papers delivered at the office. One day, at 6 pm, B asked A to do him a favour, take his car and deliver the papers to his office. A hits C, a pedestrian on the way to B's office. C sues B for the injury caused to him through A's negligent driving. Will B be vicariously liable?

Solution:

B would not be liable as A was specifically hired for his job as a caretaker and driving the car was neither in connection to nor on the directions of B as A’s employer.

B would not be liable as A was specifically hired for his job as a caretaker and driving the car was neither in connection to nor on the directions of B as A’s employer.

QUESTION: 72

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

There are two significant aspects to the Supreme Court's latest decision on the Speaker as the adjudicating authority under the anti-defection law. The first is that Parliament should replace the Speaker with a "permanent tribunal" or external mechanism to render quick and impartial decisions on questions of defection. Few would disagree with the Court's view that initial fears and doubts about whether Speakers would be impartial had come true. The second is its extraordinary ruling that the reference by another Bench, in 2016, of a key question to a Constitution Bench was itself unnecessary. The question awaiting determination by a larger Bench is whether courts have the power to direct Speakers to decide petitions seeking disqualification within a fixed time frame. Secure in the belief that no court would question the delay in disposal of disqualification matters as long as the matter was pending before a Constitution Bench, Speakers have been wilfully failing to act as per law.
The reference to a larger Bench, in 2016 in S.A. Sampath Kumar vs. Kale Yadaiah was based on the landmark judgment in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) which upheld the validity of the Constitution's Tenth Schedule, or the anti-defection law. This verdict had also made the Speaker's order subject to judicial review on limited grounds. Finding several pending complaints before Speakers, the Bench, in 2016, decided that it was time for an authoritative verdict on whether Speakers can be directed to dispose of defection questions within a time frame. While fixing an outer limit of three months for Speakers to act on disqualification petitions, in the present case, Justice R.F. Nariman given four weeks to the Manipur Assembly Speaker to decide the disqualification question in a legislator's case. He also held that the reference was made on a wrong premise. As "failure to exercise jurisdiction" is a recognised stage at which the court can now intervene, the court has thus opened a window for judicial intervention in cases in which Speakers refuse to act. This augurs well for the enforcement of the law against defection in letter and spirit.

The question whether courts have the power to direct Speakers to decide petitions seeking disqualification within a fixed time frame, based on the passage and author's reasoning:

Solution:

Rationale: This question asks you to identify the author reasoning and the option that align with that reasoning.
Correct Answer is (a) Courts have the power to direct Speakers to decide within a time limit otherwise it would amount failure to exercise jurisdiction. Option (a) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 73

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

There are two significant aspects to the Supreme Court's latest decision on the Speaker as the adjudicating authority under the anti-defection law. The first is that Parliament should replace the Speaker with a "permanent tribunal" or external mechanism to render quick and impartial decisions on questions of defection. Few would disagree with the Court's view that initial fears and doubts about whether Speakers would be impartial had come true. The second is its extraordinary ruling that the reference by another Bench, in 2016, of a key question to a Constitution Bench was itself unnecessary. The question awaiting determination by a larger Bench is whether courts have the power to direct Speakers to decide petitions seeking disqualification within a fixed time frame. Secure in the belief that no court would question the delay in disposal of disqualification matters as long as the matter was pending before a Constitution Bench, Speakers have been wilfully failing to act as per law.
The reference to a larger Bench, in 2016 in S.A. Sampath Kumar vs. Kale Yadaiah was based on the landmark judgment in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) which upheld the validity of the Constitution's Tenth Schedule, or the anti-defection law. This verdict had also made the Speaker's order subject to judicial review on limited grounds. Finding several pending complaints before Speakers, the Bench, in 2016, decided that it was time for an authoritative verdict on whether Speakers can be directed to dispose of defection questions within a time frame. While fixing an outer limit of three months for Speakers to act on disqualification petitions, in the present case, Justice R.F. Nariman given four weeks to the Manipur Assembly Speaker to decide the disqualification question in a legislator's case. He also held that the reference was made on a wrong premise. As "failure to exercise jurisdiction" is a recognised stage at which the court can now intervene, the court has thus opened a window for judicial intervention in cases in which Speakers refuse to act. This augurs well for the enforcement of the law against defection in letter and spirit.

As many as thirteen applications for the disqualification were filed before the Speaker. Since no action was taken on any of these petitions by the Speaker, one writ petition was filed to direct the Speaker to decide his disqualification petition within a reasonable time. Based on the author's reasoning and essence of the passage, is it the right case for court's intervention.

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (c) Courts have the power to direct Speakers to decide within a time limit in case of failure to exercise jurisdiction. Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author. Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 74

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

There are two significant aspects to the Supreme Court's latest decision on the Speaker as the adjudicating authority under the anti-defection law. The first is that Parliament should replace the Speaker with a "permanent tribunal" or external mechanism to render quick and impartial decisions on questions of defection. Few would disagree with the Court's view that initial fears and doubts about whether Speakers would be impartial had come true. The second is its extraordinary ruling that the reference by another Bench, in 2016, of a key question to a Constitution Bench was itself unnecessary. The question awaiting determination by a larger Bench is whether courts have the power to direct Speakers to decide petitions seeking disqualification within a fixed time frame. Secure in the belief that no court would question the delay in disposal of disqualification matters as long as the matter was pending before a Constitution Bench, Speakers have been wilfully failing to act as per law.
The reference to a larger Bench, in 2016 in S.A. Sampath Kumar vs. Kale Yadaiah was based on the landmark judgment in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) which upheld the validity of the Constitution's Tenth Schedule, or the anti-defection law. This verdict had also made the Speaker's order subject to judicial review on limited grounds. Finding several pending complaints before Speakers, the Bench, in 2016, decided that it was time for an authoritative verdict on whether Speakers can be directed to dispose of defection questions within a time frame. While fixing an outer limit of three months for Speakers to act on disqualification petitions, in the present case, Justice R.F. Nariman given four weeks to the Manipur Assembly Speaker to decide the disqualification question in a legislator's case. He also held that the reference was made on a wrong premise. As "failure to exercise jurisdiction" is a recognised stage at which the court can now intervene, the court has thus opened a window for judicial intervention in cases in which Speakers refuse to act. This augurs well for the enforcement of the law against defection in letter and spirit.

Two M.L.A.s had been elected on the ticket of MGP party, but they accompanied the leader of Congress (I) Legislative Party when he met the Governor to show that he had the support of 20 MLAs. On this conduct alone, the Speaker held that they had given up membership of the MGP party and disqualified them for being a member of the House. Does the conduct of speaker in giving the decision expeditiously, consistent with the ruling of the Supreme Court?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (c) It is consistent with the ruling of the Supreme Court since
the non-action by the Speaker would amount to failure in exercising his jurisdiction. Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 75

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

There are two significant aspects to the Supreme Court's latest decision on the Speaker as the adjudicating authority under the anti-defection law. The first is that Parliament should replace the Speaker with a "permanent tribunal" or external mechanism to render quick and impartial decisions on questions of defection. Few would disagree with the Court's view that initial fears and doubts about whether Speakers would be impartial had come true. The second is its extraordinary ruling that the reference by another Bench, in 2016, of a key question to a Constitution Bench was itself unnecessary. The question awaiting determination by a larger Bench is whether courts have the power to direct Speakers to decide petitions seeking disqualification within a fixed time frame. Secure in the belief that no court would question the delay in disposal of disqualification matters as long as the matter was pending before a Constitution Bench, Speakers have been wilfully failing to act as per law.
The reference to a larger Bench, in 2016 in S.A. Sampath Kumar vs. Kale Yadaiah was based on the landmark judgment in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) which upheld the validity of the Constitution's Tenth Schedule, or the anti-defection law. This verdict had also made the Speaker's order subject to judicial review on limited grounds. Finding several pending complaints before Speakers, the Bench, in 2016, decided that it was time for an authoritative verdict on whether Speakers can be directed to dispose of defection questions within a time frame. While fixing an outer limit of three months for Speakers to act on disqualification petitions, in the present case, Justice R.F. Nariman given four weeks to the Manipur Assembly Speaker to decide the disqualification question in a legislator's case. He also held that the reference was made on a wrong premise. As "failure to exercise jurisdiction" is a recognised stage at which the court can now intervene, the court has thus opened a window for judicial intervention in cases in which Speakers refuse to act. This augurs well for the enforcement of the law against defection in letter and spirit.

A person is disqualified if he voluntary gives up his membership of the political party that had set him up as a candidate for the election. Certain number of MLAs had been elected as members of the Legislative Assembly in 1991 as candidates of AIDMK party but they were expelled from the said party on 8th January, 1994. Sometime thereafter, an MLA informed the Speaker that the expelled MLAs had joined MDMK party and, therefore, they should be disqualified from membership of the Assembly. Based on the author's reasoning, essence of the passage and principle of law given, is this the case of voluntary giving up the membership.

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (c) A person is disqualified if he voluntary gives up his membership of the political party that had set him up as a candidate for the election. This is not a case of voluntary giving up the membership since MLAs were expelled from the AIDMK. Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 76

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

There are two significant aspects to the Supreme Court's latest decision on the Speaker as the adjudicating authority under the anti-defection law. The first is that Parliament should replace the Speaker with a "permanent tribunal" or external mechanism to render quick and impartial decisions on questions of defection. Few would disagree with the Court's view that initial fears and doubts about whether Speakers would be impartial had come true. The second is its extraordinary ruling that the reference by another Bench, in 2016, of a key question to a Constitution Bench was itself unnecessary. The question awaiting determination by a larger Bench is whether courts have the power to direct Speakers to decide petitions seeking disqualification within a fixed time frame. Secure in the belief that no court would question the delay in disposal of disqualification matters as long as the matter was pending before a Constitution Bench, Speakers have been wilfully failing to act as per law.
The reference to a larger Bench, in 2016 in S.A. Sampath Kumar vs. Kale Yadaiah was based on the landmark judgment in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) which upheld the validity of the Constitution's Tenth Schedule, or the anti-defection law. This verdict had also made the Speaker's order subject to judicial review on limited grounds. Finding several pending complaints before Speakers, the Bench, in 2016, decided that it was time for an authoritative verdict on whether Speakers can be directed to dispose of defection questions within a time frame. While fixing an outer limit of three months for Speakers to act on disqualification petitions, in the present case, Justice R.F. Nariman given four weeks to the Manipur Assembly Speaker to decide the disqualification question in a legislator's case. He also held that the reference was made on a wrong premise. As "failure to exercise jurisdiction" is a recognised stage at which the court can now intervene, the court has thus opened a window for judicial intervention in cases in which Speakers refuse to act. This augurs well for the enforcement of the law against defection in letter and spirit.

Some MLAs have submitted their resignations to the Speaker. However, the Speaker did not take any call on the resignation of the above persons. Aggrieved by the fact that their resignations were not accepted, and with the impending trust vote being inevitable, most of the above persons approached the Supreme Court by way of a Writ Petition. Based on the author's reasoning and essence of the passage, does the petition deserve to be entertained?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (d) Since the non-action by the Speaker would amount to failure in exercising his jurisdiction. Option (d) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 77

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

There are two significant aspects to the Supreme Court's latest decision on the Speaker as the adjudicating authority under the anti-defection law. The first is that Parliament should replace the Speaker with a "permanent tribunal" or external mechanism to render quick and impartial decisions on questions of defection. Few would disagree with the Court's view that initial fears and doubts about whether Speakers would be impartial had come true. The second is its extraordinary ruling that the reference by another Bench, in 2016, of a key question to a Constitution Bench was itself unnecessary. The question awaiting determination by a larger Bench is whether courts have the power to direct Speakers to decide petitions seeking disqualification within a fixed time frame. Secure in the belief that no court would question the delay in disposal of disqualification matters as long as the matter was pending before a Constitution Bench, Speakers have been wilfully failing to act as per law.
The reference to a larger Bench, in 2016 in S.A. Sampath Kumar vs. Kale Yadaiah was based on the landmark judgment in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) which upheld the validity of the Constitution's Tenth Schedule, or the anti-defection law. This verdict had also made the Speaker's order subject to judicial review on limited grounds. Finding several pending complaints before Speakers, the Bench, in 2016, decided that it was time for an authoritative verdict on whether Speakers can be directed to dispose of defection questions within a time frame. While fixing an outer limit of three months for Speakers to act on disqualification petitions, in the present case, Justice R.F. Nariman given four weeks to the Manipur Assembly Speaker to decide the disqualification question in a legislator's case. He also held that the reference was made on a wrong premise. As "failure to exercise jurisdiction" is a recognised stage at which the court can now intervene, the court has thus opened a window for judicial intervention in cases in which Speakers refuse to act. This augurs well for the enforcement of the law against defection in letter and spirit.

Based on the author's reasoning and essence of the passage, which of the following would be most appropriate.

Solution:

Rationale: This question asks you to identify the author reasoning and the option that align with that reasoning.Correct Answer is (c) Speaker cannot shirk off the responsibility of taking decision in the reasonable time frame otherwise it will invite the court to pass appropriate directions. Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 78

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on Thursday, on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar's government for the military's large-scale excesses of 2017. The court has further emphasised that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar's Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia's suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia's standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.
Rejecting the ICJ's ruling, Myanmar's Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army's action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army.
However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, Thursday's injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar's internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar's return to civilian rule.

Genocide means killing with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group.
Serbia was alleged to have attempted to exterminate the Bosniak (Bosnian Muslim) population of Bosnia and Herzegovina. Based on the author's reasoning in the passage above, decide the guilt of Serbia?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (c) Serbia is guilty since Bosnian Muslim carries an ethnical identity who are subjected to genocide.
Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and definition of genocide.

QUESTION: 79

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on Thursday, on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar's government for the military's large-scale excesses of 2017. The court has further emphasised that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar's Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia's suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia's standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.
Rejecting the ICJ's ruling, Myanmar's Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army's action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army.
However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, Thursday's injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar's internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar's return to civilian rule.

Genocide means killing with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group. The Government of Sri Lanka has indulged in gross violations of human rights against the innocent Tamil Community in the War against Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) in the year 2009, and during such operation, several civilians were killed, tortured and maimed. In such a situation, based only on the author's reasoning in the given passage, would the Government of Sri Lanka be held liable for Genocide?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (c) Government of Sri Lanka be held liable since Tamil Community are ethnical and religious group who are subjected to genocide. Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and definition of genocide.

QUESTION: 80

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on Thursday, on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar's government for the military's large-scale excesses of 2017. The court has further emphasised that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar's Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia's suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia's standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.
Rejecting the ICJ's ruling, Myanmar's Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army's action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army.
However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, Thursday's injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar's internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar's return to civilian rule.

The Armenian Genocide refers to the deliberate and systematic destruction of the Armenian population of the Ottoman Empire during and just after World War I. It was implemented through extensive massacres and deportations, with the deportations consisting of forced marches under conditions designed to lead to the death of the deportees. The total number of resulting deaths is generally held to have been between one and one and a half million. If Armenia brings a suit against Ottoman Empire, based only on the author's reasoning in the given passage, would the International Court entertain the suit?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (a) International Court would entertain the suit since Armenian population is the target of systematic destruction, massacre, deportation etc. Option (a) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and definition of genocide.

QUESTION: 81

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on Thursday, on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar's government for the military's large-scale excesses of 2017. The court has further emphasised that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar's Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia's suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia's standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.
Rejecting the ICJ's ruling, Myanmar's Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army's action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army.
However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, Thursday's injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar's internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar's return to civilian rule.

Genocide means killing with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group.
Simele are stateless people which cannot be put strictly into any national, ethnical, racial or religious group. In the 20th century, the Simele massacre was committed by the armed forces of the Kingdom of Iraq during a campaign which systematically targeted the Assyrians of northern Iraq in August 1933. Is Iraq guilty?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (b) Simele are stateless people which cannot be put strictly into any national, ethnical, racial or religious group. Therefore they cannot be subjected to genocide. Option (b) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and definition of genocide.

QUESTION: 82

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on Thursday, on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar's government for the military's large-scale excesses of 2017. The court has further emphasised that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar's Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia's suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia's standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.
Rejecting the ICJ's ruling, Myanmar's Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army's action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army.
However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, Thursday's injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar's internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar's return to civilian rule.

Sarabjit, an Indian who was attacked in a prison in Pakistan where he spent 22 years after being convicted of terrorism and died in Pakistan. Sarabjit was an Indian national convicted of terrorism and spying by a Pakistani court. Can India bring a claim of genocide against Pakistan?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (b) India cannot bring a claim of genocide since Sarabjit died being charged of terrorism and for not being a part of any group. Option (b) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above and definition of genocide.

QUESTION: 83

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on Thursday, on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar's government for the military's large-scale excesses of 2017. The court has further emphasised that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar's Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia's suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia's standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.
Rejecting the ICJ's ruling, Myanmar's Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army's action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army.
However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, Thursday's injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar's internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar's return to civilian rule.

An act which causes death and is done with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such injury as is reasonably likely to lead to death, amounts to murder. Culpable homicide is not murder if it is committed without premeditation in a sudden fight in the heat of passion. A fight breaks out between fans of Calcutta Club Riders (CCR) and Punjab Maharajas Tigers (PMT) to decide which team is the second last in the tournament. A CCR fan smashes a bottle of beer on to a PMT fan's face. The PMT fan, bleeding, takes the broken bottle and stabs the CCR fan, thereby killing him.
What offence if any has been committed?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (c) The PMT fan killed in the heat of the sudden quarrel.
He was no longer defending himself.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 84

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography,
controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.
Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.
Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography. Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-to- end encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Under the POCSO Act, 2012, school management should be responsible for safety of children within schools and any other programmes with which the school is associated. A high-school girl, incapacitated by alcohol, was publicly and repeatedly sexually assaulted by her peers in the school, several of whom documented the acts on social media. Based on the author's reasoning and the mandate of the law in the passage above, choose the most appropriate option.

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (b) Option (b) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author and information given in the passage.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 85

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography,
controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.
Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.
Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography. Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-to- end encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Inspite of many penal laws and the recent POSCO Act, 2012 prescribing severe punishment for crimes against children, the number of such cases has increased.
There are a few of the cases of abuse of children, ranging from 11 months to 10 years, reported in the Media. Based on the author's argument, which is the most plausible cause behind rising crimes against children?
1. Collective failure of technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiative.
2. Lack of a broader definition of child pornography.
3. Non-cooperation of Internet Service Provider with Law enforcement agencies in providing decryption keys.
4. Existence of inefficient Police Administration
Choose the most appropriate choices.

Solution:

Rationale: This question asks you to identify the author reasoning and the option that align with that reasoning.
Correct Answer is (d) Option (d) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author and information given in the passage.
Incorrect Answers
Existence of inefficient Police Administration is nowhere expressly mentioned in the passage or can be inferred.

QUESTION: 86

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography,
controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.
Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.
Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography. Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-to- end encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

A man is said to commit "rape" who has sexual intercourse with woman against her will. Lax was madly in love with Shi. Shi loved Joy. Joy loved Aparna and Aparna loved Lax. Lax confessed his love to Shi but she rejected with disdain. Lax couldn't bear this. He decided to teach Shi a lesson. In order to take revenge he kidnapped her took her to a secluded place and disrobed her entirely. He video-taped the entire act in his camera and said he would put it on internet. Shi apologizes and promises to marry him if he lets her go.
Lax declines and puts the clip on internet. Decide.

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (b) Option (b) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author. Lax is not guilty of rape as there was no sexual intercourse. He shall be liable under other laws / provisions but not rape.
Incorrect Answers Choice (a), Choice (c) and Choice (d) - Given options are opposite to the law of rape.

QUESTION: 87

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography,
controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.
Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.
Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography. Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-to- end encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Union Government shall be empowered through its designated authority to block and/or prohibit all websites/intermediaries that carry child sexual abuse material. In such a situation, according to the author, should the Government be empowered?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (c) Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. 
Option (a) is irrelevant, since it does not even reflect the idea of the passage. 
Option (b) cannot be the correct answer, since it is against basic argument protecting the child from sexual abuse.
Option (d) cannot be the correct answer, since it delays the swiftness in conferring power in the interest of children.

QUESTION: 88

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography,
controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.
Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.
Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography. Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-to- end encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

A complaint was lodged with the Inspector of Police alleging that her daughter studying in 7th standard and other girl children were sexually abused by the Headmaster of the school. During enquiry it came to light that in the washrooms CCTV was installed. Based on the author's reasoning in the passage above, does the aforesaid case deserves judicial intervention?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation. You will have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices. Correct Answer is (c) Option (c) is the most appropriate choice consistent with reasoning of the author.
Incorrect Answers
None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. 
Option (a) is irrelevant, since it does not even reflect the idea of the passage. 
Option (b) cannot be the correct answer, since it is against the notion that Judiciary should operate in a limited sphere. 
Option (d) cannot be the correct answer, since this is an extreme case of judicial nonintervention.

QUESTION: 89

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Expressing concern over the seriousness of the prevalence of the horrific social evil of child pornography, the Jairam Ramesh Committee has recommended important amendments to the Protection of Children From Sexual Offences Act, 2012 and the Information Technology Act, 2000 besides technological, institutional, social and educational measures and state level initiatives to address the alarming issue of pornography on social media and its effects on children and the society as a whole. The 40 recommendations made by the Adhoc Committee relate to adoption of a broader definition of child pornography,
controlling access for children to such content, containing generation and dissemination of Child Sexual Abuse Material (CSAM), making accountable the Internet Service Providers and online platforms for denying access to children and removing such obscene content from online sites besides monitoring, detection and removal of content, preventing under-age use of such content, enabling parents for early detection of accessing such content by children, enabling effective action by the governments and authorized agencies to take necessary preventive and penal measures etc.
Noting that the purveyors of child pornography seem always to be one step ahead of the regulators, the Committee stressed on the need for implementation of its recommendations as an integrated package of measures and not piecemeal to have any value and impact. The Committee urged the Prime Minister to take up the subject of child pornography and the measures required to combat it in one of his forthcoming 'Man Ki Baat' broadcast besides taking the lead in building up a global political alliance to combat child pornography on social media like the International Solar Alliance initiative. The Committee has broadly sought to address two main issues viz., access of children to pornographic material on social media and circulation of pornographic material on social media in which children are abused.
Currently, neither Section 67 of the IT Act nor Section 293 of the Indian Penal Code define child pornography. Its definition derived from what constitutes pornography, which is defined as "any material which is lascivious or appeals to the prurient interests or if its effect is such as to tend to deprave or corrupt the minds of those who are likely to see, read and hear the same." Therefore, Law enforcement agencies should be able to break end-to- end encryption to hunt down distributors of child pornography online, Committee has urged as the nation looks to regulate social media.

Heinous crime alleged to have been committed by the offender is to be dealt with an iron hand. The victim girl, aged about 15 years, was alleged to have subjected to continuous sexual assault and video graphed for more than three years by no one else than her own father.
Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on the punishment to be awarded to father?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (b) Option (b) follows from the passage. Therefore option (b) is the most logical explanation as it calls for punishing heinous crime with iron hand.
Incorrect Answers None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.

QUESTION: 90

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Nuisance (from archaic nocence, through Fr. noisance, nuisance, from Lat. nocere, "to hurt") is a common law tort. It means that which causes offence, annoyance, trouble or injury. A nuisance can be either public (also "common") or private. A public nuisance was defined by English scholar Sir J. F. Stephen as, "an act not warranted by law, or an omission to discharge a legal duty, which act or omission obstructs or causes inconvenience or damage to the public in the exercise of rights common to all Her Majesty's subjects".
Private nuisance is the interference with the right of specific people. Nuisance is one of the oldest causes of action known to the common law, with cases framed in nuisance going back almost to the beginning of recorded time. Under the common law, persons in possession of real property (land owners, lease holders etc.) are entitled to the quiet enjoyment of their lands. However this doesn't include visitors or those who aren't considered to have an interest in the land. If a neighbour interferes with that quiet enjoyment, either by creating smells, sounds, pollution or any other hazard that extends past the boundaries of the property, the affected party may make a claim in nuisance.
The boundaries of the tort are potentially unclear, due to the public/private nuisance divide, and existence of the rule in Rylands v Fletcher. Writers such as John Murphy at Lancaster University have popularised the idea that Rylands forms a separate, though related, tort. This is still an issue for debate, and is rejected by others (the primary distinction in Rylands concerns 'escapes onto land', and so it may be argued that the only difference is the nature of the nuisance, not the nature of the civil wrong.) In summation, Nuisance means an unlawful interference with a person's enjoyment of property. Property right in the land is necessary for an action in Private nuisance. Private nuisance is an obstruction to the right of private parties. Public nuisance is an obstruction to the right of public in general.

Ms.Malone lived in a house belonging to her husband's employer. Ms.Malone's husband was a tenant, and she had a license to live at the property. Whilst using the lavatory, the toilet cistern was dislodged by vibrations caused by the next-door neighbour's electricity generator, which fell on her causing her injuries. She sued her neighbour for nuisance. Decide.

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (b) The claimant could not bring the suit because nuisance required the claimant to have an ‘interest’ in the land subjected to the nuisance. As her husband was only a tenant of the property, he did not have an ‘interest’ in the land, and as such could not sue in nuisance. The claimant herself could not sue in nuisance because she was only a licensee and as such could not have an 'interest' in the land affected by the alleged nuisance and so had no cause of action in this case.

QUESTION: 91

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Nuisance (from archaic nocence, through Fr. noisance, nuisance, from Lat. nocere, "to hurt") is a common law tort. It means that which causes offence, annoyance, trouble or injury. A nuisance can be either public (also "common") or private. A public nuisance was defined by English scholar Sir J. F. Stephen as, "an act not warranted by law, or an omission to discharge a legal duty, which act or omission obstructs or causes inconvenience or damage to the public in the exercise of rights common to all Her Majesty's subjects".
Private nuisance is the interference with the right of specific people. Nuisance is one of the oldest causes of action known to the common law, with cases framed in nuisance going back almost to the beginning of recorded time. Under the common law, persons in possession of real property (land owners, lease holders etc.) are entitled to the quiet enjoyment of their lands. However this doesn't include visitors or those who aren't considered to have an interest in the land. If a neighbour interferes with that quiet enjoyment, either by creating smells, sounds, pollution or any other hazard that extends past the boundaries of the property, the affected party may make a claim in nuisance.
The boundaries of the tort are potentially unclear, due to the public/private nuisance divide, and existence of the rule in Rylands v Fletcher. Writers such as John Murphy at Lancaster University have popularised the idea that Rylands forms a separate, though related, tort. This is still an issue for debate, and is rejected by others (the primary distinction in Rylands concerns 'escapes onto land', and so it may be argued that the only difference is the nature of the nuisance, not the nature of the civil wrong.) In summation, Nuisance means an unlawful interference with a person's enjoyment of property. Property right in the land is necessary for an action in Private nuisance. Private nuisance is an obstruction to the right of private parties. Public nuisance is an obstruction to the right of public in general.

A large tower was constructed in the Docklands area of East London which goes by the name of One Canada Square. Residents in the area experienced interference with the television signals due to the construction of One Canada Square. Some of the claimants were homeowners whilst others were family members, lodgers and others without a proprietary interest in the property affected. Decide, whether interference with one's television reception amounted to actionable nuisance?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (a) Interference with one's television reception through the construction of a neighboring structure could not and does not amount to an actionable nuisance. This is not by virtue of anything peculiar to television. It applies equally to interference with the passage of light or air or radio signals or to the obstruction of a view.

QUESTION: 92

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Nuisance (from archaic nocence, through Fr. noisance, nuisance, from Lat. nocere, "to hurt") is a common law tort. It means that which causes offence, annoyance, trouble or injury. A nuisance can be either public (also "common") or private. A public nuisance was defined by English scholar Sir J. F. Stephen as, "an act not warranted by law, or an omission to discharge a legal duty, which act or omission obstructs or causes inconvenience or damage to the public in the exercise of rights common to all Her Majesty's subjects".
Private nuisance is the interference with the right of specific people. Nuisance is one of the oldest causes of action known to the common law, with cases framed in nuisance going back almost to the beginning of recorded time. Under the common law, persons in possession of real property (land owners, lease holders etc.) are entitled to the quiet enjoyment of their lands. However this doesn't include visitors or those who aren't considered to have an interest in the land. If a neighbour interferes with that quiet enjoyment, either by creating smells, sounds, pollution or any other hazard that extends past the boundaries of the property, the affected party may make a claim in nuisance.
The boundaries of the tort are potentially unclear, due to the public/private nuisance divide, and existence of the rule in Rylands v Fletcher. Writers such as John Murphy at Lancaster University have popularised the idea that Rylands forms a separate, though related, tort. This is still an issue for debate, and is rejected by others (the primary distinction in Rylands concerns 'escapes onto land', and so it may be argued that the only difference is the nature of the nuisance, not the nature of the civil wrong.) In summation, Nuisance means an unlawful interference with a person's enjoyment of property. Property right in the land is necessary for an action in Private nuisance. Private nuisance is an obstruction to the right of private parties. Public nuisance is an obstruction to the right of public in general.

Whether it was necessary for the claimant to have a property interest before a claim of nuisance could be launched?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (b) Principle of law is to the effect that a person who has no interest in property nor any right of occupation in the proper sense of the term, can maintain an action for a nuisance. Only claimants with property rights can launch actions for private nuisance. Therefore, the claimant's claim had no cause of action at all.

QUESTION: 93

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Nuisance (from archaic nocence, through Fr. noisance, nuisance, from Lat. nocere, "to hurt") is a common law tort. It means that which causes offence, annoyance, trouble or injury. A nuisance can be either public (also "common") or private. A public nuisance was defined by English scholar Sir J. F. Stephen as, "an act not warranted by law, or an omission to discharge a legal duty, which act or omission obstructs or causes inconvenience or damage to the public in the exercise of rights common to all Her Majesty's subjects".
Private nuisance is the interference with the right of specific people. Nuisance is one of the oldest causes of action known to the common law, with cases framed in nuisance going back almost to the beginning of recorded time. Under the common law, persons in possession of real property (land owners, lease holders etc.) are entitled to the quiet enjoyment of their lands. However this doesn't include visitors or those who aren't considered to have an interest in the land. If a neighbour interferes with that quiet enjoyment, either by creating smells, sounds, pollution or any other hazard that extends past the boundaries of the property, the affected party may make a claim in nuisance.
The boundaries of the tort are potentially unclear, due to the public/private nuisance divide, and existence of the rule in Rylands v Fletcher. Writers such as John Murphy at Lancaster University have popularised the idea that Rylands forms a separate, though related, tort. This is still an issue for debate, and is rejected by others (the primary distinction in Rylands concerns 'escapes onto land', and so it may be argued that the only difference is the nature of the nuisance, not the nature of the civil wrong.) In summation, Nuisance means an unlawful interference with a person's enjoyment of property. Property right in the land is necessary for an action in Private nuisance. Private nuisance is an obstruction to the right of private parties. Public nuisance is an obstruction to the right of public in general.

Murugan incorporated a company named Murugan Metal Mart (MMM). MMM generates a great amount of metal waste during the course of repairing and maintenance of plant and machinery. MMM dumps the metal waste in a nearby place assuming nobody will notice. Dumping however backfires sometimes. For example once MMM tried dumping the waste on the road adjacent to the business premise it ended up blocking it partly causing difficulty to vehicle users and passersby. Can the road users in general sue MMM for the private nuisance?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (c) Road users have no locus claiming breach of the enjoyment/obstruction of the road in the suit for Private nuisance. Principle states “Private nuisance is an obstruction to the right of private parties”. In the given facts road users are not private parties.

QUESTION: 94

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Nuisance (from archaic nocence, through Fr. noisance, nuisance, from Lat. nocere, "to hurt") is a common law tort. It means that which causes offence, annoyance, trouble or injury. A nuisance can be either public (also "common") or private. A public nuisance was defined by English scholar Sir J. F. Stephen as, "an act not warranted by law, or an omission to discharge a legal duty, which act or omission obstructs or causes inconvenience or damage to the public in the exercise of rights common to all Her Majesty's subjects".
Private nuisance is the interference with the right of specific people. Nuisance is one of the oldest causes of action known to the common law, with cases framed in nuisance going back almost to the beginning of recorded time. Under the common law, persons in possession of real property (land owners, lease holders etc.) are entitled to the quiet enjoyment of their lands. However this doesn't include visitors or those who aren't considered to have an interest in the land. If a neighbour interferes with that quiet enjoyment, either by creating smells, sounds, pollution or any other hazard that extends past the boundaries of the property, the affected party may make a claim in nuisance.
The boundaries of the tort are potentially unclear, due to the public/private nuisance divide, and existence of the rule in Rylands v Fletcher. Writers such as John Murphy at Lancaster University have popularised the idea that Rylands forms a separate, though related, tort. This is still an issue for debate, and is rejected by others (the primary distinction in Rylands concerns 'escapes onto land', and so it may be argued that the only difference is the nature of the nuisance, not the nature of the civil wrong.) In summation, Nuisance means an unlawful interference with a person's enjoyment of property. Property right in the land is necessary for an action in Private nuisance. Private nuisance is an obstruction to the right of private parties. Public nuisance is an obstruction to the right of public in general.

Murugan incorporated a company named Murugan Metal Mart (MMM). MMM generates a great amount of metal waste during the course of repairing and maintenance of plant and machinery. MMM dumps the metal waste in a nearby place assuming nobody will notice. Dumping however backfires sometimes. For example once MMM tried dumping the waste on the road adjacent to the business premise it ended up blocking it partly causing difficulty to vehicle users and passersby. Can the road users sue MMM for the tort of public nuisance?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is a Road users have the locus claiming breach of the enjoyment/obstruction of the road in the suit for Public nuisance. Principle states “Public nuisance is an obstruction to the right of public in general”. In the given facts road users have right in general on the road.

QUESTION: 95

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Nuisance (from archaic nocence, through Fr. noisance, nuisance, from Lat. nocere, "to hurt") is a common law tort. It means that which causes offence, annoyance, trouble or injury. A nuisance can be either public (also "common") or private. A public nuisance was defined by English scholar Sir J. F. Stephen as, "an act not warranted by law, or an omission to discharge a legal duty, which act or omission obstructs or causes inconvenience or damage to the public in the exercise of rights common to all Her Majesty's subjects".
Private nuisance is the interference with the right of specific people. Nuisance is one of the oldest causes of action known to the common law, with cases framed in nuisance going back almost to the beginning of recorded time. Under the common law, persons in possession of real property (land owners, lease holders etc.) are entitled to the quiet enjoyment of their lands. However this doesn't include visitors or those who aren't considered to have an interest in the land. If a neighbour interferes with that quiet enjoyment, either by creating smells, sounds, pollution or any other hazard that extends past the boundaries of the property, the affected party may make a claim in nuisance.
The boundaries of the tort are potentially unclear, due to the public/private nuisance divide, and existence of the rule in Rylands v Fletcher. Writers such as John Murphy at Lancaster University have popularised the idea that Rylands forms a separate, though related, tort. This is still an issue for debate, and is rejected by others (the primary distinction in Rylands concerns 'escapes onto land', and so it may be argued that the only difference is the nature of the nuisance, not the nature of the civil wrong.) In summation, Nuisance means an unlawful interference with a person's enjoyment of property. Property right in the land is necessary for an action in Private nuisance. Private nuisance is an obstruction to the right of private parties. Public nuisance is an obstruction to the right of public in general.

If MMM is liable then on being sued by sole road user, then the suit will lie under

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.

QUESTION: 96

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Nuisance (from archaic nocence, through Fr. noisance, nuisance, from Lat. nocere, "to hurt") is a common law tort. It means that which causes offence, annoyance, trouble or injury. A nuisance can be either public (also "common") or private. A public nuisance was defined by English scholar Sir J. F. Stephen as, "an act not warranted by law, or an omission to discharge a legal duty, which act or omission obstructs or causes inconvenience or damage to the public in the exercise of rights common to all Her Majesty's subjects".
Private nuisance is the interference with the right of specific people. Nuisance is one of the oldest causes of action known to the common law, with cases framed in nuisance going back almost to the beginning of recorded time. Under the common law, persons in possession of real property (land owners, lease holders etc.) are entitled to the quiet enjoyment of their lands. However this doesn't include visitors or those who aren't considered to have an interest in the land. If a neighbour interferes with that quiet enjoyment, either by creating smells, sounds, pollution or any other hazard that extends past the boundaries of the property, the affected party may make a claim in nuisance.
The boundaries of the tort are potentially unclear, due to the public/private nuisance divide, and existence of the rule in Rylands v Fletcher. Writers such as John Murphy at Lancaster University have popularised the idea that Rylands forms a separate, though related, tort. This is still an issue for debate, and is rejected by others (the primary distinction in Rylands concerns 'escapes onto land', and so it may be argued that the only difference is the nature of the nuisance, not the nature of the civil wrong.) In summation, Nuisance means an unlawful interference with a person's enjoyment of property. Property right in the land is necessary for an action in Private nuisance. Private nuisance is an obstruction to the right of private parties. Public nuisance is an obstruction to the right of public in general.

Suterpech was the owner of a large country house with over a thousand acres of land. This land was close to a copper smelting factory which had long been in operation. The smelting factory discharged noxious gases as a result of its operation, which were considered to be a normal part of the smelting operation. As a result, trees on the claimant's land were damaged by the fumes and noxious gases. The Suterpech sued for nuisance. Whether the Factory was liable for causing Nuisance?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (a)
Option (a) squarely falls within the ambit of Principle of private nuisance. Herein, factory has caused interference in the enjoyment of the country house.
Noxious fumes destroyed the ambience of the residential area.

QUESTION: 97

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

When a criminal offence is committed by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Joint liability can be explained as when two or more persons commit any criminal act and with the intention of committing that criminal act, then each of them will be liable for that act as if the act is done by them individually.
The ingredients of joint liability are
1. A criminal act is done by several persons;
2. The criminal act must be to further the common intention of all;
3. There must be participation of all the persons in furthering the common intention.
4. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Let us take a hypothetical situation- There are two persons A and B. Both of them decided to rob a bank to earn some quick money. Both of them decided in advance that they will not hurt anybody and they will only take the money. After reaching the bank A tells B to guard the gate of the bank while he takes the money. When A was taking the money, security guard came running towards A. A out of fear, stabbed the security guard with a knife due to which he died.
After that A ran with B along with the knife. In this case, even though B had no intention of killing the security guard but he will also be liable for the murder of security guard and robbery along with A. Considering the aforesaid, court must be mindful that at any site of offence it is not at all necessary that only two persons are present i.e. accused and victim, but a number of other persons like witnesses are also present at the scene of crime most of the time. So making a person liable just because he was present at the scene of crime or was near to the victim is not justified.

A and B were accused of Rape committed in the wee hours of the New Year. Police Department decided to kill the offenders. Decision was taken in order to control the crowd hysteria demanding instant justice. They took the offenders in custody and took them to the crime scene to conduct the reconstruction of events leading to the commission of Rape.
During the reconstruction Police department shot dead the offenders from a point-blank range. Which of the following statement is correct in this regard?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (a) Police department is guilty of murder. This was a cold blooded murder committed with a prior concert and design.

QUESTION: 98

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

When a criminal offence is committed by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Joint liability can be explained as when two or more persons commit any criminal act and with the intention of committing that criminal act, then each of them will be liable for that act as if the act is done by them individually.
The ingredients of joint liability are
1. A criminal act is done by several persons;
2. The criminal act must be to further the common intention of all;
3. There must be participation of all the persons in furthering the common intention.
4. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Let us take a hypothetical situation- There are two persons A and B. Both of them decided to rob a bank to earn some quick money. Both of them decided in advance that they will not hurt anybody and they will only take the money. After reaching the bank A tells B to guard the gate of the bank while he takes the money. When A was taking the money, security guard came running towards A. A out of fear, stabbed the security guard with a knife due to which he died.
After that A ran with B along with the knife. In this case, even though B had no intention of killing the security guard but he will also be liable for the murder of security guard and robbery along with A. Considering the aforesaid, court must be mindful that at any site of offence it is not at all necessary that only two persons are present i.e. accused and victim, but a number of other persons like witnesses are also present at the scene of crime most of the time. So making a person liable just because he was present at the scene of crime or was near to the victim is not justified.

Police had gone to arrest A at his home. B, C and D were also present at that time. When all the three persons saw police coming, they came out of the house and gave a blow on the police and they drove them away. Which of the following statement is correct in this regard?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (c) B, C and D are liable for the blow even if the blow was given by only one person.

QUESTION: 99

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

When a criminal offence is committed by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Joint liability can be explained as when two or more persons commit any criminal act and with the intention of committing that criminal act, then each of them will be liable for that act as if the act is done by them individually.
The ingredients of joint liability are
1. A criminal act is done by several persons;
2. The criminal act must be to further the common intention of all;
3. There must be participation of all the persons in furthering the common intention.
4. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Let us take a hypothetical situation- There are two persons A and B. Both of them decided to rob a bank to earn some quick money. Both of them decided in advance that they will not hurt anybody and they will only take the money. After reaching the bank A tells B to guard the gate of the bank while he takes the money. When A was taking the money, security guard came running towards A. A out of fear, stabbed the security guard with a knife due to which he died.
After that A ran with B along with the knife. In this case, even though B had no intention of killing the security guard but he will also be liable for the murder of security guard and robbery along with A. Considering the aforesaid, court must be mindful that at any site of offence it is not at all necessary that only two persons are present i.e. accused and victim, but a number of other persons like witnesses are also present at the scene of crime most of the time. So making a person liable just because he was present at the scene of crime or was near to the victim is not justified.

Head constable Jang along with his party proceeded for patrolling. They observed footprints of four camels entering into Indian Border from Pakistan. The footprints were followed. When his party reached outside a village, it was observed that the footprints of the two camels were diverted towards one village and the other two camels went straight. Suddenly, there was a firing occurred between the accused party and the security forces. Gyan, who was just moving here and there quietly sat under a tree. Prosecution charged Gyan and the infiltrators for the offences committed with common intention. Decide whether Gyan is guilty?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (c) Gyan is not guilty. Gyan's mere presence cannot be taken as fact involving common intention. Court should acquit him as the principle of common intention is not attracted herein.

QUESTION: 100

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

When a criminal offence is committed by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Joint liability can be explained as when two or more persons commit any criminal act and with the intention of committing that criminal act, then each of them will be liable for that act as if the act is done by them individually.
The ingredients of joint liability are
1. A criminal act is done by several persons;
2. The criminal act must be to further the common intention of all;
3. There must be participation of all the persons in furthering the common intention.
4. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Let us take a hypothetical situation- There are two persons A and B. Both of them decided to rob a bank to earn some quick money. Both of them decided in advance that they will not hurt anybody and they will only take the money. After reaching the bank A tells B to guard the gate of the bank while he takes the money. When A was taking the money, security guard came running towards A. A out of fear, stabbed the security guard with a knife due to which he died.
After that A ran with B along with the knife. In this case, even though B had no intention of killing the security guard but he will also be liable for the murder of security guard and robbery along with A. Considering the aforesaid, court must be mindful that at any site of offence it is not at all necessary that only two persons are present i.e. accused and victim, but a number of other persons like witnesses are also present at the scene of crime most of the time. So making a person liable just because he was present at the scene of crime or was near to the victim is not justified.

An occurrence took place in the Big Bazar Street in which Raman was murdered by Max, Nellie was attempted to be murdered by Mark and Mani was attempted to be murdered by Mike. In respect of these offences, each of the three accused was directly charged for their overt act and constructively charged for the overt acts of the other accused. Mike said that it was by chance that he was present at the site of offence and he had not participated in the commission of the offence. Mike further added that other accused had a prior enmity with the Raman. Mike was convicted by the trial court for committing offences of murder and criminal intimidation. He appealed with the pleading that he was only with friendly terms with Max and Mark and he did not share common intention with them to murder.
Decide the whether Mike is innocent or not?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (b) Mike’s presence cannot warrant a conclusion that there was a prior meeting of minds. Mike will be jointly held liable if a criminal offence is one by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all. Common intention in the commission of murder was lacking on the part of Mike.

QUESTION: 101

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

When a criminal offence is committed by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Joint liability can be explained as when two or more persons commit any criminal act and with the intention of committing that criminal act, then each of them will be liable for that act as if the act is done by them individually.
The ingredients of joint liability are
1. A criminal act is done by several persons;
2. The criminal act must be to further the common intention of all;
3. There must be participation of all the persons in furthering the common intention.
4. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Let us take a hypothetical situation- There are two persons A and B. Both of them decided to rob a bank to earn some quick money. Both of them decided in advance that they will not hurt anybody and they will only take the money. After reaching the bank A tells B to guard the gate of the bank while he takes the money. When A was taking the money, security guard came running towards A. A out of fear, stabbed the security guard with a knife due to which he died.
After that A ran with B along with the knife. In this case, even though B had no intention of killing the security guard but he will also be liable for the murder of security guard and robbery along with A. Considering the aforesaid, court must be mindful that at any site of offence it is not at all necessary that only two persons are present i.e. accused and victim, but a number of other persons like witnesses are also present at the scene of crime most of the time. So making a person liable just because he was present at the scene of crime or was near to the victim is not justified.

Benjamin was a 22 year old man who was in love with the sister of James. James didn't like his intimacy.
Once, Benjamin came with his younger brother and called the sister of James to come out. Instead of the sister, James came out. There was a heated exchange of words. Benjamin slapped James on the cheek. Then Benjamin snatched hockey stick from his younger brother and gave one blow on the head of James due to which his skull was fractured. James died in hospital 10 days later. Both Benjamin and his brother were charged for murder. Decide the guilt of brother.

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (a) Brother should be acquitted in the given factual matrix. Herein Benjamin's brother was taken by surprise when the hockey-stick was snatched from him and was used as a weapon to murder James.
Benjamin only had the intention to murder James and this intention was not at all shared by his brother.

QUESTION: 102

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

When a criminal offence is committed by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Joint liability can be explained as when two or more persons commit any criminal act and with the intention of committing that criminal act, then each of them will be liable for that act as if the act is done by them individually.
The ingredients of joint liability are
1. A criminal act is done by several persons;
2. The criminal act must be to further the common intention of all;
3. There must be participation of all the persons in furthering the common intention.
4. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Let us take a hypothetical situation- There are two persons A and B. Both of them decided to rob a bank to earn some quick money. Both of them decided in advance that they will not hurt anybody and they will only take the money. After reaching the bank A tells B to guard the gate of the bank while he takes the money. When A was taking the money, security guard came running towards A. A out of fear, stabbed the security guard with a knife due to which he died.
After that A ran with B along with the knife. In this case, even though B had no intention of killing the security guard but he will also be liable for the murder of security guard and robbery along with A. Considering the aforesaid, court must be mindful that at any site of offence it is not at all necessary that only two persons are present i.e. accused and victim, but a number of other persons like witnesses are also present at the scene of crime most of the time. So making a person liable just because he was present at the scene of crime or was near to the victim is not justified.

Vir, a soldier, who has been felicitated for his bravery during the Kargil War, emerged as a role model amongst his contingent of Western Command. His name is taken for being a soldier who obediently followed the codes of armed conflict. Recently, during a skirmish on the Line of Actual Control he shot down a Chinese soldier. It was done on the orders of superior officer. Decide whether Vir acted in conformity with the commands of the law?

Solution:

Rationale: The question asks you to apply the idea of the passage to a given situation with the given principle of law. You have to assimilate the inference and look at the facts of the case and evaluate the answer choices.
Correct Answer is (a) Vir has committed no offence. Vir cannot he held guilty for enforcing the orders of superior authority. He acted in good faith being bound by law.

QUESTION: 103

Direction: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

When a criminal offence is committed by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone. Joint liability can be explained as when two or more persons commit any criminal act and with the intention of committing that criminal act, then each of them will be liable for that act as if the act is done by them individually.
The ingredients of joint liability are
1. A criminal act is done by several persons;
2. The criminal act must be to further the common intention of all;
3. There must be participation of all the persons in furthering the common intention.
4. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Let us take a hypothetical situation- There are two persons A and B. Both of them decided to rob a bank to earn some quick money. Both of them decided in advance that they will not hurt anybody and they will only take the money. After reaching the bank A tells B to guard the gate of the bank while he takes the money. When A was taking the money, security guard came running towards A. A out of fear, stabbed the security guard with a knife due to which he died.
After that A ran with B along with the knife. In this case, even though B had no intention of killing the security guard but he will also be liable for the murder of security guard and robbery along with A. Considering the aforesaid, court must be mindful that at any site of offence it is not at all necessary that only two persons are present i.e. accused and victim, but a number of other persons like witnesses are also present at the scene of crime most of the time. So making a person liable just because he was present at the scene of crime or was near to the victim is not justified.

A is a restaurant owner. B is a chef and buyer in A’s restaurant. B, on his own, alters the menu without A’s knowledge and starts selling a novel recipe containing fish. One day, due to bad stock, few consumers suffered food poisoning. The affected persons sue A for negligence. A contends that B’s actions were solely his and he had neither the knowledge nor any control over the same. Can A be made vicariously liable for B’s negligence?

Solution:

As vicarious liability is no fault liability, A’s knowledge or care is irrelevant and he shall be responsible for all the acts done by B during the course of his employment.

QUESTION: 104

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.
Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.
To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument presented in the third paragraph?

Solution:

You are asked to identify the statement which weakens the argument in the third paragraph. In the third paragraph, the author highlights that research to identify whether the remains found in Flores are humans or anything else is still going on, and nothing definite can be said. In answer choice (c), it has been made clear that humans and the child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores are different species, which means that the conclusion that the author has drawn from the passage is contradicted.
Answer choice (c) weakens the argument based on a similar reasoning.
Incorrect answers: (a), (b) and (d) give information that supports the argument and hence cannot weaken the argument.

QUESTION: 105

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.
Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.
To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

Which of the following can be inferred as a view that the author will most definitely agree with?

Solution:

The correct answer is (b) as the author focuses on how interesting the conflict between the real identity of the child-skeletal bones found in Flores is and how there is no definite answer to it. Option (b) supports this view and hence can be inferred as a view that the author will most definitely agree with.
Incorrect Answers: Information contained in statements (a) and (d) has neither been mentioned nor supported anywhere in the passage. Statement (c) confirms the identity of the bones discovered, which is not true. So, the author is not likely to agree with any of these statements.

QUESTION: 106

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.
Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.
To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

Which of the following is LEAST consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is (d) as it is against the thoughts expressed by the author in the passage. The author emphasizes the confusion caused after the child sized skeletal bones were discovered in Flores. Since (d) opposes the notion expressed by the author in the passage, it is least consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage.
Incorrect Answers: (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect as each of them is consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage.

QUESTION: 107

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.
Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.
To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

Which one of the following is the main conclusion of the passage?

Solution:

(c) is the main conclusion of the passage as the author has pointed out how more research is needed to ascertain the correct identity of the bones discovered in Flores. He points out at different possibilities such as hobbits, and humans with microcephaly. So, answer choice (c) sums up the main views of the author well.
Incorrect Answers: (b) is opposed to the main thought of the passage. Statements (a) and (d) have not been discussed anywhere in the passage.

QUESTION: 108

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
The child-sized skeletal human-looking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit when it was discovered that they belonged to fully grown human-like creatures. Standing at just 0.9 meters when alive, the hobbits would have been considerably smaller than modern humans, or even other human cousins that have since gone extinct.
Researchers have found the remains of nine of the skeletons, the bones of which have been found to be approximately 18,000 years old-together the discovery has caused much debate about whether the creatures were a species separate from modern humans, or if they were modern humans that had simply suffered from microcephaly-a condition that leads a person to have a small body and head, and also some degree of retardation.
To help settle the debate the researchers with this new effort undertook a serious examination and analysis of the creatures' teeth. However, research is still going on and the status is not clear.

The argument of the author depends on which one of the following assumptions?

Solution:

(a) is an assumption that supports the argument of the author. It is clear from the first line wherein the author states that the child-sized skeletal humanlooking fossils found on Flores began to be referred to as the remains of a Hobbit, meaning he believes that there are more species than humans. So, (a) is the correct answer.
Incorrect Answers: Assumptions (b) and (d) are not true as the author expresses them nowhere in the passage. Assumption (c) opposes the idea presented by the author in the passage. So, (b), (c) and (d) cannot be assumed.

QUESTION: 109

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Most people are aware that diabetes has reached epidemic proportions worldwide, with India being no exception.
Statistics show that India is home to over 68 million patients with diabetes, and it is no surprise that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease.
However, the relevance of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and the significance of its prevention and management in the fight against diabetes is often undermined. GDM is detected during the gestational period, i.e., when a woman is expecting a child. It occurs in women of reproductive age, particularly in those who have high blood glucose levels during pregnancy.
GDM remains confined to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery-rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators. Making people aware about such conditions should be the first priority for healthcare.

The argument presented in the first paragraph can be best described as:

Solution:

The author introduces diabetes as a worldwide epidemic. He highlights a sample of 68 million Indian patients with diabetes, and draws a conclusion that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease. This is an inductive generalization. So, the correct answer is (d). Incorrect Answers: (a), (b) and (c) - These are not the reasoning used by the author.

QUESTION: 110

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Most people are aware that diabetes has reached epidemic proportions worldwide, with India being no exception.
Statistics show that India is home to over 68 million patients with diabetes, and it is no surprise that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease.
However, the relevance of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and the significance of its prevention and management in the fight against diabetes is often undermined. GDM is detected during the gestational period, i.e., when a woman is expecting a child. It occurs in women of reproductive age, particularly in those who have high blood glucose levels during pregnancy.
GDM remains confined to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery-rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators. Making people aware about such conditions should be the first priority for healthcare.

Which of the following is similar to the line of reasoning of the author in the passage?

Solution:

This is a parallel reasoning question - you are asked to identify the answer choice which has a similar reasoning to that of the argument presented in the last paragraph. The argument in the passage is that people should be made aware about a certain type of diabetes that is confined to only to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery- rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators. He means that even though most people are aware of it they do not know much about Gestational Diabetes Mellitus. This reasoning can be found in answer choice (b) Incorrect answers: (a), (c) and (d) - These do not follow the same line of reasoning as the passage.

QUESTION: 111

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Most people are aware that diabetes has reached epidemic proportions worldwide, with India being no exception.
Statistics show that India is home to over 68 million patients with diabetes, and it is no surprise that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease.
However, the relevance of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and the significance of its prevention and management in the fight against diabetes is often undermined. GDM is detected during the gestational period, i.e., when a woman is expecting a child. It occurs in women of reproductive age, particularly in those who have high blood glucose levels during pregnancy.
GDM remains confined to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery-rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators. Making people aware about such conditions should be the first priority for healthcare.

Why does the author highlight Gestational Diabetes Mellitus as a severe type of diabetes in the passage?

Solution:

The correct answer is (b) as the author wants authorities and medical professionals to spread awareness about Gestational Diabetes Mellitus, since deficiency of information on it can cause problems.

QUESTION: 112

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Most people are aware that diabetes has reached epidemic proportions worldwide, with India being no exception.
Statistics show that India is home to over 68 million patients with diabetes, and it is no surprise that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease.
However, the relevance of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and the significance of its prevention and management in the fight against diabetes is often undermined. GDM is detected during the gestational period, i.e., when a woman is expecting a child. It occurs in women of reproductive age, particularly in those who have high blood glucose levels during pregnancy.
GDM remains confined to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery-rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators. Making people aware about such conditions should be the first priority for healthcare.

Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the argument made by the author?

Solution:

(c) is the correct answer, if true, as it opposes the main purpose of the author in the passage. He wants to spread awareness about Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) because not many people know about it. Here, it assumes that people already know about it.
Incorrect Answers: (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect answers as they support the argument of the author mentioned in the passage and strengthen his argument instead of weakening it.

QUESTION: 113

Direction: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Most people are aware that diabetes has reached epidemic proportions worldwide, with India being no exception.
Statistics show that India is home to over 68 million patients with diabetes, and it is no surprise that various health conferences and esteemed policymakers have been discussing ways to increase early intervention in the management and control of the disease.
However, the relevance of Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) and the significance of its prevention and management in the fight against diabetes is often undermined. GDM is detected during the gestational period, i.e., when a woman is expecting a child. It occurs in women of reproductive age, particularly in those who have high blood glucose levels during pregnancy.
GDM remains confined to the corridors of obstetric wards and labour delivery-rooms, limiting the visibility of the condition with policymakers and healthcare administrators. Making people aware about such conditions should be the first priority for healthcare.

Which of the following, if true, strengthens the author's argument?

Solution:

Statement (d), if true, strengthens the author's argument as this is exactly what the author points at in the passage. He points out how lack of awareness is the biggest hurdle in the path of treating this type of diabetes. Since, this supports the argument of the author in the passage, it will strengthen the argument and is the correct option. Incorrect Answers: (a) states that GDM is not as common as the author points out. (b) states that it is of no use unless the vaccine or treatment is ready or the condition becomes common. (c) weakens the author's argument as it states that it is not a disease that affects women in any way. So, (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect.