CLAT Mock Test- 11


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 11


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 11 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 11 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 11 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 11 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 11 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

"The Psychologist seemed about to speak to me but changed his mind. Then the Time Traveler put forth his finger towards the lever. “No,” he said suddenly. “Lend me your hand.” He took the Psychologist’s hand in his own and told him to put out his forefinger. So that it was the Psychologist himself who sent forth the model Time Machine on its interminable voyage, we all saw the lever turn. I am absolutely sure there was no trickery. There was a breath of wind, and the lamp flame jumped. One of the candles on the mantel was blown out, and the little machine suddenly swung round, became indistinct, and was seen as a ghost for a second perhaps, as an eddy of faintly glittering brass and ivory; and it was gone — vanished!

The Psychologist recovered from his stupor and suddenly looked under the table.

We stared at each other. “Do you seriously believe that machine has travelled into time?” said the Medical Man.

“You mean to say that machine has travelled into the future?” said Filby.

“Into the future or the past” said Time Traveler.

After an interval, the Psychologist had an inspiration. “It must have gone into the past if it has gone anywhere,” he said.

“Because I presume that it has not moved in space and if it travelled into the future it would still be here all this time since it must have travelled through this time.”

“But,” said I, “If it travelled into the past it would have been visible when we came first into this room; and last Thursday when we were here; and the Thursday before that; and so forth!”

“That’s a simple point of psychology. It’s plain enough and helps the paradox delightfully. We cannot see it, nor can we appreciate this machine, any more than we can speak of a wheel spinning, or a bullet flying through the air. If it is travelling through time fifty times faster than we are, if it gets through a minute while we get through a second, the impression it creates will, of course, only be one-fiftieth of what it would make if it were not travelling in time.” He passed his hand through the space in which the machine had been.

“Would you like to see the Time Machine itself?” asked the Time Traveler. And therewith, taking the lamp in his hand, he led the way down the long, draughty corridor to his laboratory. “Look here,” said the Medical Man, “are you perfectly serious? Or is this a trick, like that ghost you showed us last Christmas?”

“Upon that machine,” said the Time Traveller, holding the lamp aloft, “I intend to explore time. Is that plain? I was never more serious in my life.

” None of us quite knew how to take it.

I caught Filby’s eye over the shoulder of the Medical Man, and he winked at me solemnly."

Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

Solution: We understand from the passage that Time-traveller was definite about his intention of time-travelling.
QUESTION: 2

"The Psychologist seemed about to speak to me but changed his mind. Then the Time Traveler put forth his finger towards the lever. “No,” he said suddenly. “Lend me your hand.” He took the Psychologist’s hand in his own and told him to put out his forefinger. So that it was the Psychologist himself who sent forth the model Time Machine on its interminable voyage. We all saw the lever turn. I am absolutely certain there was no trickery. There was a breath of wind, and the lamp flame jumped. One of the candles on the mantel was blown out, and the little machine suddenly swung round, became indistinct, and was seen as a ghost for a second perhaps, as an eddy of faintly glittering brass and ivory; and it was gone — vanished!

The Psychologist recovered from his stupor and suddenly looked under the table.

We stared at each other. “Do you seriously believe that machine has travelled into time?” said the Medical Man.

“You mean to say that machine has travelled into the future?” said Filby.

“Into the future or the past” said Time Traveler.

After an interval, the Psychologist had an inspiration. “It must have gone into the past if it has gone anywhere,” he said.

“Because I presume that it has not moved in space and if it travelled into the future it would still be here all this time since it must have travelled through this time.”

“But,” said I, “If it travelled into the past it would have been visible when we came first into this room; and last Thursday when we were here; and the Thursday before that; and so forth!”

“That’s a simple point of psychology. It’s plain enough and helps the paradox delightfully. We cannot see it, nor can we appreciate this machine, any more than we can speak of a wheel spinning, or a bullet flying through the air. If it is travelling through time fifty times faster than we are, if it gets through a minute while we get through a second, the impression it creates will, of course, only be one-fiftieth of what it would make if it were not travelling in time.” He passed his hand through the space in which the machine had been.

“Would you like to see the Time Machine itself?” asked the Time Traveler. And therewith, taking the lamp in his hand, he led the way down the long, draughty corridor to his laboratory. “Look here,” said the Medical Man, “are you perfectly serious? Or is this a trick, like that ghost you showed us last Christmas?”

“Upon that machine,” said the Time Traveller, holding the lamp aloft, “I intend to explore time. Is that plain? I was never more serious in my life.

” None of us quite knew how to take it.

I caught Filby’s eye over the shoulder of the Medical Man, and he winked at me solemnly."

Q. What do you understand by the word, Stupor, according to the passage?

Solution: Stupor means a state of near unconsciousness.
QUESTION: 3

"The Psychologist seemed about to speak to me but changed his mind. Then the Time Traveler put forth his finger towards the lever. “No,” he said suddenly. “Lend me your hand.” He took the Psychologist’s hand in his own and told him to put out his forefinger. So that it was the Psychologist himself who sent forth the model Time Machine on its interminable voyage. We all saw the lever turn. I am absolutely certain there was no trickery. There was a breath of wind, and the lamp flame jumped. One of the candles on the mantel was blown out, and the little machine suddenly swung round, became indistinct, and was seen as a ghost for a second perhaps, as an eddy of faintly glittering brass and ivory; and it was gone — vanished!

The Psychologist recovered from his stupor and suddenly looked under the table.

We stared at each other. “Do you seriously believe that machine has travelled into time?” said the Medical Man.

“You mean to say that machine has travelled into the future?” said Filby.

“Into the future or the past” said Time Traveler.

After an interval, the Psychologist had an inspiration. “It must have gone into the past if it has gone anywhere,” he said.

“Because I presume that it has not moved in space and if it travelled into the future it would still be here all this time since it must have travelled through this time.”

“But,” said I, “If it travelled into the past it would have been visible when we came first into this room; and last Thursday when we were here; and the Thursday before that; and so forth!”

“That’s a simple point of psychology. It’s plain enough and helps the paradox delightfully. We cannot see it, nor can we appreciate this machine, any more than we can speak of a wheel spinning, or a bullet flying through the air. If it is travelling through time fifty times faster than we are, if it gets through a minute while we get through a second, the impression it creates will, of course, only be one-fiftieth of what it would make if it were not travelling in time.” He passed his hand through the space in which the machine had been.

“Would you like to see the Time Machine itself?” asked the Time Traveler. And therewith, taking the lamp in his hand, he led the way down the long, draughty corridor to his laboratory. “Look here,” said the Medical Man, “are you perfectly serious? Or is this a trick, like that ghost you showed us last Christmas?”

“Upon that machine,” said the Time Traveller, holding the lamp aloft, “I intend to explore time. Is that plain? I was never more serious in my life.

” None of us quite knew how to take it.

I caught Filby’s eye over the shoulder of the Medical Man, and he winked at me solemnly."

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?

Solution: Throughout the passage, we understand that the psychologist wanted to prove the time-traveller wrong.
QUESTION: 4

"The Psychologist seemed about to speak to me but changed his mind. Then the Time Traveler put forth his finger towards the lever. “No,” he said suddenly. “Lend me your hand.” He took the Psychologist’s hand in his own and told him to put out his forefinger. So that it was the Psychologist himself who sent forth the model Time Machine on its interminable voyage. We all saw the lever turn. I am absolutely certain there was no trickery. There was a breath of wind, and the lamp flame jumped. One of the candles on the mantel was blown out, and the little machine suddenly swung round, became indistinct, and was seen as a ghost for a second perhaps, as an eddy of faintly glittering brass and ivory; and it was gone — vanished!

The Psychologist recovered from his stupor and suddenly looked under the table.

We stared at each other. “Do you seriously believe that machine has travelled into time?” said the Medical Man.

“You mean to say that machine has travelled into the future?” said Filby.

“Into the future or the past” said Time Traveler.

After an interval, the Psychologist had an inspiration. “It must have gone into the past if it has gone anywhere,” he said.

“Because I presume that it has not moved in space and if it travelled into the future it would still be here all this time since it must have travelled through this time.”

“But,” said I, “If it travelled into the past it would have been visible when we came first into this room; and last Thursday when we were here; and the Thursday before that; and so forth!”

“That’s a simple point of psychology. It’s plain enough and helps the paradox delightfully. We cannot see it, nor can we appreciate this machine, any more than we can speak of a wheel spinning, or a bullet flying through the air. If it is travelling through time fifty times faster than we are, if it gets through a minute while we get through a second, the impression it creates will, of course, only be one-fiftieth of what it would make if it were not travelling in time.” He passed his hand through the space in which the machine had been.

“Would you like to see the Time Machine itself?” asked the Time Traveler. And therewith, taking the lamp in his hand, he led the way down the long, draughty corridor to his laboratory. “Look here,” said the Medical Man, “are you perfectly serious? Or is this a trick, like that ghost you showed us last Christmas?”

“Upon that machine,” said the Time Traveller, holding the lamp aloft, “I intend to explore time. Is that plain? I was never more serious in my life.

” None of us quite knew how to take it.

I caught Filby’s eye over the shoulder of the Medical Man, and he winked at me solemnly."

Q. What do we understand by the character of the narrator, from the passage?

Solution: His statement saying that the time-machine hasn’t travelled to the past, affirms our answer.
QUESTION: 5

"The Psychologist seemed about to speak to me but changed his mind. Then the Time Traveler put forth his finger towards the lever. “No,” he said suddenly. “Lend me your hand.” He took the Psychologist’s hand in his own and told him to put out his forefinger. So that it was the Psychologist himself who sent forth the model Time Machine on its interminable voyage. We all saw the lever turn. I am absolutely certain there was no trickery. There was a breath of wind, and the lamp flame jumped. One of the candles on the mantel was blown out, and the little machine suddenly swung round, became indistinct, and was seen as a ghost for a second perhaps, as an eddy of faintly glittering brass and ivory; and it was gone — vanished!

The Psychologist recovered from his stupor and suddenly looked under the table.

We stared at each other. “Do you seriously believe that machine has travelled into time?” said the Medical Man.

“You mean to say that machine has travelled into the future?” said Filby.

“Into the future or the past” said Time Traveler.

After an interval, the Psychologist had an inspiration. “It must have gone into the past if it has gone anywhere,” he said.

“Because I presume that it has not moved in space and if it travelled into the future it would still be here all this time since it must have travelled through this time.”

“But,” said I, “If it travelled into the past it would have been visible when we came first into this room; and last Thursday when we were here; and the Thursday before that; and so forth!”

“That’s a simple point of psychology. It’s plain enough and helps the paradox delightfully. We cannot see it, nor can we appreciate this machine, any more than we can speak of a wheel spinning, or a bullet flying through the air. If it is travelling through time fifty times faster than we are, if it gets through a minute while we get through a second, the impression it creates will, of course, only be one-fiftieth of what it would make if it were not travelling in time.” He passed his hand through the space in which the machine had been.

“Would you like to see the Time Machine itself?” asked the Time Traveler. And therewith, taking the lamp in his hand, he led the way down the long, draughty corridor to his laboratory. “Look here,” said the Medical Man, “are you perfectly serious? Or is this a trick, like that ghost you showed us last Christmas?”

“Upon that machine,” said the Time Traveller, holding the lamp aloft, “I intend to explore time. Is that plain? I was never more serious in my life.

” None of us quite knew how to take it.

I caught Filby’s eye over the shoulder of the Medical Man, and he winked at me solemnly."

Q. According to the passage, which of the following statements cannot be considered true?

Solution:
QUESTION: 6

"The Psychologist seemed about to speak to me but changed his mind. Then the Time Traveler put forth his finger towards the lever. “No,” he said suddenly. “Lend me your hand.” He took the Psychologist’s hand in his own and told him to put out his forefinger. So that it was the Psychologist himself who sent forth the model Time Machine on its interminable voyage. We all saw the lever turn. I am absolutely certain there was no trickery. There was a breath of wind, and the lamp flame jumped. One of the candles on the mantel was blown out, and the little machine suddenly swung round, became indistinct, and was seen as a ghost for a second perhaps, as an eddy of faintly glittering brass and ivory; and it was gone — vanished!

The Psychologist recovered from his stupor and suddenly looked under the table.

We stared at each other. “Do you seriously believe that machine has travelled into time?” said the Medical Man.

“You mean to say that machine has travelled into the future?” said Filby.

“Into the future or the past” said Time Traveler.

After an interval, the Psychologist had an inspiration. “It must have gone into the past if it has gone anywhere,” he said.

“Because I presume that it has not moved in space and if it travelled into the future it would still be here all this time since it must have travelled through this time.”

“But,” said I, “If it travelled into the past it would have been visible when we came first into this room; and last Thursday when we were here; and the Thursday before that; and so forth!”

“That’s a simple point of psychology. It’s plain enough and helps the paradox delightfully. We cannot see it, nor can we appreciate this machine, any more than we can speak of a wheel spinning, or a bullet flying through the air. If it is travelling through time fifty times faster than we are, if it gets through a minute while we get through a second, the impression it creates will, of course, only be one-fiftieth of what it would make if it were not travelling in time.” He passed his hand through the space in which the machine had been.

“Would you like to see the Time Machine itself?” asked the Time Traveler. And therewith, taking the lamp in his hand, he led the way down the long, draughty corridor to his laboratory. “Look here,” said the Medical Man, “are you perfectly serious? Or is this a trick, like that ghost you showed us last Christmas?”

“Upon that machine,” said the Time Traveller, holding the lamp aloft, “I intend to explore time. Is that plain? I was never more serious in my life.

” None of us quite knew how to take it.

I caught Filby’s eye over the shoulder of the Medical Man, and he winked at me solemnly."

Q. What is the most suitable title for the above passage?

Solution: The Machine is the most suitable title for the passage among the options given to us.
QUESTION: 7

[1]Studies of brain evolution are compelling because of their implications for understanding human evolution. [2]Consequently, researchers are motivated by a desire to find the causes of intelligence. [3]What is intelligence? [4]It is inevitably described with respect to human attributes; we consider ourselves intelligent, and we therefore compare other species to ourselves. [5]This view is legitimized by the fact that humans do have very sophisticated brains, exhibit extraordinarily complex behavior, and cope well in novel situations, generalizing from one problem to another.

[6]Unfortunately, criteria applicable to humans are not necessarily appropriate for evaluating traits of other organisms. [7]There is no basis for the assumption that all intelligence is human-like intelligence, nor even for the preconception that all primate intelligence is human-like. [8]To say that intellectual prowess is comparative across species and to use humans as the basis for comparison is a continuation of pre-Darwinian ideas of a scala naturae dealing with intelligence. [9]If ranking species in a single phylogenetic line according to criteria based on the extant member is questionable, then certainly since ecological conditions and selection pressures change over time, ranking contemporary species separated by millions of years of evolution based on the traits exhibited by one is unjustifiable. [10]To assume a continuum of intelligence across today's species is incompatible with an evolutionary perspective, and this preconception must not be allowed to guide studies of brain evolution. [11]The information-processing systems of different animals have been designed to respond to different stimuli, diverse ""cognitive substrates,"" and therefore expectations of an interspecific regularity between these IPS and various other body measures are ill-conceived.

[12]What # lacking # a good definition # intelligence that will allow us # say something # how an animal copes # its own ecology and not how closely # approximates human behavior. [13]There are undeniable trends in the history of life -- towards larger brains in mammals and larger neocortices in primates -- but to generalize correlations of these trends into a concept of intelligence should not be attempted until an accurate definition is developed. [14]Until that time, the most that comparative brain size studies can do is demonstrate correlations and thereby pose questions for scientists who focus on the evolution of species with one of these correlated characteristics.

Q. The initial definition of ‘Intelligence’ is given with respect to Humans. This is considered acceptable to some because?

Solution: Refer to the line - This view is legitimized by the fact that humans do have very sophisticated brains, exhibit extraordinarily complex behavior, and cope well in novel situations, generalizing from one problem to another. Answer is first option.
QUESTION: 8

[1]Studies of brain evolution are compelling because of their implications for understanding human evolution. [2]Consequently, researchers are motivated by a desire to find the causes of intelligence. [3]What is intelligence? [4]It is inevitably described with respect to human attributes; we consider ourselves intelligent, and we therefore compare other species to ourselves. [5]This view is legitimized by the fact that humans do have very sophisticated brains, exhibit extraordinarily complex behavior, and cope well in novel situations, generalizing from one problem to another.

[6]Unfortunately, criteria applicable to humans are not necessarily appropriate for evaluating traits of other organisms. [7]There is no basis for the assumption that all intelligence is human-like intelligence, nor even for the preconception that all primate intelligence is human-like. [8]To say that intellectual prowess is comparative across species and to use humans as the basis for comparison is a continuation of pre-Darwinian ideas of a scala naturae dealing with intelligence. [9]If ranking species in a single phylogenetic line according to criteria based on the extant member is questionable, then certainly since ecological conditions and selection pressures change over time, ranking contemporary species separated by millions of years of evolution based on the traits exhibited by one is unjustifiable. [10]To assume a continuum of intelligence across today's species is incompatible with an evolutionary perspective, and this preconception must not be allowed to guide studies of brain evolution. [11]The information-processing systems of different animals have been designed to respond to different stimuli, diverse ""cognitive substrates,"" and therefore expectations of an interspecific regularity between these IPS and various other body measures are ill-conceived.

[12]What # lacking # a good definition # intelligence that will allow us # say something # how an animal copes # its own ecology and not how closely # approximates human behavior. [13]There are undeniable trends in the history of life -- towards larger brains in mammals and larger neocortices in primates -- but to generalize correlations of these trends into a concept of intelligence should not be attempted until an accurate definition is developed. [14]Until that time, the most that comparative brain size studies can do is demonstrate correlations and thereby pose questions for scientists who focus on the evolution of species with one of these correlated characteristics.

Q. The primary function of the paragraph is to?

Solution: Initially the author finds the comparison between the intelligence of humans and intelligence of other species not appropriate. And in the last line of the passage he says, “Until an accurate method is found use the comparative studies data to pose questions on scientists on correlations.” So he opposes the initial criterion and recommends following the alternate method temporarily until an accurate definition is found. Answer is second option.
QUESTION: 9

[1]Studies of brain evolution are compelling because of their implications for understanding human evolution. [2]Consequently, researchers are motivated by a desire to find the causes of intelligence. [3]What is intelligence? [4]It is inevitably described with respect to human attributes; we consider ourselves intelligent, and we therefore compare other species to ourselves. [5]This view is legitimized by the fact that humans do have very sophisticated brains, exhibit extraordinarily complex behavior, and cope well in novel situations, generalizing from one problem to another.

[6]Unfortunately, criteria applicable to humans are not necessarily appropriate for evaluating traits of other organisms. [7]There is no basis for the assumption that all intelligence is human-like intelligence, nor even for the preconception that all primate intelligence is human-like. [8]To say that intellectual prowess is comparative across species and to use humans as the basis for comparison is a continuation of pre-Darwinian ideas of a scala naturae dealing with intelligence. [9]If ranking species in a single phylogenetic line according to criteria based on the extant member is questionable, then certainly since ecological conditions and selection pressures change over time, ranking contemporary species separated by millions of years of evolution based on the traits exhibited by one is unjustifiable. [10]To assume a continuum of intelligence across today's species is incompatible with an evolutionary perspective, and this preconception must not be allowed to guide studies of brain evolution. [11]The information-processing systems of different animals have been designed to respond to different stimuli, diverse ""cognitive substrates,"" and therefore expectations of an interspecific regularity between these IPS and various other body measures are ill-conceived.

[12]What # lacking # a good definition # intelligence that will allow us # say something # how an animal copes # its own ecology and not how closely # approximates human behavior. [13]There are undeniable trends in the history of life -- towards larger brains in mammals and larger neocortices in primates -- but to generalize correlations of these trends into a concept of intelligence should not be attempted until an accurate definition is developed. [14]Until that time, the most that comparative brain size studies can do is demonstrate correlations and thereby pose questions for scientists who focus on the evolution of species with one of these correlated characteristics.

Q. The author’s suggestion about brain studies towards the end of the passage is

Solution: ‘Until that time’ indicates that this is a temporary solution until the correct definition of intelligence is made. So the answer is fourth option.
QUESTION: 10

[1]Studies of brain evolution are compelling because of their implications for understanding human evolution. [2]Consequently, researchers are motivated by a desire to find the causes of intelligence. [3]What is intelligence? [4]It is inevitably described with respect to human attributes; we consider ourselves intelligent, and we therefore compare other species to ourselves. [5]This view is legitimized by the fact that humans do have very sophisticated brains, exhibit extraordinarily complex behavior, and cope well in novel situations, generalizing from one problem to another.

[6]Unfortunately, criteria applicable to humans are not necessarily appropriate for evaluating traits of other organisms. [7]There is no basis for the assumption that all intelligence is human-like intelligence, nor even for the preconception that all primate intelligence is human-like. [8]To say that intellectual prowess is comparative across species and to use humans as the basis for comparison is a continuation of pre-Darwinian ideas of a scala naturae dealing with intelligence. [9]If ranking species in a single phylogenetic line according to criteria based on the extant member is questionable, then certainly since ecological conditions and selection pressures change over time, ranking contemporary species separated by millions of years of evolution based on the traits exhibited by one is unjustifiable. [10]To assume a continuum of intelligence across today's species is incompatible with an evolutionary perspective, and this preconception must not be allowed to guide studies of brain evolution. [11]The information-processing systems of different animals have been designed to respond to different stimuli, diverse ""cognitive substrates,"" and therefore expectations of an interspecific regularity between these IPS and various other body measures are ill-conceived.

[12]What # lacking # a good definition # intelligence that will allow us # say something # how an animal copes # its own ecology and not how closely # approximates human behavior. [13]There are undeniable trends in the history of life -- towards larger brains in mammals and larger neocortices in primates -- but to generalize correlations of these trends into a concept of intelligence should not be attempted until an accurate definition is developed. [14]Until that time, the most that comparative brain size studies can do is demonstrate correlations and thereby pose questions for scientists who focus on the evolution of species with one of these correlated characteristics.

Q. What do you mean by 'scala naturae'?

Solution: Scala naturae based on the passage means to organize all things in the natural world.
QUESTION: 11

[1]Studies of brain evolution are compelling because of their implications for understanding human evolution. [2]Consequently, researchers are motivated by a desire to find the causes of intelligence. [3]What is intelligence? [4]It is inevitably described with respect to human attributes; we consider ourselves intelligent, and we therefore compare other species to ourselves. [5]This view is legitimized by the fact that humans do have very sophisticated brains, exhibit extraordinarily complex behavior, and cope well in novel situations, generalizing from one problem to another.

[6]Unfortunately, criteria applicable to humans are not necessarily appropriate for evaluating traits of other organisms. [7]There is no basis for the assumption that all intelligence is human-like intelligence, nor even for the preconception that all primate intelligence is human-like. [8]To say that intellectual prowess is comparative across species and to use humans as the basis for comparison is a continuation of pre-Darwinian ideas of a scala naturae dealing with intelligence. [9]If ranking species in a single phylogenetic line according to criteria based on the extant member is questionable, then certainly since ecological conditions and selection pressures change over time, ranking contemporary species separated by millions of years of evolution based on the traits exhibited by one is unjustifiable. [10]To assume a continuum of intelligence across today's species is incompatible with an evolutionary perspective, and this preconception must not be allowed to guide studies of brain evolution. [11]The information-processing systems of different animals have been designed to respond to different stimuli, diverse ""cognitive substrates,"" and therefore expectations of an interspecific regularity between these IPS and various other body measures are ill-conceived.

[12]What # lacking # a good definition # intelligence that will allow us # say something # how an animal copes # its own ecology and not how closely # approximates human behavior. [13]There are undeniable trends in the history of life -- towards larger brains in mammals and larger neocortices in primates -- but to generalize correlations of these trends into a concept of intelligence should not be attempted until an accurate definition is developed. [14]Until that time, the most that comparative brain size studies can do is demonstrate correlations and thereby pose questions for scientists who focus on the evolution of species with one of these correlated characteristics.

Q. Which set of words below contains the correct set of antonyms for all of the following words? Sophisticated, continuation, contemporary, diverse

Solution: Option A gives the correct set of antonyms.
QUESTION: 12

[1]Studies of brain evolution are compelling because of their implications for understanding human evolution. [2]Consequently, researchers are motivated by a desire to find the causes of intelligence. [3]What is intelligence? [4]It is inevitably described with respect to human attributes; we consider ourselves intelligent, and we therefore compare other species to ourselves. [5]This view is legitimized by the fact that humans do have very sophisticated brains, exhibit extraordinarily complex behavior, and cope well in novel situations, generalizing from one problem to another.

[6]Unfortunately, criteria applicable to humans are not necessarily appropriate for evaluating traits of other organisms. [7]There is no basis for the assumption that all intelligence is human-like intelligence, nor even for the preconception that all primate intelligence is human-like. [8]To say that intellectual prowess is comparative across species and to use humans as the basis for comparison is a continuation of pre-Darwinian ideas of a scala naturae dealing with intelligence. [9]If ranking species in a single phylogenetic line according to criteria based on the extant member is questionable, then certainly since ecological conditions and selection pressures change over time, ranking contemporary species separated by millions of years of evolution based on the traits exhibited by one is unjustifiable. [10]To assume a continuum of intelligence across today's species is incompatible with an evolutionary perspective, and this preconception must not be allowed to guide studies of brain evolution. [11]The information-processing systems of different animals have been designed to respond to different stimuli, diverse ""cognitive substrates,"" and therefore expectations of an interspecific regularity between these IPS and various other body measures are ill-conceived.

[12]What # lacking # a good definition # intelligence that will allow us # say something # how an animal copes # its own ecology and not how closely # approximates human behavior. [13]There are undeniable trends in the history of life -- towards larger brains in mammals and larger neocortices in primates -- but to generalize correlations of these trends into a concept of intelligence should not be attempted until an accurate definition is developed. [14]Until that time, the most that comparative brain size studies can do is demonstrate correlations and thereby pose questions for scientists who focus on the evolution of species with one of these correlated characteristics.

Q. Which of the following contains the correct sequence of missing words in the sentence [12]? (Missing words indicated by ‘#’.)

Solution: What is lacking is a good definition of intelligence that will allow us to say something about how an animal copes with its own ecology and not how closely it approximates human behavior.
QUESTION: 13

[1]Part of the confidence, with which artificial intelligence researchers view the prospects of their field stems from the materialist assumptions they make. [2]One is that "mind" is simply a name for the information-processing activity of the brain. Another is that the brain is a physical entity that acts according to the laws of biochemistry and is not influenced by any irreducible "soul" or other unitary, purely mental entity that is incapable of analysis as a causal sequence of elementary biochemical events. [3]This broadly accepted view, together with the rapidly mounting mass of information concerning nervous system physiology, microanatomy, and signaling behavior and with the current technology-based push to construct analogous computing systems involving thousands of elements acting in parallel, has encouraged a shift in emphasis among AI researchers that has come to be identified as "the new connectionism."

[4]The emphases that characterizes this school of thought are as follows:

[5]Firstly, the brain operates not as a serial computer of conventional type but in enormously parallel fashion. [6]The parallel functioning of hundreds of thousands or millions of neurons in the brain's subtle information-extraction processes attains speed. [7]Coherent percepts are formed in times that exceed the elementary reaction times of single neurons by little more than a factor of ten. [8]Especially for basic perceptual processes like sight, this observation rules out iterative forms of information processing that would have to scan incoming data serially or pass it through many intermediate processing stages. [9]Since extensive serial symbolic search operations of this type do not seem to characterize the functioning of the senses, the assumption (typical for much of the AI-inspired cognitive science speculation of the 1960-80 period) that serial search underlies various higher cognitive functions becomes suspect.

[10]Secondly, within the brain, knowledge is stored not in any form resembling a conventional computer program but structurally, as distributed patterns of excitatory and inhibitory synaptic strengths whose relative sizes determine the flow of neural responses that constitutes perception and thought.

[11]AI researchers developing these views have been drawn to involvement in neuroscience by the hope of being able to contribute theoretical insights that could give meaning to the rapidly growing, but still bewildering, mass of empirical data being gathered by experimental neuroscientists (many of whom regard theoretical speculation with more than a little disdain). [12]These AI researchers hope to combine clues drawn from experiment with the computer scientists' practiced ability to analyze complex external functions into patterns of elementary actions. [13]By assuming some general form for the computational activities characteristic of these actions, they hope to guess something illuminating about the way in which the perceptual and cognitive workings of the brain arise.

Q. According to the AI researchers, which of the following is (are) true about the mind?

I. Mind can be analysed as a causal sequence of elementary biochemical events

II. Functioning of the senses cannot be performed in iterative form of information processing.

III. Knowledge is stored in brain in the form of traditional computer system.

Solution:
QUESTION: 14

[1]Part of the confidence, with which artificial intelligence researchers view the prospects of their field stems from the materialist assumptions they make. [2]One is that "mind" is simply a name for the information-processing activity of the brain. Another is that the brain is a physical entity that acts according to the laws of biochemistry and is not influenced by any irreducible "soul" or other unitary, purely mental entity that is incapable of analysis as a causal sequence of elementary biochemical events. [3]This broadly accepted view, together with the rapidly mounting mass of information concerning nervous system physiology, microanatomy, and signaling behavior and with the current technology-based push to construct analogous computing systems involving thousands of elements acting in parallel, has encouraged a shift in emphasis among AI researchers that has come to be identified as "the new connectionism."

[4]The emphases that characterizes this school of thought are as follows:

[5]Firstly, the brain operates not as a serial computer of conventional type but in enormously parallel fashion. [6]The parallel functioning of hundreds of thousands or millions of neurons in the brain's subtle information-extraction processes attains speed. [7]Coherent percepts are formed in times that exceed the elementary reaction times of single neurons by little more than a factor of ten. [8]Especially for basic perceptual processes like sight, this observation rules out iterative forms of information processing that would have to scan incoming data serially or pass it through many intermediate processing stages. [9]Since extensive serial symbolic search operations of this type do not seem to characterize the functioning of the senses, the assumption (typical for much of the AI-inspired cognitive science speculation of the 1960-80 period) that serial search underlies various higher cognitive functions becomes suspect.

[10]Secondly, within the brain, knowledge is stored not in any form resembling a conventional computer program but structurally, as distributed patterns of excitatory and inhibitory synaptic strengths whose relative sizes determine the flow of neural responses that constitutes perception and thought.

[11]AI researchers developing these views have been drawn to involvement in neuroscience by the hope of being able to contribute theoretical insights that could give meaning to the rapidly growing, but still bewildering, mass of empirical data being gathered by experimental neuroscientists (many of whom regard theoretical speculation with more than a little disdain). [12]These AI researchers hope to combine clues drawn from experiment with the computer scientists' practiced ability to analyze complex external functions into patterns of elementary actions. [13]By assuming some general form for the computational activities characteristic of these actions, they hope to guess something illuminating about the way in which the perceptual and cognitive workings of the brain arise.

Q. Which of the following best explains the organization of the paragraph?

Solution: Option(A) is incorrect because historical background or chronological events are not discussed. An ongoing research was mentioned but not the existing one or a new one. So option(B) is incorrect. Option(C) discusses about a research method, theory, changes suggested for adaptation and is hence incorrect. Mind is a physical entity, that operates in a parallel fashion. It can be analyzed. AI researchers by combining information from other areas, hope to find great results. The answer is Option(D).
QUESTION: 15

[1]Part of the confidence, with which artificial intelligence researchers view the prospects of their field stems from the materialist assumptions they make. [2]One is that "mind" is simply a name for the information-processing activity of the brain. Another is that the brain is a physical entity that acts according to the laws of biochemistry and is not influenced by any irreducible "soul" or other unitary, purely mental entity that is incapable of analysis as a causal sequence of elementary biochemical events. [3]This broadly accepted view, together with the rapidly mounting mass of information concerning nervous system physiology, microanatomy, and signaling behavior and with the current technology-based push to construct analogous computing systems involving thousands of elements acting in parallel, has encouraged a shift in emphasis among AI researchers that has come to be identified as "the new connectionism."

[4]The emphases that characterizes this school of thought are as follows:

[5]Firstly, the brain operates not as a serial computer of conventional type but in enormously parallel fashion. [6]The parallel functioning of hundreds of thousands or millions of neurons in the brain's subtle information-extraction processes attains speed. [7]Coherent percepts are formed in times that exceed the elementary reaction times of single neurons by little more than a factor of ten. [8]Especially for basic perceptual processes like sight, this observation rules out iterative forms of information processing that would have to scan incoming data serially or pass it through many intermediate processing stages. [9]Since extensive serial symbolic search operations of this type do not seem to characterize the functioning of the senses, the assumption (typical for much of the AI-inspired cognitive science speculation of the 1960-80 period) that serial search underlies various higher cognitive functions becomes suspect.

[10]Secondly, within the brain, knowledge is stored not in any form resembling a conventional computer program but structurally, as distributed patterns of excitatory and inhibitory synaptic strengths whose relative sizes determine the flow of neural responses that constitutes perception and thought.

[11]AI researchers developing these views have been drawn to involvement in neuroscience by the hope of being able to contribute theoretical insights that could give meaning to the rapidly growing, but still bewildering, mass of empirical data being gathered by experimental neuroscientists (many of whom regard theoretical speculation with more than a little disdain). [12]These AI researchers hope to combine clues drawn from experiment with the computer scientists' practiced ability to analyze complex external functions into patterns of elementary actions. [13]By assuming some general form for the computational activities characteristic of these actions, they hope to guess something illuminating about the way in which the perceptual and cognitive workings of the brain arise.

Q. Which of the following is the best title of the passage?

Solution: The first paragraph discusses the different sources from which AI researchers are getting information. Option C is too broad. Options B and D can be associated with only few parts of the passage. Answer is Option(a).
QUESTION: 16

[1]Part of the confidence, with which artificial intelligence researchers view the prospects of their field stems from the materialist assumptions they make. [2]One is that "mind" is simply a name for the information-processing activity of the brain. Another is that the brain is a physical entity that acts according to the laws of biochemistry and is not influenced by any irreducible "soul" or other unitary, purely mental entity that is incapable of analysis as a causal sequence of elementary biochemical events. [3]This broadly accepted view, together with the rapidly mounting mass of information concerning nervous system physiology, microanatomy, and signaling behavior and with the current technology-based push to construct analogous computing systems involving thousands of elements acting in parallel, has encouraged a shift in emphasis among AI researchers that has come to be identified as "the new connectionism."

[4]The emphases that characterizes this school of thought are as follows:

[5]Firstly, the brain operates not as a serial computer of conventional type but in enormously parallel fashion. [6]The parallel functioning of hundreds of thousands or millions of neurons in the brain's subtle information-extraction processes attains speed. [7]Coherent percepts are formed in times that exceed the elementary reaction times of single neurons by little more than a factor of ten. [8]Especially for basic perceptual processes like sight, this observation rules out iterative forms of information processing that would have to scan incoming data serially or pass it through many intermediate processing stages. [9]Since extensive serial symbolic search operations of this type do not seem to characterize the functioning of the senses, the assumption (typical for much of the AI-inspired cognitive science speculation of the 1960-80 period) that serial search underlies various higher cognitive functions becomes suspect.

[10]Secondly, within the brain, knowledge is stored not in any form resembling a conventional computer program but structurally, as distributed patterns of excitatory and inhibitory synaptic strengths whose relative sizes determine the flow of neural responses that constitutes perception and thought.

[11]AI researchers developing these views have been drawn to involvement in neuroscience by the hope of being able to contribute theoretical insights that could give meaning to the rapidly growing, but still bewildering, mass of empirical data being gathered by experimental neuroscientists (many of whom regard theoretical speculation with more than a little disdain). [12]These AI researchers hope to combine clues drawn from experiment with the computer scientists' practiced ability to analyze complex external functions into patterns of elementary actions. [13]By assuming some general form for the computational activities characteristic of these actions, they hope to guess something illuminating about the way in which the perceptual and cognitive workings of the brain arise.

Q. Neuroscientists would most likely agree to which of the following?

Solution: First option is incorrect as it is mentioned about AI researchers in the passage. Third option is incorrect as serial functioning is under suspect. Fourth option is also incorrect as perception and thought come from neural responses that flow from distributed patterns as mentioned in line 10. Refer to line 11 - “many of whom regard theoretical speculation with more than a little disdain.” So the answer is Second option.
QUESTION: 17

[1]Part of the confidence, with which artificial intelligence researchers view the prospects of their field stems from the materialist assumptions they make. [2]One is that "mind" is simply a name for the information-processing activity of the brain. Another is that the brain is a physical entity that acts according to the laws of biochemistry and is not influenced by any irreducible "soul" or other unitary, purely mental entity that is incapable of analysis as a causal sequence of elementary biochemical events. [3]This broadly accepted view, together with the rapidly mounting mass of information concerning nervous system physiology, microanatomy, and signaling behavior and with the current technology-based push to construct analogous computing systems involving thousands of elements acting in parallel, has encouraged a shift in emphasis among AI researchers that has come to be identified as "the new connectionism."

[4]The emphases that characterizes this school of thought are as follows:

[5]Firstly, the brain operates not as a serial computer of conventional type but in enormously parallel fashion. [6]The parallel functioning of hundreds of thousands or millions of neurons in the brain's subtle information-extraction processes attains speed. [7]Coherent percepts are formed in times that exceed the elementary reaction times of single neurons by little more than a factor of ten. [8]Especially for basic perceptual processes like sight, this observation rules out iterative forms of information processing that would have to scan incoming data serially or pass it through many intermediate processing stages. [9]Since extensive serial symbolic search operations of this type do not seem to characterize the functioning of the senses, the assumption (typical for much of the AI-inspired cognitive science speculation of the 1960-80 period) that serial search underlies various higher cognitive functions becomes suspect.

[10]Secondly, within the brain, knowledge is stored not in any form resembling a conventional computer program but structurally, as distributed patterns of excitatory and inhibitory synaptic strengths whose relative sizes determine the flow of neural responses that constitutes perception and thought.

[11]AI researchers developing these views have been drawn to involvement in neuroscience by the hope of being able to contribute theoretical insights that could give meaning to the rapidly growing, but still bewildering, mass of empirical data being gathered by experimental neuroscientists (many of whom regard theoretical speculation with more than a little disdain). [12]These AI researchers hope to combine clues drawn from experiment with the computer scientists' practiced ability to analyze complex external functions into patterns of elementary actions. [13]By assuming some general form for the computational activities characteristic of these actions, they hope to guess something illuminating about the way in which the perceptual and cognitive workings of the brain arise.

Q. Which of the following is the meaning of the word "illuminating" as used in the context of the paragraph in Sentence 13?

Solution: In the passage, illuminating means enlightening or revealing information.
QUESTION: 18

[1]Part of the confidence, with which artificial intelligence researchers view the prospects of their field stems from the materialist assumptions they make. [2]One is that "mind" is simply a name for the information-processing activity of the brain. Another is that the brain is a physical entity that acts according to the laws of biochemistry and is not influenced by any irreducible "soul" or other unitary, purely mental entity that is incapable of analysis as a causal sequence of elementary biochemical events. [3]This broadly accepted view, together with the rapidly mounting mass of information concerning nervous system physiology, microanatomy, and signaling behavior and with the current technology-based push to construct analogous computing systems involving thousands of elements acting in parallel, has encouraged a shift in emphasis among AI researchers that has come to be identified as "the new connectionism."

[4]The emphases that characterizes this school of thought are as follows:

[5]Firstly, the brain operates not as a serial computer of conventional type but in enormously parallel fashion. [6]The parallel functioning of hundreds of thousands or millions of neurons in the brain's subtle information-extraction processes attains speed. [7]Coherent percepts are formed in times that exceed the elementary reaction times of single neurons by little more than a factor of ten. [8]Especially for basic perceptual processes like sight, this observation rules out iterative forms of information processing that would have to scan incoming data serially or pass it through many intermediate processing stages. [9]Since extensive serial symbolic search operations of this type do not seem to characterize the functioning of the senses, the assumption (typical for much of the AI-inspired cognitive science speculation of the 1960-80 period) that serial search underlies various higher cognitive functions becomes suspect.

[10]Secondly, within the brain, knowledge is stored not in any form resembling a conventional computer program but structurally, as distributed patterns of excitatory and inhibitory synaptic strengths whose relative sizes determine the flow of neural responses that constitutes perception and thought.

[11]AI researchers developing these views have been drawn to involvement in neuroscience by the hope of being able to contribute theoretical insights that could give meaning to the rapidly growing, but still bewildering, mass of empirical data being gathered by experimental neuroscientists (many of whom regard theoretical speculation with more than a little disdain). [12]These AI researchers hope to combine clues drawn from experiment with the computer scientists' practiced ability to analyze complex external functions into patterns of elementary actions. [13]By assuming some general form for the computational activities characteristic of these actions, they hope to guess something illuminating about the way in which the perceptual and cognitive workings of the brain arise.

Q. All the sentences in the above passage are grammatically correct in the context of the passage, except -

Solution: The sentence should be "The emphases that characterize this school of thought are as follows: " as emphases is plural, the verb should be characterize.
QUESTION: 19

Since the late 1970’s, faced with severe loss of market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in the US have been trying to improve productivity—and therefore enhance their international competitiveness—through cost-cutting programs. (Cost-cutting here is defined as raising labor output while holding the amount of labor constant.) However, from 1978 through 1982, productivity—the value of goods manufactured divided by the amount of labor—did not improve; and while the results were better in the business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25 percent lower than productivity improvements during earlier, post-1945 upturns. ##At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufacturers worked to implement cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive edge.

When I recently visited 25 companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting approach to increasing productivity is fundamentally flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a “40, 40, 20” rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-based competitive advantage derives from long-term changes in manufacturing structure (decisions about the number, size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major changes in equipment and process technology. The final 20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-cutting. This does not mean cost-cutting should not be tried. Approaches like simplifying jobs and retraining employees to work smarter, not harder—do produce results. But the tools quickly reach the limits of what they can contribute.

Cost-cutting approach hinders innovation and discourages creative people. An industry can easily become prisoner of its own investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its ability to develop new products. Managers under pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation because they know that more fundamental changes in processes or systems will wreak havoc with the results on which they are measured. Production managers have always seen their job as one of minimizing costs and maximizing output. This dimension of performance has created a penny-pinching, mechanistic culture in most factories that has kept away creative managers. Successful companies have overcome this problem by developing and implementing a strategy that focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equipment and process technology. In one company a manufacturing strategy that allowed different areas of the factory to specialize in different markets replaced the conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years the company regained its competitive advantage. Together with such strategies, successful companies are also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of managing.

Q. As inferred from the first paragraph, the manufacturers expected that the measures they implemented would

Solution: The managers expected that the cost-cutting programs would enhance their international competitiveness.
QUESTION: 20

Since the late 1970’s, faced with severe loss of market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in the US have been trying to improve productivity—and therefore enhance their international competitiveness—through cost-cutting programs. (Cost-cutting here is defined as raising labor output while holding the amount of labor constant.) However, from 1978 through 1982, productivity—the value of goods manufactured divided by the amount of labor—did not improve; and while the results were better in the business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25 percent lower than productivity improvements during earlier, post-1945 upturns. ##At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufacturers worked to implement cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive edge.

When I recently visited 25 companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting approach to increasing productivity is fundamentally flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a “40, 40, 20” rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-based competitive advantage derives from long-term changes in manufacturing structure (decisions about the number, size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major changes in equipment and process technology. The final 20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-cutting. This does not mean cost-cutting should not be tried. Approaches like simplifying jobs and retraining employees to work smarter, not harder—do produce results. But the tools quickly reach the limits of what they can contribute.

Cost-cutting approach hinders innovation and discourages creative people. An industry can easily become prisoner of its own investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its ability to develop new products. Managers under pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation because they know that more fundamental changes in processes or systems will wreak havoc with the results on which they are measured. Production managers have always seen their job as one of minimizing costs and maximizing output. This dimension of performance has created a penny-pinching, mechanistic culture in most factories that has kept away creative managers. Successful companies have overcome this problem by developing and implementing a strategy that focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equipment and process technology. In one company a manufacturing strategy that allowed different areas of the factory to specialize in different markets replaced the conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years the company regained its competitive advantage. Together with such strategies, successful companies are also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of managing.

Q. The primary function of the first paragraph is to

Solution: The first paragraph talks about the late 1970s. It gives a historical context for the author's current observations.
QUESTION: 21

Since the late 1970’s, faced with severe loss of market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in the US have been trying to improve productivity—and therefore enhance their international competitiveness—through cost-cutting programs. (Cost-cutting here is defined as raising labor output while holding the amount of labor constant.) However, from 1978 through 1982, productivity—the value of goods manufactured divided by the amount of labor—did not improve; and while the results were better in the business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25 percent lower than productivity improvements during earlier, post-1945 upturns. ##At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufacturers worked to implement cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive edge.

When I recently visited 25 companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting approach to increasing productivity is fundamentally flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a “40, 40, 20” rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-based competitive advantage derives from long-term changes in manufacturing structure (decisions about the number, size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major changes in equipment and process technology. The final 20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-cutting. This does not mean cost-cutting should not be tried. Approaches like simplifying jobs and retraining employees to work smarter, not harder—do produce results. But the tools quickly reach the limits of what they can contribute.

Cost-cutting approach hinders innovation and discourages creative people. An industry can easily become prisoner of its own investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its ability to develop new products. Managers under pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation because they know that more fundamental changes in processes or systems will wreak havoc with the results on which they are measured. Production managers have always seen their job as one of minimizing costs and maximizing output. This dimension of performance has created a penny-pinching, mechanistic culture in most factories that has kept away creative managers. Successful companies have overcome this problem by developing and implementing a strategy that focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equipment and process technology. In one company a manufacturing strategy that allowed different areas of the factory to specialize in different markets replaced the conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years the company regained its competitive advantage. Together with such strategies, successful companies are also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of managing.

Q. The author’s attitude toward the culture in most factories is best described as

Solution: The author is critical of the majority of companies that he has visited. He believes that their approach is flawed.
QUESTION: 22

Since the late 1970’s, faced with severe loss of market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in the US have been trying to improve productivity—and therefore enhance their international competitiveness—through cost-cutting programs. (Cost-cutting here is defined as raising labor output while holding the amount of labor constant.) However, from 1978 through 1982, productivity—the value of goods manufactured divided by the amount of labor—did not improve; and while the results were better in the business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25 percent lower than productivity improvements during earlier, post-1945 upturns. ##At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufacturers worked to implement cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive edge.

When I recently visited 25 companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting approach to increasing productivity is fundamentally flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a “40, 40, 20” rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-based competitive advantage derives from long-term changes in manufacturing structure (decisions about the number, size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major changes in equipment and process technology. The final 20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-cutting. This does not mean cost-cutting should not be tried. Approaches like simplifying jobs and retraining employees to work smarter, not harder—do produce results. But the tools quickly reach the limits of what they can contribute.

Cost-cutting approach hinders innovation and discourages creative people. An industry can easily become prisoner of its own investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its ability to develop new products. Managers under pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation because they know that more fundamental changes in processes or systems will wreak havoc with the results on which they are measured. Production managers have always seen their job as one of minimizing costs and maximizing output. This dimension of performance has created a penny-pinching, mechanistic culture in most factories that has kept away creative managers. Successful companies have overcome this problem by developing and implementing a strategy that focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equipment and process technology. In one company a manufacturing strategy that allowed different areas of the factory to specialize in different markets replaced the conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years the company regained its competitive advantage. Together with such strategies, successful companies are also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of managing.

Q. In the passage, the author includes all of the following EXCEPT

Solution: No illustration of process technology has been given in the passage. The other options are referred in the passage.
QUESTION: 23

Since the late 1970’s, faced with severe loss of market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in the US have been trying to improve productivity—and therefore enhance their international competitiveness—through cost-cutting programs. (Cost-cutting here is defined as raising labor output while holding the amount of labor constant.) However, from 1978 through 1982, productivity—the value of goods manufactured divided by the amount of labor—did not improve; and while the results were better in the business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25 percent lower than productivity improvements during earlier, post-1945 upturns. ##At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufacturers worked to implement cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive edge.

When I recently visited 25 companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting approach to increasing productivity is fundamentally flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a “40, 40, 20” rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-based competitive advantage derives from long-term changes in manufacturing structure (decisions about the number, size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major changes in equipment and process technology. The final 20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-cutting. This does not mean cost-cutting should not be tried. Approaches like simplifying jobs and retraining employees to work smarter, not harder—do produce results. But the tools quickly reach the limits of what they can contribute.

Cost-cutting approach hinders innovation and discourages creative people. An industry can easily become prisoner of its own investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its ability to develop new products. Managers under pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation because they know that more fundamental changes in processes or systems will wreak havoc with the results on which they are measured. Production managers have always seen their job as one of minimizing costs and maximizing output. This dimension of performance has created a penny-pinching, mechanistic culture in most factories that has kept away creative managers. Successful companies have overcome this problem by developing and implementing a strategy that focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equipment and process technology. In one company a manufacturing strategy that allowed different areas of the factory to specialize in different markets replaced the conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years the company regained its competitive advantage. Together with such strategies, successful companies are also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of managing.

Q. The author suggests that implementing conventional cost-cutting as a way of increasing manufacturing competitiveness is a strategy that

Solution: Only 20% of competitive advantage can be gained by conventional cost-cutting. So it is useful but inadequate.
QUESTION: 24

Since the late 1970’s, faced with severe loss of market share in dozens of industries, manufacturers in the US have been trying to improve productivity—and therefore enhance their international competitiveness—through cost-cutting programs. (Cost-cutting here is defined as raising labor output while holding the amount of labor constant.) However, from 1978 through 1982, productivity—the value of goods manufactured divided by the amount of labor—did not improve; and while the results were better in the business upturn of the three years following, they ran 25 percent lower than productivity improvements during earlier, post-1945 upturns. ##At the same time, it became clear that the harder manufacturers worked to implement cost-cutting, the more they lost their competitive edge.

When I recently visited 25 companies; it became clear to me that the cost-cutting approach to increasing productivity is fundamentally flawed. Manufacturing regularly observes a “40, 40, 20” rule. Roughly 40 percent of any manufacturing-based competitive advantage derives from long-term changes in manufacturing structure (decisions about the number, size, location, and capacity of facilities) and in approaches to materials. Another 40 percent comes from major changes in equipment and process technology. The final 20 percent rests on implementing conventional cost-cutting. This does not mean cost-cutting should not be tried. Approaches like simplifying jobs and retraining employees to work smarter, not harder—do produce results. But the tools quickly reach the limits of what they can contribute.

Cost-cutting approach hinders innovation and discourages creative people. An industry can easily become prisoner of its own investments in cost-cutting techniques, reducing its ability to develop new products. Managers under pressure to maximize cost-cutting will resist innovation because they know that more fundamental changes in processes or systems will wreak havoc with the results on which they are measured. Production managers have always seen their job as one of minimizing costs and maximizing output. This dimension of performance has created a penny-pinching, mechanistic culture in most factories that has kept away creative managers. Successful companies have overcome this problem by developing and implementing a strategy that focuses on the manufacturing structure and on equipment and process technology. In one company a manufacturing strategy that allowed different areas of the factory to specialize in different markets replaced the conventional cost-cutting approach; within three years the company regained its competitive advantage. Together with such strategies, successful companies are also encouraging managers to focus on a wider set of objectives besides cutting costs. There is hope for manufacturing, but it clearly rests on a different way of managing.

Q. Which figure of speech is used in the sentence enclosed within **?

Solution: The sentence conveys a paradox. - a statement that appears to contradict itself. Implementing cost-cutting should lead to increased competitive edge, but the companies were actually losing their competitive edge.
QUESTION: 25

Agriculture has no single, simple origin. A wide variety of plants and animals have been independently domesticated at different times and in numerous places. The first agriculture appears to have developed at the closing of the last Pleistocene glacial period, or Ice Age (about 11,700 years ago). At that time temperatures warmed, glaciers melted, sea levels rose, and ecosystems throughout the world reorganized. The changes were more dramatic in temperate regions than in the tropics. Although global climate change played a role in the development of agriculture, it does not account for the complex and diverse cultural responses that ensued, the specific timing of the appearance of agricultural communities in different regions, or the specific regional impact of climate change on local environments. By studying populations that did not develop intensive agriculture or certain cultigens, such as wheat and rice, archaeologists narrow the search for causes. For instance, Australian Aborigines and many of the Native American peoples of western North America developed complex methods to manage diverse sets of plants and animals, often including (but not limited to) cultivation. These practices may be representative of activities common in some parts of the world before 15,000 years ago. Plant and animal management was and is a familiar concept within hunting and gathering cultures, but it took on new dimensions as natural selection and mutation produced phenotypes that were increasingly reliant upon people. Because some resource management practices, such as intensively tending non-domesticated nut-bearing trees, bridge the boundary between foraging and farming, archaeologists investigating agricultural origins generally frame their work in terms of a continuum of subsistence practices.

Notably, agriculture does not appear to have developed in particularly impoverished settings; domestication does not seem to have been a response to food scarcity or deprivation. In fact, quite the opposite appears to be the case. It was once thought that human population pressure was a significant factor in the process, but research indicated by the late 20th century that populations rose significantly only after people had established food production. Instead, it is thought that—at least initially—the new animals and plants that were developed through domestication may have helped to maintain ways of life that emphasized hunting and gathering by providing insurance in lean seasons. When considered in terms of food management, dogs may have been initially domesticated as hunting companions, while meat and milk could be obtained more reliably from herds of sheep, goats, reindeer, or cattle than from their wild counterparts or other game animals. Domestication made resource planning [X] more predictable exercise, in regions that combined extreme seasonal variation and rich natural resource abundance.

Q. Which of the following is not true regarding the origins of Agriculture?

Solution: The origins of agriculture are marked by the departure of the Ice Age and not its onset.
QUESTION: 26

Agriculture has no single, simple origin. A wide variety of plants and animals have been independently domesticated at different times and in numerous places. The first agriculture appears to have developed at the closing of the last Pleistocene glacial period, or Ice Age (about 11,700 years ago). At that time temperatures warmed, glaciers melted, sea levels rose, and ecosystems throughout the world reorganized. The changes were more dramatic in temperate regions than in the tropics. Although global climate change played a role in the development of agriculture, it does not account for the complex and diverse cultural responses that ensued, the specific timing of the appearance of agricultural communities in different regions, or the specific regional impact of climate change on local environments. By studying populations that did not develop intensive agriculture or certain cultigens, such as wheat and rice, archaeologists narrow the search for causes. For instance, Australian Aborigines and many of the Native American peoples of western North America developed complex methods to manage diverse sets of plants and animals, often including (but not limited to) cultivation. These practices may be representative of activities common in some parts of the world before 15,000 years ago. Plant and animal management was and is a familiar concept within hunting and gathering cultures, but it took on new dimensions as natural selection and mutation produced phenotypes that were increasingly reliant upon people. Because some resource management practices, such as intensively tending non-domesticated nut-bearing trees, bridge the boundary between foraging and farming, archaeologists investigating agricultural origins generally frame their work in terms of a continuum of subsistence practices.

Notably, agriculture does not appear to have developed in particularly impoverished settings; domestication does not seem to have been a response to food scarcity or deprivation. In fact, quite the opposite appears to be the case. It was once thought that human population pressure was a significant factor in the process, but research indicated by the late 20th century that populations rose significantly only after people had established food production. Instead, it is thought that—at least initially—the new animals and plants that were developed through domestication may have helped to maintain ways of life that emphasized hunting and gathering by providing insurance in lean seasons. When considered in terms of food management, dogs may have been initially domesticated as hunting companions, while meat and milk could be obtained more reliably from herds of sheep, goats, reindeer, or cattle than from their wild counterparts or other game animals. Domestication made resource planning [X] more predictable exercise, in regions that combined extreme seasonal variation and rich natural resource abundance.

Q. Why did archaeologists study the civilisations that had not developed any intensive culture of agriculture?

Solution: The passage clearly mentions that by studying populations that did not develop intensive agriculture or certain cultigens, such as wheat and rice, archaeologists narrow the search for causes. So, the reason was to have a more targeted study.
QUESTION: 27

Agriculture has no single, simple origin. A wide variety of plants and animals have been independently domesticated at different times and in numerous places. The first agriculture appears to have developed at the closing of the last Pleistocene glacial period, or Ice Age (about 11,700 years ago). At that time temperatures warmed, glaciers melted, sea levels rose, and ecosystems throughout the world reorganized. The changes were more dramatic in temperate regions than in the tropics. Although global climate change played a role in the development of agriculture, it does not account for the complex and diverse cultural responses that ensued, the specific timing of the appearance of agricultural communities in different regions, or the specific regional impact of climate change on local environments. By studying populations that did not develop intensive agriculture or certain cultigens, such as wheat and rice, archaeologists narrow the search for causes. For instance, Australian Aborigines and many of the Native American peoples of western North America developed complex methods to manage diverse sets of plants and animals, often including (but not limited to) cultivation. These practices may be representative of activities common in some parts of the world before 15,000 years ago. Plant and animal management was and is a familiar concept within hunting and gathering cultures, but it took on new dimensions as natural selection and mutation produced phenotypes that were increasingly reliant upon people. Because some resource management practices, such as intensively tending non-domesticated nut-bearing trees, bridge the boundary between foraging and farming, archaeologists investigating agricultural origins generally frame their work in terms of a continuum of subsistence practices.

Notably, agriculture does not appear to have developed in particularly impoverished settings; domestication does not seem to have been a response to food scarcity or deprivation. In fact, quite the opposite appears to be the case. It was once thought that human population pressure was a significant factor in the process, but research indicated by the late 20th century that populations rose significantly only after people had established food production. Instead, it is thought that—at least initially—the new animals and plants that were developed through domestication may have helped to maintain ways of life that emphasized hunting and gathering by providing insurance in lean seasons. When considered in terms of food management, dogs may have been initially domesticated as hunting companions, while meat and milk could be obtained more reliably from herds of sheep, goats, reindeer, or cattle than from their wild counterparts or other game animals. Domestication made resource planning [X] more predictable exercise, in regions that combined extreme seasonal variation and rich natural resource abundance.

Q. Which of the following could be inferred from the passage above?

Solution: The passage mentions that plant and animal management was and is a familiar concept within hunting and gathering cultures.
QUESTION: 28

Agriculture has no single, simple origin. A wide variety of plants and animals have been independently domesticated at different times and in numerous places. The first agriculture appears to have developed at the closing of the last Pleistocene glacial period, or Ice Age (about 11,700 years ago). At that time temperatures warmed, glaciers melted, sea levels rose, and ecosystems throughout the world reorganized. The changes were more dramatic in temperate regions than in the tropics. Although global climate change played a role in the development of agriculture, it does not account for the complex and diverse cultural responses that ensued, the specific timing of the appearance of agricultural communities in different regions, or the specific regional impact of climate change on local environments. By studying populations that did not develop intensive agriculture or certain cultigens, such as wheat and rice, archaeologists narrow the search for causes. For instance, Australian Aborigines and many of the Native American peoples of western North America developed complex methods to manage diverse sets of plants and animals, often including (but not limited to) cultivation. These practices may be representative of activities common in some parts of the world before 15,000 years ago. Plant and animal management was and is a familiar concept within hunting and gathering cultures, but it took on new dimensions as natural selection and mutation produced phenotypes that were increasingly reliant upon people. Because some resource management practices, such as intensively tending non-domesticated nut-bearing trees, bridge the boundary between foraging and farming, archaeologists investigating agricultural origins generally frame their work in terms of a continuum of subsistence practices.

Notably, agriculture does not appear to have developed in particularly impoverished settings; domestication does not seem to have been a response to food scarcity or deprivation. In fact, quite the opposite appears to be the case. It was once thought that human population pressure was a significant factor in the process, but research indicated by the late 20th century that populations rose significantly only after people had established food production. Instead, it is thought that—at least initially—the new animals and plants that were developed through domestication may have helped to maintain ways of life that emphasized hunting and gathering by providing insurance in lean seasons. When considered in terms of food management, dogs may have been initially domesticated as hunting companions, while meat and milk could be obtained more reliably from herds of sheep, goats, reindeer, or cattle than from their wild counterparts or other game animals. Domestication made resource planning [X] more predictable exercise, in regions that combined extreme seasonal variation and rich natural resource abundance.

Q. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

Solution: As per the author, populations rose significantly only after people had established food production.
QUESTION: 29

Agriculture has no single, simple origin. A wide variety of plants and animals have been independently domesticated at different times and in numerous places. The first agriculture appears to have developed at the closing of the last Pleistocene glacial period, or Ice Age (about 11,700 years ago). At that time temperatures warmed, glaciers melted, sea levels rose, and ecosystems throughout the world reorganized. The changes were more dramatic in temperate regions than in the tropics. Although global climate change played a role in the development of agriculture, it does not account for the complex and diverse cultural responses that ensued, the specific timing of the appearance of agricultural communities in different regions, or the specific regional impact of climate change on local environments. By studying populations that did not develop intensive agriculture or certain cultigens, such as wheat and rice, archaeologists narrow the search for causes. For instance, Australian Aborigines and many of the Native American peoples of western North America developed complex methods to manage diverse sets of plants and animals, often including (but not limited to) cultivation. These practices may be representative of activities common in some parts of the world before 15,000 years ago. Plant and animal management was and is a familiar concept within hunting and gathering cultures, but it took on new dimensions as natural selection and mutation produced phenotypes that were increasingly reliant upon people. Because some resource management practices, such as intensively tending non-domesticated nut-bearing trees, bridge the boundary between foraging and farming, archaeologists investigating agricultural origins generally frame their work in terms of a continuum of subsistence practices.

Notably, agriculture does not appear to have developed in particularly impoverished settings; domestication does not seem to have been a response to food scarcity or deprivation. In fact, quite the opposite appears to be the case. It was once thought that human population pressure was a significant factor in the process, but research indicated by the late 20th century that populations rose significantly only after people had established food production. Instead, it is thought that—at least initially—the new animals and plants that were developed through domestication may have helped to maintain ways of life that emphasized hunting and gathering by providing insurance in lean seasons. When considered in terms of food management, dogs may have been initially domesticated as hunting companions, while meat and milk could be obtained more reliably from herds of sheep, goats, reindeer, or cattle than from their wild counterparts or other game animals. Domestication made resource planning [X] more predictable exercise, in regions that combined extreme seasonal variation and rich natural resource abundance.

Q. Which of the following words is not similar to the word ‘impoverished’?

Solution: Impoverished, Penurious, Indigent and Destitute means deprived of strength, wealth or vitality. Whereas Empowered means strengthened.
QUESTION: 30

Agriculture has no single, simple origin. A wide variety of plants and animals have been independently domesticated at different times and in numerous places. The first agriculture appears to have developed at the closing of the last Pleistocene glacial period, or Ice Age (about 11,700 years ago). At that time temperatures warmed, glaciers melted, sea levels rose, and ecosystems throughout the world reorganized. The changes were more dramatic in temperate regions than in the tropics. Although global climate change played a role in the development of agriculture, it does not account for the complex and diverse cultural responses that ensued, the specific timing of the appearance of agricultural communities in different regions, or the specific regional impact of climate change on local environments. By studying populations that did not develop intensive agriculture or certain cultigens, such as wheat and rice, archaeologists narrow the search for causes. For instance, Australian Aborigines and many of the Native American peoples of western North America developed complex methods to manage diverse sets of plants and animals, often including (but not limited to) cultivation. These practices may be representative of activities common in some parts of the world before 15,000 years ago. Plant and animal management was and is a familiar concept within hunting and gathering cultures, but it took on new dimensions as natural selection and mutation produced phenotypes that were increasingly reliant upon people. Because some resource management practices, such as intensively tending non-domesticated nut-bearing trees, bridge the boundary between foraging and farming, archaeologists investigating agricultural origins generally frame their work in terms of a continuum of subsistence practices.

Notably, agriculture does not appear to have developed in particularly impoverished settings; domestication does not seem to have been a response to food scarcity or deprivation. In fact, quite the opposite appears to be the case. It was once thought that human population pressure was a significant factor in the process, but research indicated by the late 20th century that populations rose significantly only after people had established food production. Instead, it is thought that—at least initially—the new animals and plants that were developed through domestication may have helped to maintain ways of life that emphasized hunting and gathering by providing insurance in lean seasons. When considered in terms of food management, dogs may have been initially domesticated as hunting companions, while meat and milk could be obtained more reliably from herds of sheep, goats, reindeer, or cattle than from their wild counterparts or other game animals. Domestication made resource planning [X] more predictable exercise, in regions that combined extreme seasonal variation and rich natural resource abundance.

Q. Which of the following would most appropriately replace the [X] in the last sentence of the passage?

Solution: Domestication made resource planning a more predictable exercise, in regions that combined extreme seasonal variation and rich natural resource abundance.
QUESTION: 31

The Bureau of FIFA Council has decided to cancel the 2021 editions of the U-20 World Cup and U-17 World Cup and gave [X] and [Y] respectively to host the same in the year [Z]. The COVID-19 pandemic continues to present challenges for the hosting of international sporting events and to have a restrictive effect on international travel. FIFA has therefore regularly consulted the relevant stakeholders, including the host member associations as well as the confederations involved in both tournaments originally scheduled to take place in 2021,"" the football's governing body said in a statement. "

"In doing so, it became clear that the global situation has failed to normalise to a sufficient level to address the challenges associated with hosting both tournaments, including the feasibility of the relevant qualification pathways,"" it added. FIFA extended its gratitude to the host member associations, as well as the authorities in Indonesia and Peru, for their commitment and the tournament preparations made so far. FIFA looks forward to continuing to work closely together with the host countries to organise successful tournaments.

Q. Name the country [X], which has been redacted in the passage. This country will host the U-20 World Cup.

Solution: Indonesia is given the hosting rights for the U-20 World Cup.
QUESTION: 32

The Bureau of FIFA Council has decided to cancel the 2021 editions of the U-20 World Cup and U-17 World Cup and gave [X] and [Y] respectively to host the same in the year [Z]. The COVID-19 pandemic continues to present challenges for the hosting of international sporting events and to have a restrictive effect on international travel. FIFA has therefore regularly consulted the relevant stakeholders, including the host member associations as well as the confederations involved in both tournaments originally scheduled to take place in 2021,"" the football's governing body said in a statement. "

"In doing so, it became clear that the global situation has failed to normalise to a sufficient level to address the challenges associated with hosting both tournaments, including the feasibility of the relevant qualification pathways,"" it added. FIFA extended its gratitude to the host member associations, as well as the authorities in Indonesia and Peru, for their commitment and the tournament preparations made so far. FIFA looks forward to continuing to work closely together with the host countries to organise successful tournaments.

Q. The U-20 and U-17 World Cups are postponed to which year, [Z]?

Solution: The U-20 and U-17 World Cups, which were supposed to take place in the year 2021 is to take place in the year 2023.
QUESTION: 33

The Bureau of FIFA Council has decided to cancel the 2021 editions of the U-20 World Cup and U-17 World Cup and gave [X] and [Y] respectively to host the same in the year [Z]. The COVID-19 pandemic continues to present challenges for the hosting of international sporting events and to have a restrictive effect on international travel. FIFA has therefore regularly consulted the relevant stakeholders, including the host member associations as well as the confederations involved in both tournaments originally scheduled to take place in 2021,"" the football's governing body said in a statement. "

"In doing so, it became clear that the global situation has failed to normalise to a sufficient level to address the challenges associated with hosting both tournaments, including the feasibility of the relevant qualification pathways,"" it added. FIFA extended its gratitude to the host member associations, as well as the authorities in Indonesia and Peru, for their commitment and the tournament preparations made so far. FIFA looks forward to continuing to work closely together with the host countries to organise successful tournaments.

Q. Name the country [Y] that will host the U-17 World Cup, which has been omitted from the passage.

Solution: Peru will be hosting the U-17 World Cup.
QUESTION: 34

The Bureau of FIFA Council has decided to cancel the 2021 editions of the U-20 World Cup and U-17 World Cup and gave [X] and [Y] respectively to host the same in the year [Z]. The COVID-19 pandemic continues to present challenges for the hosting of international sporting events and to have a restrictive effect on international travel. FIFA has therefore regularly consulted the relevant stakeholders, including the host member associations as well as the confederations involved in both tournaments originally scheduled to take place in 2021,"" the football's governing body said in a statement. "

"In doing so, it became clear that the global situation has failed to normalise to a sufficient level to address the challenges associated with hosting both tournaments, including the feasibility of the relevant qualification pathways,"" it added. FIFA extended its gratitude to the host member associations, as well as the authorities in Indonesia and Peru, for their commitment and the tournament preparations made so far. FIFA looks forward to continuing to work closely together with the host countries to organise successful tournaments.

Q. Which FIFA National (Men's) Team has ended this year at the Number 1 position?

Solution: Belgium's National team has ended the year at the number one position in FIFA World Ranking (Men).
QUESTION: 35

The Bureau of FIFA Council has decided to cancel the 2021 editions of the U-20 World Cup and U-17 World Cup and gave [X] and [Y] respectively to host the same in the year [Z]. The COVID-19 pandemic continues to present challenges for the hosting of international sporting events and to have a restrictive effect on international travel. FIFA has therefore regularly consulted the relevant stakeholders, including the host member associations as well as the confederations involved in both tournaments originally scheduled to take place in 2021,"" the football's governing body said in a statement. "

"In doing so, it became clear that the global situation has failed to normalise to a sufficient level to address the challenges associated with hosting both tournaments, including the feasibility of the relevant qualification pathways,"" it added. FIFA extended its gratitude to the host member associations, as well as the authorities in Indonesia and Peru, for their commitment and the tournament preparations made so far. FIFA looks forward to continuing to work closely together with the host countries to organise successful tournaments.

Q. Which country has been given the hosting rights for FIFA U-17 Women’s World Cup 2022?

Solution: India has been handed the hosting rights for FIFA U-17 Women’s World Cup 2022. The decision was taken after FIFA Council canceled the U-17 Women’s World Cup 2021, which was scheduled to take place in India due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
QUESTION: 36

The Bureau of FIFA Council has decided to cancel the 2021 editions of the U-20 World Cup and U-17 World Cup and gave [X] and [Y] respectively to host the same in the year [Z]. The COVID-19 pandemic continues to present challenges for the hosting of international sporting events and to have a restrictive effect on international travel. FIFA has therefore regularly consulted the relevant stakeholders, including the host member associations as well as the confederations involved in both tournaments originally scheduled to take place in 2021,"" the football's governing body said in a statement. "

"In doing so, it became clear that the global situation has failed to normalise to a sufficient level to address the challenges associated with hosting both tournaments, including the feasibility of the relevant qualification pathways,"" it added. FIFA extended its gratitude to the host member associations, as well as the authorities in Indonesia and Peru, for their commitment and the tournament preparations made so far. FIFA looks forward to continuing to work closely together with the host countries to organise successful tournaments.

Q. Who has been named as the Best FIFA men's 2020?

Solution: The Bayern Munich striker, Robert Lewandowski has been named The Best FIFA Men’s Player 2020, beating off competition from last year’s winner Lionel Messi and Cristiano Ronaldo. The 32-year-old Lewandowski, top scorer in Europe and winner of the Champions League with Bayern.
QUESTION: 37

"The “Go for Zero” policy of Australia helped the country to bring down its COVID-19 cases. It was proposed by a non-profit think tank [...] Institute that advises the Australian government. Under the policy besides expanding the testing of COVID 19, Australia also increased contact tracing and mandatory isolation. The government had introduced a ______ system to tackle the issue of travellers breaking quarantines.

The system helped to track the related person. Certain states of Australia such as Victoria even deployed police to carry out spot checks of people instructed to be in isolation. Hot hotels or health hotels were established for symptomatic travellers. This prevented emergence of clusters. Australia under the policy also supported workers and businesses. Subsidies are provided to forms to keep people employed and also increased unemployment benefits.

As the cases of COVID 19 began to decrease in the month of September, Australia lifted the lockdown in a tiered manner. Now schools and businesses have been reopened in Australia. Also, funerals, weddings and religious gatherings have been allowed to go ahead with bigger attendances."

Q. Besides covid-19 in Australia, what is the name of a deadly hazard that burned 7.3 million hectares in Australia?

Solution: Australian bushfire
QUESTION: 38

"The “Go for Zero” policy of Australia helped the country to bring down its COVID-19 cases. It was proposed by a non-profit think tank [...] Institute that advises the Australian government. Under the policy besides expanding the testing of COVID 19, Australia also increased contact tracing and mandatory isolation. The government had introduced a ______ system to tackle the issue of travellers breaking quarantines.

The system helped to track the related person. Certain states of Australia such as Victoria even deployed police to carry out spot checks of people instructed to be in isolation. Hot hotels or health hotels were established for symptomatic travellers. This prevented emergence of clusters. Australia under the policy also supported workers and businesses. Subsidies are provided to forms to keep people employed and also increased unemployment benefits.

As the cases of COVID 19 began to decrease in the month of September, Australia lifted the lockdown in a tiered manner. Now schools and businesses have been reopened in Australia. Also, funerals, weddings and religious gatherings have been allowed to go ahead with bigger attendances."

Q. Who is the present prime minister of Australia?

Solution: Scott John Morrison (born 13 May 1968) is an Australian politician who is the 30th and current Prime Minister of Australia. He took office in August 2018 upon his election as leader of the Liberal Party, and subsequently led the Coalition to victory at the 2019 federal election.
QUESTION: 39

"The “Go for Zero” policy of Australia helped the country to bring down its COVID-19 cases. It was proposed by a non-profit think tank [...] Institute that advises the Australian government. Under the policy besides expanding the testing of COVID 19, Australia also increased contact tracing and mandatory isolation. The government had introduced a ______ system to tackle the issue of travellers breaking quarantines.

The system helped to track the related person. Certain states of Australia such as Victoria even deployed police to carry out spot checks of people instructed to be in isolation. Hot hotels or health hotels were established for symptomatic travellers. This prevented emergence of clusters. Australia under the policy also supported workers and businesses. Subsidies are provided to forms to keep people employed and also increased unemployment benefits.

As the cases of COVID 19 began to decrease in the month of September, Australia lifted the lockdown in a tiered manner. Now schools and businesses have been reopened in Australia. Also, funerals, weddings and religious gatherings have been allowed to go ahead with bigger attendances."

Q. Of the dozens of coronavirus vaccines being tested worldwide, the one under development at the University of Queensland ,Australia was the first to be abandoned due to_________________

Solution: Produced H.I.V. False Positives
QUESTION: 40

"The “Go for Zero” policy of Australia helped the country to bring down its COVID-19 cases. It was proposed by a non-profit think tank [...] Institute that advises the Australian government. Under the policy besides expanding the testing of COVID 19, Australia also increased contact tracing and mandatory isolation. The government had introduced a ______ system to tackle the issue of travellers breaking quarantines.

The system helped to track the related person. Certain states of Australia such as Victoria even deployed police to carry out spot checks of people instructed to be in isolation. Hot hotels or health hotels were established for symptomatic travellers. This prevented emergence of clusters. Australia under the policy also supported workers and businesses. Subsidies are provided to forms to keep people employed and also increased unemployment benefits.

As the cases of COVID 19 began to decrease in the month of September, Australia lifted the lockdown in a tiered manner. Now schools and businesses have been reopened in Australia. Also, funerals, weddings and religious gatherings have been allowed to go ahead with bigger attendances."

Q. The Australian government had introduced a ______ system to tackle the issue of travellers breaking quarantines.

Solution: Under the policy besides expanding the testing of COVID 19, Australia also increased contact tracing and mandatory isolation. The government had introduced a QR code-based system to tackle the issue of travellers breaking quarantines. The system helped to track the related person. Certain states of Australia such as Victoria even deployed police to carry out spot checks of people instructed to be in isolation.
QUESTION: 41

"The “Go for Zero” policy of Australia helped the country to bring down its COVID-19 cases. It was proposed by a non-profit think tank [...] Institute that advises the Australian government. Under the policy besides expanding the testing of COVID 19, Australia also increased contact tracing and mandatory isolation. The government had introduced a ______ system to tackle the issue of travellers breaking quarantines.

The system helped to track the related person. Certain states of Australia such as Victoria even deployed police to carry out spot checks of people instructed to be in isolation. Hot hotels or health hotels were established for symptomatic travellers. This prevented emergence of clusters. Australia under the policy also supported workers and businesses. Subsidies are provided to forms to keep people employed and also increased unemployment benefits.

As the cases of COVID 19 began to decrease in the month of September, Australia lifted the lockdown in a tiered manner. Now schools and businesses have been reopened in Australia. Also, funerals, weddings and religious gatherings have been allowed to go ahead with bigger attendances."

Q. The policy "Go for Zero" discussed above is the proposal by which institute/university?

Solution: The “Go for Zero” policy of Australia helped the country to bring down its COVID-19 cases. It was proposed by a non-profit think tank Grattan Institute that advises the Australian government.
QUESTION: 42

Recently, PM Modi launched Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY SEHAT, which is a health insurance scheme that will cover all the residents in [X]. The scheme will benefit as many as 21 lakh eligible people on the basis of Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, officials said. The beneficiaries will get the Universal Healthcare Coverage (UHC) as per the SECC 2011database, they added.

All residents of [X], irrespective of their socio-economic status, will be covered under the scheme. “The government is collecting details of beneficiary families who may be missing from the SECC 2011 database. This will ensure that all beneficiaries are enrolled at the earliest so that they can avail free healthcare services.

According to a statement from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), the scheme would work in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). The scheme would operate in insurance mode in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY),” the statement read, adding that the benefits of the scheme would be portable across all 24,148 hospitals enlisted under ABPM-JAY in India.

Q. Name the state/union territory, [X] where the said scheme has been launched.

Solution: The scheme has been launched in Jammu and Kashmir.
QUESTION: 43

Recently, PM Modi launched Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY SEHAT, which is a health insurance scheme that will cover all the residents in [X]. The scheme will benefit as many as 21 lakh eligible people on the basis of Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, officials said. The beneficiaries will get the Universal Healthcare Coverage (UHC) as per the SECC 2011database, they added.

All residents of [X], irrespective of their socio-economic status, will be covered under the scheme. “The government is collecting details of beneficiary families who may be missing from the SECC 2011 database. This will ensure that all beneficiaries are enrolled at the earliest so that they can avail free healthcare services.

According to a statement from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), the scheme would work in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). The scheme would operate in insurance mode in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY),” the statement read, adding that the benefits of the scheme would be portable across all 24,148 hospitals enlisted under ABPM-JAY in India.

Q. Which of the following is NOT one of the salient features of the scheme?

Solution: The scheme entails a financial cover of INR 5 lakhs per family. Hence, the option A is incorrect.
QUESTION: 44

Recently, PM Modi launched Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY SEHAT, which is a health insurance scheme that will cover all the residents in [X]. The scheme will benefit as many as 21 lakh eligible people on the basis of Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, officials said. The beneficiaries will get the Universal Healthcare Coverage (UHC) as per the SECC 2011database, they added.

All residents of [X], irrespective of their socio-economic status, will be covered under the scheme. “The government is collecting details of beneficiary families who may be missing from the SECC 2011 database. This will ensure that all beneficiaries are enrolled at the earliest so that they can avail free healthcare services.

According to a statement from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), the scheme would work in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). The scheme would operate in insurance mode in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY),” the statement read, adding that the benefits of the scheme would be portable across all 24,148 hospitals enlisted under ABPM-JAY in India.

Q. The subject of health comes within the ambit of which list?

Solution: The subject of health comes within the ambit of the state list.
QUESTION: 45

Recently, PM Modi launched Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY SEHAT, which is a health insurance scheme that will cover all the residents in [X]. The scheme will benefit as many as 21 lakh eligible people on the basis of Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, officials said. The beneficiaries will get the Universal Healthcare Coverage (UHC) as per the SECC 2011database, they added.

All residents of [X], irrespective of their socio-economic status, will be covered under the scheme. “The government is collecting details of beneficiary families who may be missing from the SECC 2011 database. This will ensure that all beneficiaries are enrolled at the earliest so that they can avail free healthcare services.

According to a statement from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), the scheme would work in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). The scheme would operate in insurance mode in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY),” the statement read, adding that the benefits of the scheme would be portable across all 24,148 hospitals enlisted under ABPM-JAY in India.

Q. PM-JAY scheme was 1st launched in which year?

Solution: The scheme, PM-JAY was 1st launched in the year 2018 for providing free access to healthcare for 40% of the residents in India.
QUESTION: 46

Recently, PM Modi launched Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY SEHAT, which is a health insurance scheme that will cover all the residents in [X]. The scheme will benefit as many as 21 lakh eligible people on the basis of Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, officials said. The beneficiaries will get the Universal Healthcare Coverage (UHC) as per the SECC 2011database, they added.

All residents of [X], irrespective of their socio-economic status, will be covered under the scheme. “The government is collecting details of beneficiary families who may be missing from the SECC 2011 database. This will ensure that all beneficiaries are enrolled at the earliest so that they can avail free healthcare services.

According to a statement from the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO), the scheme would work in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). The scheme would operate in insurance mode in convergence with Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY),” the statement read, adding that the benefits of the scheme would be portable across all 24,148 hospitals enlisted under ABPM-JAY in India.

Q. Who is the Union Health Minister of India?

Solution: Dr. Harsh Vardhan is the Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare.
QUESTION: 47

India's first hot air balloon wildlife safari in a tiger reserve was launched on Friday in the world famous [X] Tiger Reserve by [Y] forest minister Vijay Shah. Shah said the activity will be restricted to the buffer area and people can watch tigers, leopards, Indian sloth bear and other wild animals from a height.

""One more adventure has been added for tourists coming to [X] Tiger Reserve with the launch of the hot air balloon wildlife safari. It is the first in any tiger reserve in the country. Now like Africa's forests, tourists in India will also enjoy hot air balloon wildlife safari"", Shah told reporters after inaugurating the new service by taking a ride. He said the state was planning to introduce this service in Pench, Kanha and Panna tiger reserves as well.

Q. Project Tiger, which is a tiger conservation programme was launched in which year?

Solution: The Project Tiger programme was started in the year 1973 during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
QUESTION: 48

India's first hot air balloon wildlife safari in a tiger reserve was launched on Friday in the world famous [X] Tiger Reserve by [Y] forest minister Vijay Shah. Shah said the activity will be restricted to the buffer area and people can watch tigers, leopards, Indian sloth bear and other wild animals from a height.

""One more adventure has been added for tourists coming to [X] Tiger Reserve with the launch of the hot air balloon wildlife safari. It is the first in any tiger reserve in the country. Now like Africa's forests, tourists in India will also enjoy hot air balloon wildlife safari"", Shah told reporters after inaugurating the new service by taking a ride. He said the state was planning to introduce this service in Pench, Kanha and Panna tiger reserves as well.

Q. Name the list that determines the extinction risk of various animal species.

Solution: The International Union for Conversation of Nature RED List of Threatened Species, which was founded in the year 1964 details the extinction risk of various animal species.
QUESTION: 49

India's first hot air balloon wildlife safari in a tiger reserve was launched on Friday in the world famous [X] Tiger Reserve by [Y] forest minister Vijay Shah. Shah said the activity will be restricted to the buffer area and people can watch tigers, leopards, Indian sloth bear and other wild animals from a height.

""One more adventure has been added for tourists coming to [X] Tiger Reserve with the launch of the hot air balloon wildlife safari. It is the first in any tiger reserve in the country. Now like Africa's forests, tourists in India will also enjoy hot air balloon wildlife safari"", Shah told reporters after inaugurating the new service by taking a ride. He said the state was planning to introduce this service in Pench, Kanha and Panna tiger reserves as well.

Q. The 1st ever white tiger sanctuary had come up in which state in the year 2016?

Solution: The 1st ever white tiger reserve had come up in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
QUESTION: 50

India's first hot air balloon wildlife safari in a tiger reserve was launched on Friday in the world famous [X] Tiger Reserve by [Y] forest minister Vijay Shah. Shah said the activity will be restricted to the buffer area and people can watch tigers, leopards, Indian sloth bear and other wild animals from a height.

""One more adventure has been added for tourists coming to [X] Tiger Reserve with the launch of the hot air balloon wildlife safari. It is the first in any tiger reserve in the country. Now like Africa's forests, tourists in India will also enjoy hot air balloon wildlife safari"", Shah told reporters after inaugurating the new service by taking a ride. He said the state was planning to introduce this service in Pench, Kanha and Panna tiger reserves as well.

Q. Which city is known as the "Tiger Capital" in India?

Solution: Nagpur is known as the "Tiger Capital" of India.
QUESTION: 51

India's first hot air balloon wildlife safari in a tiger reserve was launched on Friday in the world famous [X] Tiger Reserve by [Y] forest minister Vijay Shah. Shah said the activity will be restricted to the buffer area and people can watch tigers, leopards, Indian sloth bear and other wild animals from a height.

""One more adventure has been added for tourists coming to [X] Tiger Reserve with the launch of the hot air balloon wildlife safari. It is the first in any tiger reserve in the country. Now like Africa's forests, tourists in India will also enjoy hot air balloon wildlife safari"", Shah told reporters after inaugurating the new service by taking a ride. He said the state was planning to introduce this service in Pench, Kanha and Panna tiger reserves as well.

Q. [X] tiger reserve in located in which state as mentioned in [Y]?

Solution: The tiger reserve where the Balloon safari has been launched is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
QUESTION: 52

India's first hot air balloon wildlife safari in a tiger reserve was launched on Friday in the world famous [X] Tiger Reserve by [Y] forest minister Vijay Shah. Shah said the activity will be restricted to the buffer area and people can watch tigers, leopards, Indian sloth bear and other wild animals from a height.

""One more adventure has been added for tourists coming to [X] Tiger Reserve with the launch of the hot air balloon wildlife safari. It is the first in any tiger reserve in the country. Now like Africa's forests, tourists in India will also enjoy hot air balloon wildlife safari"", Shah told reporters after inaugurating the new service by taking a ride. He said the state was planning to introduce this service in Pench, Kanha and Panna tiger reserves as well.

Q. Name the tiger reserve [X] that has been redacted from the passage?

Solution: The said safari has been inaugurated in Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve.
QUESTION: 53

The book, 'The Patient Assassin:A True Tale of Massacre, Revenge and the Raj', which was authored by [X] has won the PEN-Hessell Tiltman Prize 2020.

The winning book is based on the life of [Y], a particular Indian revolutionary. The book sought to portray the life of this young revolutionary who was caught in the middle of the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

PEN stands for Poets, Playwrights, Editors, Essayists, Novelists. The prize is given out to non-fiction books, which are based on some historical events.

The judges have also highly praised 'Imperial Intimacies: A Tale of Two Islands' by Hazel V Carby and 'Chinese Thought: From Confucious to Cook Ding' by Roel Sterck.

Q. Who is the author [X], who has written the 'The Patient Assassin:A True Tale of Massacre, Revenge and the Raj'?

Solution: The British Indian author, Anita Anand has bagged the PEN Hessell-Tiltman Prize 2020.
QUESTION: 54

The book, 'The Patient Assassin:A True Tale of Massacre, Revenge and the Raj', which was authored by [X] has won the PEN-Hessell Tiltman Prize 2020.

The winning book is based on the life of [Y], a particular Indian revolutionary. The book sought to portray the life of this young revolutionary who was caught in the middle of the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

PEN stands for Poets, Playwrights, Editors, Essayists, Novelists. The prize is given out to non-fiction books, which are based on some historical events.

The judges have also highly praised 'Imperial Intimacies: A Tale of Two Islands' by Hazel V Carby and 'Chinese Thought: From Confucious to Cook Ding' by Roel Sterck.

Q. Who had renounced their knighthood in light of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

Solution: Rabindranath Tagore had given up his knighthood that he had received in the year 195 due to the occurance of the atrocious masaccre at Jallianwala Bagh.
QUESTION: 55

The book, 'The Patient Assassin:A True Tale of Massacre, Revenge and the Raj', which was authored by [X] has won the PEN-Hessell Tiltman Prize 2020.

The winning book is based on the life of [Y], a particular Indian revolutionary. The book sought to portray the life of this young revolutionary who was caught in the middle of the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

PEN stands for Poets, Playwrights, Editors, Essayists, Novelists. The prize is given out to non-fiction books, which are based on some historical events.

The judges have also highly praised 'Imperial Intimacies: A Tale of Two Islands' by Hazel V Carby and 'Chinese Thought: From Confucious to Cook Ding' by Roel Sterck.

Q. What is the name of the revolutionary [Y]. which has been omitted in the given passage?

Solution: The book, 'The Patient Assassin:A True Tale of Massacre, Revenge and the Raj' is based on Udham Singh, the Indian revolutionary.
QUESTION: 56

The book, 'The Patient Assassin:A True Tale of Massacre, Revenge and the Raj', which was authored by [X] has won the PEN-Hessell Tiltman Prize 2020.

The winning book is based on the life of [Y], a particular Indian revolutionary. The book sought to portray the life of this young revolutionary who was caught in the middle of the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

PEN stands for Poets, Playwrights, Editors, Essayists, Novelists. The prize is given out to non-fiction books, which are based on some historical events.

The judges have also highly praised 'Imperial Intimacies: A Tale of Two Islands' by Hazel V Carby and 'Chinese Thought: From Confucious to Cook Ding' by Roel Sterck.

Q. This particular awarded which was handed out is sponsored by English PEN. Where is the headquarters of English PEN?

Solution: The headquarters of English PEN is in London.
QUESTION: 57

The book, 'The Patient Assassin:A True Tale of Massacre, Revenge and the Raj', which was authored by [X] has won the PEN-Hessell Tiltman Prize 2020.

The winning book is based on the life of [Y], a particular Indian revolutionary. The book sought to portray the life of this young revolutionary who was caught in the middle of the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

PEN stands for Poets, Playwrights, Editors, Essayists, Novelists. The prize is given out to non-fiction books, which are based on some historical events.

The judges have also highly praised 'Imperial Intimacies: A Tale of Two Islands' by Hazel V Carby and 'Chinese Thought: From Confucious to Cook Ding' by Roel Sterck.

Q. Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?

Solution: This is an incorrect statement.
QUESTION: 58

The book, 'The Patient Assassin:A True Tale of Massacre, Revenge and the Raj', which was authored by [X] has won the PEN-Hessell Tiltman Prize 2020.

The winning book is based on the life of [Y], a particular Indian revolutionary. The book sought to portray the life of this young revolutionary who was caught in the middle of the 1919 Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

PEN stands for Poets, Playwrights, Editors, Essayists, Novelists. The prize is given out to non-fiction books, which are based on some historical events.

The judges have also highly praised 'Imperial Intimacies: A Tale of Two Islands' by Hazel V Carby and 'Chinese Thought: From Confucious to Cook Ding' by Roel Sterck.

Q. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre was the result of protests and opposition to an Act, Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, 1919. This Act is better known as ________

Solution: The Rowlatt Act had culminated into the wide-spread protests. These protests sparked off the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
QUESTION: 59

The coronavirus vaccine developed by [X] and [Y] should be effective against the highly transmissible new strain of the virus, a UK media report said on Sunday. This vaccine, which also has a tie-up with the Serum Institute of India, is expected to win approval in the UK before Thursday, speeding up the provision of the jab to the most vulnerable groups.

The first priority is to vaccinate the 12 to 15 million people who would need hospitalisation if they caught COVID. Approval for the [...] vaccine would mean we are well on course to do that by the spring, a senior government official was quoted by The Sunday Times as saying. The source warned that the new strain of COVID-19 had overtaken the old and was running rampant in the UK.

The latest figures are not good, but the guidance is the MHRA [....] will give the Oxford vaccine the go-ahead by midweek, the source said.

Q. What is the name of the vaccine developed by the universities mentioned in the above paragraph?

Solution: Serum's 'Covishield' vaccine would be available at the price of ₹200 per dose, said officials. Covishield is co-developed by the University of Oxford and British-Swedish company AstraZeneca in collaboration with the SII.
QUESTION: 60

The coronavirus vaccine developed by [X] and [Y] should be effective against the highly transmissible new strain of the virus, a UK media report said on Sunday. This vaccine, which also has a tie-up with the Serum Institute of India, is expected to win approval in the UK before Thursday, speeding up the provision of the jab to the most vulnerable groups.

The first priority is to vaccinate the 12 to 15 million people who would need hospitalisation if they caught COVID. Approval for the [...] vaccine would mean we are well on course to do that by the spring, a senior government official was quoted by The Sunday Times as saying. The source warned that the new strain of COVID-19 had overtaken the old and was running rampant in the UK.

The latest figures are not good, but the guidance is the MHRA [....] will give the Oxford vaccine the go-ahead by midweek, the source said.

Q. Which of the below mentioned options correctly replace [X] and [Y]?

Solution: Serum's 'Covishield' vaccine would be available at the price of ₹200 per dose, said officials. Covishield is co-developed by the University of Oxford and British-Swedish company AstraZeneca in collaboration with the SII.
QUESTION: 61

The coronavirus vaccine developed by [X] and [Y] should be effective against the highly transmissible new strain of the virus, a UK media report said on Sunday. This vaccine, which also has a tie-up with the Serum Institute of India, is expected to win approval in the UK before Thursday, speeding up the provision of the jab to the most vulnerable groups.

The first priority is to vaccinate the 12 to 15 million people who would need hospitalisation if they caught COVID. Approval for the [...] vaccine would mean we are well on course to do that by the spring, a senior government official was quoted by The Sunday Times as saying. The source warned that the new strain of COVID-19 had overtaken the old and was running rampant in the UK.

The latest figures are not good, but the guidance is the MHRA [....] will give the Oxford vaccine the go-ahead by midweek, the source said.

Q. What is the full form of MHRA?

Solution: MHRA [the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency].
QUESTION: 62

The coronavirus vaccine developed by [X] and [Y] should be effective against the highly transmissible new strain of the virus, a UK media report said on Sunday. This vaccine, which also has a tie-up with the Serum Institute of India, is expected to win approval in the UK before Thursday, speeding up the provision of the jab to the most vulnerable groups.

The first priority is to vaccinate the 12 to 15 million people who would need hospitalisation if they caught COVID. Approval for the [...] vaccine would mean we are well on course to do that by the spring, a senior government official was quoted by The Sunday Times as saying. The source warned that the new strain of COVID-19 had overtaken the old and was running rampant in the UK.

The latest figures are not good, but the guidance is the MHRA [....] will give the Oxford vaccine the go-ahead by midweek, the source said.

Q. Who has recently written the book "COVID-19: Sabhyata Ka Sankat Aur Samadhan"?

Solution: Kailash Satyarthi wrote the book "COVID-19: Sabhyata Ka Sankat Aur Samadhan".
QUESTION: 63

The coronavirus vaccine developed by [X] and [Y] should be effective against the highly transmissible new strain of the virus, a UK media report said on Sunday. This vaccine, which also has a tie-up with the Serum Institute of India, is expected to win approval in the UK before Thursday, speeding up the provision of the jab to the most vulnerable groups.

The first priority is to vaccinate the 12 to 15 million people who would need hospitalisation if they caught COVID. Approval for the [...] vaccine would mean we are well on course to do that by the spring, a senior government official was quoted by The Sunday Times as saying. The source warned that the new strain of COVID-19 had overtaken the old and was running rampant in the UK.

The latest figures are not good, but the guidance is the MHRA [....] will give the Oxford vaccine the go-ahead by midweek, the source said.

Q. Name the company which in collaboration with ICMR-NIV developed India’s 1st COVID-19 vaccine ‘COVAXIN’.

Solution: Bharat Biotech India Ltd(BBIL) in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research(ICMR) – National Institute of Virology(NIV)developed India’s first COVID-19 vaccine – COVAXIN (BBV152 COVID vaccine). The vaccine is developed and manufactured by the BSL-3(Bio Safety Level- 3) high containment facility of BBIL.
QUESTION: 64

Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi has laid the foundation stone of the Light House Project in six states. Indore, the country’s cleanest city, on Friday became one of of six chosen by the Centre for its ambitious ‘LightHouse’ project under the Global Housing Technology Challenge India (GHTC-India) initiative. Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the project in Indore and other five cities via video conferencing on New Year's Day.

The ambitious Global Housing Technology Challenge-India (GHTC-India) is being launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Director, Urban Administration, Vijaya Jadhav ahead of launch of Lighthouse project in Ranchi said, “Ranchi has been selected as a model for the construction of the Light House Project, along with five cities in the country (Rajkot, Agartala, Indore, Lucknow and Chennai). This programme is being implemented by the Ministry of housing and urban affairs. Prime Minister will also announce winners under ASHA-India and give out annual awards for excellence in implementation of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) Mission.

Q. Which of the following is NOT a salient feature of this project?

Solution: This is an incorrect statement.
QUESTION: 65

Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi has laid the foundation stone of the Light House Project in six states. Indore, the country’s cleanest city, on Friday became one of of six chosen by the Centre for its ambitious ‘LightHouse’ project under the Global Housing Technology Challenge India (GHTC-India) initiative. Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the project in Indore and other five cities via video conferencing on New Year's Day.

The ambitious Global Housing Technology Challenge-India (GHTC-India) is being launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Director, Urban Administration, Vijaya Jadhav ahead of launch of Lighthouse project in Ranchi said, “Ranchi has been selected as a model for the construction of the Light House Project, along with five cities in the country (Rajkot, Agartala, Indore, Lucknow and Chennai). This programme is being implemented by the Ministry of housing and urban affairs. Prime Minister will also announce winners under ASHA-India and give out annual awards for excellence in implementation of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) Mission.

Q. What was the aim of ASHA India?

Solution: This is the correct answer. The aim of ASHA-India was to romote domestic research and entrepreneurship by providing incubation and acceleration support to potential future technologies.
QUESTION: 66

Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi has laid the foundation stone of the Light House Project in six states. Indore, the country’s cleanest city, on Friday became one of of six chosen by the Centre for its ambitious ‘LightHouse’ project under the Global Housing Technology Challenge India (GHTC-India) initiative. Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the project in Indore and other five cities via video conferencing on New Year's Day.

The ambitious Global Housing Technology Challenge-India (GHTC-India) is being launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Director, Urban Administration, Vijaya Jadhav ahead of launch of Lighthouse project in Ranchi said, “Ranchi has been selected as a model for the construction of the Light House Project, along with five cities in the country (Rajkot, Agartala, Indore, Lucknow and Chennai). This programme is being implemented by the Ministry of housing and urban affairs. Prime Minister will also announce winners under ASHA-India and give out annual awards for excellence in implementation of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) Mission.

Q. Which of the following is NOT true about PMAY-Urban?

Solution: This statement is incorrect. The main objective of the programme is to provide housing for all by the year 2022, when India celebrates its 75th year of independence.
QUESTION: 67

Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi has laid the foundation stone of the Light House Project in six states. Indore, the country’s cleanest city, on Friday became one of of six chosen by the Centre for its ambitious ‘LightHouse’ project under the Global Housing Technology Challenge India (GHTC-India) initiative. Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the project in Indore and other five cities via video conferencing on New Year's Day.

The ambitious Global Housing Technology Challenge-India (GHTC-India) is being launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Director, Urban Administration, Vijaya Jadhav ahead of launch of Lighthouse project in Ranchi said, “Ranchi has been selected as a model for the construction of the Light House Project, along with five cities in the country (Rajkot, Agartala, Indore, Lucknow and Chennai). This programme is being implemented by the Ministry of housing and urban affairs. Prime Minister will also announce winners under ASHA-India and give out annual awards for excellence in implementation of Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) Mission.

Q. What is the advanced technologies that are to be used in the Light House project?

Solution: All of the above said technologies will be used to construct the houses at the selected sites.
QUESTION: 68

Most large corporations in the United States were once run by individual capitalists who owned enough stock to dominate the board of directors and dictate company policy. Because putting such large amounts of stock on the market would only depress its value, they could not sell out for a quick profit and instead had to concentrate on improving the long-term productivity of their companies. Today, with few exceptions, the stock of large United States corporations is held by large institutions—pension funds, for example—and because these institutions are prohibited by antitrust laws from owning a majority of a company’s stock and from actively influencing a company’s decision-making, they can enhance their wealth only by buying and selling stock in anticipation of fluctuations in its value. A minority shareholder is necessarily a short term trader. As a result, United States productivity is unlikely to improve unless shareholders and the managers of the companies in which they invest are encouraged to enhance long-term productivity (and hence long-term profitability), rather than simply to maximize short-term profits.

Since the return of the old-style capitalist is unlikely, today’s short-term traders must be remade into tomorrow’s long-term capitalistic investors. The legal limits that now prevent financial institutions from acquiring a dominant shareholding position in a corporation should be removed, and such institutions should be encouraged to take a more active role in the operations of the companies in which they invest. In addition, any institution that holds twenty percent or more of a company’s stock should be forced to give the public one day’s notice of the intent to sell those shares. Unless the announced sale could be explained to the public on grounds other than anticipated future losses, the value of the stock would plummet and, like the old-time capitalists, major investors could cut their losses only by helping to restore their companies’ productivity. Such measures would force financial institutions to become capitalists whose success depends not on trading shares at the propitious moment, but on increasing the productivity of the companies in which they invest.

Q. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which of the following?

Solution:
  • Option B is the best answer. The author first presents the problem of investors focused on short-term gains and not on long-term productivity of the companies. He then goes on to present a solution to this problem.

  • Option A is incorrect as there are no two problems presented. Option C is incorrect as there is no defence of an established method. Option D is also incorrect as there are no conclusion being derived in the passage.

QUESTION: 69

Most large corporations in the United States were once run by individual capitalists who owned enough stock to dominate the board of directors and dictate company policy. Because putting such large amounts of stock on the market would only depress its value, they could not sell out for a quick profit and instead had to concentrate on improving the long-term productivity of their companies. Today, with few exceptions, the stock of large United States corporations is held by large institutions—pension funds, for example—and because these institutions are prohibited by antitrust laws from owning a majority of a company’s stock and from actively influencing a company’s decision-making, they can enhance their wealth only by buying and selling stock in anticipation of fluctuations in its value. A minority shareholder is necessarily a short term trader. As a result, United States productivity is unlikely to improve unless shareholders and the managers of the companies in which they invest are encouraged to enhance long-term productivity (and hence long-term profitability), rather than simply to maximize short-term profits.

Since the return of the old-style capitalist is unlikely, today’s short-term traders must be remade into tomorrow’s long-term capitalistic investors. The legal limits that now prevent financial institutions from acquiring a dominant shareholding position in a corporation should be removed, and such institutions should be encouraged to take a more active role in the operations of the companies in which they invest. In addition, any institution that holds twenty percent or more of a company’s stock should be forced to give the public one day’s notice of the intent to sell those shares. Unless the announced sale could be explained to the public on grounds other than anticipated future losses, the value of the stock would plummet and, like the old-time capitalists, major investors could cut their losses only by helping to restore their companies’ productivity. Such measures would force financial institutions to become capitalists whose success depends not on trading shares at the propitious moment, but on increasing the productivity of the companies in which they invest.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true of majority shareholders in a corporation?

Solution: Option D is the best answer. Majority shareholders are only focussed on buying and selling stock in anticipation of fluctuations rather than on profitability.
QUESTION: 70

Most large corporations in the United States were once run by individual capitalists who owned enough stock to dominate the board of directors and dictate company policy. Because putting such large amounts of stock on the market would only depress its value, they could not sell out for a quick profit and instead had to concentrate on improving the long-term productivity of their companies. Today, with few exceptions, the stock of large United States corporations is held by large institutions—pension funds, for example—and because these institutions are prohibited by antitrust laws from owning a majority of a company’s stock and from actively influencing a company’s decision-making, they can enhance their wealth only by buying and selling stock in anticipation of fluctuations in its value. A minority shareholder is necessarily a short term trader. As a result, United States productivity is unlikely to improve unless shareholders and the managers of the companies in which they invest are encouraged to enhance long-term productivity (and hence long-term profitability), rather than simply to maximize short-term profits.

Since the return of the old-style capitalist is unlikely, today’s short-term traders must be remade into tomorrow’s long-term capitalistic investors. The legal limits that now prevent financial institutions from acquiring a dominant shareholding position in a corporation should be removed, and such institutions should be encouraged to take a more active role in the operations of the companies in which they invest. In addition, any institution that holds twenty percent or more of a company’s stock should be forced to give the public one day’s notice of the intent to sell those shares. Unless the announced sale could be explained to the public on grounds other than anticipated future losses, the value of the stock would plummet and, like the old-time capitalists, major investors could cut their losses only by helping to restore their companies’ productivity. Such measures would force financial institutions to become capitalists whose success depends not on trading shares at the propitious moment, but on increasing the productivity of the companies in which they invest.

Q. According to the passage, the purpose of the requirement suggested in lines "In addition, any institution that holds twenty percent or more of a company’s stock should be forced to give the public one day’s notice of the intent to sell those shares." would be which of the following?

Solution: Option C is the best answer. Forcing institutional stockholders to give one day's notice of the intent to sell shares will discourage them from focussing on short-term profit-taking.
QUESTION: 71

Most large corporations in the United States were once run by individual capitalists who owned enough stock to dominate the board of directors and dictate company policy. Because putting such large amounts of stock on the market would only depress its value, they could not sell out for a quick profit and instead had to concentrate on improving the long-term productivity of their companies. Today, with few exceptions, the stock of large United States corporations is held by large institutions—pension funds, for example—and because these institutions are prohibited by antitrust laws from owning a majority of a company’s stock and from actively influencing a company’s decision-making, they can enhance their wealth only by buying and selling stock in anticipation of fluctuations in its value. A minority shareholder is necessarily a short term trader. As a result, United States productivity is unlikely to improve unless shareholders and the managers of the companies in which they invest are encouraged to enhance long-term productivity (and hence long-term profitability), rather than simply to maximize short-term profits.

Since the return of the old-style capitalist is unlikely, today’s short-term traders must be remade into tomorrow’s long-term capitalistic investors. The legal limits that now prevent financial institutions from acquiring a dominant shareholding position in a corporation should be removed, and such institutions should be encouraged to take a more active role in the operations of the companies in which they invest. In addition, any institution that holds twenty percent or more of a company’s stock should be forced to give the public one day’s notice of the intent to sell those shares. Unless the announced sale could be explained to the public on grounds other than anticipated future losses, the value of the stock would plummet and, like the old-time capitalists, major investors could cut their losses only by helping to restore their companies’ productivity. Such measures would force financial institutions to become capitalists whose success depends not on trading shares at the propitious moment, but on increasing the productivity of the companies in which they invest.

Q. Which of the following best explains the author’s statement that “A minority shareholder is necessarily a short-term trader?

Solution: Option A is the best answer. A minority shareholder is necessarily a short-term trader because he can only make money from stocks by buying and selling stocks as prices fluctuate over short periods of time.
QUESTION: 72

Most large corporations in the United States were once run by individual capitalists who owned enough stock to dominate the board of directors and dictate company policy. Because putting such large amounts of stock on the market would only depress its value, they could not sell out for a quick profit and instead had to concentrate on improving the long-term productivity of their companies. Today, with few exceptions, the stock of large United States corporations is held by large institutions—pension funds, for example—and because these institutions are prohibited by antitrust laws from owning a majority of a company’s stock and from actively influencing a company’s decision-making, they can enhance their wealth only by buying and selling stock in anticipation of fluctuations in its value. A minority shareholder is necessarily a short term trader. As a result, United States productivity is unlikely to improve unless shareholders and the managers of the companies in which they invest are encouraged to enhance long-term productivity (and hence long-term profitability), rather than simply to maximize short-term profits.

Since the return of the old-style capitalist is unlikely, today’s short-term traders must be remade into tomorrow’s long-term capitalistic investors. The legal limits that now prevent financial institutions from acquiring a dominant shareholding position in a corporation should be removed, and such institutions should be encouraged to take a more active role in the operations of the companies in which they invest. In addition, any institution that holds twenty percent or more of a company’s stock should be forced to give the public one day’s notice of the intent to sell those shares. Unless the announced sale could be explained to the public on grounds other than anticipated future losses, the value of the stock would plummet and, like the old-time capitalists, major investors could cut their losses only by helping to restore their companies’ productivity. Such measures would force financial institutions to become capitalists whose success depends not on trading shares at the propitious moment, but on increasing the productivity of the companies in which they invest.

Q. The author suggests that which of the following is a true statement about people who typify the “old style capitalist”?

Solution: Option B is the best answer. Towards the end, the author mentions the old-time capitalists who rarely engaged in short-term trading of their stock. They helped to restore their companies' productivity.
QUESTION: 73

The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 governs the issue of Workplace Sexual Harassment.

The Act recognizes the right of every woman to a safe and secure workplace environment irrespective of her age or employment status. Hence, the right of all women working or visiting any workplace whether in the capacity of regular, temporary or daily wages basis is protected under the Act. It includes all women whether engaged directly or through an agent. A workplace is any place visited by the employee arising out of or during the course of employment, including transportation provided by the employer for undertaking such a journey.

Sexual Harassment violates the fundamental rights of a woman to equality and her right to life and to live with dignity and right to practice any profession, which includes a right to a safe environment free from Sexual Harassment. To provide a safe work environment, employees need to be educated on what is and isn’t sexual harassment. Sexual harassment isn’t only limited to making inappropriate advances. It can also include unwelcome verbal or physical behavior that creates a hostile work environment. It can go beyond office space.

PoSH training helps to differentiate between appropriate and inappropriate workplace behavior. As per Section 4 of the Act, every company with 10 or more employees must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC). This Committee must include:

1. A Presiding Officer (must be a woman)

2. One external member from a NGO or a lawyer

3. At least two members representing the employees of the organization.

All complaints shall be made to this body which must resolve every issue impartially. Irrespective of the intention of the accused or the level of impact, every incident has to be taken seriously and investigated by the ICC. When the employer fails to constitute an Internal Committee or breaches provisions of this Act or any rules made thereunder, they shall be punishable with fine of fifty thousand rupees.

The complaints, first should approach ICC, then it is for ICC to initially investigate in to the complaints to assess the correctness and interview the complainants in camera and if prima facie the complaints were found to have case of sexual harassment, the ICC is under obligation to issue show cause notice to respondent (Harasser) with copy of complaints and documents provided by complainants asking him to reply.

The employer can transfer accused to another location on the recommendation of ICC after request from aggrieved woman employee. There is nothing in the POSH Act which permits the employer to take action against the accused unless a written complaint of sexual harassment is filed.

Q. In one of the cases, a company which had more than 1000 employees at its Hyderabad branch, after receiving a complaint from a data analyst against her immediate manager, the management took cognizance of the complaint and suspended the manager immediately. After the inquiry was done by the ICC in accordance to the rules laid out, the manager was found guilty and was terminated from the employment as a disciplinary action. Was the management right in taking such a decision?

Solution: Employer can transfer the accused but cannot suspend him before the completion of inquiry.
QUESTION: 74

The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 governs the issue of Workplace Sexual Harassment.

The Act recognizes the right of every woman to a safe and secure workplace environment irrespective of her age or employment status. Hence, the right of all women working or visiting any workplace whether in the capacity of regular, temporary or daily wages basis is protected under the Act. It includes all women whether engaged directly or through an agent. A workplace is any place visited by the employee arising out of or during the course of employment, including transportation provided by the employer for undertaking such a journey.

Sexual Harassment violates the fundamental rights of a woman to equality and her right to life and to live with dignity and right to practice any profession, which includes a right to a safe environment free from Sexual Harassment. To provide a safe work environment, employees need to be educated on what is and isn’t sexual harassment. Sexual harassment isn’t only limited to making inappropriate advances. It can also include unwelcome verbal or physical behavior that creates a hostile work environment. It can go beyond office space.

PoSH training helps to differentiate between appropriate and inappropriate workplace behavior. As per Section 4 of the Act, every company with 10 or more employees must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC). This Committee must include:

1. A Presiding Officer (must be a woman)

2. One external member from a NGO or a lawyer

3. At least two members representing the employees of the organization.

All complaints shall be made to this body which must resolve every issue impartially. Irrespective of the intention of the accused or the level of impact, every incident has to be taken seriously and investigated by the ICC. When the employer fails to constitute an Internal Committee or breaches provisions of this Act or any rules made thereunder, they shall be punishable with fine of fifty thousand rupees.

The complaints, first should approach ICC, then it is for ICC to initially investigate in to the complaints to assess the correctness and interview the complainants in camera and if prima facie the complaints were found to have case of sexual harassment, the ICC is under obligation to issue show cause notice to respondent (Harasser) with copy of complaints and documents provided by complainants asking him to reply.

The employer can transfer accused to another location on the recommendation of ICC after request from aggrieved woman employee. There is nothing in the POSH Act which permits the employer to take action against the accused unless a written complaint of sexual harassment is filed.

Q. If a male officer harasses a female employee, while they are on a business meeting with their client at the client’s office, would that amount to sexual harassment at workplace?

Solution: Workplace includes all the places they visit during the course of employment.
QUESTION: 75

The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 governs the issue of Workplace Sexual Harassment.

The Act recognizes the right of every woman to a safe and secure workplace environment irrespective of her age or employment status. Hence, the right of all women working or visiting any workplace whether in the capacity of regular, temporary or daily wages basis is protected under the Act. It includes all women whether engaged directly or through an agent. A workplace is any place visited by the employee arising out of or during the course of employment, including transportation provided by the employer for undertaking such a journey.

Sexual Harassment violates the fundamental rights of a woman to equality and her right to life and to live with dignity and right to practice any profession, which includes a right to a safe environment free from Sexual Harassment. To provide a safe work environment, employees need to be educated on what is and isn’t sexual harassment. Sexual harassment isn’t only limited to making inappropriate advances. It can also include unwelcome verbal or physical behavior that creates a hostile work environment. It can go beyond office space.

PoSH training helps to differentiate between appropriate and inappropriate workplace behavior. As per Section 4 of the Act, every company with 10 or more employees must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC). This Committee must include:

1. A Presiding Officer (must be a woman)

2. One external member from a NGO or a lawyer

3. At least two members representing the employees of the organization.

All complaints shall be made to this body which must resolve every issue impartially. Irrespective of the intention of the accused or the level of impact, every incident has to be taken seriously and investigated by the ICC. When the employer fails to constitute an Internal Committee or breaches provisions of this Act or any rules made thereunder, they shall be punishable with fine of fifty thousand rupees.

The complaints, first should approach ICC, then it is for ICC to initially investigate in to the complaints to assess the correctness and interview the complainants in camera and if prima facie the complaints were found to have case of sexual harassment, the ICC is under obligation to issue show cause notice to respondent (Harasser) with copy of complaints and documents provided by complainants asking him to reply.

The employer can transfer accused to another location on the recommendation of ICC after request from aggrieved woman employee. There is nothing in the POSH Act which permits the employer to take action against the accused unless a written complaint of sexual harassment is filed.

Q. A HR manager is responsible for performance appraisals of the employees of an organization and annual financial reviews. In one such performance appraisal reports, he alleged and used intemperate language against a female employee. Would that amount to an offence under POSH Act?

Solution: Intemperate language does not amount to sexual harassment.
QUESTION: 76

The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 governs the issue of Workplace Sexual Harassment.

The Act recognizes the right of every woman to a safe and secure workplace environment irrespective of her age or employment status. Hence, the right of all women working or visiting any workplace whether in the capacity of regular, temporary or daily wages basis is protected under the Act. It includes all women whether engaged directly or through an agent. A workplace is any place visited by the employee arising out of or during the course of employment, including transportation provided by the employer for undertaking such a journey.

Sexual Harassment violates the fundamental rights of a woman to equality and her right to life and to live with dignity and right to practice any profession, which includes a right to a safe environment free from Sexual Harassment. To provide a safe work environment, employees need to be educated on what is and isn’t sexual harassment. Sexual harassment isn’t only limited to making inappropriate advances. It can also include unwelcome verbal or physical behavior that creates a hostile work environment. It can go beyond office space.

PoSH training helps to differentiate between appropriate and inappropriate workplace behavior. As per Section 4 of the Act, every company with 10 or more employees must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC). This Committee must include:

1. A Presiding Officer (must be a woman)

2. One external member from a NGO or a lawyer

3. At least two members representing the employees of the organization.

All complaints shall be made to this body which must resolve every issue impartially. Irrespective of the intention of the accused or the level of impact, every incident has to be taken seriously and investigated by the ICC. When the employer fails to constitute an Internal Committee or breaches provisions of this Act or any rules made thereunder, they shall be punishable with fine of fifty thousand rupees.

The complaints, first should approach ICC, then it is for ICC to initially investigate in to the complaints to assess the correctness and interview the complainants in camera and if prima facie the complaints were found to have case of sexual harassment, the ICC is under obligation to issue show cause notice to respondent (Harasser) with copy of complaints and documents provided by complainants asking him to reply.

The employer can transfer accused to another location on the recommendation of ICC after request from aggrieved woman employee. There is nothing in the POSH Act which permits the employer to take action against the accused unless a written complaint of sexual harassment is filed.

Q. A young woman was allegedly sexually harassed by an employee of an establishment which the young woman often visited. There were a number of witnesses to the incident, however, the victim was not willing to come forward and file a complaint of harassment with the employer. The victim was afraid of retaliation from the accused. The question raised is whether in absence of a complaint filed by the victim, can an action be taken by the employer against the accused?

Solution: Complaint has to be made by the victim according to the POSH Act.
QUESTION: 77

The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 governs the issue of Workplace Sexual Harassment.

The Act recognizes the right of every woman to a safe and secure workplace environment irrespective of her age or employment status. Hence, the right of all women working or visiting any workplace whether in the capacity of regular, temporary or daily wages basis is protected under the Act. It includes all women whether engaged directly or through an agent. A workplace is any place visited by the employee arising out of or during the course of employment, including transportation provided by the employer for undertaking such a journey.

Sexual Harassment violates the fundamental rights of a woman to equality and her right to life and to live with dignity and right to practice any profession, which includes a right to a safe environment free from Sexual Harassment. To provide a safe work environment, employees need to be educated on what is and isn’t sexual harassment. Sexual harassment isn’t only limited to making inappropriate advances. It can also include unwelcome verbal or physical behavior that creates a hostile work environment. It can go beyond office space.

PoSH training helps to differentiate between appropriate and inappropriate workplace behavior. As per Section 4 of the Act, every company with 10 or more employees must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC). This Committee must include:

1. A Presiding Officer (must be a woman)

2. One external member from a NGO or a lawyer

3. At least two members representing the employees of the organization.

All complaints shall be made to this body which must resolve every issue impartially. Irrespective of the intention of the accused or the level of impact, every incident has to be taken seriously and investigated by the ICC. When the employer fails to constitute an Internal Committee or breaches provisions of this Act or any rules made thereunder, they shall be punishable with fine of fifty thousand rupees.

The complaints, first should approach ICC, then it is for ICC to initially investigate in to the complaints to assess the correctness and interview the complainants in camera and if prima facie the complaints were found to have case of sexual harassment, the ICC is under obligation to issue show cause notice to respondent (Harasser) with copy of complaints and documents provided by complainants asking him to reply.

The employer can transfer accused to another location on the recommendation of ICC after request from aggrieved woman employee. There is nothing in the POSH Act which permits the employer to take action against the accused unless a written complaint of sexual harassment is filed.

Q. Would sending emails to a female employee with derogatory, suggestive content including text and pictures amount to Sexual Harassment?

Solution: Any remark, physical, verbal or non-verbal including pictures, videos, text etc amounts to Sexual harassment.
QUESTION: 78

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, provides for situations in which facts otherwise not relevant may become relevant. It is dealt in Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It reads as, “Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant –– (1) if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact; (2) if by themselves or in connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable.” If a fact, which is otherwise irrelevant, disproves or tends to prove or disprove a fact in issue or a relevant fact, the irrelevant fact becomes a relevant one. The section is capable of having a wide scope. However, reading the section in an unreasonably broad sense would defeat the purpose of the Evidence Act.

Plea of Alibi: There are certain facts which cannot be said to have co-existed with another fact. If one fact is proved to be true for a person, another fact that cannot co-exist with the fact so proved automatically stands disproved. This is the principle behind a concept of alibi according to which if the accused is proved to have been present at a different place at the same time when the offence was committed, it is concluded that the person was not physically present during the commission of the offence. A plea of alibi must be established with absolute certainty. In a case where it was proved that the person was not physically present at the place where the act was alleged to have been committed but was present only a few miles away from such place, the plea of alibi was not allowed. Where the accused claimed that he was present at a different place when the offence was committed but failed to provide proof of the distance between the two places, the plea of alibi was not allowed.

The words “highly probable or improbable” used in clause (2) of the section refers to the degree of connection between the fact in issue or relevant fact and a collateral fact. For a fact otherwise not relevant to be relevant under this section, it has to clearly establish the existence or non-existence of a fact in issue or a relevant fact. The degree of probability must be sufficiently high enough and not merely reasonable. In Mahender Singh Dahiya v. State (CBI) case, the husband was accused of killing his wife. The letters written by the wife to the husband were not considered to be relevant under the section since they failed to establish a high degree of probability."

Q. In a case Anand v. State of West Bengal, Anand murdered Budeshwar in Calcutta. The question is, whether Anand committed a crime at Calcutta on a certain day. The fact that, on that day, Anand was at Lahore is relevant. The fact that, near the time when the crime was committed, Anand was at a distance from the place where it was committed, which would render it highly improbable, though not impossible, that he committed it. In relation to the above passage can the statement

Anand was at a distance from the place where crime was committed” be considered as relevant?

Solution: It is relevant because though it is highly improbable, it is not impossible.
QUESTION: 79

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, provides for situations in which facts otherwise not relevant may become relevant. It is dealt in Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It reads as, “Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant –– (1) if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact; (2) if by themselves or in connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable.” If a fact, which is otherwise irrelevant, disproves or tends to prove or disprove a fact in issue or a relevant fact, the irrelevant fact becomes a relevant one. The section is capable of having a wide scope. However, reading the section in an unreasonably broad sense would defeat the purpose of the Evidence Act.

Plea of Alibi: There are certain facts which cannot be said to have co-existed with another fact. If one fact is proved to be true for a person, another fact that cannot co-exist with the fact so proved automatically stands disproved. This is the principle behind a concept of alibi according to which if the accused is proved to have been present at a different place at the same time when the offence was committed, it is concluded that the person was not physically present during the commission of the offence. A plea of alibi must be established with absolute certainty. In a case where it was proved that the person was not physically present at the place where the act was alleged to have been committed but was present only a few miles away from such place, the plea of alibi was not allowed. Where the accused claimed that he was present at a different place when the offence was committed but failed to provide proof of the distance between the two places, the plea of alibi was not allowed.

The words “highly probable or improbable” used in clause (2) of the section refers to the degree of connection between the fact in issue or relevant fact and a collateral fact. For a fact otherwise not relevant to be relevant under this section, it has to clearly establish the existence or non-existence of a fact in issue or a relevant fact. The degree of probability must be sufficiently high enough and not merely reasonable. In Mahender Singh Dahiya v. State (CBI) case, the husband was accused of killing his wife. The letters written by the wife to the husband were not considered to be relevant under the section since they failed to establish a high degree of probability."

Q. In the previous situation, can Anand take plea of alibi as he is at Lahore the day crime was committed?

Solution: Yes, he can because he is not physically present at the place where the act was alleged to have been committed.
QUESTION: 80

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, provides for situations in which facts otherwise not relevant may become relevant. It is dealt in Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It reads as, “Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant –– (1) if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact; (2) if by themselves or in connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable.” If a fact, which is otherwise irrelevant, disproves or tends to prove or disprove a fact in issue or a relevant fact, the irrelevant fact becomes a relevant one. The section is capable of having a wide scope. However, reading the section in an unreasonably broad sense would defeat the purpose of the Evidence Act.

Plea of Alibi: There are certain facts which cannot be said to have co-existed with another fact. If one fact is proved to be true for a person, another fact that cannot co-exist with the fact so proved automatically stands disproved. This is the principle behind a concept of alibi according to which if the accused is proved to have been present at a different place at the same time when the offence was committed, it is concluded that the person was not physically present during the commission of the offence. A plea of alibi must be established with absolute certainty. In a case where it was proved that the person was not physically present at the place where the act was alleged to have been committed but was present only a few miles away from such place, the plea of alibi was not allowed. Where the accused claimed that he was present at a different place when the offence was committed but failed to provide proof of the distance between the two places, the plea of alibi was not allowed.

The words “highly probable or improbable” used in clause (2) of the section refers to the degree of connection between the fact in issue or relevant fact and a collateral fact. For a fact otherwise not relevant to be relevant under this section, it has to clearly establish the existence or non-existence of a fact in issue or a relevant fact. The degree of probability must be sufficiently high enough and not merely reasonable. In Mahender Singh Dahiya v. State (CBI) case, the husband was accused of killing his wife. The letters written by the wife to the husband were not considered to be relevant under the section since they failed to establish a high degree of probability."

Q. In Sarojekumar Chakrabarti v. Emperor, the fact in issue was pertaining to possession of a revolver. An identical revolver was publicly showed by the accused three weeks earlier. Can the fact that an identical revolver was publicly showed by the accused three weeks earlier become relevant though it is nowhere related to the commission of crime by the accused?

Solution: Section 11 states that if a fact, which is otherwise irrelevant, disproves or tends to prove or disprove a fact in issue or a relevant fact, the irrelevant fact becomes a relevant one. In this case, though the revolver is a different one, making it irrelevant, the fact that it shows the accused has access to revolvers makes it relevant.
QUESTION: 81

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, provides for situations in which facts otherwise not relevant may become relevant. It is dealt in Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It reads as, “Facts not otherwise relevant are relevant –– (1) if they are inconsistent with any fact in issue or relevant fact; (2) if by themselves or in connection with other facts they make the existence or non-existence of any fact in issue or relevant fact highly probable or improbable.” If a fact, which is otherwise irrelevant, disproves or tends to prove or disprove a fact in issue or a relevant fact, the irrelevant fact becomes a relevant one. The section is capable of having a wide scope. However, reading the section in an unreasonably broad sense would defeat the purpose of the Evidence Act.

Plea of Alibi: There are certain facts which cannot be said to have co-existed with another fact. If one fact is proved to be true for a person, another fact that cannot co-exist with the fact so proved automatically stands disproved. This is the principle behind a concept of alibi according to which if the accused is proved to have been present at a different place at the same time when the offence was committed, it is concluded that the person was not physically present during the commission of the offence. A plea of alibi must be established with absolute certainty. In a case where it was proved that the person was not physically present at the place where the act was alleged to have been committed but was present only a few miles away from such place, the plea of alibi was not allowed. Where the accused claimed that he was present at a different place when the offence was committed but failed to provide proof of the distance between the two places, the plea of alibi was not allowed.

The words “highly probable or improbable” used in clause (2) of the section refers to the degree of connection between the fact in issue or relevant fact and a collateral fact. For a fact otherwise not relevant to be relevant under this section, it has to clearly establish the existence or non-existence of a fact in issue or a relevant fact. The degree of probability must be sufficiently high enough and not merely reasonable. In Mahender Singh Dahiya v. State (CBI) case, the husband was accused of killing his wife. The letters written by the wife to the husband were not considered to be relevant under the section since they failed to establish a high degree of probability."

Q. Which of the following are likely to be strong alibi evidence?

Solution: All the given options provide strong alibi evidence.
QUESTION: 82

The ideal market is the one in which various market participants are independent and act as competitive restraints on each other. This economic liberty of market participants is sine qua non for preserving free and unfettered competition in any market. Sometimes the market participants with an objective to make more money instead of competing with each other on merits may enter into agreements to restrict competition. The words of Adam Smith that “People of the same trade seldom meet together, even for merriment and diversion, but the conversation ends in a conspiracy against the public or in some contrivance to raise prices” are still applicable and to some extent true even today. Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 (hereinafter referred as the Act) seeks to prohibit such agreements.

Section 3(1) of the Act inter alia prohibits an agreement between an enterprise and a person causing or is likely to cause an appreciable effect on competition within India. As the definition of person under the Act includes an individual, it leads to possible interpretation that consumers can be a party to anti-competitive agreements. This proposition contradicts the whole philosophy of competition law behind prohibiting anti-competitive agreements, but still the Act nowhere negates this proposition on the other hand seems to support it.

If this proposition is answered in affirmative, it may have multi-dimensional adverse implications on contractual relations. For instance, a consumer will be able to avoid a contract if subsequently such contract is proved to be anti-competitive. This is not something which the Competition Commission doesn't have the power to do, in fact the Commission in the case of Belarie Owners Association v. DLF Ltd. & HUDA has directed DLF to modify unfair conditions in a properly entered contract. However, the rationale behind this decision was that by imposing such unfair terms the DLF has abused its Dominance and not on the ground of such agreement being anti-competitive.

The issue as to whether consumers can be party to anti-competitive agreements was raised before Competition Commission in the case of Yashoda Hospital and Research Centre Ltd. v. India Bulls Financial Services Ltd. (IFSL). The Commission held that for application of Section 3 there must be two or more enterprises and there must be an agreement between them. While adjudging the same issue the Gujarat High Court in case of Jai Balaji Industries Ltd. & Ans. v. Union of India has observed that the Consumers have no role to play in anti-competitive agreements. Thus, after these judicial pronouncements it is well established that a consumer can’t be party to any anti competitive agreement as prohibited under Section 3 of the Act.

Q. Section 3 of the Competition Act imposes restrictions on which kinds of agreements as per the paragraph?

Solution: The focus of the entire passage is on anti-competitive agreements.
QUESTION: 83

The ideal market is the one in which various market participants are independent and act as competitive restraints on each other. This economic liberty of market participants is sine qua non for preserving free and unfettered competition in any market. Sometimes the market participants with an objective to make more money instead of competing with each other on merits may enter into agreements to restrict competition. The words of Adam Smith that “People of the same trade seldom meet together, even for merriment and diversion, but the conversation ends in a conspiracy against the public or in some contrivance to raise prices” are still applicable and to some extent true even today. Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 (hereinafter referred as the Act) seeks to prohibit such agreements.

Section 3(1) of the Act inter alia prohibits an agreement between an enterprise and a person causing or is likely to cause an appreciable effect on competition within India. As the definition of person under the Act includes an individual, it leads to possible interpretation that consumers can be a party to anti-competitive agreements. This proposition contradicts the whole philosophy of competition law behind prohibiting anti-competitive agreements, but still the Act nowhere negates this proposition on the other hand seems to support it.

If this proposition is answered in affirmative, it may have multi-dimensional adverse implications on contractual relations. For instance, a consumer will be able to avoid a contract if subsequently such contract is proved to be anti-competitive. This is not something which the Competition Commission doesn't have the power to do, in fact the Commission in the case of Belarie Owners Association v. DLF Ltd. & HUDA has directed DLF to modify unfair conditions in a properly entered contract. However, the rationale behind this decision was that by imposing such unfair terms the DLF has abused its Dominance and not on the ground of such agreement being anti-competitive.

The issue as to whether consumers can be party to anti-competitive agreements was raised before Competition Commission in the case of Yashoda Hospital and Research Centre Ltd. v. India Bulls Financial Services Ltd. (IFSL). The Commission held that for application of Section 3 there must be two or more enterprises and there must be an agreement between them. While adjudging the same issue the Gujarat High Court in case of Jai Balaji Industries Ltd. & Ans. v. Union of India has observed that the Consumers have no role to play in anti-competitive agreements. Thus, after these judicial pronouncements it is well established that a consumer can’t be party to any anti competitive agreement as prohibited under Section 3 of the Act.

Q. Which of the following was true with respect to the judgment by the Commission in Yashoda Hospital and Research Centre Ltd. v. India Bulls Financial Services Ltd. (IFSL)?

Solution: Only (B) is the outcome of the judgment in the case of Yashoda Hospial and Research Centre Ltd. v. India Bulls Financial Services Ltd. The Jai Balaji Industries Ltd. v. Union of India has no bearing on the above judgment. It is mentioned independently as another judgment on the same topic.
QUESTION: 84

The ideal market is the one in which various market participants are independent and act as competitive restraints on each other. This economic liberty of market participants is sine qua non for preserving free and unfettered competition in any market. Sometimes the market participants with an objective to make more money instead of competing with each other on merits may enter into agreements to restrict competition. The words of Adam Smith that “People of the same trade seldom meet together, even for merriment and diversion, but the conversation ends in a conspiracy against the public or in some contrivance to raise prices” are still applicable and to some extent true even today. Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 (hereinafter referred as the Act) seeks to prohibit such agreements.

Section 3(1) of the Act inter alia prohibits an agreement between an enterprise and a person causing or is likely to cause an appreciable effect on competition within India. As the definition of person under the Act includes an individual, it leads to possible interpretation that consumers can be a party to anti-competitive agreements. This proposition contradicts the whole philosophy of competition law behind prohibiting anti-competitive agreements, but still the Act nowhere negates this proposition on the other hand seems to support it.

If this proposition is answered in affirmative, it may have multi-dimensional adverse implications on contractual relations. For instance, a consumer will be able to avoid a contract if subsequently such contract is proved to be anti-competitive. This is not something which the Competition Commission doesn't have the power to do, in fact the Commission in the case of Belarie Owners Association v. DLF Ltd. & HUDA has directed DLF to modify unfair conditions in a properly entered contract. However, the rationale behind this decision was that by imposing such unfair terms the DLF has abused its Dominance and not on the ground of such agreement being anti-competitive.

The issue as to whether consumers can be party to anti-competitive agreements was raised before Competition Commission in the case of Yashoda Hospital and Research Centre Ltd. v. India Bulls Financial Services Ltd. (IFSL). The Commission held that for application of Section 3 there must be two or more enterprises and there must be an agreement between them. While adjudging the same issue the Gujarat High Court in case of Jai Balaji Industries Ltd. & Ans. v. Union of India has observed that the Consumers have no role to play in anti-competitive agreements. Thus, after these judicial pronouncements it is well established that a consumer can’t be party to any anti competitive agreement as prohibited under Section 3 of the Act.

Q. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the agreement disputed in Belarie Owners Association v. DLF Ltd. HUDA?

Solution: According to the third paragraph, DLF was directed to modify the agreement, but the rationale was that by imposing such unfair terms the DLF has abused its Dominance and not on the ground of such agreement being anti-competitive.
QUESTION: 85

The ideal market is the one in which various market participants are independent and act as competitive restraints on each other. This economic liberty of market participants is sine qua non for preserving free and unfettered competition in any market. Sometimes the market participants with an objective to make more money instead of competing with each other on merits may enter into agreements to restrict competition. The words of Adam Smith that “People of the same trade seldom meet together, even for merriment and diversion, but the conversation ends in a conspiracy against the public or in some contrivance to raise prices” are still applicable and to some extent true even today. Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 (hereinafter referred as the Act) seeks to prohibit such agreements.

Section 3(1) of the Act inter alia prohibits an agreement between an enterprise and a person causing or is likely to cause an appreciable effect on competition within India. As the definition of person under the Act includes an individual, it leads to possible interpretation that consumers can be a party to anti-competitive agreements. This proposition contradicts the whole philosophy of competition law behind prohibiting anti-competitive agreements, but still the Act nowhere negates this proposition on the other hand seems to support it.

If this proposition is answered in affirmative, it may have multi-dimensional adverse implications on contractual relations. For instance, a consumer will be able to avoid a contract if subsequently such contract is proved to be anti-competitive. This is not something which the Competition Commission doesn't have the power to do, in fact the Commission in the case of Belarie Owners Association v. DLF Ltd. & HUDA has directed DLF to modify unfair conditions in a properly entered contract. However, the rationale behind this decision was that by imposing such unfair terms the DLF has abused its Dominance and not on the ground of such agreement being anti-competitive.

The issue as to whether consumers can be party to anti-competitive agreements was raised before Competition Commission in the case of Yashoda Hospital and Research Centre Ltd. v. India Bulls Financial Services Ltd. (IFSL). The Commission held that for application of Section 3 there must be two or more enterprises and there must be an agreement between them. While adjudging the same issue the Gujarat High Court in case of Jai Balaji Industries Ltd. & Ans. v. Union of India has observed that the Consumers have no role to play in anti-competitive agreements. Thus, after these judicial pronouncements it is well established that a consumer can’t be party to any anti competitive agreement as prohibited under Section 3 of the Act.

Q. Based on the information in the above passage, can consumers be party to anti-competitive agreements?

Solution: Only (A) is definite about the consumers being prohibited from entering into anti-competitive agreements. Belarie Owners case is not about anti-competitive agreements and the Act itself is not explicitly prohibiting the consumers.
QUESTION: 86

The ideal market is the one in which various market participants are independent and act as competitive restraints on each other. This economic liberty of market participants is sine qua non for preserving free and unfettered competition in any market. Sometimes the market participants with an objective to make more money instead of competing with each other on merits may enter into agreements to restrict competition. The words of Adam Smith that “People of the same trade seldom meet together, even for merriment and diversion, but the conversation ends in a conspiracy against the public or in some contrivance to raise prices” are still applicable and to some extent true even today. Section 3 of the Competition Act, 2002 (hereinafter referred as the Act) seeks to prohibit such agreements.

Section 3(1) of the Act inter alia prohibits an agreement between an enterprise and a person causing or is likely to cause an appreciable effect on competition within India. As the definition of person under the Act includes an individual, it leads to possible interpretation that consumers can be a party to anti-competitive agreements. This proposition contradicts the whole philosophy of competition law behind prohibiting anti-competitive agreements, but still the Act nowhere negates this proposition on the other hand seems to support it.

If this proposition is answered in affirmative, it may have multi-dimensional adverse implications on contractual relations. For instance, a consumer will be able to avoid a contract if subsequently such contract is proved to be anti-competitive. This is not something which the Competition Commission doesn't have the power to do, in fact the Commission in the case of Belarie Owners Association v. DLF Ltd. & HUDA has directed DLF to modify unfair conditions in a properly entered contract. However, the rationale behind this decision was that by imposing such unfair terms the DLF has abused its Dominance and not on the ground of such agreement being anti-competitive.

The issue as to whether consumers can be party to anti-competitive agreements was raised before Competition Commission in the case of Yashoda Hospital and Research Centre Ltd. v. India Bulls Financial Services Ltd. (IFSL). The Commission held that for application of Section 3 there must be two or more enterprises and there must be an agreement between them. While adjudging the same issue the Gujarat High Court in case of Jai Balaji Industries Ltd. & Ans. v. Union of India has observed that the Consumers have no role to play in anti-competitive agreements. Thus, after these judicial pronouncements it is well established that a consumer can’t be party to any anti competitive agreement as prohibited under Section 3 of the Act.

Q. Which of the following best describes the Anti-Competitive Agreement?

Solution: Only (A) describes Anti-Competitive Agreement. Such an agreement actually encourages monopoly or few players in the market making it an unfair competition.
QUESTION: 87

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar’s government for the military’s large-scale excesses of 2017. Crucial is the Hague court’s stipulation that the civilian government of Ms. Suu Kyi submit an update, within four months, of the steps it has taken to preserve evidence of the systemic brutalities. Yangon has also been asked to furnish six-monthly reports thereafter, until the conclusion of the case, which relates to genocide accusations. The court has further emphasized that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar’s Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia’s suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia’s standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.

Rejecting the ICJ’s ruling, Myanmar’s Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army’s action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army. However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar’s internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar’s return to civilian rule.

Q. Genocide means killing with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group. Simele are stateless people which cannot be put strictly into any national, ethnical, racial or religious group. In the 20th century, the Simele massacre was committed by the armed forces of the Kingdom of Iraq during a campaign which systematically targeted the Assyrians of northern Iraq in August 1933. Which of the following would be true in the given context?

(1). Iraq is guilty since Simele are stateless people.

(2). Iraq is not guilty since Simele does not possess some form of identity.

(3). Iraq is guilty since Simele carries an ethnical identity who is subjected to genocide.

Solution: The passage conveys that for genocide to take place, a community has to be targeted. The element of community is missing in this particular scenario. Hence, Iraq would not be held as guilty.
QUESTION: 88

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar’s government for the military’s large-scale excesses of 2017. Crucial is the Hague court’s stipulation that the civilian government of Ms. Suu Kyi submit an update, within four months, of the steps it has taken to preserve evidence of the systemic brutalities. Yangon has also been asked to furnish six-monthly reports thereafter, until the conclusion of the case, which relates to genocide accusations. The court has further emphasized that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar’s Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia’s suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia’s standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.

Rejecting the ICJ’s ruling, Myanmar’s Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army’s action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army. However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar’s internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar’s return to civilian rule.

Q. S, is a Russian, who has been alleged to be a spy is imprisoned in America for 30 years. S is attacked inside the prison after being convicted of terrorism and dies in America. The conviction was held by the Supreme Court of the United States. Can Russia bring a claim of genocide against America?

Solution: The claim of genocide can only be brought under the circumstances where a community is being targeted for reasons elucidated in the passage. In the current scenario, S is being convicted on grounds of terrorism, therefore, a claim cannot be brought against America by Russia.
QUESTION: 89

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar’s government for the military’s large-scale excesses of 2017. Crucial is the Hague court’s stipulation that the civilian government of Ms. Suu Kyi submit an update, within four months, of the steps it has taken to preserve evidence of the systemic brutalities. Yangon has also been asked to furnish six-monthly reports thereafter, until the conclusion of the case, which relates to genocide accusations. The court has further emphasized that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar’s Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia’s suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia’s standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.

Rejecting the ICJ’s ruling, Myanmar’s Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army’s action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army. However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar’s internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar’s return to civilian rule.

Q. Syrian Genocide refers to the deliberate and systematic destruction of the population residing in Syria. This was caused during 1990-2000. It was implemented through extensive massacres and deportations, with the deportations consisting of forced marches under conditions designed to lead to the death of the deportees. This was done by the Khina, a neighboring country of Syria. The total number of resulting deaths caused was between 2,00,000-3,00,000. If Syria brings a suit against Khina, based only on the author's reasoning in the given passage, would the International Court entertain the suit?

Solution: The Syrian population has been the target of systematic destruction, massacre, deportation etc., therefore the Court would entertain the matter.
QUESTION: 90

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar’s government for the military’s large-scale excesses of 2017. Crucial is the Hague court’s stipulation that the civilian government of Ms. Suu Kyi submit an update, within four months, of the steps it has taken to preserve evidence of the systemic brutalities. Yangon has also been asked to furnish six-monthly reports thereafter, until the conclusion of the case, which relates to genocide accusations. The court has further emphasized that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar’s Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia’s suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia’s standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.

Rejecting the ICJ’s ruling, Myanmar’s Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army’s action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army. However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar’s internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar’s return to civilian rule.

Q. The Government of Wakanda has indulged in gross violations of human rights against the innocent Challa Community in the war against United Liberation Front of America (ULFA). During such operation, several civilians were killed, tortured and maimed. Considering the fact that the Challa community is a religious and ethnical group of America, determine the liability regarding the genocide on the basis of the reading of the passage?

Solution: Genocide means killing with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group. Considering the fact that the Challa community is an ethnical and religious group of America, and the war caused severe human rights violation to them; the Government of Wakanda would be held responsible for the genocide caused.
QUESTION: 91

The unanimous ruling of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), on the prevention of alleged acts of genocide against Rohingya Muslims has finally pinned legal responsibility on Myanmar’s government for the military’s large-scale excesses of 2017. Crucial is the Hague court’s stipulation that the civilian government of Ms. Suu Kyi submit an update, within four months, of the steps it has taken to preserve evidence of the systemic brutalities. Yangon has also been asked to furnish six-monthly reports thereafter, until the conclusion of the case, which relates to genocide accusations. The court has further emphasized that an estimated 600,000 Rohingya resident in Myanmar still remained highly vulnerable to attacks from the security forces. The ruling vindicates findings by the UN and human rights groups on the prevalence of hate speech, mass atrocities of rape and extra-judicial killings, and torching of villages in Myanmar’s Rakhine province, leading to the forced migration of thousands to Bangladesh. The ruling pertains to the Gambia’s suit on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), alleging that the brutalities by the defence services amounted to crimes of genocide under the 1948 Genocide Convention. Arguing the defence in person during the three-day public hearings last month, Ms. Suu Kyi, who was elected in 2016, insisted that the 2017 violence was proportionate to the threat of insurgency. She even questioned the Gambia’s standing to bring the suit, saying that there was no bilateral dispute.

Rejecting the ICJ’s ruling, Myanmar’s Foreign Ministry has accused rights groups of presenting the Court with a distorted picture of the prevailing situation. In a statement, it defended the army’s action as a legitimate response to violations of the law by the insurgent Arakan Rohingya Salvation Army. However, the above claim is at odds with the findings this week of an Independent Commission of Enquiry established by the government. The Commission acknowledged that war crimes had indeed been committed during the military campaign, when about 900 people were killed. But there was nothing to back the assertions of gang-rape, or evidence to presume any intent of genocide, it held. Although it could take years before the court pronounces the final verdict in the genocide case, injunction is an important victory for the refugees languishing in Bangladeshi camps. It empowers the UN Security Council to prevail upon Myanmar to take appropriate measures for the rehabilitation and repatriation of displaced communities. As the biggest regional player, China could play a constructive role to ensure a speedy return to normalcy in its neighbourhood. India has its own interests in an amicable resolution of Myanmar’s internal dispute. Above all, finding closure to the current dispute would mark the completion of Myanmar’s return to civilian rule.

Q. A group of 300 Rohingya migrants illegally entered into the Indian borders. These were held captive and sent to detention camps from where they were deported to Myanmar. In light of the passage, determine which of the following would hold true, considering genocide means killing with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group?

(1). India is guilty since Rohingyans are the target of systematic destruction.

(2). India is not guilty since Rohingyans have entered the Indian borders illegally, and they are being deported.

(3). India is guilty since Rohingyans carry ethnical identities who are subjected to genocide.

Solution: Considering the principle that genocide means killing with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, India will not be held guilty because the act does not involve any factors related to genocide. Moreover, India is resorting to legal options for deporting the people here.
QUESTION: 92

General defenses available under the IPC are as follows:-

Mistake of fact- Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or by reason of a mistake of fact, not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do such an act. It is derived from the legal maxim “ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat”. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of mistake of fact and not mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing that particular act.

Accident- Includes an Accident committed while doing a lawful act. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

Infancy- It includes an act of a child below seven years of age. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. It includes an act of a child above seven and below twelve of immature understanding. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not yet attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and repercussions of his conduct during that occasion.

Insanity- Act of a person of unsound mind. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at that time of performing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.

Intoxication- Act of a person incapable of judgment by reason of intoxication caused against his will. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law, provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered involuntarily without his will or knowledge.

Q. Gary sees a person walking out of a departmental store. Gary thinks that the person is the same who had committed murder a week back, so Gary captures him and takes him to the police station. The person files a case of assault against Gary. Will Gary be liable for his acts?

Solution: Not liable as he has defense of mistake of fact that is excusable and he did it in good faith believing that he had the right to do so.
QUESTION: 93

General defenses available under the IPC are as follows:-

Mistake of fact- Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or by reason of a mistake of fact, not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do such an act. It is derived from the legal maxim “ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat”. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of mistake of fact and not mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing that particular act.

Accident- Includes an Accident committed while doing a lawful act. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

Infancy- It includes an act of a child below seven years of age. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. It includes an act of a child above seven and below twelve of immature understanding. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not yet attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and repercussions of his conduct during that occasion.

Insanity- Act of a person of unsound mind. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at that time of performing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.

Intoxication- Act of a person incapable of judgment by reason of intoxication caused against his will. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law, provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered involuntarily without his will or knowledge.

Q. Manish goes to a shooting range to practice his aim. He takes a gun and starts firing at the target boards. One of the bullets misses the board and deflects from the metal pipe and injures a person. Will Manish be liable for his acts?

Solution: Not liable as it was an accident done without any criminal intention/knowledge.
QUESTION: 94

General defenses available under the IPC are as follows:-

Mistake of fact- Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or by reason of a mistake of fact, not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do such an act. It is derived from the legal maxim “ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat”. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of mistake of fact and not mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing that particular act.

Accident- Includes an Accident committed while doing a lawful act. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

Infancy- It includes an act of a child below seven years of age. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. It includes an act of a child above seven and below twelve of immature understanding. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not yet attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and repercussions of his conduct during that occasion.

Insanity- Act of a person of unsound mind. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at that time of performing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.

Intoxication- Act of a person incapable of judgment by reason of intoxication caused against his will. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law, provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered involuntarily without his will or knowledge.

Q. Krishna is a minor who sees a gun lying around his house and takes it with him to his school. He tries to scare his friends over there and injures one of his friends by mistake. Will he be liable?

Solution: Infancy is a defense under IPC. Any person below the age of 7 years cannot be held liable, between the age of 7-12 years, it would depend on maturity and above the age of 12 years would be liable.
QUESTION: 95

General defenses available under the IPC are as follows:-

Mistake of fact- Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or by reason of a mistake of fact, not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do such an act. It is derived from the legal maxim “ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat”. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of mistake of fact and not mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing that particular act.

Accident- Includes an Accident committed while doing a lawful act. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

Infancy- It includes an act of a child below seven years of age. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. It includes an act of a child above seven and below twelve of immature understanding. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not yet attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and repercussions of his conduct during that occasion.

Insanity- Act of a person of unsound mind. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at that time of performing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.

Intoxication- Act of a person incapable of judgment by reason of intoxication caused against his will. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law, provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered involuntarily without his will or knowledge.

Q. Girish works in a mental asylum. He is annoyed with the behavior and the functioning of the village sarpanch so he goes and beats him with a lathi. The sarpanch files a complaint against him. Will Girish be liable?

Solution: Girish works in a mental asylum that does not give him the right to claim insanity as a defense.
QUESTION: 96

General defenses available under the IPC are as follows:-

Mistake of fact- Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is or by reason of a mistake of fact, not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do such an act. It is derived from the legal maxim “ignorantia facti doth excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat”. Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of mistake of fact and not mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by law, in doing that particular act.

Accident- Includes an Accident committed while doing a lawful act. Nothing is an offence which is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

Infancy- It includes an act of a child below seven years of age. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age. It includes an act of a child above seven and below twelve of immature understanding. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not yet attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and repercussions of his conduct during that occasion.

Insanity- Act of a person of unsound mind. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at that time of performing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.

Intoxication- Act of a person incapable of judgment by reason of intoxication caused against his will. Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it, is, by reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong, or contrary to law, provided that the thing which intoxicated him was administered involuntarily without his will or knowledge.

Q. Giriraj goes to a party and his friends force him to drink. Initially he refuses but later he agrees to drink. He gets sloshed, while returning from the party he knocks down a person with his car. Will he be liable?

Solution: He will be liable because he agreed later and agreeing to drink does not amount to involuntary intoxication.
QUESTION: 97

On February 12, 2018 circular issued by the Reserve Bank of India (‘RBI’) titled ‘Revised Framework for Resolution of Stressed Assets’ (‘Old Framework’). However, pursuant to the decision of the Supreme Court of India (‘Supreme Court’) in Dharani Sugars and Chemicals Ltd. v. Union of India & Ors. (‘Dharani Sugars’), the Old Framework has been struck down for being ultra vires to Section 35AA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. As a result, all cases filed by financial creditors against corporate debtors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (‘IBC’) pursuant to the Old Framework have been declared non est.

The two primary issues before the court in Dharani Sugars were: (a) whether Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were the source of promulgation of Old Framework, constitutionally valid and (b) whether the Old Framework is ultra vires of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934. In relation to the first issue, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were introduced by the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance 2017 and the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2017 by stating that, “They are not excessive in any way nor do they suffer from want of any guiding principle. As a matter of fact, these amendments are in the nature of amendments which confer regulatory powers upon the RBI to carry out its functions under the Banking Regulation Act, and are not different in quality from any of the Sections which have already conferred such power”. The court further observed that there was no scarcity of guidance as to how RBI must exercise its powers under the newly added provisions and guidance was provided in form of Sections 25, 29, 30 and 31. In relation to the second issue, the Supreme Court examined the scheme of Section 35A, Section 35AA and Section 35AB of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 as follows, “Stressed assets can be resolved either through the Insolvency Code or otherwise. When resolution through the Code is to be effected, the specific power granted by Section 35AA can alone be availed by the RBI. When resolution de hors the Code is to be effected, the general powers under Sections 35A and 35AB are to be used. Any other interpretation would make Section 35AA otiose”.

Hence, directions under Section 35AA can only be issued with respect to specific defaults by specific debtors. Any directions issued by RBI in respect of debtors generally would be ultra vires of Section 35AA.Hence, the Old Framework was found ultra vires, having no effect under law.

Q. As per the judgment passed in Dharani Sugars Case, what is the legal validity of the circular passed by Reserve Bank of India (‘RBI’) titled ‘Revised Framework for Resolution of Stressed Assets’?

Solution:
QUESTION: 98

On February 12, 2018 circular issued by the Reserve Bank of India (‘RBI’) titled ‘Revised Framework for Resolution of Stressed Assets’ (‘Old Framework’). However, pursuant to the decision of the Supreme Court of India (‘Supreme Court’) in Dharani Sugars and Chemicals Ltd. v. Union of India & Ors. (‘Dharani Sugars’), the Old Framework has been struck down for being ultra vires to Section 35AA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. As a result, all cases filed by financial creditors against corporate debtors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (‘IBC’) pursuant to the Old Framework have been declared non est.

The two primary issues before the court in Dharani Sugars were: (a) whether Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were the source of promulgation of Old Framework, constitutionally valid and (b) whether the Old Framework is ultra vires of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934. In relation to the first issue, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were introduced by the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance 2017 and the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2017 by stating that, “They are not excessive in any way nor do they suffer from want of any guiding principle. As a matter of fact, these amendments are in the nature of amendments which confer regulatory powers upon the RBI to carry out its functions under the Banking Regulation Act, and are not different in quality from any of the Sections which have already conferred such power”. The court further observed that there was no scarcity of guidance as to how RBI must exercise its powers under the newly added provisions and guidance was provided in form of Sections 25, 29, 30 and 31. In relation to the second issue, the Supreme Court examined the scheme of Section 35A, Section 35AA and Section 35AB of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 as follows, “Stressed assets can be resolved either through the Insolvency Code or otherwise. When resolution through the Code is to be effected, the specific power granted by Section 35AA can alone be availed by the RBI. When resolution de hors the Code is to be effected, the general powers under Sections 35A and 35AB are to be used. Any other interpretation would make Section 35AA otiose”.

Hence, directions under Section 35AA can only be issued with respect to specific defaults by specific debtors. Any directions issued by RBI in respect of debtors generally would be ultra vires of Section 35AA.Hence, the Old Framework was found ultra vires, having no effect under law.

Q. Which of the following was decided by the court on the issue of whether Section 35AA and Section 35AB were the source of promulgation of Old Framework, constitutionally valid?

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

On February 12, 2018 circular issued by the Reserve Bank of India (‘RBI’) titled ‘Revised Framework for Resolution of Stressed Assets’ (‘Old Framework’). However, pursuant to the decision of the Supreme Court of India (‘Supreme Court’) in Dharani Sugars and Chemicals Ltd. v. Union of India & Ors. (‘Dharani Sugars’), the Old Framework has been struck down for being ultra vires to Section 35AA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. As a result, all cases filed by financial creditors against corporate debtors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (‘IBC’) pursuant to the Old Framework have been declared non est.

The two primary issues before the court in Dharani Sugars were: (a) whether Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were the source of promulgation of Old Framework, constitutionally valid and (b) whether the Old Framework is ultra vires of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934. In relation to the first issue, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were introduced by the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance 2017 and the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2017 by stating that, “They are not excessive in any way nor do they suffer from want of any guiding principle. As a matter of fact, these amendments are in the nature of amendments which confer regulatory powers upon the RBI to carry out its functions under the Banking Regulation Act, and are not different in quality from any of the Sections which have already conferred such power”. The court further observed that there was no scarcity of guidance as to how RBI must exercise its powers under the newly added provisions and guidance was provided in form of Sections 25, 29, 30 and 31. In relation to the second issue, the Supreme Court examined the scheme of Section 35A, Section 35AA and Section 35AB of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 as follows, “Stressed assets can be resolved either through the Insolvency Code or otherwise. When resolution through the Code is to be effected, the specific power granted by Section 35AA can alone be availed by the RBI. When resolution de hors the Code is to be effected, the general powers under Sections 35A and 35AB are to be used. Any other interpretation would make Section 35AA otiose”.

Hence, directions under Section 35AA can only be issued with respect to specific defaults by specific debtors. Any directions issued by RBI in respect of debtors generally would be ultra vires of Section 35AA.Hence, the Old Framework was found ultra vires, having no effect under law.

Q. Which of the following was decided by the court on the issue of whether the Old Framework is ultra vires of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934?

Solution:
QUESTION: 100

On February 12, 2018 circular issued by the Reserve Bank of India (‘RBI’) titled ‘Revised Framework for Resolution of Stressed Assets’ (‘Old Framework’). However, pursuant to the decision of the Supreme Court of India (‘Supreme Court’) in Dharani Sugars and Chemicals Ltd. v. Union of India & Ors. (‘Dharani Sugars’), the Old Framework has been struck down for being ultra vires to Section 35AA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. As a result, all cases filed by financial creditors against corporate debtors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (‘IBC’) pursuant to the Old Framework have been declared non est.

The two primary issues before the court in Dharani Sugars were: (a) whether Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were the source of promulgation of Old Framework, constitutionally valid and (b) whether the Old Framework is ultra vires of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934. In relation to the first issue, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were introduced by the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance 2017 and the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2017 by stating that, “They are not excessive in any way nor do they suffer from want of any guiding principle. As a matter of fact, these amendments are in the nature of amendments which confer regulatory powers upon the RBI to carry out its functions under the Banking Regulation Act, and are not different in quality from any of the Sections which have already conferred such power”. The court further observed that there was no scarcity of guidance as to how RBI must exercise its powers under the newly added provisions and guidance was provided in form of Sections 25, 29, 30 and 31. In relation to the second issue, the Supreme Court examined the scheme of Section 35A, Section 35AA and Section 35AB of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 as follows, “Stressed assets can be resolved either through the Insolvency Code or otherwise. When resolution through the Code is to be effected, the specific power granted by Section 35AA can alone be availed by the RBI. When resolution de hors the Code is to be effected, the general powers under Sections 35A and 35AB are to be used. Any other interpretation would make Section 35AA otiose”.

Hence, directions under Section 35AA can only be issued with respect to specific defaults by specific debtors. Any directions issued by RBI in respect of debtors generally would be ultra vires of Section 35AA.Hence, the Old Framework was found ultra vires, having no effect under law.

Q. The entire para discussed Section 35AA of which of the following statute?

Solution:
QUESTION: 101

On February 12, 2018 circular issued by the Reserve Bank of India (‘RBI’) titled ‘Revised Framework for Resolution of Stressed Assets’ (‘Old Framework’). However, pursuant to the decision of the Supreme Court of India (‘Supreme Court’) in Dharani Sugars and Chemicals Ltd. v. Union of India & Ors. (‘Dharani Sugars’), the Old Framework has been struck down for being ultra vires to Section 35AA of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. As a result, all cases filed by financial creditors against corporate debtors under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (‘IBC’) pursuant to the Old Framework have been declared non est.

The two primary issues before the court in Dharani Sugars were: (a) whether Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were the source of promulgation of Old Framework, constitutionally valid and (b) whether the Old Framework is ultra vires of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and the RBI Act, 1934. In relation to the first issue, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 35AA and Section 35AB which were introduced by the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Ordinance 2017 and the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2017 by stating that, “They are not excessive in any way nor do they suffer from want of any guiding principle. As a matter of fact, these amendments are in the nature of amendments which confer regulatory powers upon the RBI to carry out its functions under the Banking Regulation Act, and are not different in quality from any of the Sections which have already conferred such power”. The court further observed that there was no scarcity of guidance as to how RBI must exercise its powers under the newly added provisions and guidance was provided in form of Sections 25, 29, 30 and 31. In relation to the second issue, the Supreme Court examined the scheme of Section 35A, Section 35AA and Section 35AB of Banking Regulation Act, 1949 as follows, “Stressed assets can be resolved either through the Insolvency Code or otherwise. When resolution through the Code is to be effected, the specific power granted by Section 35AA can alone be availed by the RBI. When resolution de hors the Code is to be effected, the general powers under Sections 35A and 35AB are to be used. Any other interpretation would make Section 35AA otiose”.

Hence, directions under Section 35AA can only be issued with respect to specific defaults by specific debtors. Any directions issued by RBI in respect of debtors generally would be ultra vires of Section 35AA.Hence, the Old Framework was found ultra vires, having no effect under law.

Q. The Supreme court further observed that there was no scarcity of guidance as to how RBI must exercise its powers under the newly added provisions. The guidance is provided under which sections of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?

Solution:
QUESTION: 102

The existence of such OTT (Over the Top) platforms like Netflix, Amazon Prime etc is a classic example of creative freedom and expression, not only of those involved in creating such content but also of individuals consuming it. In the recent past, however, censorship has been used more as a tool for suppressing political criticism, religious opinions and expressions of sexuality just to align the creative content with the establishment’s understanding of nationalistic propaganda. The President brought the regulation of OTT Platforms under the purview of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting on November 9th. The contentious executive action has come in the wake of a PIL filed before the Supreme Court praying for the Central Government to impose regulations on these platforms. This PIL aimed to stop OTT platforms from abusing their freedom of speech and expression based upon the premise that these OTT Platforms, under the guise of creative freedom, portray inappropriate scenes such as nudity, violence, drugs and unacceptable impressions of defence institutions. It goes as far as to claim that “Hinduphobia” has become prevalent due to the allegedly unregulated content on these platforms that seem to further certain propaganda. It is argued that prescribing necessary regulations for the same is in the interest of safeguarding the Right to Life. The practice of censorship and overreaching regulation has been met with criticism owing to the potential for abuse and infringement.

The Apex Court has interpreted application of Article 19(2) vis-a-vis Censorship to include restraints on such content which is against the sovereignty, integrity and security of India or is defamatory, in contempt of Court or leads to incitement of any offence. However, creative works voicing personal opinion and criticism of the government cannot be censored by placing them in the aforementioned criteria of reasonable restraints. In a democracy, free speech is not merely a tool furthering its principles but is an essential which defines its basic structure. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court adopted a method of strict scrutiny while striking down Section 66(A) of the Information and Technology Act, 2000 in light of the proximity and proportionality standard. The Apex Court held that the wording of the impugned section was in disharmony with Article 19(2) since it failed to make a clear distinction between legitimate and illegitimate forms of speech and covered within its ambit protected speech as well.

Q. Right to freedom of speech has been enshrined in which article of the constitution?

Solution:
QUESTION: 103

The existence of such OTT (Over the Top) platforms like Netflix, Amazon Prime etc is a classic example of creative freedom and expression, not only of those involved in creating such content but also of individuals consuming it. In the recent past, however, censorship has been used more as a tool for suppressing political criticism, religious opinions and expressions of sexuality just to align the creative content with the establishment’s understanding of nationalistic propaganda. The President brought the regulation of OTT Platforms under the purview of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting on November 9th. The contentious executive action has come in the wake of a PIL filed before the Supreme Court praying for the Central Government to impose regulations on these platforms. This PIL aimed to stop OTT platforms from abusing their freedom of speech and expression based upon the premise that these OTT Platforms, under the guise of creative freedom, portray inappropriate scenes such as nudity, violence, drugs and unacceptable impressions of defence institutions. It goes as far as to claim that “Hinduphobia” has become prevalent due to the allegedly unregulated content on these platforms that seem to further certain propaganda. It is argued that prescribing necessary regulations for the same is in the interest of safeguarding the Right to Life. The practice of censorship and overreaching regulation has been met with criticism owing to the potential for abuse and infringement.

The Apex Court has interpreted application of Article 19(2) vis-a-vis Censorship to include restraints on such content which is against the sovereignty, integrity and security of India or is defamatory, in contempt of Court or leads to incitement of any offence. However, creative works voicing personal opinion and criticism of the government cannot be censored by placing them in the aforementioned criteria of reasonable restraints. In a democracy, free speech is not merely a tool furthering its principles but is an essential which defines its basic structure. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court adopted a method of strict scrutiny while striking down Section 66(A) of the Information and Technology Act, 2000 in light of the proximity and proportionality standard. The Apex Court held that the wording of the impugned section was in disharmony with Article 19(2) since it failed to make a clear distinction between legitimate and illegitimate forms of speech and covered within its ambit protected speech as well.

Q. Which article is violated by OTT platforms according to the PIL filed in the Supreme Court?

Solution: Right to life is allegedly violated by the OTT platform which is enshrined in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
QUESTION: 104

The existence of such OTT (Over the Top) platforms like Netflix, Amazon Prime etc is a classic example of creative freedom and expression, not only of those involved in creating such content but also of individuals consuming it. In the recent past, however, censorship has been used more as a tool for suppressing political criticism, religious opinions and expressions of sexuality just to align the creative content with the establishment’s understanding of nationalistic propaganda. The President brought the regulation of OTT Platforms under the purview of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting on November 9th. The contentious executive action has come in the wake of a PIL filed before the Supreme Court praying for the Central Government to impose regulations on these platforms. This PIL aimed to stop OTT platforms from abusing their freedom of speech and expression based upon the premise that these OTT Platforms, under the guise of creative freedom, portray inappropriate scenes such as nudity, violence, drugs and unacceptable impressions of defence institutions. It goes as far as to claim that “Hinduphobia” has become prevalent due to the allegedly unregulated content on these platforms that seem to further certain propaganda. It is argued that prescribing necessary regulations for the same is in the interest of safeguarding the Right to Life. The practice of censorship and overreaching regulation has been met with criticism owing to the potential for abuse and infringement.

The Apex Court has interpreted application of Article 19(2) vis-a-vis Censorship to include restraints on such content which is against the sovereignty, integrity and security of India or is defamatory, in contempt of Court or leads to incitement of any offence. However, creative works voicing personal opinion and criticism of the government cannot be censored by placing them in the aforementioned criteria of reasonable restraints. In a democracy, free speech is not merely a tool furthering its principles but is an essential which defines its basic structure. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court adopted a method of strict scrutiny while striking down Section 66(A) of the Information and Technology Act, 2000 in light of the proximity and proportionality standard. The Apex Court held that the wording of the impugned section was in disharmony with Article 19(2) since it failed to make a clear distinction between legitimate and illegitimate forms of speech and covered within its ambit protected speech as well.

Q. Which of the following can be contributed to the views of the author of the passage?

Solution: Please refer to – “The Apex Court has interpreted application of Article 19(2) vis-a-vis Censorship to include restraints on such content which is against the sovereignty, integrity and security of India or is defamatory, in contempt of Court or leads to incitement of any offence. However, creative works voicing personal opinion and criticism of the government cannot be censored by placing them in the aforementioned criteria of reasonable restraints.” The rest of the options are directly opposite to what the author argues in the passage.
QUESTION: 105

The existence of such OTT (Over the Top) platforms like Netflix, Amazon Prime etc is a classic example of creative freedom and expression, not only of those involved in creating such content but also of individuals consuming it. In the recent past, however, censorship has been used more as a tool for suppressing political criticism, religious opinions and expressions of sexuality just to align the creative content with the establishment’s understanding of nationalistic propaganda. The President brought the regulation of OTT Platforms under the purview of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting on November 9th. The contentious executive action has come in the wake of a PIL filed before the Supreme Court praying for the Central Government to impose regulations on these platforms. This PIL aimed to stop OTT platforms from abusing their freedom of speech and expression based upon the premise that these OTT Platforms, under the guise of creative freedom, portray inappropriate scenes such as nudity, violence, drugs and unacceptable impressions of defence institutions. It goes as far as to claim that “Hinduphobia” has become prevalent due to the allegedly unregulated content on these platforms that seem to further certain propaganda. It is argued that prescribing necessary regulations for the same is in the interest of safeguarding the Right to Life. The practice of censorship and overreaching regulation has been met with criticism owing to the potential for abuse and infringement.

The Apex Court has interpreted application of Article 19(2) vis-a-vis Censorship to include restraints on such content which is against the sovereignty, integrity and security of India or is defamatory, in contempt of Court or leads to incitement of any offence. However, creative works voicing personal opinion and criticism of the government cannot be censored by placing them in the aforementioned criteria of reasonable restraints. In a democracy, free speech is not merely a tool furthering its principles but is an essential which defines its basic structure. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court adopted a method of strict scrutiny while striking down Section 66(A) of the Information and Technology Act, 2000 in light of the proximity and proportionality standard. The Apex Court held that the wording of the impugned section was in disharmony with Article 19(2) since it failed to make a clear distinction between legitimate and illegitimate forms of speech and covered within its ambit protected speech as well.

Q. What is a PIL?

Solution:
QUESTION: 106

Although its purpose is laudable, the exclusionary rule, which forbids a court to consider evidence seized in violation of the defendant’s constitutional rights, has unduly hampered law-enforcement efforts. Even when the rights violation was a minor or purely technical one, turning on a detail of procedure rather than on the abrogation of some fundamental liberty, and even when it has been clear that the police officers were acting in good faith, the evidence obtained has been considered tainted under this rule and may not even by introduced. In consequence, defendants who were undoubtedly guilty have been set free, perhaps to steal, rape, or murder again.

Q. The author of the passage above assumes all of the following EXCEPT:

Solution: Option B is the best answer. The use of the phrase “most cases” makes this assumption invalid. Though it is mentioned that a minor or technical/procedural violation of rights occurs at times, it cannot be assumed that most cases are of that nature.
QUESTION: 107

Although its purpose is laudable, the exclusionary rule, which forbids a court to consider evidence seized in violation of the defendant’s constitutional rights, has unduly hampered law-enforcement efforts. Even when the rights violation was a minor or purely technical one, turning on a detail of procedure rather than on the abrogation of some fundamental liberty, and even when it has been clear that the police officers were acting in good faith, the evidence obtained has been considered tainted under this rule and may not even by introduced. In consequence, defendants who were undoubtedly guilty have been set free, perhaps to steal, rape, or murder again.

Q. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse which of the following proposals?

Solution: Option A is the best answer. The author is in favour of changing the exclusionary rule. He states – even when the rights violation is minor purely technical, or the police has acted in good faith, the evidence is inadmissible. So he would endorse changing the rule to admit evidence obtained by police officers acting in good faith.
QUESTION: 108

Although its purpose is laudable, the exclusionary rule, which forbids a court to consider evidence seized in violation of the defendant’s constitutional rights, has unduly hampered law-enforcement efforts. Even when the rights violation was a minor or purely technical one, turning on a detail of procedure rather than on the abrogation of some fundamental liberty, and even when it has been clear that the police officers were acting in good faith, the evidence obtained has been considered tainted under this rule and may not even by introduced. In consequence, defendants who were undoubtedly guilty have been set free, perhaps to steal, rape, or murder again.

Q. Which of the following is a valid inference from the above passage?

Solution: Option A is the answer. Using the exclusionary rule, any incriminating evidence seized by police officers cannot be admitted if it is obtained in violation of the constitutional rights of the accused. Just as he claims that offenders are using this rule to get acquitted to commit more crimes, similarly one who is wrongly accused can get acquitted using this rule.
QUESTION: 109

Although its purpose is laudable, the exclusionary rule, which forbids a court to consider evidence seized in violation of the defendant’s constitutional rights, has unduly hampered law-enforcement efforts. Even when the rights violation was a minor or purely technical one, turning on a detail of procedure rather than on the abrogation of some fundamental liberty, and even when it has been clear that the police officers were acting in good faith, the evidence obtained has been considered tainted under this rule and may not even by introduced. In consequence, defendants who were undoubtedly guilty have been set free, perhaps to steal, rape, or murder again.

Q. Why does the author say the purpose is laudable?

Solution: The purpose of the exclusionary rule is to protect the constitutional rights of the citizens. So it is laudable or praiseworthy. However, it does hamper law-enforcement efforts sometimes.
QUESTION: 110

Vegetarians mistakenly elevate the value of animal life over plant life. Research shows that plants respond electrochemically to threats and may feel fear. The inclusion of meat in the ancestral diet provided a dense form of nutrients and protein that, when combined with high-calorie low-nutrient carbohydrates such as roots, allowed us to develop our large brains and intelligence. Most plant foods do not provide adequate levels of all the essential amino acids in a single serving. Saturated fats contain the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K, and the cholesterol from saturated animal fat is needed for the proper function of serotonin receptors in the brain. Low cholesterol levels have been linked to depression. One serving of lean beef (3 oz.) contains as much protein as one serving of beans (1½ cups) or a veggie burger. However, the lean beef has half the calories of beans (180 vs. 374), and 50%-75% fewer calories than the veggie burger. About 90% of US cropland suffers from topsoil loss at 13 times the sustainable rate. 92% of US soybeans (a vegetarian staple protein) are planted with genetically modified soy, immune to herbicides. This immunity allows soy farmers to douse their fields with large quantities of weed-killing herbicides which are toxic to other plants and fish. When a peer-reviewed April 11, 2005 study from the German Cancer Research Centre compared health conscious meat eaters with vegetarians, there was no difference in overall mortality rates.

Q. What can be inferred from the research about the electrochemical response of plants to threats?

Solution: By proving that plants also feel fearful, the researcher is trying to show that the harm is also caused in vegetarianism, and not just non-vegetarianism.
QUESTION: 111

Vegetarians mistakenly elevate the value of animal life over plant life. Research shows that plants respond electrochemically to threats and may feel fear. The inclusion of meat in the ancestral diet provided a dense form of nutrients and protein that, when combined with high-calorie low-nutrient carbohydrates such as roots, allowed us to develop our large brains and intelligence. Most plant foods do not provide adequate levels of all the essential amino acids in a single serving. Saturated fats contain the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K, and the cholesterol from saturated animal fat is needed for the proper function of serotonin receptors in the brain. Low cholesterol levels have been linked to depression. One serving of lean beef (3 oz.) contains as much protein as one serving of beans (1½ cups) or a veggie burger. However, the lean beef has half the calories of beans (180 vs. 374), and 50%-75% fewer calories than the veggie burger. About 90% of US cropland suffers from topsoil loss at 13 times the sustainable rate. 92% of US soybeans (a vegetarian staple protein) are planted with genetically modified soy, immune to herbicides. This immunity allows soy farmers to douse their fields with large quantities of weed-killing herbicides which are toxic to other plants and fish. When a peer-reviewed April 11, 2005 study from the German Cancer Research Centre compared health conscious meat eaters with vegetarians, there was no difference in overall mortality rates.

Q. Why would it be logically incorrect to say that vegetarian diets cannot fulfil the requirements of us, large brained humans?

Solution: The study shows that a single plant diet alone is not sufficient to fulfil, but of course it doesn’t deny that no possible combination of Plant diet can fulfil the requirement.
QUESTION: 112

Vegetarians mistakenly elevate the value of animal life over plant life. Research shows that plants respond electrochemically to threats and may feel fear. The inclusion of meat in the ancestral diet provided a dense form of nutrients and protein that, when combined with high-calorie low-nutrient carbohydrates such as roots, allowed us to develop our large brains and intelligence. Most plant foods do not provide adequate levels of all the essential amino acids in a single serving. Saturated fats contain the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K, and the cholesterol from saturated animal fat is needed for the proper function of serotonin receptors in the brain. Low cholesterol levels have been linked to depression. One serving of lean beef (3 oz.) contains as much protein as one serving of beans (1½ cups) or a veggie burger. However, the lean beef has half the calories of beans (180 vs. 374), and 50%-75% fewer calories than the veggie burger. About 90% of US cropland suffers from topsoil loss at 13 times the sustainable rate. 92% of US soybeans (a vegetarian staple protein) are planted with genetically modified soy, immune to herbicides. This immunity allows soy farmers to douse their fields with large quantities of weed-killing herbicides which are toxic to other plants and fish. When a peer-reviewed April 11, 2005 study from the German Cancer Research Centre compared health conscious meat eaters with vegetarians, there was no difference in overall mortality rates.

Q. If the statement in the passage is true, which of the following will also be true?

Solution: The link between saturated fat from animals and depression does not mean an exclusive cause and effect relationship, as per passage. There may be intermediary factors. Hence, Option (A) and (B) get eliminated. Option (C) proposes a statement with ‘may’ in it, which accounts in itself both the possibilities.
QUESTION: 113

Vegetarians mistakenly elevate the value of animal life over plant life. Research shows that plants respond electrochemically to threats and may feel fear. The inclusion of meat in the ancestral diet provided a dense form of nutrients and protein that, when combined with high-calorie low-nutrient carbohydrates such as roots, allowed us to develop our large brains and intelligence. Most plant foods do not provide adequate levels of all the essential amino acids in a single serving. Saturated fats contain the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K, and the cholesterol from saturated animal fat is needed for the proper function of serotonin receptors in the brain. Low cholesterol levels have been linked to depression. One serving of lean beef (3 oz.) contains as much protein as one serving of beans (1½ cups) or a veggie burger. However, the lean beef has half the calories of beans (180 vs. 374), and 50%-75% fewer calories than the veggie burger. About 90% of US cropland suffers from topsoil loss at 13 times the sustainable rate. 92% of US soybeans (a vegetarian staple protein) are planted with genetically modified soy, immune to herbicides. This immunity allows soy farmers to douse their fields with large quantities of weed-killing herbicides which are toxic to other plants and fish. When a peer-reviewed April 11, 2005 study from the German Cancer Research Centre compared health conscious meat eaters with vegetarians, there was no difference in overall mortality rates.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the fact that vegetarianism also harms the animals?

Solution: Killing of Animals during the harvest clearly strengthens the fact that animals are hurt in vegetarian processes also.
QUESTION: 114

Vegetarians mistakenly elevate the value of animal life over plant life. Research shows that plants respond electrochemically to threats and may feel fear. The inclusion of meat in the ancestral diet provided a dense form of nutrients and protein that, when combined with high-calorie low-nutrient carbohydrates such as roots, allowed us to develop our large brains and intelligence. Most plant foods do not provide adequate levels of all the essential amino acids in a single serving. Saturated fats contain the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E and K, and the cholesterol from saturated animal fat is needed for the proper function of serotonin receptors in the brain. Low cholesterol levels have been linked to depression. One serving of lean beef (3 oz.) contains as much protein as one serving of beans (1½ cups) or a veggie burger. However, the lean beef has half the calories of beans (180 vs. 374), and 50%-75% fewer calories than the veggie burger. About 90% of US cropland suffers from topsoil loss at 13 times the sustainable rate. 92% of US soybeans (a vegetarian staple protein) are planted with genetically modified soy, immune to herbicides. This immunity allows soy farmers to douse their fields with large quantities of weed-killing herbicides which are toxic to other plants and fish. When a peer-reviewed April 11, 2005 study from the German Cancer Research Centre compared health conscious meat eaters with vegetarians, there was no difference in overall mortality rates.

Q. What is the main point of the passage?

Solution: The main point of the passages should describe the overall theme of the passage, which is constituted by the average of all the arguments presented. Option (d) fulfils the criteria.
QUESTION: 115

The National Association of Secondary School Principals stated that, "When all students are wearing the same outfit, they are less concerned about how they look and how they fit in with their peers; thus, they can concentrate on their schoolwork." Research by the Schoolwear Association found that 83% of teachers thought "a good school uniform... could prevent bullying based on appearance or economic background." The US Department of Education's Manual on School Uniforms stated that uniform policies can "prevent gang members from wearing gang colours and insignia at school" in order to "encourage a safe environment." According to a national survey, over 90% of US school leaders believe school uniform or formal dress code policies "eliminate wardrobe battles with kids," make it "easier to get kids ready in the morning," and create a "time saving in the morning." A study of uniform cost in the United Kingdom found that uniforms cost parents £88.05 ($128.79) per outfit, while out-of-school outfits averaged £113.00 ($165.79). Junior high school student Amelia Jimenez wrote in her op-ed for the Pennsylvania Patriot-News website that "contrary to popular belief, uniforms do not stop students from being themselves. Uniforms do not silence voices. Students can wear a variety of expressive items, such as buttons or jewellery." Students can inject their personal style into their daily look with hairstyles, nail polish, and colourful accessories such as bags, scarfs, and fun socks.

Q. Which of the following facts, if true, goes on to strengthen the Education Manual’s argument?

Solution: The Education manual argument is related to a safer environment, which only option (B) touches.
QUESTION: 116

The National Association of Secondary School Principals stated that, "When all students are wearing the same outfit, they are less concerned about how they look and how they fit in with their peers; thus, they can concentrate on their schoolwork." Research by the Schoolwear Association found that 83% of teachers thought "a good school uniform... could prevent bullying based on appearance or economic background." The US Department of Education's Manual on School Uniforms stated that uniform policies can "prevent gang members from wearing gang colours and insignia at school" in order to "encourage a safe environment." According to a national survey, over 90% of US school leaders believe school uniform or formal dress code policies "eliminate wardrobe battles with kids," make it "easier to get kids ready in the morning," and create a "time saving in the morning." A study of uniform cost in the United Kingdom found that uniforms cost parents £88.05 ($128.79) per outfit, while out-of-school outfits averaged £113.00 ($165.79). Junior high school student Amelia Jimenez wrote in her op-ed for the Pennsylvania Patriot-News website that "contrary to popular belief, uniforms do not stop students from being themselves. Uniforms do not silence voices. Students can wear a variety of expressive items, such as buttons or jewellery." Students can inject their personal style into their daily look with hairstyles, nail polish, and colourful accessories such as bags, scarfs, and fun socks.

Q. Which of the following explains the inconsistency between the statement of The National Association of Secondary School Principals and that of Amelia Jimenez?

Solution: The two opinions are about the element of uniformity in the dressing and appearance, but it gets inconsistent when the addition of jewellery etc. adds an element of showing off in the uniform.
QUESTION: 117

The National Association of Secondary School Principals stated that, "When all students are wearing the same outfit, they are less concerned about how they look and how they fit in with their peers; thus, they can concentrate on their schoolwork." Research by the Schoolwear Association found that 83% of teachers thought "a good school uniform... could prevent bullying based on appearance or economic background." The US Department of Education's Manual on School Uniforms stated that uniform policies can "prevent gang members from wearing gang colours and insignia at school" in order to "encourage a safe environment." According to a national survey, over 90% of US school leaders believe school uniform or formal dress code policies "eliminate wardrobe battles with kids," make it "easier to get kids ready in the morning," and create a "time saving in the morning." A study of uniform cost in the United Kingdom found that uniforms cost parents £88.05 ($128.79) per outfit, while out-of-school outfits averaged £113.00 ($165.79). Junior high school student Amelia Jimenez wrote in her op-ed for the Pennsylvania Patriot-News website that "contrary to popular belief, uniforms do not stop students from being themselves. Uniforms do not silence voices. Students can wear a variety of expressive items, such as buttons or jewellery." Students can inject their personal style into their daily look with hairstyles, nail polish, and colourful accessories such as bags, scarfs, and fun socks.

Q. From the elaborations presented below, which of the following further strengthens the cost-effectiveness of the school uniforms?

Solution: The cost effectiveness of school uniforms shines in the fact that they are not needed to be bought in multiple numbers, because they all look the same. This strengthens the cost-effectiveness of the school uniforms in line with the argument in the passage. Option (B) talks about another aspect, so cannot strengthen the given argument, though it is also a true statement.
QUESTION: 118

The National Association of Secondary School Principals stated that, "When all students are wearing the same outfit, they are less concerned about how they look and how they fit in with their peers; thus, they can concentrate on their schoolwork." Research by the Schoolwear Association found that 83% of teachers thought "a good school uniform... could prevent bullying based on appearance or economic background." The US Department of Education's Manual on School Uniforms stated that uniform policies can "prevent gang members from wearing gang colours and insignia at school" in order to "encourage a safe environment." According to a national survey, over 90% of US school leaders believe school uniform or formal dress code policies "eliminate wardrobe battles with kids," make it "easier to get kids ready in the morning," and create a "time saving in the morning." A study of uniform cost in the United Kingdom found that uniforms cost parents £88.05 ($128.79) per outfit, while out-of-school outfits averaged £113.00 ($165.79). Junior high school student Amelia Jimenez wrote in her op-ed for the Pennsylvania Patriot-News website that "contrary to popular belief, uniforms do not stop students from being themselves. Uniforms do not silence voices. Students can wear a variety of expressive items, such as buttons or jewellery." Students can inject their personal style into their daily look with hairstyles, nail polish, and colourful accessories such as bags, scarfs, and fun socks.

Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the author’s description of bullying, in the schools?