CLAT Mock Test- 14


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 14


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 14 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 14 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 14 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 14 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 14 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Religious admonitions against sexual relations between same-sex individuals (particularly men) long stigmatized such behaviour, but most legal codes in Europe were silent on the subject of homosexuality. The judicial systems of many predominantly Muslim countries invoked Islamic law (Shariat) in a wide range of contexts, and many sexual or quasi-sexual acts were criminalized in those countries with severe penalties, including execution.

Beginning in the 16th century, lawmakers in Britain began to categorize homosexual behaviour as criminal rather than simply immoral. In the 1530s, during the reign of Henry VIII, England passed the Buggery Act, which made sexual relations between men a criminal offense punishable by death. In Britain sodomy remained a capital offense punishable by hanging until 1861. In 1885, Parliament passed an amendment sponsored by Henry Du Pré Labouchere, which created the offense of “gross indecency” for same-sex male sexual relations, enabling any form of sexual behaviour between men to be prosecuted. Likewise, in Germany in the early 1870s, when the country was integrating the civil codes of various disparate kingdoms, the final German penal code included Paragraph 175, which criminalized same-sex male relations with punishment including prison and a loss of civil rights.

Before the end of the 19th century there were scarcely any “movements” for gay rights. Indeed, in his 1890s poem “Two Loves,” Lord Alfred Douglas, Oscar Wilde’s lover, declared “I [homosexuality] am the love that dare not speak its name.” Homosexual men and women were given voice in 1897 with the founding of the Scientific-Humanitarian Committee in Berlin. Their first activity was a petition to call for the repeal of Paragraph 175 of the Imperial Penal Code. The committee published emancipation literature, sponsored rallies, and campaigned for legal reform throughout Germany, as well as in The Netherlands and Austria, developing some 25 local chapters by 1922. Its founder was Magnus Hirschfeld, who in 1919 opened the Institute for Sexual Science, which anticipated by decades other scientific centres (such as the Kinsey Institute for Research in Sex, Gender, and Reproduction, in the United States) that specialized in sex research. He also helped sponsor the World League of Sexual Reform, which was established in 1928 at a conference in Copenhagen. Despite Paragraph 175 and the failure of the WhK to win its repeal, homosexual men and women experienced a certain amount of freedom in Germany, particularly during the Weimar period, between the end of World War I and the Nazi seizure of power. In many larger German cities, gay nightlife became tolerated, and the number of gay publications increased; indeed, according to some historians, the number of gay bars and periodicals in Berlin in the 1920s exceeded that in New York City six decades later.

Q. What is the main purpose of the above passage?

Solution: The passage is primarily about the gay rights movement and how it evolved.
QUESTION: 2

Religious admonitions against sexual relations between same-sex individuals (particularly men) long stigmatized such behaviour, but most legal codes in Europe were silent on the subject of homosexuality. The judicial systems of many predominantly Muslim countries invoked Islamic law (Shariat) in a wide range of contexts, and many sexual or quasi-sexual acts were criminalized in those countries with severe penalties, including execution.

Beginning in the 16th century, lawmakers in Britain began to categorize homosexual behaviour as criminal rather than simply immoral. In the 1530s, during the reign of Henry VIII, England passed the Buggery Act, which made sexual relations between men a criminal offense punishable by death. In Britain sodomy remained a capital offense punishable by hanging until 1861. In 1885, Parliament passed an amendment sponsored by Henry Du Pré Labouchere, which created the offense of “gross indecency” for same-sex male sexual relations, enabling any form of sexual behaviour between men to be prosecuted. Likewise, in Germany in the early 1870s, when the country was integrating the civil codes of various disparate kingdoms, the final German penal code included Paragraph 175, which criminalized same-sex male relations with punishment including prison and a loss of civil rights.

Before the end of the 19th century there were scarcely any “movements” for gay rights. Indeed, in his 1890s poem “Two Loves,” Lord Alfred Douglas, Oscar Wilde’s lover, declared “I [homosexuality] am the love that dare not speak its name.” Homosexual men and women were given voice in 1897 with the founding of the Scientific-Humanitarian Committee in Berlin. Their first activity was a petition to call for the repeal of Paragraph 175 of the Imperial Penal Code. The committee published emancipation literature, sponsored rallies, and campaigned for legal reform throughout Germany, as well as in The Netherlands and Austria, developing some 25 local chapters by 1922. Its founder was Magnus Hirschfeld, who in 1919 opened the Institute for Sexual Science, which anticipated by decades other scientific centres (such as the Kinsey Institute for Research in Sex, Gender, and Reproduction, in the United States) that specialized in sex research. He also helped sponsor the World League of Sexual Reform, which was established in 1928 at a conference in Copenhagen. Despite Paragraph 175 and the failure of the WhK to win its repeal, homosexual men and women experienced a certain amount of freedom in Germany, particularly during the Weimar period, between the end of World War I and the Nazi seizure of power. In many larger German cities, gay nightlife became tolerated, and the number of gay publications increased; indeed, according to some historians, the number of gay bars and periodicals in Berlin in the 1920s exceeded that in New York City six decades later.

Q. How similar was Britain with Islamic countries in terms of treating homosexuality?

Solution: Similar to Islamic countries, Britain also considered homosexuality to be a criminal offence with death sentence as the prescribed punishment.
QUESTION: 3

Religious admonitions against sexual relations between same-sex individuals (particularly men) long stigmatized such behaviour, but most legal codes in Europe were silent on the subject of homosexuality. The judicial systems of many predominantly Muslim countries invoked Islamic law (Shariat) in a wide range of contexts, and many sexual or quasi-sexual acts were criminalized in those countries with severe penalties, including execution.

Beginning in the 16th century, lawmakers in Britain began to categorize homosexual behaviour as criminal rather than simply immoral. In the 1530s, during the reign of Henry VIII, England passed the Buggery Act, which made sexual relations between men a criminal offense punishable by death. In Britain sodomy remained a capital offense punishable by hanging until 1861. In 1885, Parliament passed an amendment sponsored by Henry Du Pré Labouchere, which created the offense of “gross indecency” for same-sex male sexual relations, enabling any form of sexual behaviour between men to be prosecuted. Likewise, in Germany in the early 1870s, when the country was integrating the civil codes of various disparate kingdoms, the final German penal code included Paragraph 175, which criminalized same-sex male relations with punishment including prison and a loss of civil rights.

Before the end of the 19th century there were scarcely any “movements” for gay rights. Indeed, in his 1890s poem “Two Loves,” Lord Alfred Douglas, Oscar Wilde’s lover, declared “I [homosexuality] am the love that dare not speak its name.” Homosexual men and women were given voice in 1897 with the founding of the Scientific-Humanitarian Committee in Berlin. Their first activity was a petition to call for the repeal of Paragraph 175 of the Imperial Penal Code. The committee published emancipation literature, sponsored rallies, and campaigned for legal reform throughout Germany, as well as in The Netherlands and Austria, developing some 25 local chapters by 1922. Its founder was Magnus Hirschfeld, who in 1919 opened the Institute for Sexual Science, which anticipated by decades other scientific centres (such as the Kinsey Institute for Research in Sex, Gender, and Reproduction, in the United States) that specialized in sex research. He also helped sponsor the World League of Sexual Reform, which was established in 1928 at a conference in Copenhagen. Despite Paragraph 175 and the failure of the WhK to win its repeal, homosexual men and women experienced a certain amount of freedom in Germany, particularly during the Weimar period, between the end of World War I and the Nazi seizure of power. In many larger German cities, gay nightlife became tolerated, and the number of gay publications increased; indeed, according to some historians, the number of gay bars and periodicals in Berlin in the 1920s exceeded that in New York City six decades later.

Q. What did the Scientific-Humanitarian Committee do to support their petition to voice their opinion for gay rights?

Solution: The Scientific-Humanitarian Committee did all the above in order to lobby for gay rights.
QUESTION: 4

Religious admonitions against sexual relations between same-sex individuals (particularly men) long stigmatized such behaviour, but most legal codes in Europe were silent on the subject of homosexuality. The judicial systems of many predominantly Muslim countries invoked Islamic law (Shariat) in a wide range of contexts, and many sexual or quasi-sexual acts were criminalized in those countries with severe penalties, including execution.

Beginning in the 16th century, lawmakers in Britain began to categorize homosexual behaviour as criminal rather than simply immoral. In the 1530s, during the reign of Henry VIII, England passed the Buggery Act, which made sexual relations between men a criminal offense punishable by death. In Britain sodomy remained a capital offense punishable by hanging until 1861. In 1885, Parliament passed an amendment sponsored by Henry Du Pré Labouchere, which created the offense of “gross indecency” for same-sex male sexual relations, enabling any form of sexual behaviour between men to be prosecuted. Likewise, in Germany in the early 1870s, when the country was integrating the civil codes of various disparate kingdoms, the final German penal code included Paragraph 175, which criminalized same-sex male relations with punishment including prison and a loss of civil rights.

Before the end of the 19th century there were scarcely any “movements” for gay rights. Indeed, in his 1890s poem “Two Loves,” Lord Alfred Douglas, Oscar Wilde’s lover, declared “I [homosexuality] am the love that dare not speak its name.” Homosexual men and women were given voice in 1897 with the founding of the Scientific-Humanitarian Committee in Berlin. Their first activity was a petition to call for the repeal of Paragraph 175 of the Imperial Penal Code. The committee published emancipation literature, sponsored rallies, and campaigned for legal reform throughout Germany, as well as in The Netherlands and Austria, developing some 25 local chapters by 1922. Its founder was Magnus Hirschfeld, who in 1919 opened the Institute for Sexual Science, which anticipated by decades other scientific centres (such as the Kinsey Institute for Research in Sex, Gender, and Reproduction, in the United States) that specialized in sex research. He also helped sponsor the World League of Sexual Reform, which was established in 1928 at a conference in Copenhagen. Despite Paragraph 175 and the failure of the WhK to win its repeal, homosexual men and women experienced a certain amount of freedom in Germany, particularly during the Weimar period, between the end of World War I and the Nazi seizure of power. In many larger German cities, gay nightlife became tolerated, and the number of gay publications increased; indeed, according to some historians, the number of gay bars and periodicals in Berlin in the 1920s exceeded that in New York City six decades later.

Q. He opened an institute that specialized in sex research and sponsored a League of Reform. Who is the author referring to here?

Solution: Refer to the third paragraph.
QUESTION: 5

Religious admonitions against sexual relations between same-sex individuals (particularly men) long stigmatized such behaviour, but most legal codes in Europe were silent on the subject of homosexuality. The judicial systems of many predominantly Muslim countries invoked Islamic law (Shariat) in a wide range of contexts, and many sexual or quasi-sexual acts were criminalized in those countries with severe penalties, including execution.

Beginning in the 16th century, lawmakers in Britain began to categorize homosexual behaviour as criminal rather than simply immoral. In the 1530s, during the reign of Henry VIII, England passed the Buggery Act, which made sexual relations between men a criminal offense punishable by death. In Britain sodomy remained a capital offense punishable by hanging until 1861. In 1885, Parliament passed an amendment sponsored by Henry Du Pré Labouchere, which created the offense of “gross indecency” for same-sex male sexual relations, enabling any form of sexual behaviour between men to be prosecuted. Likewise, in Germany in the early 1870s, when the country was integrating the civil codes of various disparate kingdoms, the final German penal code included Paragraph 175, which criminalized same-sex male relations with punishment including prison and a loss of civil rights.

Before the end of the 19th century there were scarcely any “movements” for gay rights. Indeed, in his 1890s poem “Two Loves,” Lord Alfred Douglas, Oscar Wilde’s lover, declared “I [homosexuality] am the love that dare not speak its name.” Homosexual men and women were given voice in 1897 with the founding of the Scientific-Humanitarian Committee in Berlin. Their first activity was a petition to call for the repeal of Paragraph 175 of the Imperial Penal Code. The committee published emancipation literature, sponsored rallies, and campaigned for legal reform throughout Germany, as well as in The Netherlands and Austria, developing some 25 local chapters by 1922. Its founder was Magnus Hirschfeld, who in 1919 opened the Institute for Sexual Science, which anticipated by decades other scientific centres (such as the Kinsey Institute for Research in Sex, Gender, and Reproduction, in the United States) that specialized in sex research. He also helped sponsor the World League of Sexual Reform, which was established in 1928 at a conference in Copenhagen. Despite Paragraph 175 and the failure of the WhK to win its repeal, homosexual men and women experienced a certain amount of freedom in Germany, particularly during the Weimar period, between the end of World War I and the Nazi seizure of power. In many larger German cities, gay nightlife became tolerated, and the number of gay publications increased; indeed, according to some historians, the number of gay bars and periodicals in Berlin in the 1920s exceeded that in New York City six decades later.

Q. According to the author, despite the failure of Scientific-Humanitarian Committee, people with homosexual preferences experienced positive changes. What could be the primary reason?

Solution: In many larger German cities, gay nightlife became tolerated, and the number of gay publications increased; indeed, according to some historians, the number of gay bars and periodicals in Berlin in the 1920s exceeded that in New York City six decades later. Clearly, the positive changes are due to the tolerance and acceptance of society.
QUESTION: 6

I usually never know how my day will be until well after I've woken up. Only after a cup of coffee and a little workout, I tend to feel alive. I'm currently trying to write a fiction novel and run an online media portal by myself. It's a constant struggle to sit down on a creaky chair and gather the motivation to write only a few words down, it's a battle between the world of leisure and hustle every single day of my life. The point here is, that it's not the colossal tasks I undertake every single day of my life, it's how I feel about them, and how I end up feeling when I realise I didn't do enough.

As I sit here on my chair, trying to write this blog with a cup of tea beside my laptop and my fingers running hopelessly over the keyboard, my mind wanders astray to a million different places it aspires to be. My eyes beg to stare at a better laptop, my pockets beg to carry a thicker wallet, my nose begs to smell the ambrosial, rich aroma of a luxurious condo and my heart asks me to take it easy and be happy. But it's not the aspirations that push us to move forward, no they aren't. I don't know if the revelation I'm about to disclose here makes me an advocate to the devil, but it's the sheer uncertainty of 'what's it going to be’, that makes us either laid back, with mediocre efforts, or sigh and continue working as usual.

People make excuses very easily to postpone work. Our greed for laid-back living is far greater than the one for fame, power or money; and if not contained in time, it becomes a virus deadlier than the coronavirus.

We have heard of people who work very hard, claiming that the reason behind their seemingly inexhaustible energy comes from their passion for what they do, and that's no rocket science. Your passion doesn't lie in binge-watching netflix series, or maybe it does? It's plausible that if you find yourself immersed in the story-lines and direction of movies and all kinds of tv-series that you watch, you could have a knack for film criticism, or writing, or cinematography among other things. The next time you take a day-off, try to focus on the things that you do throughout that day. Maybe all you do is sit in-front of your laptop and stream a plethora of youtube and other OTT content, but it doesn't always have to mean that the time was wasted, try to find passion in activities that you feel are a waste of your precious mind.

Q. Why does the author state he would be considered the Devil’s advocate?

Solution: The author said that people do not work hard to fulfil their aspirations. It is the uncertainty of “what’s it going to be” that makes them carry on with their work. This is completely different from the normal paradigm of people working hard to fulfil their aspirations.
QUESTION: 7

I usually never know how my day will be until well after I've woken up. Only after a cup of coffee and a little workout, I tend to feel alive. I'm currently trying to write a fiction novel and run an online media portal by myself. It's a constant struggle to sit down on a creaky chair and gather the motivation to write only a few words down, it's a battle between the world of leisure and hustle every single day of my life. The point here is, that it's not the colossal tasks I undertake every single day of my life, it's how I feel about them, and how I end up feeling when I realise I didn't do enough.

As I sit here on my chair, trying to write this blog with a cup of tea beside my laptop and my fingers running hopelessly over the keyboard, my mind wanders astray to a million different places it aspires to be. My eyes beg to stare at a better laptop, my pockets beg to carry a thicker wallet, my nose begs to smell the ambrosial, rich aroma of a luxurious condo and my heart asks me to take it easy and be happy. But it's not the aspirations that push us to move forward, no they aren't. I don't know if the revelation I'm about to disclose here makes me an advocate to the devil, but it's the sheer uncertainty of 'what's it going to be’, that makes us either laid back, with mediocre efforts, or sigh and continue working as usual.

People make excuses very easily to postpone work. Our greed for laid-back living is far greater than the one for fame, power or money; and if not contained in time, it becomes a virus deadlier than the coronavirus.

We have heard of people who work very hard, claiming that the reason behind their seemingly inexhaustible energy comes from their passion for what they do, and that's no rocket science. Your passion doesn't lie in binge-watching netflix series, or maybe it does? It's plausible that if you find yourself immersed in the story-lines and direction of movies and all kinds of tv-series that you watch, you could have a knack for film criticism, or writing, or cinematography among other things. The next time you take a day-off, try to focus on the things that you do throughout that day. Maybe all you do is sit in-front of your laptop and stream a plethora of youtube and other OTT content, but it doesn't always have to mean that the time was wasted, try to find passion in activities that you feel are a waste of your precious mind.

Q. What is the author trying to convey by the statement “It's a battle between the world of leisure and hustle every single day of my life”?

Solution: That battle between the world of leisure and the hustle is that every day, the author has a conflict whether to sit back and relax for the day or sit down and work. Whether he works on the article or fiction, according to him, both are not leisure.
QUESTION: 8

I usually never know how my day will be until well after I've woken up. Only after a cup of coffee and a little workout, I tend to feel alive. I'm currently trying to write a fiction novel and run an online media portal by myself. It's a constant struggle to sit down on a creaky chair and gather the motivation to write only a few words down, it's a battle between the world of leisure and hustle every single day of my life. The point here is, that it's not the colossal tasks I undertake every single day of my life, it's how I feel about them, and how I end up feeling when I realise I didn't do enough.

As I sit here on my chair, trying to write this blog with a cup of tea beside my laptop and my fingers running hopelessly over the keyboard, my mind wanders astray to a million different places it aspires to be. My eyes beg to stare at a better laptop, my pockets beg to carry a thicker wallet, my nose begs to smell the ambrosial, rich aroma of a luxurious condo and my heart asks me to take it easy and be happy. But it's not the aspirations that push us to move forward, no they aren't. I don't know if the revelation I'm about to disclose here makes me an advocate to the devil, but it's the sheer uncertainty of 'what's it going to be’, that makes us either laid back, with mediocre efforts, or sigh and continue working as usual.

People make excuses very easily to postpone work. Our greed for laid-back living is far greater than the one for fame, power or money; and if not contained in time, it becomes a virus deadlier than the coronavirus.

We have heard of people who work very hard, claiming that the reason behind their seemingly inexhaustible energy comes from their passion for what they do, and that's no rocket science. Your passion doesn't lie in binge-watching netflix series, or maybe it does? It's plausible that if you find yourself immersed in the story-lines and direction of movies and all kinds of tv-series that you watch, you could have a knack for film criticism, or writing, or cinematography among other things. The next time you take a day-off, try to focus on the things that you do throughout that day. Maybe all you do is sit in-front of your laptop and stream a plethora of youtube and other OTT content, but it doesn't always have to mean that the time was wasted, try to find passion in activities that you feel are a waste of your precious mind.

Q. Which virus is deadlier than the coronavirus according to the author?

Solution: Third Paragraph clearly states this.
QUESTION: 9

I usually never know how my day will be until well after I've woken up. Only after a cup of coffee and a little workout, I tend to feel alive. I'm currently trying to write a fiction novel and run an online media portal by myself. It's a constant struggle to sit down on a creaky chair and gather the motivation to write only a few words down, it's a battle between the world of leisure and hustle every single day of my life. The point here is, that it's not the colossal tasks I undertake every single day of my life, it's how I feel about them, and how I end up feeling when I realise I didn't do enough.

As I sit here on my chair, trying to write this blog with a cup of tea beside my laptop and my fingers running hopelessly over the keyboard, my mind wanders astray to a million different places it aspires to be. My eyes beg to stare at a better laptop, my pockets beg to carry a thicker wallet, my nose begs to smell the ambrosial, rich aroma of a luxurious condo and my heart asks me to take it easy and be happy. But it's not the aspirations that push us to move forward, no they aren't. I don't know if the revelation I'm about to disclose here makes me an advocate to the devil, but it's the sheer uncertainty of 'what's it going to be’, that makes us either laid back, with mediocre efforts, or sigh and continue working as usual.

People make excuses very easily to postpone work. Our greed for laid-back living is far greater than the one for fame, power or money; and if not contained in time, it becomes a virus deadlier than the coronavirus.

We have heard of people who work very hard, claiming that the reason behind their seemingly inexhaustible energy comes from their passion for what they do, and that's no rocket science. Your passion doesn't lie in binge-watching netflix series, or maybe it does? It's plausible that if you find yourself immersed in the story-lines and direction of movies and all kinds of tv-series that you watch, you could have a knack for film criticism, or writing, or cinematography among other things. The next time you take a day-off, try to focus on the things that you do throughout that day. Maybe all you do is sit in-front of your laptop and stream a plethora of youtube and other OTT content, but it doesn't always have to mean that the time was wasted, try to find passion in activities that you feel are a waste of your precious mind.

Q. What is the author recommending the readers to do for passion?

Solution: Option (B) is not complete as it is only a partial answer and does not address how to change our attitude. On a day off, if you identify tasks that you really enjoy, even if you consider it a waste of time, it would be your passion and doing such activities will energize you.
QUESTION: 10

I usually never know how my day will be until well after I've woken up. Only after a cup of coffee and a little workout, I tend to feel alive. I'm currently trying to write a fiction novel and run an online media portal by myself. It's a constant struggle to sit down on a creaky chair and gather the motivation to write only a few words down, it's a battle between the world of leisure and hustle every single day of my life. The point here is, that it's not the colossal tasks I undertake every single day of my life, it's how I feel about them, and how I end up feeling when I realise I didn't do enough.

As I sit here on my chair, trying to write this blog with a cup of tea beside my laptop and my fingers running hopelessly over the keyboard, my mind wanders astray to a million different places it aspires to be. My eyes beg to stare at a better laptop, my pockets beg to carry a thicker wallet, my nose begs to smell the ambrosial, rich aroma of a luxurious condo and my heart asks me to take it easy and be happy. But it's not the aspirations that push us to move forward, no they aren't. I don't know if the revelation I'm about to disclose here makes me an advocate to the devil, but it's the sheer uncertainty of 'what's it going to be’, that makes us either laid back, with mediocre efforts, or sigh and continue working as usual.

People make excuses very easily to postpone work. Our greed for laid-back living is far greater than the one for fame, power or money; and if not contained in time, it becomes a virus deadlier than the coronavirus.

We have heard of people who work very hard, claiming that the reason behind their seemingly inexhaustible energy comes from their passion for what they do, and that's no rocket science. Your passion doesn't lie in binge-watching netflix series, or maybe it does? It's plausible that if you find yourself immersed in the story-lines and direction of movies and all kinds of tv-series that you watch, you could have a knack for film criticism, or writing, or cinematography among other things. The next time you take a day-off, try to focus on the things that you do throughout that day. Maybe all you do is sit in-front of your laptop and stream a plethora of youtube and other OTT content, but it doesn't always have to mean that the time was wasted, try to find passion in activities that you feel are a waste of your precious mind.

Q. The author has tried to demystify which of the following statements below?

Solution: Last paragraph explains this through an example.
QUESTION: 11

I usually never know how my day will be until well after I've woken up. Only after a cup of coffee and a little workout, I tend to feel alive. I'm currently trying to write a fiction novel and run an online media portal by myself. It's a constant struggle to sit down on a creaky chair and gather the motivation to write only a few words down, it's a battle between the world of leisure and hustle every single day of my life. The point here is, that it's not the colossal tasks I undertake every single day of my life, it's how I feel about them, and how I end up feeling when I realise I didn't do enough.

As I sit here on my chair, trying to write this blog with a cup of tea beside my laptop and my fingers running hopelessly over the keyboard, my mind wanders astray to a million different places it aspires to be. My eyes beg to stare at a better laptop, my pockets beg to carry a thicker wallet, my nose begs to smell the ambrosial, rich aroma of a luxurious condo and my heart asks me to take it easy and be happy. But it's not the aspirations that push us to move forward, no they aren't. I don't know if the revelation I'm about to disclose here makes me an advocate to the devil, but it's the sheer uncertainty of 'what's it going to be’, that makes us either laid back, with mediocre efforts, or sigh and continue working as usual.

People make excuses very easily to postpone work. Our greed for laid-back living is far greater than the one for fame, power or money; and if not contained in time, it becomes a virus deadlier than the coronavirus.

We have heard of people who work very hard, claiming that the reason behind their seemingly inexhaustible energy comes from their passion for what they do, and that's no rocket science. Your passion doesn't lie in binge-watching netflix series, or maybe it does? It's plausible that if you find yourself immersed in the story-lines and direction of movies and all kinds of tv-series that you watch, you could have a knack for film criticism, or writing, or cinematography among other things. The next time you take a day-off, try to focus on the things that you do throughout that day. Maybe all you do is sit in-front of your laptop and stream a plethora of youtube and other OTT content, but it doesn't always have to mean that the time was wasted, try to find passion in activities that you feel are a waste of your precious mind.

Q. Choose the correct synonyms for the words - “Colossal, Astray, Ambrosial”.

Solution: Colossal means tremendous. Ambrosial means fragrant and Astray means awry.
QUESTION: 12

It only took one, or maybe a few enthusiastic businessmen to turn the poor man's Cigarillos, mostly frowned upon back in the 16th century, to the far-reached and deeply penetrated cigarettes of various brands and strengths we buy today. Of course, now the world knows of its ill effects and cancerous attributes, but back in 1789 the story was completely different. Lack of concrete clinical and research based studies about a direct link between tobacco smoking and lung cancer, among other types of cancers led to an outburst of tobacco marketing, an exploitation of the aforementioned void of sorts by marketers and copywriters, which subsequently led to the deep penetration of cigarettes and the 'classy' smoking culture in a man's everyday life. Today, when over 95% of the world population is well aware of the facts, still 15% of all deaths globally are attributed to smoking. A timely investment into the unexposed human psyche and exploitation of unawareness led to the creation of a multi-billion dollar industry that's only as good as the ignorance it's consumed with.

There are, however, unfounded claims and minor studies which do depict a direct link between extensive social media usage and mental health disorders primarily among youngsters, a majority of eyes are still averted from the impending doom that our social media and smartphone culture is cultivating actively with each passing minute of our time online. But only for lack of an active, charged initiative of someone to delve into the matter and dig out substantial awareness that's been buried and running deeper continuously for over a decade in the average consumer's mind, social media founders and new entrepreneurs looking to exploit this addiction, along with marketers and copywriters still, are doing the best that they can to keep us hooked regardless.

This is the 1800s of social media in our world; where it's still cool, it carries a social heft, makes us feel better and is the answer to a downtime after long hours of work or studies; as were the cigarettes, till they started to kill more than it (seemingly) cured. And hence the only question remains; with the technology that we have now, with the ability to be as curious as we can possibly wish to be and still have our answers, with we ourselves ruling over our own awareness that knows no bounds- thanks again to tech advancements globally- are we solely choosing this ignorance every second minute of our lives?The unfortunate answer is yes, as it always will be.

Q. What does the author mean by “A timely investment into the unexposed human psyche and exploitation of unawareness led to the creation of a multi-billion dollar industry that's only as good as the ignorance it's consumed with.”?

Solution: As (B) is only partly right and not entirely.
QUESTION: 13

It only took one, or maybe a few enthusiastic businessmen to turn the poor man's Cigarillos, mostly frowned upon back in the 16th century, to the far-reached and deeply penetrated cigarettes of various brands and strengths we buy today. Of course, now the world knows of its ill effects and cancerous attributes, but back in 1789 the story was completely different. Lack of concrete clinical and research based studies about a direct link between tobacco smoking and lung cancer, among other types of cancers led to an outburst of tobacco marketing, an exploitation of the aforementioned void of sorts by marketers and copywriters, which subsequently led to the deep penetration of cigarettes and the 'classy' smoking culture in a man's everyday life. Today, when over 95% of the world population is well aware of the facts, still 15% of all deaths globally are attributed to smoking. A timely investment into the unexposed human psyche and exploitation of unawareness led to the creation of a multi-billion dollar industry that's only as good as the ignorance it's consumed with.

There are, however, unfounded claims and minor studies which do depict a direct link between extensive social media usage and mental health disorders primarily among youngsters, a majority of eyes are still averted from the impending doom that our social media and smartphone culture is cultivating actively with each passing minute of our time online. But only for lack of an active, charged initiative of someone to delve into the matter and dig out substantial awareness that's been buried and running deeper continuously for over a decade in the average consumer's mind, social media founders and new entrepreneurs looking to exploit this addiction, along with marketers and copywriters still, are doing the best that they can to keep us hooked regardless.

This is the 1800s of social media in our world; where it's still cool, it carries a social heft, makes us feel better and is the answer to a downtime after long hours of work or studies; as were the cigarettes, till they started to kill more than it (seemingly) cured. And hence the only question remains; with the technology that we have now, with the ability to be as curious as we can possibly wish to be and still have our answers, with we ourselves ruling over our own awareness that knows no bounds- thanks again to tech advancements globally- are we solely choosing this ignorance every second minute of our lives?The unfortunate answer is yes, as it always will be.

Q. As per the author, what are youngsters doomed for in the current times?

Solution: Second paragraph mentions all the above.
QUESTION: 14

It only took one, or maybe a few enthusiastic businessmen to turn the poor man's Cigarillos, mostly frowned upon back in the 16th century, to the far-reached and deeply penetrated cigarettes of various brands and strengths we buy today. Of course, now the world knows of its ill effects and cancerous attributes, but back in 1789 the story was completely different. Lack of concrete clinical and research based studies about a direct link between tobacco smoking and lung cancer, among other types of cancers led to an outburst of tobacco marketing, an exploitation of the aforementioned void of sorts by marketers and copywriters, which subsequently led to the deep penetration of cigarettes and the 'classy' smoking culture in a man's everyday life. Today, when over 95% of the world population is well aware of the facts, still 15% of all deaths globally are attributed to smoking. A timely investment into the unexposed human psyche and exploitation of unawareness led to the creation of a multi-billion dollar industry that's only as good as the ignorance it's consumed with.

There are, however, unfounded claims and minor studies which do depict a direct link between extensive social media usage and mental health disorders primarily among youngsters, a majority of eyes are still averted from the impending doom that our social media and smartphone culture is cultivating actively with each passing minute of our time online. But only for lack of an active, charged initiative of someone to delve into the matter and dig out substantial awareness that's been buried and running deeper continuously for over a decade in the average consumer's mind, social media founders and new entrepreneurs looking to exploit this addiction, along with marketers and copywriters still, are doing the best that they can to keep us hooked regardless.

This is the 1800s of social media in our world; where it's still cool, it carries a social heft, makes us feel better and is the answer to a downtime after long hours of work or studies; as were the cigarettes, till they started to kill more than it (seemingly) cured. And hence the only question remains; with the technology that we have now, with the ability to be as curious as we can possibly wish to be and still have our answers, with we ourselves ruling over our own awareness that knows no bounds- thanks again to tech advancements globally- are we solely choosing this ignorance every second minute of our lives?The unfortunate answer is yes, as it always will be.

Q. What is the author trying to suggest with the statement “social media founders and new entrepreneurs looking to exploit this addiction, along with marketers and copywriters still, are doing the best that they can to keep us hooked regardless.”

Solution: As b points out that the social media industry on purpose wants to increase the consumption of smoking within youngsters. And that's not what the author states. Only (A) is correct.
QUESTION: 15

It only took one, or maybe a few enthusiastic businessmen to turn the poor man's Cigarillos, mostly frowned upon back in the 16th century, to the far-reached and deeply penetrated cigarettes of various brands and strengths we buy today. Of course, now the world knows of its ill effects and cancerous attributes, but back in 1789 the story was completely different. Lack of concrete clinical and research based studies about a direct link between tobacco smoking and lung cancer, among other types of cancers led to an outburst of tobacco marketing, an exploitation of the aforementioned void of sorts by marketers and copywriters, which subsequently led to the deep penetration of cigarettes and the 'classy' smoking culture in a man's everyday life. Today, when over 95% of the world population is well aware of the facts, still 15% of all deaths globally are attributed to smoking. A timely investment into the unexposed human psyche and exploitation of unawareness led to the creation of a multi-billion dollar industry that's only as good as the ignorance it's consumed with.

There are, however, unfounded claims and minor studies which do depict a direct link between extensive social media usage and mental health disorders primarily among youngsters, a majority of eyes are still averted from the impending doom that our social media and smartphone culture is cultivating actively with each passing minute of our time online. But only for lack of an active, charged initiative of someone to delve into the matter and dig out substantial awareness that's been buried and running deeper continuously for over a decade in the average consumer's mind, social media founders and new entrepreneurs looking to exploit this addiction, along with marketers and copywriters still, are doing the best that they can to keep us hooked regardless.

This is the 1800s of social media in our world; where it's still cool, it carries a social heft, makes us feel better and is the answer to a downtime after long hours of work or studies; as were the cigarettes, till they started to kill more than it (seemingly) cured. And hence the only question remains; with the technology that we have now, with the ability to be as curious as we can possibly wish to be and still have our answers, with we ourselves ruling over our own awareness that knows no bounds- thanks again to tech advancements globally- are we solely choosing this ignorance every second minute of our lives?The unfortunate answer is yes, as it always will be.

Q. Why does the author refer to today’s time as the 1800s of social media in our world?

Solution: Only Option (A) is relevant.
QUESTION: 16

It only took one, or maybe a few enthusiastic businessmen to turn the poor man's Cigarillos, mostly frowned upon back in the 16th century, to the far-reached and deeply penetrated cigarettes of various brands and strengths we buy today. Of course, now the world knows of its ill effects and cancerous attributes, but back in 1789 the story was completely different. Lack of concrete clinical and research based studies about a direct link between tobacco smoking and lung cancer, among other types of cancers led to an outburst of tobacco marketing, an exploitation of the aforementioned void of sorts by marketers and copywriters, which subsequently led to the deep penetration of cigarettes and the 'classy' smoking culture in a man's everyday life. Today, when over 95% of the world population is well aware of the facts, still 15% of all deaths globally are attributed to smoking. A timely investment into the unexposed human psyche and exploitation of unawareness led to the creation of a multi-billion dollar industry that's only as good as the ignorance it's consumed with.

There are, however, unfounded claims and minor studies which do depict a direct link between extensive social media usage and mental health disorders primarily among youngsters, a majority of eyes are still averted from the impending doom that our social media and smartphone culture is cultivating actively with each passing minute of our time online. But only for lack of an active, charged initiative of someone to delve into the matter and dig out substantial awareness that's been buried and running deeper continuously for over a decade in the average consumer's mind, social media founders and new entrepreneurs looking to exploit this addiction, along with marketers and copywriters still, are doing the best that they can to keep us hooked regardless.

This is the 1800s of social media in our world; where it's still cool, it carries a social heft, makes us feel better and is the answer to a downtime after long hours of work or studies; as were the cigarettes, till they started to kill more than it (seemingly) cured. And hence the only question remains; with the technology that we have now, with the ability to be as curious as we can possibly wish to be and still have our answers, with we ourselves ruling over our own awareness that knows no bounds- thanks again to tech advancements globally- are we solely choosing this ignorance every second minute of our lives?The unfortunate answer is yes, as it always will be.

Q. What does the author mean by “we are solely choosing this ignorance every second minute of our lives?”

Solution: In the above context he is referring to only social media and not the other options.
QUESTION: 17

It only took one, or maybe a few enthusiastic businessmen to turn the poor man's Cigarillos, mostly frowned upon back in the 16th century, to the far-reached and deeply penetrated cigarettes of various brands and strengths we buy today. Of course, now the world knows of its ill effects and cancerous attributes, but back in 1789 the story was completely different. Lack of concrete clinical and research based studies about a direct link between tobacco smoking and lung cancer, among other types of cancers led to an outburst of tobacco marketing, an exploitation of the aforementioned void of sorts by marketers and copywriters, which subsequently led to the deep penetration of cigarettes and the 'classy' smoking culture in a man's everyday life. Today, when over 95% of the world population is well aware of the facts, still 15% of all deaths globally are attributed to smoking. A timely investment into the unexposed human psyche and exploitation of unawareness led to the creation of a multi-billion dollar industry that's only as good as the ignorance it's consumed with.

There are, however, unfounded claims and minor studies which do depict a direct link between extensive social media usage and mental health disorders primarily among youngsters, a majority of eyes are still averted from the impending doom that our social media and smartphone culture is cultivating actively with each passing minute of our time online. But only for lack of an active, charged initiative of someone to delve into the matter and dig out substantial awareness that's been buried and running deeper continuously for over a decade in the average consumer's mind, social media founders and new entrepreneurs looking to exploit this addiction, along with marketers and copywriters still, are doing the best that they can to keep us hooked regardless.

This is the 1800s of social media in our world; where it's still cool, it carries a social heft, makes us feel better and is the answer to a downtime after long hours of work or studies; as were the cigarettes, till they started to kill more than it (seemingly) cured. And hence the only question remains; with the technology that we have now, with the ability to be as curious as we can possibly wish to be and still have our answers, with we ourselves ruling over our own awareness that knows no bounds- thanks again to tech advancements globally- are we solely choosing this ignorance every second minute of our lives?The unfortunate answer is yes, as it always will be.

Q. What is the correlation between the mental disorders and social media as per the author above?

Solution: According to the second paragraph, there is a direct relation.
QUESTION: 18

A blanket gag order against the media is often fraught with serious consequences for both free speech and the citizen’s right to receive information. Orders by different courts, restraining the media from reporting on particular cases or programmes from being telecast, have drawn attention this week to questions of prior restraint, media freedom and the right of people facing investigation to a fair trial. A quite unusual and legally questionable decision has been the interim order of the Andhra Pradesh High Court imposing a ban on the media, and even social media, from mentioning anything in relation to an FIR filed by the police against a former Advocate General of the State and others. It is unusual in the sense that there appears to be no material to justify such censorship other than an allegation by the petitioner that it is a “foisted” case. It is also accompanied by an order staying the investigation itself. It is indeed open to a High Court to grant a stay on investigation in extraordinary cases. When political vendetta is alleged against the government of the day, that too by someone who had served a previous regime as a law officer, the need for media coverage and public scrutiny is all the greater. How the petitioner would benefit from the complete absence of any reportage is unclear. It prevents legitimate comment even to the effect that there is no substance in the allegations.

Injunctions against publication can either be an order to prevent possible defamation or invasion of privacy, or one aimed at protecting the fairness of a trial or investigation. The Supreme Court did hold in Sahara vs. SEBI (2012) that the Court can grant preventive relief on a balancing of the right to free trial and a free press. However, it favoured such temporary restraint on publication “only in cases of real and substantial risk of prejudice” to the administration of justice or a fair trial. Meanwhile, the Supreme Court, on the same day, passed a more important interim order stopping the telecast of the remaining episodes of a series on Sudarshan News on entirely different grounds. Holding that the programme — four episodes were aired — was nothing but vilification of Muslims, the Court found it necessary to interdict the telecast of more episodes. The Court seems to have made a distinction between freedom of expression and propagation of hate. In recent years, there have been quite a few instances, especially in Karnataka, of omnibus interim injunctions against all media houses obtained by some people solely to prevent any news reporting about themselves. While claiming to be defamed by one publication, they sue all media outlets and obtain open-ended stay on publications, including those that are hardly interested in writing about them. As a matter of principle, courts ought to avoid omnibus orders against publication. Such orders are often to the detriment of the right to know.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following is true regarding the author’s viewpoint?

Solution: Author has argued in favor of free flow of information. It is stated that it is unusual in the sense that there appears to be no material to justify such censorship other than an allegation by the petitioner that it is a “foisted” case, which insinuates towards such a view of the author.
QUESTION: 19

A blanket gag order against the media is often fraught with serious consequences for both free speech and the citizen’s right to receive information. Orders by different courts, restraining the media from reporting on particular cases or programmes from being telecast, have drawn attention this week to questions of prior restraint, media freedom and the right of people facing investigation to a fair trial. A quite unusual and legally questionable decision has been the interim order of the Andhra Pradesh High Court imposing a ban on the media, and even social media, from mentioning anything in relation to an FIR filed by the police against a former Advocate General of the State and others. It is unusual in the sense that there appears to be no material to justify such censorship other than an allegation by the petitioner that it is a “foisted” case. It is also accompanied by an order staying the investigation itself. It is indeed open to a High Court to grant a stay on investigation in extraordinary cases. When political vendetta is alleged against the government of the day, that too by someone who had served a previous regime as a law officer, the need for media coverage and public scrutiny is all the greater. How the petitioner would benefit from the complete absence of any reportage is unclear. It prevents legitimate comment even to the effect that there is no substance in the allegations.

Injunctions against publication can either be an order to prevent possible defamation or invasion of privacy, or one aimed at protecting the fairness of a trial or investigation. The Supreme Court did hold in Sahara vs. SEBI (2012) that the Court can grant preventive relief on a balancing of the right to free trial and a free press. However, it favoured such temporary restraint on publication “only in cases of real and substantial risk of prejudice” to the administration of justice or a fair trial. Meanwhile, the Supreme Court, on the same day, passed a more important interim order stopping the telecast of the remaining episodes of a series on Sudarshan News on entirely different grounds. Holding that the programme — four episodes were aired — was nothing but vilification of Muslims, the Court found it necessary to interdict the telecast of more episodes. The Court seems to have made a distinction between freedom of expression and propagation of hate. In recent years, there have been quite a few instances, especially in Karnataka, of omnibus interim injunctions against all media houses obtained by some people solely to prevent any news reporting about themselves. While claiming to be defamed by one publication, they sue all media outlets and obtain open-ended stay on publications, including those that are hardly interested in writing about them. As a matter of principle, courts ought to avoid omnibus orders against publication. Such orders are often to the detriment of the right to know.

Q. What does “vilification” mean?

Solution: Vilification means abusively disparaging speech or writing.
QUESTION: 20

A blanket gag order against the media is often fraught with serious consequences for both free speech and the citizen’s right to receive information. Orders by different courts, restraining the media from reporting on particular cases or programmes from being telecast, have drawn attention this week to questions of prior restraint, media freedom and the right of people facing investigation to a fair trial. A quite unusual and legally questionable decision has been the interim order of the Andhra Pradesh High Court imposing a ban on the media, and even social media, from mentioning anything in relation to an FIR filed by the police against a former Advocate General of the State and others. It is unusual in the sense that there appears to be no material to justify such censorship other than an allegation by the petitioner that it is a “foisted” case. It is also accompanied by an order staying the investigation itself. It is indeed open to a High Court to grant a stay on investigation in extraordinary cases. When political vendetta is alleged against the government of the day, that too by someone who had served a previous regime as a law officer, the need for media coverage and public scrutiny is all the greater. How the petitioner would benefit from the complete absence of any reportage is unclear. It prevents legitimate comment even to the effect that there is no substance in the allegations.

Injunctions against publication can either be an order to prevent possible defamation or invasion of privacy, or one aimed at protecting the fairness of a trial or investigation. The Supreme Court did hold in Sahara vs. SEBI (2012) that the Court can grant preventive relief on a balancing of the right to free trial and a free press. However, it favoured such temporary restraint on publication “only in cases of real and substantial risk of prejudice” to the administration of justice or a fair trial. Meanwhile, the Supreme Court, on the same day, passed a more important interim order stopping the telecast of the remaining episodes of a series on Sudarshan News on entirely different grounds. Holding that the programme — four episodes were aired — was nothing but vilification of Muslims, the Court found it necessary to interdict the telecast of more episodes. The Court seems to have made a distinction between freedom of expression and propagation of hate. In recent years, there have been quite a few instances, especially in Karnataka, of omnibus interim injunctions against all media houses obtained by some people solely to prevent any news reporting about themselves. While claiming to be defamed by one publication, they sue all media outlets and obtain open-ended stay on publications, including those that are hardly interested in writing about them. As a matter of principle, courts ought to avoid omnibus orders against publication. Such orders are often to the detriment of the right to know.

Q. On the basis of the passage, determine which of the following is subdued by a gag order?

Solution: The author has suggested that the gag order could be an impediment for freedom of speech and expression, citizens’ right to receive information, and freedom of press.
QUESTION: 21

A blanket gag order against the media is often fraught with serious consequences for both free speech and the citizen’s right to receive information. Orders by different courts, restraining the media from reporting on particular cases or programmes from being telecast, have drawn attention this week to questions of prior restraint, media freedom and the right of people facing investigation to a fair trial. A quite unusual and legally questionable decision has been the interim order of the Andhra Pradesh High Court imposing a ban on the media, and even social media, from mentioning anything in relation to an FIR filed by the police against a former Advocate General of the State and others. It is unusual in the sense that there appears to be no material to justify such censorship other than an allegation by the petitioner that it is a “foisted” case. It is also accompanied by an order staying the investigation itself. It is indeed open to a High Court to grant a stay on investigation in extraordinary cases. When political vendetta is alleged against the government of the day, that too by someone who had served a previous regime as a law officer, the need for media coverage and public scrutiny is all the greater. How the petitioner would benefit from the complete absence of any reportage is unclear. It prevents legitimate comment even to the effect that there is no substance in the allegations.

Injunctions against publication can either be an order to prevent possible defamation or invasion of privacy, or one aimed at protecting the fairness of a trial or investigation. The Supreme Court did hold in Sahara vs. SEBI (2012) that the Court can grant preventive relief on a balancing of the right to free trial and a free press. However, it favoured such temporary restraint on publication “only in cases of real and substantial risk of prejudice” to the administration of justice or a fair trial. Meanwhile, the Supreme Court, on the same day, passed a more important interim order stopping the telecast of the remaining episodes of a series on Sudarshan News on entirely different grounds. Holding that the programme — four episodes were aired — was nothing but vilification of Muslims, the Court found it necessary to interdict the telecast of more episodes. The Court seems to have made a distinction between freedom of expression and propagation of hate. In recent years, there have been quite a few instances, especially in Karnataka, of omnibus interim injunctions against all media houses obtained by some people solely to prevent any news reporting about themselves. While claiming to be defamed by one publication, they sue all media outlets and obtain open-ended stay on publications, including those that are hardly interested in writing about them. As a matter of principle, courts ought to avoid omnibus orders against publication. Such orders are often to the detriment of the right to know.

Q. Which of the following could be a rationale which the author would accept for censorship of information regarding the ongoing case involving the Advocate General?

Solution: The author mentions that how the petitioner would benefit from the complete absence of any reportage is unclear. It prevents legitimate comment even to the effect that there is no substance in the allegations. This indicates the possibility that had there been any benefit availed by the petitioner by the non reportage of the proceedings, it could have been a mere possibility that the author would have got convinced by such a gag order.
QUESTION: 22

A blanket gag order against the media is often fraught with serious consequences for both free speech and the citizen’s right to receive information. Orders by different courts, restraining the media from reporting on particular cases or programmes from being telecast, have drawn attention this week to questions of prior restraint, media freedom and the right of people facing investigation to a fair trial. A quite unusual and legally questionable decision has been the interim order of the Andhra Pradesh High Court imposing a ban on the media, and even social media, from mentioning anything in relation to an FIR filed by the police against a former Advocate General of the State and others. It is unusual in the sense that there appears to be no material to justify such censorship other than an allegation by the petitioner that it is a “foisted” case. It is also accompanied by an order staying the investigation itself. It is indeed open to a High Court to grant a stay on investigation in extraordinary cases. When political vendetta is alleged against the government of the day, that too by someone who had served a previous regime as a law officer, the need for media coverage and public scrutiny is all the greater. How the petitioner would benefit from the complete absence of any reportage is unclear. It prevents legitimate comment even to the effect that there is no substance in the allegations.

Injunctions against publication can either be an order to prevent possible defamation or invasion of privacy, or one aimed at protecting the fairness of a trial or investigation. The Supreme Court did hold in Sahara vs. SEBI (2012) that the Court can grant preventive relief on a balancing of the right to free trial and a free press. However, it favoured such temporary restraint on publication “only in cases of real and substantial risk of prejudice” to the administration of justice or a fair trial. Meanwhile, the Supreme Court, on the same day, passed a more important interim order stopping the telecast of the remaining episodes of a series on Sudarshan News on entirely different grounds. Holding that the programme — four episodes were aired — was nothing but vilification of Muslims, the Court found it necessary to interdict the telecast of more episodes. The Court seems to have made a distinction between freedom of expression and propagation of hate. In recent years, there have been quite a few instances, especially in Karnataka, of omnibus interim injunctions against all media houses obtained by some people solely to prevent any news reporting about themselves. While claiming to be defamed by one publication, they sue all media outlets and obtain open-ended stay on publications, including those that are hardly interested in writing about them. As a matter of principle, courts ought to avoid omnibus orders against publication. Such orders are often to the detriment of the right to know.

Q. The concept of balancing of rights between the free trial and freedom of press could be invoked in which of the following circumstances?

Solution: The Court can grant preventive relief on a balancing of the right to free trial and a free press. However, it favoured such temporary restraint on publication “only in cases of real and substantial risk of prejudice” to the administration of justice or a fair trial.
QUESTION: 23

A blanket gag order against the media is often fraught with serious consequences for both free speech and the citizen’s right to receive information. Orders by different courts, restraining the media from reporting on particular cases or programmes from being telecast, have drawn attention this week to questions of prior restraint, media freedom and the right of people facing investigation to a fair trial. A quite unusual and legally questionable decision has been the interim order of the Andhra Pradesh High Court imposing a ban on the media, and even social media, from mentioning anything in relation to an FIR filed by the police against a former Advocate General of the State and others. It is unusual in the sense that there appears to be no material to justify such censorship other than an allegation by the petitioner that it is a “foisted” case. It is also accompanied by an order staying the investigation itself. It is indeed open to a High Court to grant a stay on investigation in extraordinary cases. When political vendetta is alleged against the government of the day, that too by someone who had served a previous regime as a law officer, the need for media coverage and public scrutiny is all the greater. How the petitioner would benefit from the complete absence of any reportage is unclear. It prevents legitimate comment even to the effect that there is no substance in the allegations.

Injunctions against publication can either be an order to prevent possible defamation or invasion of privacy, or one aimed at protecting the fairness of a trial or investigation. The Supreme Court did hold in Sahara vs. SEBI (2012) that the Court can grant preventive relief on a balancing of the right to free trial and a free press. However, it favoured such temporary restraint on publication “only in cases of real and substantial risk of prejudice” to the administration of justice or a fair trial. Meanwhile, the Supreme Court, on the same day, passed a more important interim order stopping the telecast of the remaining episodes of a series on Sudarshan News on entirely different grounds. Holding that the programme — four episodes were aired — was nothing but vilification of Muslims, the Court found it necessary to interdict the telecast of more episodes. The Court seems to have made a distinction between freedom of expression and propagation of hate. In recent years, there have been quite a few instances, especially in Karnataka, of omnibus interim injunctions against all media houses obtained by some people solely to prevent any news reporting about themselves. While claiming to be defamed by one publication, they sue all media outlets and obtain open-ended stay on publications, including those that are hardly interested in writing about them. As a matter of principle, courts ought to avoid omnibus orders against publication. Such orders are often to the detriment of the right to know.

Q. Which of the following is true in relation to injunction placed on publication of news

1. It is aimed towards minimising the defamation caused to the parties

2. It is aimed towards safeguarding the privacy of an individual

3. It is aimed towards maintaining the fairness of the investigation

Solution: Injunctions against publication can either be an order to prevent possible defamation or invasion of privacy, or one aimed at protecting the fairness of a trial or investigation.
QUESTION: 24

India’s Tata Group is in talks with potential investors about taking stakes in a new digital platform, people familiar with the matter said, seeking to modernize its consumer businesses as retail giants like Amazon.com Inc. and billionaire Mukesh Ambani pile into the country’s fledgling e-commerce market.

Tata Sons Pvt., the holding company of the $113 billion coffee-to-cars conglomerate, is working with advisers to explore bringing in financial or strategic investors, including global technology companies, the people said, asking not to be identified as they aren’t authorized to speak to the media. The group plans to bring together digital assets across various Tata businesses to create the new entity, according to the people.

A Tata Sons representative declined to comment on the stake sale discussions.

Tata’s platform -- an e-commerce gateway for its consumer products and services ranging from beverages to jewelry and resorts -- may seek to compete with the ambitious plans of Ambani, Amazon.com and Walmart Inc.’s Indian venture Flipkart to tap the nascent market of more than 1 billion consumers. Ambani, chairman of Reliance Industries Ltd., is looking to forge a digital empire, raising more than $20 billion from big-name partners including Facebook Inc. and Google for his newly formed technology venture, Jio Platforms Ltd.

Discussions with potential investors are at a very early stage and there’s no certainty they will result in a deal, the people said.

While bringing in outside investors would lend credence to Tata’s digital ambitions, it may also help the group pare debt after the coronavirus pandemic hammered its flagship businesses. Tata Steel Ltd.’s group net debt was at $14 billion as of June 30, while the net automotive debt of Tata Motors Ltd., which owns Jaguar Land Rover, was around 480 billion rupees ($6.5 billion).

Tata Group already has a bunch of entrenched consumer businesses, many of which also have an online presence. These include Tanishq’s jewelry stores, Titan watch showrooms, Star Bazaar supermarkets, chain of Taj hotels and a joint venture with Starbucks in India. The intention is to consolidate these currently fragmented web operations.

Natarajan Chandrasekaran, Tata Sons’ chairman and a long time chief executive officer of Tata Consultancy Services Ltd. before that, is championing the group’s digitization drive and Tata Digital’s head Pratik Pal is in charge of building this all-in-one app, a person said last month.

Pal has three decades of experience at TCS, where he was global head of retail, and helped with the digital transformation of some of the world’s largest retail chains including Walmart, Tesco Plc, Aldi Inc., Target Corp., Best Buy Co. and Marks & Spencer Group Plc.

Q. Which of the following is an apposite title for the passage?

Solution: The author has expressed how and for what reasons is Tata trying to digitalize its presence in the market, while being in competition with the conglomerates, which makes option (a) and apt choice.
QUESTION: 25

India’s Tata Group is in talks with potential investors about taking stakes in a new digital platform, people familiar with the matter said, seeking to modernize its consumer businesses as retail giants like Amazon.com Inc. and billionaire Mukesh Ambani pile into the country’s fledgling e-commerce market.

Tata Sons Pvt., the holding company of the $113 billion coffee-to-cars conglomerate, is working with advisers to explore bringing in financial or strategic investors, including global technology companies, the people said, asking not to be identified as they aren’t authorized to speak to the media. The group plans to bring together digital assets across various Tata businesses to create the new entity, according to the people.

A Tata Sons representative declined to comment on the stake sale discussions.

Tata’s platform -- an e-commerce gateway for its consumer products and services ranging from beverages to jewelry and resorts -- may seek to compete with the ambitious plans of Ambani, Amazon.com and Walmart Inc.’s Indian venture Flipkart to tap the nascent market of more than 1 billion consumers. Ambani, chairman of Reliance Industries Ltd., is looking to forge a digital empire, raising more than $20 billion from big-name partners including Facebook Inc. and Google for his newly formed technology venture, Jio Platforms Ltd.

Discussions with potential investors are at a very early stage and there’s no certainty they will result in a deal, the people said.

While bringing in outside investors would lend credence to Tata’s digital ambitions, it may also help the group pare debt after the coronavirus pandemic hammered its flagship businesses. Tata Steel Ltd.’s group net debt was at $14 billion as of June 30, while the net automotive debt of Tata Motors Ltd., which owns Jaguar Land Rover, was around 480 billion rupees ($6.5 billion).

Tata Group already has a bunch of entrenched consumer businesses, many of which also have an online presence. These include Tanishq’s jewelry stores, Titan watch showrooms, Star Bazaar supermarkets, chain of Taj hotels and a joint venture with Starbucks in India. The intention is to consolidate these currently fragmented web operations.

Natarajan Chandrasekaran, Tata Sons’ chairman and a long time chief executive officer of Tata Consultancy Services Ltd. before that, is championing the group’s digitization drive and Tata Digital’s head Pratik Pal is in charge of building this all-in-one app, a person said last month.

Pal has three decades of experience at TCS, where he was global head of retail, and helped with the digital transformation of some of the world’s largest retail chains including Walmart, Tesco Plc, Aldi Inc., Target Corp., Best Buy Co. and Marks & Spencer Group Plc.

Q. What of the following is true with respect to the view of the author in the passage?

Solution: The author has expressed no views regarding the probable deal and has only reported the facts here.
QUESTION: 26

India’s Tata Group is in talks with potential investors about taking stakes in a new digital platform, people familiar with the matter said, seeking to modernize its consumer businesses as retail giants like Amazon.com Inc. and billionaire Mukesh Ambani pile into the country’s fledgling e-commerce market.

Tata Sons Pvt., the holding company of the $113 billion coffee-to-cars conglomerate, is working with advisers to explore bringing in financial or strategic investors, including global technology companies, the people said, asking not to be identified as they aren’t authorized to speak to the media. The group plans to bring together digital assets across various Tata businesses to create the new entity, according to the people.

A Tata Sons representative declined to comment on the stake sale discussions.

Tata’s platform -- an e-commerce gateway for its consumer products and services ranging from beverages to jewelry and resorts -- may seek to compete with the ambitious plans of Ambani, Amazon.com and Walmart Inc.’s Indian venture Flipkart to tap the nascent market of more than 1 billion consumers. Ambani, chairman of Reliance Industries Ltd., is looking to forge a digital empire, raising more than $20 billion from big-name partners including Facebook Inc. and Google for his newly formed technology venture, Jio Platforms Ltd.

Discussions with potential investors are at a very early stage and there’s no certainty they will result in a deal, the people said.

While bringing in outside investors would lend credence to Tata’s digital ambitions, it may also help the group pare debt after the coronavirus pandemic hammered its flagship businesses. Tata Steel Ltd.’s group net debt was at $14 billion as of June 30, while the net automotive debt of Tata Motors Ltd., which owns Jaguar Land Rover, was around 480 billion rupees ($6.5 billion).

Tata Group already has a bunch of entrenched consumer businesses, many of which also have an online presence. These include Tanishq’s jewelry stores, Titan watch showrooms, Star Bazaar supermarkets, chain of Taj hotels and a joint venture with Starbucks in India. The intention is to consolidate these currently fragmented web operations.

Natarajan Chandrasekaran, Tata Sons’ chairman and a long time chief executive officer of Tata Consultancy Services Ltd. before that, is championing the group’s digitization drive and Tata Digital’s head Pratik Pal is in charge of building this all-in-one app, a person said last month.

Pal has three decades of experience at TCS, where he was global head of retail, and helped with the digital transformation of some of the world’s largest retail chains including Walmart, Tesco Plc, Aldi Inc., Target Corp., Best Buy Co. and Marks & Spencer Group Plc.

Q. What is the closest meaning of the word “credence”?

Solution: The author has used the word: “While bringing in outside investors would lend credence to Tata’s digital ambitions, it may also help the group pare debt after the coronavirus pandemic hammered its flagship businesses.”

Credence means - belief in; or acceptance of something as true.

QUESTION: 27

India’s Tata Group is in talks with potential investors about taking stakes in a new digital platform, people familiar with the matter said, seeking to modernize its consumer businesses as retail giants like Amazon.com Inc. and billionaire Mukesh Ambani pile into the country’s fledgling e-commerce market.

Tata Sons Pvt., the holding company of the $113 billion coffee-to-cars conglomerate, is working with advisers to explore bringing in financial or strategic investors, including global technology companies, the people said, asking not to be identified as they aren’t authorized to speak to the media. The group plans to bring together digital assets across various Tata businesses to create the new entity, according to the people.

A Tata Sons representative declined to comment on the stake sale discussions.

Tata’s platform -- an e-commerce gateway for its consumer products and services ranging from beverages to jewelry and resorts -- may seek to compete with the ambitious plans of Ambani, Amazon.com and Walmart Inc.’s Indian venture Flipkart to tap the nascent market of more than 1 billion consumers. Ambani, chairman of Reliance Industries Ltd., is looking to forge a digital empire, raising more than $20 billion from big-name partners including Facebook Inc. and Google for his newly formed technology venture, Jio Platforms Ltd.

Discussions with potential investors are at a very early stage and there’s no certainty they will result in a deal, the people said.

While bringing in outside investors would lend credence to Tata’s digital ambitions, it may also help the group pare debt after the coronavirus pandemic hammered its flagship businesses. Tata Steel Ltd.’s group net debt was at $14 billion as of June 30, while the net automotive debt of Tata Motors Ltd., which owns Jaguar Land Rover, was around 480 billion rupees ($6.5 billion).

Tata Group already has a bunch of entrenched consumer businesses, many of which also have an online presence. These include Tanishq’s jewelry stores, Titan watch showrooms, Star Bazaar supermarkets, chain of Taj hotels and a joint venture with Starbucks in India. The intention is to consolidate these currently fragmented web operations.

Natarajan Chandrasekaran, Tata Sons’ chairman and a long time chief executive officer of Tata Consultancy Services Ltd. before that, is championing the group’s digitization drive and Tata Digital’s head Pratik Pal is in charge of building this all-in-one app, a person said last month.

Pal has three decades of experience at TCS, where he was global head of retail, and helped with the digital transformation of some of the world’s largest retail chains including Walmart, Tesco Plc, Aldi Inc., Target Corp., Best Buy Co. and Marks & Spencer Group Plc.

Q. Which of the following would be the probable result of the digitization for Tata Group of Companies?

1. Market unification for its companies

2. Fast reach to customers

3. Tata’s presence in foreign market would be boosted

Solution: The digitization would help Tata to cater to customers in a more accessible way and it would help it in cashing out on the customer strength of 1 billion by going digital. Additionally, it would help the group of companies under Tata Group to be unifiedly presented before the customers.
QUESTION: 28

India’s Tata Group is in talks with potential investors about taking stakes in a new digital platform, people familiar with the matter said, seeking to modernize its consumer businesses as retail giants like Amazon.com Inc. and billionaire Mukesh Ambani pile into the country’s fledgling e-commerce market.

Tata Sons Pvt., the holding company of the $113 billion coffee-to-cars conglomerate, is working with advisers to explore bringing in financial or strategic investors, including global technology companies, the people said, asking not to be identified as they aren’t authorized to speak to the media. The group plans to bring together digital assets across various Tata businesses to create the new entity, according to the people.

A Tata Sons representative declined to comment on the stake sale discussions.

Tata’s platform -- an e-commerce gateway for its consumer products and services ranging from beverages to jewelry and resorts -- may seek to compete with the ambitious plans of Ambani, Amazon.com and Walmart Inc.’s Indian venture Flipkart to tap the nascent market of more than 1 billion consumers. Ambani, chairman of Reliance Industries Ltd., is looking to forge a digital empire, raising more than $20 billion from big-name partners including Facebook Inc. and Google for his newly formed technology venture, Jio Platforms Ltd.

Discussions with potential investors are at a very early stage and there’s no certainty they will result in a deal, the people said.

While bringing in outside investors would lend credence to Tata’s digital ambitions, it may also help the group pare debt after the coronavirus pandemic hammered its flagship businesses. Tata Steel Ltd.’s group net debt was at $14 billion as of June 30, while the net automotive debt of Tata Motors Ltd., which owns Jaguar Land Rover, was around 480 billion rupees ($6.5 billion).

Tata Group already has a bunch of entrenched consumer businesses, many of which also have an online presence. These include Tanishq’s jewelry stores, Titan watch showrooms, Star Bazaar supermarkets, chain of Taj hotels and a joint venture with Starbucks in India. The intention is to consolidate these currently fragmented web operations.

Natarajan Chandrasekaran, Tata Sons’ chairman and a long time chief executive officer of Tata Consultancy Services Ltd. before that, is championing the group’s digitization drive and Tata Digital’s head Pratik Pal is in charge of building this all-in-one app, a person said last month.

Pal has three decades of experience at TCS, where he was global head of retail, and helped with the digital transformation of some of the world’s largest retail chains including Walmart, Tesco Plc, Aldi Inc., Target Corp., Best Buy Co. and Marks & Spencer Group Plc.

Q. Which of the following would be the result of foreign investment in Tata’s ambition to go digital?

Solution: The author has not provided any account of the benefits arising out of foreign investment in Tata, other than, stating that the act would lend credence to Tata’s digital ambitions, it may also help the group pare debt after the coronavirus pandemic hammered its flagship businesses.
QUESTION: 29

India’s Tata Group is in talks with potential investors about taking stakes in a new digital platform, people familiar with the matter said, seeking to modernize its consumer businesses as retail giants like Amazon.com Inc. and billionaire Mukesh Ambani pile into the country’s fledgling e-commerce market.

Tata Sons Pvt., the holding company of the $113 billion coffee-to-cars conglomerate, is working with advisers to explore bringing in financial or strategic investors, including global technology companies, the people said, asking not to be identified as they aren’t authorized to speak to the media. The group plans to bring together digital assets across various Tata businesses to create the new entity, according to the people.

A Tata Sons representative declined to comment on the stake sale discussions.

Tata’s platform -- an e-commerce gateway for its consumer products and services ranging from beverages to jewelry and resorts -- may seek to compete with the ambitious plans of Ambani, Amazon.com and Walmart Inc.’s Indian venture Flipkart to tap the nascent market of more than 1 billion consumers. Ambani, chairman of Reliance Industries Ltd., is looking to forge a digital empire, raising more than $20 billion from big-name partners including Facebook Inc. and Google for his newly formed technology venture, Jio Platforms Ltd.

Discussions with potential investors are at a very early stage and there’s no certainty they will result in a deal, the people said.

While bringing in outside investors would lend credence to Tata’s digital ambitions, it may also help the group pare debt after the coronavirus pandemic hammered its flagship businesses. Tata Steel Ltd.’s group net debt was at $14 billion as of June 30, while the net automotive debt of Tata Motors Ltd., which owns Jaguar Land Rover, was around 480 billion rupees ($6.5 billion).

Tata Group already has a bunch of entrenched consumer businesses, many of which also have an online presence. These include Tanishq’s jewelry stores, Titan watch showrooms, Star Bazaar supermarkets, chain of Taj hotels and a joint venture with Starbucks in India. The intention is to consolidate these currently fragmented web operations.

Natarajan Chandrasekaran, Tata Sons’ chairman and a long time chief executive officer of Tata Consultancy Services Ltd. before that, is championing the group’s digitization drive and Tata Digital’s head Pratik Pal is in charge of building this all-in-one app, a person said last month.

Pal has three decades of experience at TCS, where he was global head of retail, and helped with the digital transformation of some of the world’s largest retail chains including Walmart, Tesco Plc, Aldi Inc., Target Corp., Best Buy Co. and Marks & Spencer Group Plc.

Q. According to the passage, in which of the following categories does Tata not deal?

Solution: In accordance with the passage, the author has mentioned about Tata group’s presence in all the mentioned sectors except Real Estate.
QUESTION: 30

Harmony Foundation has facilitated the 16th Mother Teresa Memorial Award for Social Justice 2020. The theme for Harmony Foundation’s award this year is [X]’ and the award ceremony will be held virtually on December 27, said Harmony Foundation president Dr Abraham Mathai. The award has been presented to New York-based chef [Y] and IPS officer [Z], Director General, Home Guards..

“Despite the suddenness of this pandemic, [Y] showed extraordinary sensitivity, not just in saving lives, but also trying to make them as better as they could be, by feeding more than 50 million people….On the other hand, defying all odds, [Z] went beyond the call of duty to open the first relief camp in Versova, Mumbai, for migrant workers stranded by the lockdown that was enforced to contain the coronavirus pandemic,” the Harmony Foundation said in a statement issued Friday"

What is the theme, [X] of the 16th Mother Teresa Memorial Awards for Social Justice 2020?

Solution: The theme of the 16th Mother Teresa Memorial Award is "Celebrating Compassion in the times of COVID".
QUESTION: 31

Harmony Foundation has falicitated the 16th Mother Teresa Memorial Award for Social Justice 2020. The theme for Harmony Foundation’s award this year is [X]’ and the award ceremony will be held virtually on December 27, said Harmony Foundation president Dr Abraham Mathai. The award has been presented to New York-based chef [Y] and IPS officer [Z], Director General, Home Guards..

“Despite the suddenness of this pandemic, [Y] showed extraordinary sensitivity, not just in saving lives, but also trying to make them as better as they could be, by feeding more than 50 million people….On the other hand, defying all odds, [Z] went beyond the call of duty to open the first relief camp in Versova, Mumbai, for migrant workers stranded by the lockdown that was enforced to contain the coronavirus pandemic,” the Harmony Foundation said in a statement issued Friday"

What is the name of [Y]?

Solution: Vikas Khanna was one of the persons who was given this particular award.
QUESTION: 32

Harmony Foundation has falicitated the 16th Mother Teresa Memorial Award for Social Justice 2020. The theme for Harmony Foundation’s award this year is [X]’ and the award ceremony will be held virtually on December 27, said Harmony Foundation president Dr Abraham Mathai. The award has been presented to New York-based chef [Y] and IPS officer [Z], Director General, Home Guards..

“Despite the suddenness of this pandemic, [Y] showed extraordinary sensitivity, not just in saving lives, but also trying to make them as better as they could be, by feeding more than 50 million people….On the other hand, defying all odds, [Z] went beyond the call of duty to open the first relief camp in Versova, Mumbai, for migrant workers stranded by the lockdown that was enforced to contain the coronavirus pandemic,” the Harmony Foundation said in a statement issued Friday"

Interestingly, this is the only award that has been supported by the Superior General of the Missionaries of Charity, Kolkata. Name the Superior General.

Solution: Mary Prema Peirick is the superior general of the Missionaries of Charity.
QUESTION: 33

Harmony Foundation has falicitated the 16th Mother Teresa Memorial Award for Social Justice 2020. The theme for Harmony Foundation’s award this year is [X]’ and the award ceremony will be held virtually on December 27, said Harmony Foundation president Dr Abraham Mathai. The award has been presented to New York-based chef [Y] and IPS officer [Z], Director General, Home Guards..

“Despite the suddenness of this pandemic, [Y] showed extraordinary sensitivity, not just in saving lives, but also trying to make them as better as they could be, by feeding more than 50 million people….On the other hand, defying all odds, [Z] went beyond the call of duty to open the first relief camp in Versova, Mumbai, for migrant workers stranded by the lockdown that was enforced to contain the coronavirus pandemic,” the Harmony Foundation said in a statement issued Friday"

What is the name of the person, [Z], whose name has been redacted in the passage?

Solution: Sanjay Pandey has been awarded the 16th Mother Teresa Memorial Awards for Social Justice.
QUESTION: 34

Harmony Foundation has falicitated the 16th Mother Teresa Memorial Award for Social Justice 2020. The theme for Harmony Foundation’s award this year is [X]’ and the award ceremony will be held virtually on December 27, said Harmony Foundation president Dr Abraham Mathai. The award has been presented to New York-based chef [Y] and IPS officer [Z], Director General, Home Guards..

“Despite the suddenness of this pandemic, [Y] showed extraordinary sensitivity, not just in saving lives, but also trying to make them as better as they could be, by feeding more than 50 million people….On the other hand, defying all odds, [Z] went beyond the call of duty to open the first relief camp in Versova, Mumbai, for migrant workers stranded by the lockdown that was enforced to contain the coronavirus pandemic,” the Harmony Foundation said in a statement issued Friday"

In which year did Mother Teresa won the Nobel Peace Prize?

Solution: Mother Teresa won the Nobel Peace Prize in the year 1979.
QUESTION: 35

Harmony Foundation has facilitated the 16th Mother Teresa Memorial Award for Social Justice 2020. The theme for Harmony Foundation’s award this year is [X]’ and the award ceremony will be held virtually on December 27, said Harmony Foundation president Dr Abraham Mathai. The award has been presented to New York-based chef [Y] and IPS officer [Z], Director General, Home Guards..

“Despite the suddenness of this pandemic, [Y] showed extraordinary sensitivity, not just in saving lives, but also trying to make them as better as they could be, by feeding more than 50 million people….On the other hand, defying all odds, [Z] went beyond the call of duty to open the first relief camp in Versova, Mumbai, for migrant workers stranded by the lockdown that was enforced to contain the coronavirus pandemic,” the Harmony Foundation said in a statement issued Friday"

The award has been given to another Indian from Kerala for their efforts towards dealing with the pandemic by following the expert and scientific advice for other governments to follow. Name this person

Solution: K K Sailaja has also won this particular award.
QUESTION: 36

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has approved the appointment of [X] as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). [X] is currently Executive Director overseeing four departments -- Internal Debt Management Department, Secretary’s Department, Financial Markets Operation Department and International Department. The RBI currently has three Deputy Governors -- BP Kanungo, MK Jain and MD Patra.

The fourth Deputy Governor’s position has been vacant since NS Vishwanathan quit his position in March 2020, ahead of the completion of his term on July 3, 2020. RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das explained that India's recovery is likely to be a three-speed recovery, with individual sectors showing varying paces depending on sector-specific realities.

Several indicators point to the revival of economic activity. Das, Governor of the Reserve Bank of India said, The rural economy looks resilient, kharif sowing has already surpassed last year's acreage and food grain is set to touch a record high.

Who was appointed as the new Deputy Governor of RBI, [X] as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The Centre appointed RBI's senior-most Executive Director M. Rajeshwar Rao as Deputy Governor. He succeeds N.S. Vishwanathan, who stepped down in March, three months ahead of his extended tenure on health grounds.
QUESTION: 37

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has approved the appointment of [X] as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). [X] is currently Executive Director overseeing four departments -- Internal Debt Management Department, Secretary’s Department, Financial Markets Operation Department and International Department. The RBI currently has three Deputy Governors -- BP Kanungo, MK Jain and MD Patra.

The fourth Deputy Governor’s position has been vacant since NS Vishwanathan quit his position in March 2020, ahead of the completion of his term on July 3, 2020. RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das explained that India's recovery is likely to be a three-speed recovery, with individual sectors showing varying paces depending on sector-specific realities.

Several indicators point to the revival of economic activity. Das, Governor of the Reserve Bank of India said, The rural economy looks resilient, kharif sowing has already surpassed last year's acreage and food grain is set to touch a record high.

Who is the chairman of the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet?

Solution: The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) decides appointments to several top posts under the Government of India. The committee is composed of the Prime Minister of India (who is the Chairman), the Minister of Home Affairs.
QUESTION: 38

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has approved the appointment of [X] as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). [X] is currently Executive Director overseeing four departments -- Internal Debt Management Department, Secretary’s Department, Financial Markets Operation Department and International Department. The RBI currently has three Deputy Governors -- BP Kanungo, MK Jain and MD Patra.

The fourth Deputy Governor’s position has been vacant since NS Vishwanathan quit his position in March 2020, ahead of the completion of his term on July 3, 2020. RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das explained that India's recovery is likely to be a three-speed recovery, with individual sectors showing varying paces depending on sector-specific realities.

Several indicators point to the revival of economic activity. Das, Governor of the Reserve Bank of India said, The rural economy looks resilient, kharif sowing has already surpassed last year's acreage and food grain is set to touch a record high.

How many departments are there in the RBI that the four Deputy Governors take care of?

Solution: RBI is the central bank of India and regulates the supply of money in the country. To regulate this supply and various other policies, RBI has dedicated various departments. Thus, these departments are responsible for the work that goes around in the RBI. Thus, these departments help in organizing and smoothening of the functions in the RBI. In total, there are 23 departments in the RBI.
QUESTION: 39

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has approved the appointment of [X] as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). [X] is currently Executive Director overseeing four departments -- Internal Debt Management Department, Secretary’s Department, Financial Markets Operation Department and International Department. The RBI currently has three Deputy Governors -- BP Kanungo, MK Jain and MD Patra.

The fourth Deputy Governor’s position has been vacant since NS Vishwanathan quit his position in March 2020, ahead of the completion of his term on July 3, 2020. RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das explained that India's recovery is likely to be a three-speed recovery, with individual sectors showing varying paces depending on sector-specific realities.

Several indicators point to the revival of economic activity. Das, Governor of the Reserve Bank of India said, The rural economy looks resilient, kharif sowing has already surpassed last year's acreage and food grain is set to touch a record high.

Which of the following people have not been the Governor of RBI?

Solution: Gita Gopinath (born 8 December 1971) is an Indian American economist who has been the Chief Economist of the International Monetary Fund since 2019. In that role she is the Director of IMF's Research Department and the Economic Counsellor of the Fund. Manmohan Singh was the Director of the RBI from 1982-1985, Y. Venugopal Reddy was the Director from 2003-2008 and Raghuram Rajan was the Director from 2013-2016.
QUESTION: 40

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has approved the appointment of [X] as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). [X] is currently Executive Director overseeing four departments -- Internal Debt Management Department, Secretary’s Department, Financial Markets Operation Department and International Department. The RBI currently has three Deputy Governors -- BP Kanungo, MK Jain and MD Patra.

The fourth Deputy Governor’s position has been vacant since NS Vishwanathan quit his position in March 2020, ahead of the completion of his term on July 3, 2020. RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das explained that India's recovery is likely to be a three-speed recovery, with individual sectors showing varying paces depending on sector-specific realities.

Several indicators point to the revival of economic activity. Das, Governor of the Reserve Bank of India said, The rural economy looks resilient, kharif sowing has already surpassed last year's acreage and food grain is set to touch a record high.

Which of the following is true about RBI?

Solution: The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised with effect from 1st January, 1949 on the basis of the Reserve Bank of India (Transfer to Public Ownership) Act, 1948. All shares in the capital of the Bank were deemed transferred to the Central Government on payment of a suitable compensation.
QUESTION: 41

India's eight beaches got International Blue Flag Certification. Eight beaches in India have been awarded the coveted ‘Blue Flag’ certification by an eminent international jury, which comprises members of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Union Minister of Environment, Forests and Climate Change Prakash Javadekar on Sunday (October 11) said: “It is an outstanding feat considering that no ‘Blue Flag’ nation has ever been awarded for 8 beaches in a single attempt…this is also a global recognition of India’s conservation and sustainable development efforts”. The ‘Blue Flag’ is a certification that can be obtained by a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator, and serves as an eco-label. The certification is awarded by the [X]-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education, which sets stringent environmental, educational, safety-related and access-related criteria that applicants must meet and maintain. It is awarded annually to beaches and marinas in FEE member countries.

Which of the following is not one of the beaches that has received the "Blue Flag" tag?

Solution: Dwarka beach did not receive the blue flag tag.
QUESTION: 42

India's eight beaches got International Blue Flag Certification. Eight beaches in India have been awarded the coveted ‘Blue Flag’ certification by an eminent international jury, which comprises members of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Union Minister of Environment, Forests and Climate Change Prakash Javadekar on Sunday (October 11) said: “It is an outstanding feat considering that no ‘Blue Flag’ nation has ever been awarded for 8 beaches in a single attempt…this is also a global recognition of India’s conservation and sustainable development efforts”. The ‘Blue Flag’ is a certification that can be obtained by a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator, and serves as an eco-label. The certification is awarded by the [X]-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education, which sets stringent environmental, educational, safety-related and access-related criteria that applicants must meet and maintain. It is awarded annually to beaches and marinas in FEE member countries.

India has joined how many other countries with Blue Flag certifications?

Solution: India has joined 50 other countries with Blue Flag certifications
QUESTION: 43

India's eight beaches got International Blue Flag Certification. Eight beaches in India have been awarded the coveted ‘Blue Flag’ certification by an eminent international jury, which comprises members of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Union Minister of Environment, Forests and Climate Change Prakash Javadekar on Sunday (October 11) said: “It is an outstanding feat considering that no ‘Blue Flag’ nation has ever been awarded for 8 beaches in a single attempt…this is also a global recognition of India’s conservation and sustainable development efforts”. The ‘Blue Flag’ is a certification that can be obtained by a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator, and serves as an eco-label. The certification is awarded by the [X]-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education, which sets stringent environmental, educational, safety-related and access-related criteria that applicants must meet and maintain. It is awarded annually to beaches and marinas in FEE member countries.

The Blue Flag certification is awarded by the [X]-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education. Fill in the blank [X].

Solution: The certification is awarded by the non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education, which is based in Denmark. FEE is world's largest environmental education organisation. In order to qualify for this prestigious label, the beaches have to meet a series of stringent environmental, education and safety-related criteria.
QUESTION: 44

India's eight beaches got International Blue Flag Certification. Eight beaches in India have been awarded the coveted ‘Blue Flag’ certification by an eminent international jury, which comprises members of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Union Minister of Environment, Forests and Climate Change Prakash Javadekar on Sunday (October 11) said: “It is an outstanding feat considering that no ‘Blue Flag’ nation has ever been awarded for 8 beaches in a single attempt…this is also a global recognition of India’s conservation and sustainable development efforts”. The ‘Blue Flag’ is a certification that can be obtained by a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator, and serves as an eco-label. The certification is awarded by the [X]-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education, which sets stringent environmental, educational, safety-related and access-related criteria that applicants must meet and maintain. It is awarded annually to beaches and marinas in FEE member countries.

On the occasion of International Coastal Clean-Up Day, Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change announced that the eight beaches had been recommended for the "BLUE FLAG" certification. When is the International Coastal Clean Up Day?

Solution: The International Coastal Clean Up Day is on September 19th.
QUESTION: 45

India's eight beaches got International Blue Flag Certification. Eight beaches in India have been awarded the coveted ‘Blue Flag’ certification by an eminent international jury, which comprises members of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Union Minister of Environment, Forests and Climate Change Prakash Javadekar on Sunday (October 11) said: “It is an outstanding feat considering that no ‘Blue Flag’ nation has ever been awarded for 8 beaches in a single attempt…this is also a global recognition of India’s conservation and sustainable development efforts”. The ‘Blue Flag’ is a certification that can be obtained by a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator, and serves as an eco-label. The certification is awarded by the [X]-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education, which sets stringent environmental, educational, safety-related and access-related criteria that applicants must meet and maintain. It is awarded annually to beaches and marinas in FEE member countries.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the "Blue Flag" certification for beaches that was started by the government?

Solution: “Blue Flag" certification was launched for the purpose of beach cleanups and development, it was not launched for river cleanups or for the development, neither was it launched for the development of other waterbodies.
QUESTION: 46

India's eight beaches got International Blue Flag Certification. Eight beaches in India have been awarded the coveted ‘Blue Flag’ certification by an eminent international jury, which comprises members of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Union Minister of Environment, Forests and Climate Change Prakash Javadekar on Sunday (October 11) said: “It is an outstanding feat considering that no ‘Blue Flag’ nation has ever been awarded for 8 beaches in a single attempt…this is also a global recognition of India’s conservation and sustainable development efforts”. The ‘Blue Flag’ is a certification that can be obtained by a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator, and serves as an eco-label. The certification is awarded by the [X]-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education, which sets stringent environmental, educational, safety-related and access-related criteria that applicants must meet and maintain. It is awarded annually to beaches and marinas in FEE member countries.

India has bagged the ___ prize under the "International Best Practices" for pollution control in coastal regions.

Solution: India has bagged the 3rd prize in the "International Best Practices" for pollution control in coastal regions.
QUESTION: 47

[X] state government is ready to set up India's 1st Mega Leather Park in [Y]. The project is expected to bring in investments to the tune of Rs 5,850 crore and will provide employment to about 50,000 people. The proposal, which was pending with the Union commerce ministry, was recently given a green signal.

According to a government spokesperson, 235 acre land has been acquired for the project which will generate 50,000 direct and 1.5 lakh indirect employment. More than 150 tanneries are expected to be set up in the park where products like shoes, purses and jackets will be manufactured and exported.

The leather park is expected to bring in investment of about Rs 6,000 crore while the entire mega leather cluster project will attract investments of about Rs [Y] crore. The park will provide facilities like manufacturing, exhibition areas, hotels and canteens.

Which state government [X] will set up this Mega Leather Park?

Solution: UP government will set up India's 1st ever Mega Leather Park.
QUESTION: 48

[X] state government is ready to set up India's 1st Mega Leather Park in [Y]. The project is expected to bring in investments to the tune of Rs 5,850 crore and will provide employment to about 50,000 people. The proposal, which was pending with the Union commerce ministry, was recently given a green signal.

According to a government spokesperson, 235 acre land has been acquired for the project which will generate 50,000 direct and 1.5 lakh indirect employment. More than 150 tanneries are expected to be set up in the park where products like shoes, purses and jackets will be manufactured and exported.

The leather park is expected to bring in investment of about Rs 6,000 crore while the entire mega leather cluster project will attract investments of about Rs [Y] crore. The park will provide facilities like manufacturing, exhibition areas, hotels and canteens.

Which is the largest leather producer of India?

Solution: Tamil Nadu is the largest leather producer in India, contributing to 40% of the leather production in India.
QUESTION: 49

[X] state government is ready to set up India's 1st Mega Leather Park in [Y]. The project is expected to bring in investments to the tune of Rs 5,850 crore and will provide employment to about 50,000 people. The proposal, which was pending with the Union commerce ministry, was recently given a green signal.

According to a government spokesperson, 235 acre land has been acquired for the project which will generate 50,000 direct and 1.5 lakh indirect employment. More than 150 tanneries are expected to be set up in the park where products like shoes, purses and jackets will be manufactured and exported.

The leather park is expected to bring in investment of about Rs 6,000 crore while the entire mega leather cluster project will attract investments of about Rs [Y] crore. The park will provide facilities like manufacturing, exhibition areas, hotels and canteens.

Fill in the name of the place [Y] where the said park is to be set up.

Solution: Kanpur is the city in which the Mega Leather Park is to be established.
QUESTION: 50

[X] state government is ready to set up India's 1st Mega Leather Park in [Y]. The project is expected to bring in investments to the tune of Rs 5,850 crore and will provide employment to about 50,000 people. The proposal, which was pending with the Union commerce ministry, was recently given a green signal.

According to a government spokesperson, 235 acre land has been acquired for the project which will generate 50,000 direct and 1.5 lakh indirect employment. More than 150 tanneries are expected to be set up in the park where products like shoes, purses and jackets will be manufactured and exported.

The leather park is expected to bring in investment of about Rs 6,000 crore while the entire mega leather cluster project will attract investments of about Rs [Y] crore. The park will provide facilities like manufacturing, exhibition areas, hotels and canteens.

In recent news on the similar lines, India's 1st Lichen Park was set up in which state?

Solution: India's 1st ever Lichen Park was set up in Munsyari, Utterakhand
QUESTION: 51

[X] state government is ready to set up India's 1st Mega Leather Park in [Y]. The project is expected to bring in investments to the tune of Rs 5,850 crore and will provide employment to about 50,000 people. The proposal, which was pending with the Union commerce ministry, was recently given a green signal.

According to a government spokesperson, 235 acre land has been acquired for the project which will generate 50,000 direct and 1.5 lakh indirect employment. More than 150 tanneries are expected to be set up in the park where products like shoes, purses and jackets will be manufactured and exported.

The leather park is expected to bring in investment of about Rs 6,000 crore while the entire mega leather cluster project will attract investments of about Rs [Y] crore. The park will provide facilities like manufacturing, exhibition areas, hotels and canteens.

It is said that this project will attract Rs [Y] crores. Fill in the blank

Solution: This project will attract nearly Rs 13000 crores.
QUESTION: 52

The Union finance ministry on Saturday celebrated the customary [X], which is performed every year before the ‘lock-in’ process of Budget preparation at North Block.

The ceremony, marking the final stage of the Budget-making process for 2021-22, was held on Saturday afternoon in the presence of Union finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman, an official statement said.

Every year, after the [X], officials involved in the budget-making process are moved to the basement of the North Block and get locked-in for about 10 days till the time the budget is presented in the parliament to ensure absolute confidentiality. In an unprecedented initiative, the Budget 2021-22 will be delivered in paperless form for the first time on February 1, 2021, it added.

Sitharaman on Saturday also launched the ‘[Y]’ for hassle-free access of Budget documents by Members of Parliament (MPs) and the general public using the simplest form of digital convenience, the statement said.

Which of these ceremony performed every year before the ‘lock-in’ process of Budget preparation?

Solution: The Halwa is served by the Finance Minister. This ceremony is performed as a part of the Indian tradition of having something sweet before starting an important work
QUESTION: 53

The Union finance ministry on Saturday celebrated the customary [X], which is performed every year before the ‘lock-in’ process of Budget preparation at North Block.

The ceremony, marking the final stage of the Budget-making process for 2021-22, was held on Saturday afternoon in the presence of Union finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman, an official statement said.

Every year, after the [X], officials involved in the budget-making process are moved to the basement of the North Block and get locked-in for about 10 days till the time the budget is presented in the parliament to ensure absolute confidentiality. In an unprecedented initiative, the Budget 2021-22 will be delivered in paperless form for the first time on February 1, 2021, it added.

Sitharaman on Saturday also launched the ‘[Y]’ for hassle-free access of Budget documents by Members of Parliament (MPs) and the general public using the simplest form of digital convenience, the statement said.

Which of the following App was launched by finance minister Nirmala Sitaraman as mentioned in [Y]?

Solution: Sitharaman also launched the ‘Union Budget Mobile App’ for hassle-free access of Budget documents by Members of Parliament (MPs) and the general public using the simplest form of digital convenience, the statement said.
QUESTION: 54

The Union finance ministry on Saturday celebrated the customary [X], which is performed every year before the ‘lock-in’ process of Budget preparation at North Block.

The ceremony, marking the final stage of the Budget-making process for 2021-22, was held on Saturday afternoon in the presence of Union finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman, an official statement said.

Every year, after the [X], officials involved in the budget-making process are moved to the basement of the North Block and get locked-in for about 10 days till the time the budget is presented in the parliament to ensure absolute confidentiality. In an unprecedented initiative, the Budget 2021-22 will be delivered in paperless form for the first time on February 1, 2021, it added.

Sitharaman on Saturday also launched the ‘[Y]’ for hassle-free access of Budget documents by Members of Parliament (MPs) and the general public using the simplest form of digital convenience, the statement said.

Which year’s Union Budget is known as “Black Budget” of India?

Solution: Union Budget 1973-74 is known as “Black Budget” of India as budget deficit rose to Rs 550 crore.
QUESTION: 55

The Union finance ministry on Saturday celebrated the customary [X], which is performed every year before the ‘lock-in’ process of Budget preparation at North Block.

The ceremony, marking the final stage of the Budget-making process for 2021-22, was held on Saturday afternoon in the presence of Union finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman, an official statement said.

Every year, after the [X], officials involved in the budget-making process are moved to the basement of the North Block and get locked-in for about 10 days till the time the budget is presented in the parliament to ensure absolute confidentiality. In an unprecedented initiative, the Budget 2021-22 will be delivered in paperless form for the first time on February 1, 2021, it added.

Sitharaman on Saturday also launched the ‘[Y]’ for hassle-free access of Budget documents by Members of Parliament (MPs) and the general public using the simplest form of digital convenience, the statement said.

On which date, the Union budget of India comes into effect?

Solution: The budget, which is presented by means of the Finance bill and the Appropriation bill has to be passed by Lok Sabha before it can come into effect on 1 April, the start of India’s financial year.
QUESTION: 56

The Union finance ministry on Saturday celebrated the customary [X], which is performed every year before the ‘lock-in’ process of Budget preparation at North Block.

The ceremony, marking the final stage of the Budget-making process for 2021-22, was held on Saturday afternoon in the presence of Union finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman, an official statement said.

Every year, after the [X], officials involved in the budget-making process are moved to the basement of the North Block and get locked-in for about 10 days till the time the budget is presented in the parliament to ensure absolute confidentiality. In an unprecedented initiative, the Budget 2021-22 will be delivered in paperless form for the first time on February 1, 2021, it added.

Sitharaman on Saturday also launched the ‘[Y]’ for hassle-free access of Budget documents by Members of Parliament (MPs) and the general public using the simplest form of digital convenience, the statement said.

Which of the following finance minister of India, has presented the maximum number of budgets so far?

Solution: In 1959, Morarji Desai, who became the finance minister of India, has presented the maximum number of budgets so far i.e. 10. He presented two budgets on his birthday – 1964 and 1968 as he was born on February 29.
QUESTION: 57

[X] state government has secured the first rank in central government's one of the most ambitious schemes - the PM Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme (SVANidhi Scheme) by approving the highest number of loans under the scheme in the country. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will distribute loans to around 3 lakh beneficiaries and will interact with a few of them via video conferencing.

State has ranked first in all the categories - Applications, Sanctions and Disbursements of the loans under the scheme. As many as 6,22,167 applications were received under the scheme in the state which is highest in the country, out of which sanctions were given to 3,46,150 applicants while the loans were disbursed to 2,26,728 beneficiaries. The scheme was launched on June 1, 2020, by the Central Government.

What is state [X] mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Uttar Pradesh government has secured the first rank in central government's one of the most ambitious schemes - the PM Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme (SVANidhi Scheme) by approving the highest number of loans under the scheme in the country. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will distribute loans to around 3 lakh beneficiaries and will interact with a few of them tomorrow via video conferencing. Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath will also be present on the occasion.
QUESTION: 58

[X] state government has secured the first rank in central government's one of the most ambitious schemes - the PM Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme (SVANidhi Scheme) by approving the highest number of loans under the scheme in the country. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will distribute loans to around 3 lakh beneficiaries and will interact with a few of them via video conferencing.

State has ranked first in all the categories - Applications, Sanctions and Disbursements of the loans under the scheme. As many as 6,22,167 applications were received under the scheme in the state which is highest in the country, out of which sanctions were given to 3,46,150 applicants while the loans were disbursed to 2,26,728 beneficiaries. The scheme was launched on June 1, 2020, by the Central Government.

PM-SVANidhi Scheme aims at benefitting which of the following category people?

Solution: The Uttar Pradesh Government has secured the first place by approving the highest number of loans under PM-SVANidhi Scheme in the country. It is one of the most ambitious schemes of Central Government which aims at benefitting street vendors in rural, urban, and pre-urban areas.

Prime Minister Modi will be distributing loans to around 3 lakh beneficiaries of the scheme and will also interact with a few of them on October 27, 2020. The Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, Yogi Adityanath will also mark his presence on the occasion.

QUESTION: 59

[X] state government has secured the first rank in central government's one of the most ambitious schemes - the PM Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme (SVANidhi Scheme) by approving the highest number of loans under the scheme in the country. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will distribute loans to around 3 lakh beneficiaries and will interact with a few of them via video conferencing.

State has ranked first in all the categories - Applications, Sanctions and Disbursements of the loans under the scheme. As many as 6,22,167 applications were received under the scheme in the state which is highest in the country, out of which sanctions were given to 3,46,150 applicants while the loans were disbursed to 2,26,728 beneficiaries. The scheme was launched on June 1, 2020, by the Central Government.

PM-SVAnidhi scheme aims at facilitating working capital loan up to Rs.____at a subsidised rate of interest

Solution: The scheme was launched on June 1, 2020, by the Central Government to help the street vendors resume their livelihood activities that were impacted by COVID-19.

It aims at facilitating working capital loan up to Rs. 10,000 at a subsidised rate of interest.

QUESTION: 60

[X] state government has secured the first rank in central government's one of the most ambitious schemes - the PM Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme (SVANidhi Scheme) by approving the highest number of loans under the scheme in the country. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will distribute loans to around 3 lakh beneficiaries and will interact with a few of them via video conferencing.

State has ranked first in all the categories - Applications, Sanctions and Disbursements of the loans under the scheme. As many as 6,22,167 applications were received under the scheme in the state which is highest in the country, out of which sanctions were given to 3,46,150 applicants while the loans were disbursed to 2,26,728 beneficiaries. The scheme was launched on June 1, 2020, by the Central Government.

On which of the following the Aatma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan package is focused?

Solution: The Aatma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan package focuses on land, labour, liquidity and laws, which will cater to various sections including cottage industry, MEMEs, labourers, middle class, and industries among others.
QUESTION: 61

[X] state government has secured the first rank in central government's one of the most ambitious schemes - the PM Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme (SVANidhi Scheme) by approving the highest number of loans under the scheme in the country. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will distribute loans to around 3 lakh beneficiaries and will interact with a few of them via video conferencing.

State has ranked first in all the categories - Applications, Sanctions and Disbursements of the loans under the scheme. As many as 6,22,167 applications were received under the scheme in the state which is highest in the country, out of which sanctions were given to 3,46,150 applicants while the loans were disbursed to 2,26,728 beneficiaries. The scheme was launched on June 1, 2020, by the Central Government.

What is the national average daily wage under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

Solution: Rs 202 per person per day

Officials said the increase in wages under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) will came into effect from April 1. With this rise in wages, the national average wage under MGNREGA will increase to Rs 202 per person per day from Rs 182.

QUESTION: 62

[X] state government has secured the first rank in central government's one of the most ambitious schemes - the PM Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme (SVANidhi Scheme) by approving the highest number of loans under the scheme in the country. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will distribute loans to around 3 lakh beneficiaries and will interact with a few of them via video conferencing.

State has ranked first in all the categories - Applications, Sanctions and Disbursements of the loans under the scheme. As many as 6,22,167 applications were received under the scheme in the state which is highest in the country, out of which sanctions were given to 3,46,150 applicants while the loans were disbursed to 2,26,728 beneficiaries. The scheme was launched on June 1, 2020, by the Central Government.

Under which scheme, an Insurance Scheme for health workers who are fighting to contain COVID-19 was announced?

Solution: The ''Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package Insurance Scheme for Health Workers Fighting COVID-19'', which was announced on March 30 this year for a period of 90 days, has been extended for a further period of 90 days.

The ''Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package Insurance Scheme for Health Workers Fighting COVID-19'' was announced on 30 March 2020 for a period of 90 days. This was extended for a further period of 90 days i.e. up to 25th September 2020. The scheme has now been extended for another 180 days i.e. 6 months,"" according to a government release.

The scheme provides an insurance cover of ₹ 50 lakhs to healthcare providers, including community health workers, who may have to be in direct contact and care of COVID-19 patients and therefore at risk of being infected. It also includes accidental loss of life on account of contracting COVID-19.

QUESTION: 63

An Indian cricket team saddled with broken bones and battered bodies showed a never-seen-before zeal to retain the coveted Border-Gavaskar trophy with a historic three-wicket win over Australia in the fourth and final Test here, successfully chasing a 328-run target to seal the four-match series 2-1.

A minefield of talent called Rishabh Pant (89 not out off 138 balls) channelled his inner 'Mad Max' to scare the daylights out of the Australians with his breathtaking strokeplay, ending the home team's [...]-year-old unbeaten run at the 'Fortress Gabba'.

The result has the potential to end Tim Paine's reign as Australia captain having lost back-to-back home series against India. The highlights package of Pant's battle with Nathan Lyon can be enjoyed repeatedly in times to come as he demolished the 100-Test man in company of debutant Washington Sundar (22), who hooked the world's best fast bowler, Pat Cummins, for a six.

Who won Man of the Series in Border Gavaskar trophy 2021?

Solution: Pat Cummins was named the Man of the Series in the Border-Gavaskar Trophy after picking up 21 wickets over the course of the four-match series.
QUESTION: 64

An Indian cricket team saddled with broken bones and battered bodies showed a never-seen-before zeal to retain the coveted Border-Gavaskar trophy with a historic three-wicket win over Australia in the fourth and final Test here, successfully chasing a 328-run target to seal the four-match series 2-1.

A minefield of talent called Rishabh Pant (89 not out off 138 balls) channelled his inner 'Mad Max' to scare the daylights out of the Australians with his breathtaking strokeplay, ending the home team's [...]-year-old unbeaten run at the 'Fortress Gabba'.

The result has the potential to end Tim Paine's reign as Australia captain having lost back-to-back home series against India. The highlights package of Pant's battle with Nathan Lyon can be enjoyed repeatedly in times to come as he demolished the 100-Test man in company of debutant Washington Sundar (22), who hooked the world's best fast bowler, Pat Cummins, for a six.

Which of the following Indian cricketer got five-wicket haul in his debut test series?

Solution: AUS Vs IND, 4th Test: Mohammed Siraj Takes Maiden 5-wicket Haul
QUESTION: 65

An Indian cricket team saddled with broken bones and battered bodies showed a never-seen-before zeal to retain the coveted Border-Gavaskar trophy with a historic three-wicket win over Australia in the fourth and final Test here, successfully chasing a 328-run target to seal the four-match series 2-1.

A minefield of talent called Rishabh Pant (89 not out off 138 balls) channelled his inner 'Mad Max' to scare the daylights out of the Australians with his breathtaking strokeplay, ending the home team's [...]-year-old unbeaten run at the 'Fortress Gabba'.

The result has the potential to end Tim Paine's reign as Australia captain having lost back-to-back home series against India. The highlights package of Pant's battle with Nathan Lyon can be enjoyed repeatedly in times to come as he demolished the 100-Test man in company of debutant Washington Sundar (22), who hooked the world's best fast bowler, Pat Cummins, for a six.

India clinched the Border-Gavaskar Trophy 2020-21 series and bring an end to Australia's _____ year-long unbeaten streak at The Gabba?

Solution: Ajinkya Rahane-led India defeated Australia by three wickets in the final fourth Test of the Border-Gavaskar Trophy 2020-21 to clinch the series and bring an end to Australia's 32-year-long unbeaten streak at The Gabba.
QUESTION: 66

An Indian cricket team saddled with broken bones and battered bodies showed a never-seen-before zeal to retain the coveted Border-Gavaskar trophy with a historic three-wicket win over Australia in the fourth and final Test here, successfully chasing a 328-run target to seal the four-match series 2-1.

A minefield of talent called Rishabh Pant (89 not out off 138 balls) channelled his inner 'Mad Max' to scare the daylights out of the Australians with his breathtaking strokeplay, ending the home team's [...]-year-old unbeaten run at the 'Fortress Gabba'.

The result has the potential to end Tim Paine's reign as Australia captain having lost back-to-back home series against India. The highlights package of Pant's battle with Nathan Lyon can be enjoyed repeatedly in times to come as he demolished the 100-Test man in company of debutant Washington Sundar (22), who hooked the world's best fast bowler, Pat Cummins, for a six.

What is DRS in cricket?

Solution: The Umpire Decision Review System (UDRS or DRS) is a technology-based system used in cricket to assist the match officials with their decision-making.
QUESTION: 67

An Indian cricket team saddled with broken bones and battered bodies showed a never-seen-before zeal to retain the coveted Border-Gavaskar trophy with a historic three-wicket win over Australia in the fourth and final Test here, successfully chasing a 328-run target to seal the four-match series 2-1.

A minefield of talent called Rishabh Pant (89 not out off 138 balls) channelled his inner 'Mad Max' to scare the daylights out of the Australians with his breathtaking strokeplay, ending the home team's [...]-year-old unbeaten run at the 'Fortress Gabba'.

The result has the potential to end Tim Paine's reign as Australia captain having lost back-to-back home series against India. The highlights package of Pant's battle with Nathan Lyon can be enjoyed repeatedly in times to come as he demolished the 100-Test man in company of debutant Washington Sundar (22), who hooked the world's best fast bowler, Pat Cummins, for a six.

Who became the 1st ever recipient of Mullagh Medal?

Solution: Ajinkya Rahane was awarded with the 1st ever Mullagh Medal after he won the Man of the Man at the Boxing Day Test in Melbourne Cricket Ground.
QUESTION: 68

Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to everyone. Similarly, Article 16(1) and 16(2) assure citizens equality of opportunity in employment or appointment to any government office. Article 15(1) generally prohibits any discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth. Articles 15(4) and 16(4) state that these equality provisions do not prevent the government from making special provisions in matters of admission to educational institutions or jobs in favour of backward classes, particularly the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs). Article 16(4A) allows reservations to SCs and STs in promotions, as long as the government believes that they are not adequately represented in government services.

A five-judge apex court bench, as early as 1962 in the M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore had ruled that Article 15(4) is an “enabling provision”, meaning that “it does not impose an obligation, but merely leaves it to the discretion of the appropriate government to take suitable action, if necessary”.

Five years later, in 1967, another five-judge bench in C.A. Rajendran v. Union of India reiterated this position, holding that the government is under no constitutional duty to provide reservations for SCs and STs, either at the initial stage of recruitment or at the stage of promotion. The apex court has now re-iterated that Articles 16(4) and 16(4A) do not confer any fundamental rights to claim reservations in promotion. It is for the state government to decide whether reservations are required for appointment and promotions to public posts, it said.

“It is settled law that the State Government cannot be directed to provide reservations for appointment in public posts. Similarly, the State is not bound to make reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in matters of promotions,” it observed. However, if the state government does want to exercise this discretion and provide reservations, it would have to first collect quantifiable data showing inadequacy of representation of that class in public services.

It further ruled that since Article 16(4) and 16 (4A) do not provide a fundamental right, courts cannot issue a direction to the state government to provide reservations. It clarified that since the state government had decided not to provide reservations, it did not have to collect quantifiable data at all.

The recent SC ruling can be summarized as

Solution: Both (a) & (b) are correct as the SC held that reservation in promotion is not a fundamental right and also the state has no responsibility to collect quantifiable data to ascertain the need of it either.
QUESTION: 69

Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to everyone. Similarly, Article 16(1) and 16(2) assure citizens equality of opportunity in employment or appointment to any government office. Article 15(1) generally prohibits any discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth. Articles 15(4) and 16(4) state that these equality provisions do not prevent the government from making special provisions in matters of admission to educational institutions or jobs in favour of backward classes, particularly the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs). Article 16(4A) allows reservations to SCs and STs in promotions, as long as the government believes that they are not adequately represented in government services.

A five-judge apex court bench, as early as 1962 in the M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore had ruled that Article 15(4) is an “enabling provision”, meaning that “it does not impose an obligation, but merely leaves it to the discretion of the appropriate government to take suitable action, if necessary”.

Five years later, in 1967, another five-judge bench in C.A. Rajendran v. Union of India reiterated this position, holding that the government is under no constitutional duty to provide reservations for SCs and STs, either at the initial stage of recruitment or at the stage of promotion. The apex court has now re-iterated that Articles 16(4) and 16(4A) do not confer any fundamental rights to claim reservations in promotion. It is for the state government to decide whether reservations are required for appointment and promotions to public posts, it said.

“It is settled law that the State Government cannot be directed to provide reservations for appointment in public posts. Similarly, the State is not bound to make reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in matters of promotions,” it observed. However, if the state government does want to exercise this discretion and provide reservations, it would have to first collect quantifiable data showing inadequacy of representation of that class in public services.

It further ruled that since Article 16(4) and 16 (4A) do not provide a fundamental right, courts cannot issue a direction to the state government to provide reservations. It clarified that since the state government had decided not to provide reservations, it did not have to collect quantifiable data at all.

For Constitutional Jurisprudence, what can be concluded from the above?

Solution: The SC is the final adjudicating body of the country as per the constitution and therefore can deliberate upon the matters relating to Fundamental Rights. Additionally the State cannot make laws that violate fundamental rights of the individuals. Thus both (a) & (b) are correct.
QUESTION: 70

Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to everyone. Similarly, Article 16(1) and 16(2) assure citizens equality of opportunity in employment or appointment to any government office. Article 15(1) generally prohibits any discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth. Articles 15(4) and 16(4) state that these equality provisions do not prevent the government from making special provisions in matters of admission to educational institutions or jobs in favour of backward classes, particularly the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs). Article 16(4A) allows reservations to SCs and STs in promotions, as long as the government believes that they are not adequately represented in government services.

A five-judge apex court bench, as early as 1962 in the M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore had ruled that Article 15(4) is an “enabling provision”, meaning that “it does not impose an obligation, but merely leaves it to the discretion of the appropriate government to take suitable action, if necessary”.

Five years later, in 1967, another five-judge bench in C.A. Rajendran v. Union of India reiterated this position, holding that the government is under no constitutional duty to provide reservations for SCs and STs, either at the initial stage of recruitment or at the stage of promotion. The apex court has now re-iterated that Articles 16(4) and 16(4A) do not confer any fundamental rights to claim reservations in promotion. It is for the state government to decide whether reservations are required for appointment and promotions to public posts, it said.

“It is settled law that the State Government cannot be directed to provide reservations for appointment in public posts. Similarly, the State is not bound to make reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in matters of promotions,” it observed. However, if the state government does want to exercise this discretion and provide reservations, it would have to first collect quantifiable data showing inadequacy of representation of that class in public services.

It further ruled that since Article 16(4) and 16 (4A) do not provide a fundamental right, courts cannot issue a direction to the state government to provide reservations. It clarified that since the state government had decided not to provide reservations, it did not have to collect quantifiable data at all.

The Central Govt. wants to provide reservation in promotion to SC and ST across the country as a Fundamental Right. Advice.

Solution: As interpreted by the SC, the law for reservation in promotion is not a fundamental right. To make a provision for the same the government has to amend the constitution to provide for the same. Option (b) is not correct as reservations are already an exception to Article 14 which has been provided for under article 16 already. Option (c) is more specific as it deals with reservations under which reservation in promotion is already an enabling provision.
QUESTION: 71

Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to everyone. Similarly, Article 16(1) and 16(2) assure citizens equality of opportunity in employment or appointment to any government office. Article 15(1) generally prohibits any discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth. Articles 15(4) and 16(4) state that these equality provisions do not prevent the government from making special provisions in matters of admission to educational institutions or jobs in favour of backward classes, particularly the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs). Article 16(4A) allows reservations to SCs and STs in promotions, as long as the government believes that they are not adequately represented in government services.

A five-judge apex court bench, as early as 1962 in the M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore had ruled that Article 15(4) is an “enabling provision”, meaning that “it does not impose an obligation, but merely leaves it to the discretion of the appropriate government to take suitable action, if necessary”.

Five years later, in 1967, another five-judge bench in C.A. Rajendran v. Union of India reiterated this position, holding that the government is under no constitutional duty to provide reservations for SCs and STs, either at the initial stage of recruitment or at the stage of promotion. The apex court has now re-iterated that Articles 16(4) and 16(4A) do not confer any fundamental rights to claim reservations in promotion. It is for the state government to decide whether reservations are required for appointment and promotions to public posts, it said.

“It is settled law that the State Government cannot be directed to provide reservations for appointment in public posts. Similarly, the State is not bound to make reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in matters of promotions,” it observed. However, if the state government does want to exercise this discretion and provide reservations, it would have to first collect quantifiable data showing inadequacy of representation of that class in public services.

It further ruled that since Article 16(4) and 16 (4A) do not provide a fundamental right, courts cannot issue a direction to the state government to provide reservations. It clarified that since the state government had decided not to provide reservations, it did not have to collect quantifiable data at all.

The Central Govt. wants to provide reservation in promotion to SC and ST across the country as a Fundamental Right. Advice.

The Amy Group Pvt. Ltd. is the biggest company of India. It is mainly represented by Gujarati upper caste Hindus. A petition is filed before the SC to direct the Amy group to ensure reservation in promotion to the vulnerable sections of society. Decide.

Solution: The petition will be rejected as Fundamental Rights are only available against the State. Amy group is a Private Limited company and fundamental rights cannot be guaranteed against private individuals or companies.
QUESTION: 72

Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws to everyone. Similarly, Article 16(1) and 16(2) assure citizens equality of opportunity in employment or appointment to any government office. Article 15(1) generally prohibits any discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth. Articles 15(4) and 16(4) state that these equality provisions do not prevent the government from making special provisions in matters of admission to educational institutions or jobs in favour of backward classes, particularly the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs). Article 16(4A) allows reservations to SCs and STs in promotions, as long as the government believes that they are not adequately represented in government services.

A five-judge apex court bench, as early as 1962 in the M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore had ruled that Article 15(4) is an “enabling provision”, meaning that “it does not impose an obligation, but merely leaves it to the discretion of the appropriate government to take suitable action, if necessary”.

Five years later, in 1967, another five-judge bench in C.A. Rajendran v. Union of India reiterated this position, holding that the government is under no constitutional duty to provide reservations for SCs and STs, either at the initial stage of recruitment or at the stage of promotion. The apex court has now re-iterated that Articles 16(4) and 16(4A) do not confer any fundamental rights to claim reservations in promotion. It is for the state government to decide whether reservations are required for appointment and promotions to public posts, it said.

“It is settled law that the State Government cannot be directed to provide reservations for appointment in public posts. Similarly, the State is not bound to make reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in matters of promotions,” it observed. However, if the state government does want to exercise this discretion and provide reservations, it would have to first collect quantifiable data showing inadequacy of representation of that class in public services.

It further ruled that since Article 16(4) and 16 (4A) do not provide a fundamental right, courts cannot issue a direction to the state government to provide reservations. It clarified that since the state government had decided not to provide reservations, it did not have to collect quantifiable data at all.

State A wants to provide reservations to SC and ST in promotion. Counsel them based on the SC ruling

Solution: As reservation in promotion is an enabling fundamental right, prior to enabling the same, a state has to collect and provide quantifiable data to establish the need for the same. Option (a) is opposite of what the passage is trying to say. Option (c) and option (d) are out of scope.
QUESTION: 73

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble. The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy.""

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

Based on the author's argument, which is the most plausible inference author is most likely to agree with?

Solution: Correct Answer is (b). The author, in the fourth paragraph mentions that the Preamble, Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles are the soul of the constitution. Only option b aligns with the author's reasoning that these form the basic structure of the constitution. None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above.
QUESTION: 74

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble. The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy.""

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

The state government decided not to charge any amount from lady passengers travelling on state run busses. The move was taken with a view to ensure protection and safety for lady commuters. Inevitably, this caused a great rush in busses during peak office hours. Arvind, a daily commuter filed a petition before the High Court stating that the government's decision is violative of fundamental rights as it is discriminatory. Based on the passage, choose the most appropriate option.

Solution: The correct answer is (b). Right to equality cannot be strictly enforced to deprive the State of its authority to ensure protection and safety for lady commuters. None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. Choice (a), Choice (c) & (d) are inconsistent with the idea of the passage.
QUESTION: 75

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble. The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy.""

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

It is fundamental right of every citizen not to be discriminated on the ground of religion, race, sex, place of birth or any of them. However, nothing in the fundamental rights shall prevent the state from making any special provision for women, children or elderly. State of XYZ enacted a law granting reservation of 50% in National Law School XYZ - to the native students scoring more than 75% percent in XII Examination. Based on the essence of the passage, decide whether the move of reservation is constitutional or not:

Solution: The correct answer is (c). Second condition of the reservation is valid. None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the author in the passage above. The first condition that it is applicable for native students cause discrimination on basis of place of birth and hence unconstitutional.
QUESTION: 76

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble. The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy.""

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

Directive Principles of State Policy is non-justiciable and shall not be enforceable by any court of law. Shreeyam works as a peon in a government department of state and is paid a salary which is less than another peon employed in a different department of the same state though both have similar duties to discharge and both possess similar qualifications. Shreeyam has filed a writ petition claiming the same salary as the other peon under the principle of equal pay for equal work (which is a Directive Principle of State Policy) and his Fundamental Right to equality and equality of opportunity in matters relating to employment.

Solution: The correct answer is (c). Second condition of the reservation is valid. None of the other options sets out views that are consistent with those of the first condition that it is applicable for native students cause discrimination on basis of place of birth and hence unconstitutional.
QUESTION: 77

The Constitution which lays down the basic structure of a nation's polity is built on the foundations of certain fundamental values. The vision of socio-economic change through the Constitution is reflected in its lofty Preamble. The Preamble expresses the ideals and aspirations of a renascent India. By the year 1949, the Constituent Assembly had completed the drafting of the Fundamental Rights Chapter. Fundamental Rights are constitutional guarantees for the human rights of our people. These rights were one of the persistent demands of our leaders throughout the freedom struggle. The founding fathers were conscious of the fact that mere political democracy, i.e., getting the right to vote once in five years or so was meaningless unless it was accompanied by social and economic democracy. Dr. Ambedkar had said:

"We do not want merely to lay down a mechanism to enable people to come and capture power. The Constitution also wishes to lay down an ideal before those who would be forming the government. That ideal is of economic democracy.""

Our founding fathers, however, were far-sighted people therefore they consolidated the principles of good governance as Directive Principles contradistinguished from issues of rights, government and politics.

That is how the vision of our founding fathers and the aims and objectives which they wanted to achieve through the Constitution are contained in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles. These three may be described as the soul of the Constitution and the testament of the founding fathers to the succeeding generations together with the later Part on Fundamental Duties.

The Supreme Court held that access to the Internet is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Constitution. Abhishek has recently finished his MBA degree and after appearing for a few interviews, came back to his native town, Muzafarnagar in Uttar Pradesh. Due to the ongoing protests in the Muzaffarnagar, the government decided to take away internet access from the residents. Abhishek received a mail stating that he has been offered a job in one of the companies he interviewed for and he needs to send an email confirming his assent for the job within 48 hours. Due to lack of internet access in his region he was unable to send his confirmation and the job was offered to someone else. Abhishek wants to file a case against the government as his fundamental right of access to the internet was violated.

Solution: The correct answer is (a). The very fact that access to the Internet is a fundamental right under Article 19 makes it justiciable and hence can be enforced as a right by any court of law. Option (b) and (c) are inconsistent with the express language that DPSPs are unenforceable. Option (d) is totally contrary to the idea behind the Fundamental Rights.
QUESTION: 78

The Karnataka Prevention and Eradication of Inhuman Evil Practices and Black Magic Act (RPT Act) 2017, that intends to protect the common people against ""evil"" and ""sinister"" practices, shall come into force with effect from 4 January, 2020, the government notification issued earlier this month said.

The Act seeks to combat and eradicate other such inhuman practices propagated and performed in the name of ""black magic"" by conmen with the sinister motive of exploiting the common people, thereby destroying the social fabric in society. Considered similar to the one in Maharashtra, the Act has 'savings' and 'schedule' categories, which classify practices that could be tolerated and those that need to be controlled or prohibited. The notification said nothing in the Act shall apply with respect to the forms of worship mentioned under the heading 'savings'.

These include practices like 'pradakshina', yatras, 'parikramas' performed at religious places, among other normal practices. It also includes advice with regard to 'Vastu Shastra', advice by 'jyothishya' and other astrologers. Practices included under the 'schedule' for prohibition are — performing any inhuman, evil act and black magic in search of precious things, bounty and hidden treasures. Other practices listed under 16 points for prohibition are facilitating any person to roll over leaves of leftover food by other people in public or religious places or similar practices that violate human dignity; subjecting women to inhuman and humiliating practices like parading them naked in the name of worship or otherwise, such as ""betthale seve"".

Also, forcing any person to carry out evil practices such as the killing of an animal by biting its neck and coercing any person or persons to perform 'firewalk' at the time of 'jatras' (temple/village fest) and religious festivals have also been included, it added.

During the passage of the bill, certain amendments sought were made part of the bill, and the practice of 'mudradharane' by Madhwa Brahmins was exempted. As per this practice, 'mudras' (seals) usually made of gold or copper are heated on coal fire and stamped on the body. 'Vashikarana', practised in occult science as an act of subjugation or advertising about it in the name of treatment has been banned under the Act, following the suggestions made by the members during the debate in the Assembly. Superstitious practices, including black magic, are punishable under the Act for up to seven years and a maximum fine of Rs 50,000 can be imposed.

The act also aims to bring social awakening and awareness in society and create a healthy and safe social environment, and also calls for the appointment of vigilance officers to oversee the implementation of the law. Inhuman practices in the name of religion in the country are a cause of worry. In Maharashtra, there were several cases where people murdered or brutally injured others and held them responsible for some deaths in their families, merely on suspicion. So, a law to prevent exploitation in the name of religion is necessary.

X tells Y ‘Touch wood, I am not superstitious.’ And then he tells Z ‘Touch wood, I do not have diabetic genes.’ As per the passage which of the following is true concerning the given practice in question?

Solution: The passage clearly states that the act is intended against evil practices damaging basic rights and human dignity. Option (a) is incorrect as X’s superstition is not evil in nature. Both option (b) and option (c) are irrelevant.
QUESTION: 79

The Karnataka Prevention and Eradication of Inhuman Evil Practices and Black Magic Act (RPT Act) 2017, that intends to protect the common people against ""evil"" and ""sinister"" practices, shall come into force with effect from 4 January, 2020, the government notification issued earlier this month said.

The Act seeks to combat and eradicate other such inhuman practices propagated and performed in the name of ""black magic"" by conmen with the sinister motive of exploiting the common people, thereby destroying the social fabric in society. Considered similar to the one in Maharashtra, the Act has 'savings' and 'schedule' categories, which classify practices that could be tolerated and those that need to be controlled or prohibited. The notification said nothing in the Act shall apply with respect to the forms of worship mentioned under the heading 'savings'.

These include practices like 'pradakshina', yatras, 'parikramas' performed at religious places, among other normal practices. It also includes advice with regard to 'Vastu Shastra', advice by 'jyothishya' and other astrologers. Practices included under the 'schedule' for prohibition are — performing any inhuman, evil act and black magic in search of precious things, bounty and hidden treasures. Other practices listed under 16 points for prohibition are facilitating any person to roll over leaves of leftover food by other people in public or religious places or similar practices that violate human dignity; subjecting women to inhuman and humiliating practices like parading them naked in the name of worship or otherwise, such as ""betthale seve"".

Also, forcing any person to carry out evil practices such as the killing of an animal by biting its neck and coercing any person or persons to perform 'firewalk' at the time of 'jatras' (temple/village fest) and religious festivals have also been included, it added.

During the passage of the bill, certain amendments sought were made part of the bill, and the practice of 'mudradharane' by Madhwa Brahmins was exempted. As per this practice, 'mudras' (seals) usually made of gold or copper are heated on coal fire and stamped on the body. 'Vashikarana', practised in occult science as an act of subjugation or advertising about it in the name of treatment has been banned under the Act, following the suggestions made by the members during the debate in the Assembly. Superstitious practices, including black magic, are punishable under the Act for up to seven years and a maximum fine of Rs 50,000 can be imposed.

The act also aims to bring social awakening and awareness in society and create a healthy and safe social environment, and also calls for the appointment of vigilance officers to oversee the implementation of the law. Inhuman practices in the name of religion in the country are a cause of worry. In Maharashtra, there were several cases where people murdered or brutally injured others and held them responsible for some deaths in their families, merely on suspicion. So, a law to prevent exploitation in the name of religion is necessary.

There is practice of Sati, involving the climbing into the pyre in which the body of a woman’s husband was being cremated, so as to ‘ascend’ the heaven with the deceased husband’s soul. Women themselves believed that if they did not commit Sati they would be sinning. This practice as per the purpose of the law in the passage should be considered under the list.

Solution: As per the passage there is no list named Prohibited or classified. Rather the evil practices to be prohibited are named under the list of “schedule” and those permitted under the law are “savings”. Passage does not mention “Prohibited” and “Classified” and hence, option (c) and (d) are incorrect.
QUESTION: 80

The Karnataka Prevention and Eradication of Inhuman Evil Practices and Black Magic Act (RPT Act) 2017, that intends to protect the common people against ""evil"" and ""sinister"" practices, shall come into force with effect from 4 January, 2020, the government notification issued earlier this month said.

The Act seeks to combat and eradicate other such inhuman practices propagated and performed in the name of ""black magic"" by conmen with the sinister motive of exploiting the common people, thereby destroying the social fabric in society. Considered similar to the one in Maharashtra, the Act has 'savings' and 'schedule' categories, which classify practices that could be tolerated and those that need to be controlled or prohibited. The notification said nothing in the Act shall apply with respect to the forms of worship mentioned under the heading 'savings'.

These include practices like 'pradakshina', yatras, 'parikramas' performed at religious places, among other normal practices. It also includes advice with regard to 'Vastu Shastra', advice by 'jyothishya' and other astrologers. Practices included under the 'schedule' for prohibition are — performing any inhuman, evil act and black magic in search of precious things, bounty and hidden treasures. Other practices listed under 16 points for prohibition are facilitating any person to roll over leaves of leftover food by other people in public or religious places or similar practices that violate human dignity; subjecting women to inhuman and humiliating practices like parading them naked in the name of worship or otherwise, such as ""betthale seve"".

Also, forcing any person to carry out evil practices such as the killing of an animal by biting its neck and coercing any person or persons to perform 'firewalk' at the time of 'jatras' (temple/village fest) and religious festivals have also been included, it added.

During the passage of the bill, certain amendments sought were made part of the bill, and the practice of 'mudradharane' by Madhwa Brahmins was exempted. As per this practice, 'mudras' (seals) usually made of gold or copper are heated on coal fire and stamped on the body. 'Vashikarana', practised in occult science as an act of subjugation or advertising about it in the name of treatment has been banned under the Act, following the suggestions made by the members during the debate in the Assembly. Superstitious practices, including black magic, are punishable under the Act for up to seven years and a maximum fine of Rs 50,000 can be imposed.

The act also aims to bring social awakening and awareness in society and create a healthy and safe social environment, and also calls for the appointment of vigilance officers to oversee the implementation of the law. Inhuman practices in the name of religion in the country are a cause of worry. In Maharashtra, there were several cases where people murdered or brutally injured others and held them responsible for some deaths in their families, merely on suspicion. So, a law to prevent exploitation in the name of religion is necessary.

Which of the following is true as regards the practices categorised as “schedule”?

Solution: For option (a), the correct answer is “Savings”. Option (c) is incorrect as “Savings” and “Schedule” are two different categories. Option (b) is incorrect as activities which are evil in nature comes under the category of “Schedule”. Hence, the correct answer is option (d).
QUESTION: 81

The Karnataka Prevention and Eradication of Inhuman Evil Practices and Black Magic Act (RPT Act) 2017, that intends to protect the common people against ""evil"" and ""sinister"" practices, shall come into force with effect from 4 January, 2020, the government notification issued earlier this month said.

The Act seeks to combat and eradicate other such inhuman practices propagated and performed in the name of ""black magic"" by conmen with the sinister motive of exploiting the common people, thereby destroying the social fabric in society. Considered similar to the one in Maharashtra, the Act has 'savings' and 'schedule' categories, which classify practices that could be tolerated and those that need to be controlled or prohibited. The notification said nothing in the Act shall apply with respect to the forms of worship mentioned under the heading 'savings'.

These include practices like 'pradakshina', yatras, 'parikramas' performed at religious places, among other normal practices. It also includes advice with regard to 'Vastu Shastra', advice by 'jyothishya' and other astrologers. Practices included under the 'schedule' for prohibition are — performing any inhuman, evil act and black magic in search of precious things, bounty and hidden treasures. Other practices listed under 16 points for prohibition are facilitating any person to roll over leaves of leftover food by other people in public or religious places or similar practices that violate human dignity; subjecting women to inhuman and humiliating practices like parading them naked in the name of worship or otherwise, such as ""betthale seve"".

Also, forcing any person to carry out evil practices such as the killing of an animal by biting its neck and coercing any person or persons to perform 'firewalk' at the time of 'jatras' (temple/village fest) and religious festivals have also been included, it added.

During the passage of the bill, certain amendments sought were made part of the bill, and the practice of 'mudradharane' by Madhwa Brahmins was exempted. As per this practice, 'mudras' (seals) usually made of gold or copper are heated on coal fire and stamped on the body. 'Vashikarana', practised in occult science as an act of subjugation or advertising about it in the name of treatment has been banned under the Act, following the suggestions made by the members during the debate in the Assembly. Superstitious practices, including black magic, are punishable under the Act for up to seven years and a maximum fine of Rs 50,000 can be imposed.

The act also aims to bring social awakening and awareness in society and create a healthy and safe social environment, and also calls for the appointment of vigilance officers to oversee the implementation of the law. Inhuman practices in the name of religion in the country are a cause of worry. In Maharashtra, there were several cases where people murdered or brutally injured others and held them responsible for some deaths in their families, merely on suspicion. So, a law to prevent exploitation in the name of religion is necessary.

National Party of Banana Republic, a political party every year carries out “Liberal Hypnosis Yatra” to hypnotise the Fiberal-e-Jamaat community into voting them. This practice is followed by them every year. One party worker “Tubelight” does not want to carry out yatra this year and thus claims that it comes under banned practice under the new law and head of the party Jhenu DaVinci claims it is not a prohibited practice. This practice as per the purpose of the law in the passage should be considered under the list:

Solution: As per the passage there is no list named Prohibited or classified. Rather the evil practices to be prohibited are named under the list of “schedule” and those permitted under the law are “savings”. Passage does not mention “Prohibited” and “Classified” and hence, option (c) and (d) are incorrect.
QUESTION: 82

The Karnataka Prevention and Eradication of Inhuman Evil Practices and Black Magic Act (RPT Act) 2017, that intends to protect the common people against ""evil"" and ""sinister"" practices, shall come into force with effect from 4 January, 2020, the government notification issued earlier this month said.

The Act seeks to combat and eradicate other such inhuman practices propagated and performed in the name of ""black magic"" by conmen with the sinister motive of exploiting the common people, thereby destroying the social fabric in society. Considered similar to the one in Maharashtra, the Act has 'savings' and 'schedule' categories, which classify practices that could be tolerated and those that need to be controlled or prohibited. The notification said nothing in the Act shall apply with respect to the forms of worship mentioned under the heading 'savings'.

These include practices like 'pradakshina', yatras, 'parikramas' performed at religious places, among other normal practices. It also includes advice with regard to 'Vastu Shastra', advice by 'jyothishya' and other astrologers. Practices included under the 'schedule' for prohibition are — performing any inhuman, evil act and black magic in search of precious things, bounty and hidden treasures. Other practices listed under 16 points for prohibition are facilitating any person to roll over leaves of leftover food by other people in public or religious places or similar practices that violate human dignity; subjecting women to inhuman and humiliating practices like parading them naked in the name of worship or otherwise, such as ""betthale seve"".

Also, forcing any person to carry out evil practices such as the killing of an animal by biting its neck and coercing any person or persons to perform 'firewalk' at the time of 'jatras' (temple/village fest) and religious festivals have also been included, it added.

During the passage of the bill, certain amendments sought were made part of the bill, and the practice of 'mudradharane' by Madhwa Brahmins was exempted. As per this practice, 'mudras' (seals) usually made of gold or copper are heated on coal fire and stamped on the body. 'Vashikarana', practised in occult science as an act of subjugation or advertising about it in the name of treatment has been banned under the Act, following the suggestions made by the members during the debate in the Assembly. Superstitious practices, including black magic, are punishable under the Act for up to seven years and a maximum fine of Rs 50,000 can be imposed.

The act also aims to bring social awakening and awareness in society and create a healthy and safe social environment, and also calls for the appointment of vigilance officers to oversee the implementation of the law. Inhuman practices in the name of religion in the country are a cause of worry. In Maharashtra, there were several cases where people murdered or brutally injured others and held them responsible for some deaths in their families, merely on suspicion. So, a law to prevent exploitation in the name of religion is necessary.

Assume the law permits all kinds of practices which are part of religious norms except those causing physical harms. Which of the following practices would not get the exemption?

Solution: As all the practices cause physical harm minor or severe, would be prohibited and thus would not come under the exemption/permitted. Option (d) is explicitly stated in the passage and hence is incorrect
QUESTION: 83

In which of the following situations does a One person Company have to get converted into a private Company?

Solution: The answer is (a) as mentioned in the passage. It cannot be (D) because it is given in the passage that the average turnover should be of 2 crores not 3.
QUESTION: 84

Which of the following is not necessary for the procedure of compulsory conversion?

Solution: All of the above requirements are mentioned. The question asks which of the following procedures need not be followed. So it is (D).
QUESTION: 85

In which of the following cases can a compulsory conversion happen ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 86

In which of the following cases a voluntary conversion can happen?

Solution:
QUESTION: 87

Extradition is the official transfer or delivery of a person from one country to another, so that the formal authority over the person shifts to the country where the person is transferred. The person who is transferred is either someone who is accused of a crime or a convicted criminal in the country to which he is being delivered. The crime for which the person is being transferred should also be a crime under the law of the country which is transferring the person. A country shall make a request to another country to extradite a person so that the requesting country can appropriately deal with his crimes. An extradition request for an accused can be initiated in the case of under-investigation, under-trial and convicted criminals. The Extradition Act, 1962 regulates the extradition of fugitive criminals to and from India. A fugitive criminal is a person who is accused or convicted of an extradition offence in a foreign country. An extradition treaty is an agreement or arrangement made by India with a foreign country relating to the extradition of fugitive criminals. Currently, we have extradition treaties with 43 countries. It is possible for India to make an extradition request to any country. If we have an extradition treaty with another country, the foreign country has an obligation to consider our extradition request. If we don’t have an extradition arrangement in place, the foreign country may consider our request keeping in mind its domestic laws and procedures. In relation to a foreign country with whom India has an extradition treaty or agreement, the meaning of an extradition offence is defined in the treaty itself. In other cases, an extradition offence can be any offence for which the punishment is imprisonment for at least one year under the laws of India, or the laws of a foreign country. Requests for extradition on behalf of India can only be made by the Ministry of External Affairs, which formally submits the request for extradition to the respective foreign country through diplomatic channels. Extradition is not available at the request of members of the public. India allows Indian nationals to be extradited to foreign countries from India. However, in doing this, our country follows a dual system based on reciprocity. The concept of extradition advances the principle that no person should escape the reach of the law merely by using influence, power and finances to take refuge in a foreign jurisdiction.

‘X’ commits multiple murders in the USA and then escapes to India to avoid being punished for his crime. If Murder is an extradition crime in USA and India, X is a/an:

Solution: A fugitive criminal is a person who is accused or convicted of an extradition offence in a foreign country. Hence, X is a fugitive criminal.
QUESTION: 88

Extradition is the official transfer or delivery of a person from one country to another, so that the formal authority over the person shifts to the country where the person is transferred. The person who is transferred is either someone who is accused of a crime or a convicted criminal in the country to which he is being delivered. The crime for which the person is being transferred should also be a crime under the law of the country which is transferring the person. A country shall make a request to another country to extradite a person so that the requesting country can appropriately deal with his crimes. An extradition request for an accused can be initiated in the case of under-investigation, under-trial and convicted criminals. The Extradition Act, 1962 regulates the extradition of fugitive criminals to and from India. A fugitive criminal is a person who is accused or convicted of an extradition offence in a foreign country. An extradition treaty is an agreement or arrangement made by India with a foreign country relating to the extradition of fugitive criminals. Currently, we have extradition treaties with 43 countries. It is possible for India to make an extradition request to any country. If we have an extradition treaty with another country, the foreign country has an obligation to consider our extradition request. If we don’t have an extradition arrangement in place, the foreign country may consider our request keeping in mind its domestic laws and procedures. In relation to a foreign country with whom India has an extradition treaty or agreement, the meaning of an extradition offence is defined in the treaty itself. In other cases, an extradition offence can be any offence for which the punishment is imprisonment for at least one year under the laws of India, or the laws of a foreign country. Requests for extradition on behalf of India can only be made by the Ministry of External Affairs, which formally submits the request for extradition to the respective foreign country through diplomatic channels. Extradition is not available at the request of members of the public. India allows Indian nationals to be extradited to foreign countries from India. However, in doing this, our country follows a dual system based on reciprocity. The concept of extradition advances the principle that no person should escape the reach of the law merely by using influence, power and finances to take refuge in a foreign jurisdiction.

Which of the following is not a mandatory essential to extradite a person to a foreign country?

Solution: The person who is transferred is either someone who is accused of a crime or a convicted criminal in the country to which he is being delivered. But it is not necessary that the person must be convicted by a court of the transferring country.
QUESTION: 89

Extradition is the official transfer or delivery of a person from one country to another, so that the formal authority over the person shifts to the country where the person is transferred. The person who is transferred is either someone who is accused of a crime or a convicted criminal in the country to which he is being delivered. The crime for which the person is being transferred should also be a crime under the law of the country which is transferring the person. A country shall make a request to another country to extradite a person so that the requesting country can appropriately deal with his crimes. An extradition request for an accused can be initiated in the case of under-investigation, under-trial and convicted criminals. The Extradition Act, 1962 regulates the extradition of fugitive criminals to and from India. A fugitive criminal is a person who is accused or convicted of an extradition offence in a foreign country. An extradition treaty is an agreement or arrangement made by India with a foreign country relating to the extradition of fugitive criminals. Currently, we have extradition treaties with 43 countries. It is possible for India to make an extradition request to any country. If we have an extradition treaty with another country, the foreign country has an obligation to consider our extradition request. If we don’t have an extradition arrangement in place, the foreign country may consider our request keeping in mind its domestic laws and procedures. In relation to a foreign country with whom India has an extradition treaty or agreement, the meaning of an extradition offence is defined in the treaty itself. In other cases, an extradition offence can be any offence for which the punishment is imprisonment for at least one year under the laws of India, or the laws of a foreign country. Requests for extradition on behalf of India can only be made by the Ministry of External Affairs, which formally submits the request for extradition to the respective foreign country through diplomatic channels. Extradition is not available at the request of members of the public. India allows Indian nationals to be extradited to foreign countries from India. However, in doing this, our country follows a dual system based on reciprocity. The concept of extradition advances the principle that no person should escape the reach of the law merely by using influence, power and finances to take refuge in a foreign jurisdiction.

In the light of the passage, which of the following can be inferred for India?

Solution: Passage tells: “India allows Indian nationals to be extradited to foreign countries from India. However, in doing this, our country follows a dual system based on reciprocity.” Hence, option (A) follows.
QUESTION: 90

Extradition is the official transfer or delivery of a person from one country to another, so that the formal authority over the person shifts to the country where the person is transferred. The person who is transferred is either someone who is accused of a crime or a convicted criminal in the country to which he is being delivered. The crime for which the person is being transferred should also be a crime under the law of the country which is transferring the person. A country shall make a request to another country to extradite a person so that the requesting country can appropriately deal with his crimes. An extradition request for an accused can be initiated in the case of under-investigation, under-trial and convicted criminals. The Extradition Act, 1962 regulates the extradition of fugitive criminals to and from India. A fugitive criminal is a person who is accused or convicted of an extradition offence in a foreign country. An extradition treaty is an agreement or arrangement made by India with a foreign country relating to the extradition of fugitive criminals. Currently, we have extradition treaties with 43 countries. It is possible for India to make an extradition request to any country. If we have an extradition treaty with another country, the foreign country has an obligation to consider our extradition request. If we don’t have an extradition arrangement in place, the foreign country may consider our request keeping in mind its domestic laws and procedures. In relation to a foreign country with whom India has an extradition treaty or agreement, the meaning of an extradition offence is defined in the treaty itself. In other cases, an extradition offence can be any offence for which the punishment is imprisonment for at least one year under the laws of India, or the laws of a foreign country. Requests for extradition on behalf of India can only be made by the Ministry of External Affairs, which formally submits the request for extradition to the respective foreign country through diplomatic channels. Extradition is not available at the request of members of the public. India allows Indian nationals to be extradited to foreign countries from India. However, in doing this, our country follows a dual system based on reciprocity. The concept of extradition advances the principle that no person should escape the reach of the law merely by using influence, power and finances to take refuge in a foreign jurisdiction.

India and UK are negotiating an extradition of Vijay Mallya, from UK to India. Where can the meaning of an extradition offence be found, for the purpose of the said extradition?

Solution: Passage tells: “In relation to a foreign country with whom India has an extradition treaty or agreement, the meaning of an extradition offence is defined in the treaty itself. In other cases, an extradition offence can be any offence for which the punishment is imprisonment for at least one year under the laws of India, or the laws of a foreign country.
QUESTION: 91

Extradition is the official transfer or delivery of a person from one country to another, so that the formal authority over the person shifts to the country where the person is transferred. The person who is transferred is either someone who is accused of a crime or a convicted criminal in the country to which he is being delivered. The crime for which the person is being transferred should also be a crime under the law of the country which is transferring the person. A country shall make a request to another country to extradite a person so that the requesting country can appropriately deal with his crimes. An extradition request for an accused can be initiated in the case of under-investigation, under-trial and convicted criminals. The Extradition Act, 1962 regulates the extradition of fugitive criminals to and from India. A fugitive criminal is a person who is accused or convicted of an extradition offence in a foreign country. An extradition treaty is an agreement or arrangement made by India with a foreign country relating to the extradition of fugitive criminals. Currently, we have extradition treaties with 43 countries. It is possible for India to make an extradition request to any country. If we have an extradition treaty with another country, the foreign country has an obligation to consider our extradition request. If we don’t have an extradition arrangement in place, the foreign country may consider our request keeping in mind its domestic laws and procedures. In relation to a foreign country with whom India has an extradition treaty or agreement, the meaning of an extradition offence is defined in the treaty itself. In other cases, an extradition offence can be any offence for which the punishment is imprisonment for at least one year under the laws of India, or the laws of a foreign country. Requests for extradition on behalf of India can only be made by the Ministry of External Affairs, which formally submits the request for extradition to the respective foreign country through diplomatic channels. Extradition is not available at the request of members of the public. India allows Indian nationals to be extradited to foreign countries from India. However, in doing this, our country follows a dual system based on reciprocity. The concept of extradition advances the principle that no person should escape the reach of the law merely by using influence, power and finances to take refuge in a foreign jurisdiction.

If India’s Ministry of External Affairs is making a request for extradition, which type of country cannot ignore such request for extradition?

Solution: If we have an extradition treaty with another country, the foreign country has an obligation to consider our extradition request. Which means that only if India has extradition treaty with a country, will it have an obligation to consider a request for extradition.
QUESTION: 92

Right to Freedom to practice religion under Article 25 and 26 of Part III of the Indian Constitution is subject to public morality, public order and public health. To preserve the cultural rights, Art. 25 of the Constitution not only guarantees the right to follow any religion but also to profess, practice and propagate religious beliefs. The rights under Articles 25 & 26 are not absolute or unfettered but subject to legislation by the State limiting or regulating any activity, economic, financial, political or secular which are associated with the religious behalf, faith, practice or custom and they are also subject to social reform by suitable legislation.

Article 26 gives every religious group a right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, manage its affairs, properties as per the law. This guarantee is available to only Citizens of India and not to aliens.

The Apex court of India held that every religion has basic fundamental principles to be followed by the followers without which the following of a religion is in vain, still such essential requirements can be examined by the Supreme Court of India and even if a particular activity constitutes the essential part of a religion, its utility can be examined by the court. Belief must be of an essence of that religion.

The Supreme Court in the case of Sardar Sydena Taher Saifuddin Saheb v. State of Bombay observed that the exception was carved in Art. 25 (2) of the Constitution of India to the Freedom of Religion enabling the state to enact laws providing for social welfare and reform was not intended to enable the legislature to reform a religion out of its existence or identity. It was also stated that even while bringing in such a social reform it is not permissible to change the entire practice or acts done in pursuance of such religion.

Hence it is the duty of the court to ensure that in the name of effecting social reform, the legislature does not efface a religion altogether, by doing away with its basic or essential doctrines or practices. The concept of social reforms was inherited by the Indian constitution under Article 25(2)(b) without impairing the freedom of religion.

Can the Apex court of India as per the passage above, decide on the matters of land dispute between two religious sects?

Solution: Yes, as religious institutions established under Article 26 need to manage their internal affairs as per the law. Land dispute is not a religious affair, so it can be decided by the apex court.
QUESTION: 93

Right to Freedom to practice religion under Article 25 and 26 of Part III of the Indian Constitution is subject to public morality, public order and public health. To preserve the cultural rights, Art. 25 of the Constitution not only guarantees the right to follow any religion but also to profess, practice and propagate religious beliefs. The rights under Articles 25 & 26 are not absolute or unfettered but subject to legislation by the State limiting or regulating any activity, economic, financial, political or secular which are associated with the religious behalf, faith, practice or custom and they are also subject to social reform by suitable legislation.

Article 26 gives every religious group a right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, manage its affairs, properties as per the law. This guarantee is available to only Citizens of India and not to aliens.

The Apex court of India held that every religion has basic fundamental principles to be followed by the followers without which the following of a religion is in vain, still such essential requirements can be examined by the Supreme Court of India and even if a particular activity constitutes the essential part of a religion, its utility can be examined by the court. Belief must be of an essence of that religion.

The Supreme Court in the case of Sardar Sydena Taher Saifuddin Saheb v. State of Bombay observed that the exception was carved in Art. 25 (2) of the Constitution of India to the Freedom of Religion enabling the state to enact laws providing for social welfare and reform was not intended to enable the legislature to reform a religion out of its existence or identity. It was also stated that even while bringing in such a social reform it is not permissible to change the entire practice or acts done in pursuance of such religion.

Hence it is the duty of the court to ensure that in the name of effecting social reform, the legislature does not efface a religion altogether, by doing away with its basic or essential doctrines or practices. The concept of social reforms was inherited by the Indian constitution under Article 25(2)(b) without impairing the freedom of religion.

What is the relation between religion and social reform as established by the author above?

Solution: The last two paragraphs reiterate this point.
QUESTION: 94

Right to Freedom to practice religion under Article 25 and 26 of Part III of the Indian Constitution is subject to public morality, public order and public health. To preserve the cultural rights, Art. 25 of the Constitution not only guarantees the right to follow any religion but also to profess, practice and propagate religious beliefs. The rights under Articles 25 & 26 are not absolute or unfettered but subject to legislation by the State limiting or regulating any activity, economic, financial, political or secular which are associated with the religious behalf, faith, practice or custom and they are also subject to social reform by suitable legislation.

Article 26 gives every religious group a right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, manage its affairs, properties as per the law. This guarantee is available to only Citizens of India and not to aliens.

The Apex court of India held that every religion has basic fundamental principles to be followed by the followers without which the following of a religion is in vain, still such essential requirements can be examined by the Supreme Court of India and even if a particular activity constitutes the essential part of a religion, its utility can be examined by the court. Belief must be of an essence of that religion.

The Supreme Court in the case of Sardar Sydena Taher Saifuddin Saheb v. State of Bombay observed that the exception was carved in Art. 25 (2) of the Constitution of India to the Freedom of Religion enabling the state to enact laws providing for social welfare and reform was not intended to enable the legislature to reform a religion out of its existence or identity. It was also stated that even while bringing in such a social reform it is not permissible to change the entire practice or acts done in pursuance of such religion.

Hence it is the duty of the court to ensure that in the name of effecting social reform, the legislature does not efface a religion altogether, by doing away with its basic or essential doctrines or practices. The concept of social reforms was inherited by the Indian constitution under Article 25(2)(b) without impairing the freedom of religion.

Use of loudspeakers is not an integral part of the religions so the government can restrict on the use of loudspeakers. Will this lead to a violation of professing one’s religion under Article 25?

Solution: No. As no religion practice is allowed to disrupt the harmony of the community. Usage of loudspeakers disrupts public order. So reasonable restriction can be placed on their usage.
QUESTION: 95

Right to Freedom to practice religion under Article 25 and 26 of Part III of the Indian Constitution is subject to public morality, public order and public health. To preserve the cultural rights, Art. 25 of the Constitution not only guarantees the right to follow any religion but also to profess, practice and propagate religious beliefs. The rights under Articles 25 & 26 are not absolute or unfettered but subject to legislation by the State limiting or regulating any activity, economic, financial, political or secular which are associated with the religious behalf, faith, practice or custom and they are also subject to social reform by suitable legislation.

Article 26 gives every religious group a right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, manage its affairs, properties as per the law. This guarantee is available to only Citizens of India and not to aliens.

The Apex court of India held that every religion has basic fundamental principles to be followed by the followers without which the following of a religion is in vain, still such essential requirements can be examined by the Supreme Court of India and even if a particular activity constitutes the essential part of a religion, its utility can be examined by the court. Belief must be of an essence of that religion.

The Supreme Court in the case of Sardar Sydena Taher Saifuddin Saheb v. State of Bombay observed that the exception was carved in Art. 25 (2) of the Constitution of India to the Freedom of Religion enabling the state to enact laws providing for social welfare and reform was not intended to enable the legislature to reform a religion out of its existence or identity. It was also stated that even while bringing in such a social reform it is not permissible to change the entire practice or acts done in pursuance of such religion.

Hence it is the duty of the court to ensure that in the name of effecting social reform, the legislature does not efface a religion altogether, by doing away with its basic or essential doctrines or practices. The concept of social reforms was inherited by the Indian constitution under Article 25(2)(b) without impairing the freedom of religion.

It is well established that Possessing a Kirpan is an essential part of professing Sikhism and it is a protected right of Sikhs. Can the apex court rule against the wearing of the Kirpan by Sikhs?

Solution: Supreme Court cannot decide on the main/core essentialities of a religion as per Article 25. So it cannot come under the reasonable restriction even though it purportedly impacts public order.
QUESTION: 96

Right to Freedom to practice religion under Article 25 and 26 of Part III of the Indian Constitution is subject to public morality, public order and public health. To preserve the cultural rights, Art. 25 of the Constitution not only guarantees the right to follow any religion but also to profess, practice and propagate religious beliefs. The rights under Articles 25 & 26 are not absolute or unfettered but subject to legislation by the State limiting or regulating any activity, economic, financial, political or secular which are associated with the religious behalf, faith, practice or custom and they are also subject to social reform by suitable legislation.

Article 26 gives every religious group a right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, manage its affairs, properties as per the law. This guarantee is available to only Citizens of India and not to aliens.

The Apex court of India held that every religion has basic fundamental principles to be followed by the followers without which the following of a religion is in vain, still such essential requirements can be examined by the Supreme Court of India and even if a particular activity constitutes the essential part of a religion, its utility can be examined by the court. Belief must be of an essence of that religion.

The Supreme Court in the case of Sardar Sydena Taher Saifuddin Saheb v. State of Bombay observed that the exception was carved in Art. 25 (2) of the Constitution of India to the Freedom of Religion enabling the state to enact laws providing for social welfare and reform was not intended to enable the legislature to reform a religion out of its existence or identity. It was also stated that even while bringing in such a social reform it is not permissible to change the entire practice or acts done in pursuance of such religion.

Hence it is the duty of the court to ensure that in the name of effecting social reform, the legislature does not efface a religion altogether, by doing away with its basic or essential doctrines or practices. The concept of social reforms was inherited by the Indian constitution under Article 25(2)(b) without impairing the freedom of religion.

No one has the right to conduct human sacrifice in the name of religion and no one can perform worship on busy highways or other public places which disturb the community. Are both these statements true to the paragraph above?

Solution: Both the given aspects do not fall within the core essentialities of a religion. So reasonable restrictions can be placed under Article 25 of disturbing public order.
QUESTION: 97

The Regulatory framework with respect to Insurance in India is primarily governed by the Insurance Act, 1938 and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (“IRDA Act”). While the Insurance Act, 1938 governs all forms of insurance and also regulates the insurance business in India, The IRDA Act, 1999, seeks to provide the establishment of an authority that protects the interest of all insurance policy holders and further regulates and promotes the orderly growth of the insurance industry.

As is common knowledge, owing to the lack of adequate risk planning, adventure sports do not fall within the purview of insurance policies in India. However, it is pertinent to highlight at this juncture that although the aforesaid is not covered in insurance policies, there seems to be an ambiguity with respect to sightseeing that is also undertaken as an activity by several tourists on vacation.

In this regard, it is apposite to take note of the most recent judgment passed by the Supreme Court in Bharti AXA General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Priya Paul & Another . Vide this judgment, the Supreme Court, inter alia interpreted whether a ‘glider’ comes within the definition of aircraft in so far as insurance policies are concerned and as a natural consequence covered by insurance.

This judgment is a significant one as it clarifies that a glider which is used for sightseeing shall come within the meaning of an aircraft. Therefore, repudiation of claims by insurance companies on the basis that gliders used for sightseeing do not come within the purview of insurance policies are not tenable in law and hence, ought to be rejected.

Undisputedly, this decision is a welcome change in insurance jurisprudence as it not only does away with the misassumptions in respect to a glider (used for sightseeing) not falling within the purview of the definition of an aircraft, but also gives much-needed respite to all policy holders claiming their insurance on this ground.

Pertinently, it is also apposite to highlight that, although the afore-mentioned judgment had been laid down by the Supreme Court in the context of the specific clause mentioned in the insurance policy under challenge, however, what is essential to bear in mind, is that the insurance policy and also the specific exclusions under challenge appear in all standard types of insurance policy/ contract found across the board and consequently availed by customers. Therefore, the ratio laid by the Supreme Court in this judgment shall have a wider ramification in the field of insurance jurisprudence.

Based on the passage, which of the following is not an activity included under Insurance policies?

Solution: Based on the judgment mentioned in the passage, gliders are covered by the Insurance policies, but adventure sports and sightseeing are not.
QUESTION: 98

The Regulatory framework with respect to Insurance in India is primarily governed by the Insurance Act, 1938 and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (“IRDA Act”). While the Insurance Act, 1938 governs all forms of insurance and also regulates the insurance business in India, The IRDA Act, 1999, seeks to provide the establishment of an authority that protects the interest of all insurance policy holders and further regulates and promotes the orderly growth of the insurance industry.

As is common knowledge, owing to the lack of adequate risk planning, adventure sports do not fall within the purview of insurance policies in India. However, it is pertinent to highlight at this juncture that although the aforesaid is not covered in insurance policies, there seems to be an ambiguity with respect to sightseeing that is also undertaken as an activity by several tourists on vacation.

In this regard, it is apposite to take note of the most recent judgment passed by the Supreme Court in Bharti AXA General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Priya Paul & Another . Vide this judgment, the Supreme Court, inter alia interpreted whether a ‘glider’ comes within the definition of aircraft in so far as insurance policies are concerned and as a natural consequence covered by insurance.

This judgment is a significant one as it clarifies that a glider which is used for sightseeing shall come within the meaning of an aircraft. Therefore, repudiation of claims by insurance companies on the basis that gliders used for sightseeing do not come within the purview of insurance policies are not tenable in law and hence, ought to be rejected.

Undisputedly, this decision is a welcome change in insurance jurisprudence as it not only does away with the misassumptions in respect to a glider (used for sightseeing) not falling within the purview of the definition of an aircraft, but also gives much-needed respite to all policy holders claiming their insurance on this ground.

Pertinently, it is also apposite to highlight that, although the afore-mentioned judgment had been laid down by the Supreme Court in the context of the specific clause mentioned in the insurance policy under challenge, however, what is essential to bear in mind, is that the insurance policy and also the specific exclusions under challenge appear in all standard types of insurance policy/ contract found across the board and consequently availed by customers. Therefore, the ratio laid by the Supreme Court in this judgment shall have a wider ramification in the field of insurance jurisprudence.

What was held in the judgment of Bharti AXA General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Priya Paul & Another?

Solution:
QUESTION: 99

The Regulatory framework with respect to Insurance in India is primarily governed by the Insurance Act, 1938 and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (“IRDA Act”). While the Insurance Act, 1938 governs all forms of insurance and also regulates the insurance business in India, The IRDA Act, 1999, seeks to provide the establishment of an authority that protects the interest of all insurance policy holders and further regulates and promotes the orderly growth of the insurance industry.

As is common knowledge, owing to the lack of adequate risk planning, adventure sports do not fall within the purview of insurance policies in India. However, it is pertinent to highlight at this juncture that although the aforesaid is not covered in insurance policies, there seems to be an ambiguity with respect to sightseeing that is also undertaken as an activity by several tourists on vacation.

In this regard, it is apposite to take note of the most recent judgment passed by the Supreme Court in Bharti AXA General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Priya Paul & Another . Vide this judgment, the Supreme Court, inter alia interpreted whether a ‘glider’ comes within the definition of aircraft in so far as insurance policies are concerned and as a natural consequence covered by insurance.

This judgment is a significant one as it clarifies that a glider which is used for sightseeing shall come within the meaning of an aircraft. Therefore, repudiation of claims by insurance companies on the basis that gliders used for sightseeing do not come within the purview of insurance policies are not tenable in law and hence, ought to be rejected.

Undisputedly, this decision is a welcome change in insurance jurisprudence as it not only does away with the misassumptions in respect to a glider (used for sightseeing) not falling within the purview of the definition of an aircraft, but also gives much-needed respite to all policy holders claiming their insurance on this ground.

Pertinently, it is also apposite to highlight that, although the afore-mentioned judgment had been laid down by the Supreme Court in the context of the specific clause mentioned in the insurance policy under challenge, however, what is essential to bear in mind, is that the insurance policy and also the specific exclusions under challenge appear in all standard types of insurance policy/ contract found across the board and consequently availed by customers. Therefore, the ratio laid by the Supreme Court in this judgment shall have a wider ramification in the field of insurance jurisprudence.

The Supreme Court in this judgment shall have a wider ramification in the field of insurance jurisprudence. What is the author suggesting through this statement?

Solution: Option (B) as specific exclusions are made in insurance policy contracts.
QUESTION: 100

The Regulatory framework with respect to Insurance in India is primarily governed by the Insurance Act, 1938 and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (“IRDA Act”). While the Insurance Act, 1938 governs all forms of insurance and also regulates the insurance business in India, The IRDA Act, 1999, seeks to provide the establishment of an authority that protects the interest of all insurance policy holders and further regulates and promotes the orderly growth of the insurance industry.

As is common knowledge, owing to the lack of adequate risk planning, adventure sports do not fall within the purview of insurance policies in India. However, it is pertinent to highlight at this juncture that although the aforesaid is not covered in insurance policies, there seems to be an ambiguity with respect to sightseeing that is also undertaken as an activity by several tourists on vacation.

In this regard, it is apposite to take note of the most recent judgment passed by the Supreme Court in Bharti AXA General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Priya Paul & Another . Vide this judgment, the Supreme Court, inter alia interpreted whether a ‘glider’ comes within the definition of aircraft in so far as insurance policies are concerned and as a natural consequence covered by insurance.

This judgment is a significant one as it clarifies that a glider which is used for sightseeing shall come within the meaning of an aircraft. Therefore, repudiation of claims by insurance companies on the basis that gliders used for sightseeing do not come within the purview of insurance policies are not tenable in law and hence, ought to be rejected.

Undisputedly, this decision is a welcome change in insurance jurisprudence as it not only does away with the misassumptions in respect to a glider (used for sightseeing) not falling within the purview of the definition of an aircraft, but also gives much-needed respite to all policy holders claiming their insurance on this ground.

Pertinently, it is also apposite to highlight that, although the afore-mentioned judgment had been laid down by the Supreme Court in the context of the specific clause mentioned in the insurance policy under challenge, however, what is essential to bear in mind, is that the insurance policy and also the specific exclusions under challenge appear in all standard types of insurance policy/ contract found across the board and consequently availed by customers. Therefore, the ratio laid by the Supreme Court in this judgment shall have a wider ramification in the field of insurance jurisprudence.

Recently it was covered by the media that insurance companies have to abide by the (PREPARATION OF FINANCIAL STATEMENTS AND AUDITOR’S REPORT OF INSURANCE COMPANIES) REGULATIONS, 2000. This regulation might have been passed under which Act?

Solution: Should be inferred from the paragraph “ IRDA seeks to provide the establishment of an authority that protects the interest of all insurance policy holders and further regulates and promotes the orderly growth of the insurance industry.”
QUESTION: 101

The Regulatory framework with respect to Insurance in India is primarily governed by the Insurance Act, 1938 and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (“IRDA Act”). While the Insurance Act, 1938 governs all forms of insurance and also regulates the insurance business in India, The IRDA Act, 1999, seeks to provide the establishment of an authority that protects the interest of all insurance policy holders and further regulates and promotes the orderly growth of the insurance industry.

As is common knowledge, owing to the lack of adequate risk planning, adventure sports do not fall within the purview of insurance policies in India. However, it is pertinent to highlight at this juncture that although the aforesaid is not covered in insurance policies, there seems to be an ambiguity with respect to sightseeing that is also undertaken as an activity by several tourists on vacation.

In this regard, it is apposite to take note of the most recent judgment passed by the Supreme Court in Bharti AXA General Insurance Co. Ltd v. Priya Paul & Another . Vide this judgment, the Supreme Court, inter alia interpreted whether a ‘glider’ comes within the definition of aircraft in so far as insurance policies are concerned and as a natural consequence covered by insurance.

This judgment is a significant one as it clarifies that a glider which is used for sightseeing shall come within the meaning of an aircraft. Therefore, repudiation of claims by insurance companies on the basis that gliders used for sightseeing do not come within the purview of insurance policies are not tenable in law and hence, ought to be rejected.

Undisputedly, this decision is a welcome change in insurance jurisprudence as it not only does away with the misassumptions in respect to a glider (used for sightseeing) not falling within the purview of the definition of an aircraft, but also gives much-needed respite to all policy holders claiming their insurance on this ground.

Pertinently, it is also apposite to highlight that, although the afore-mentioned judgment had been laid down by the Supreme Court in the context of the specific clause mentioned in the insurance policy under challenge, however, what is essential to bear in mind, is that the insurance policy and also the specific exclusions under challenge appear in all standard types of insurance policy/ contract found across the board and consequently availed by customers. Therefore, the ratio laid by the Supreme Court in this judgment shall have a wider ramification in the field of insurance jurisprudence.

Prohibition of transaction of insurance business by certain persons can be a provision laid down under which of the Insurance Acts?

Solution: As per the paragraph the diktat is given by the Insurance Act, 1938.
QUESTION: 102

On February 10, the Supreme Court (SC) issued a notice to prohibit children from entering the areas where Anti – CAA protests were held. The notice was issued in a matter where the SC took suo moto cognisance of the involvement of children in protests in a letter addressing the death of a four-month-old. This order violates children’s right to protest. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to protest. This right reasonably extends to children. According to Article 19(2), the right to protest can be restricted for various reasons, including protecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality. Considering the fact that the children were protesting peacefully and for legitimate reasons, the restriction on their right to protest does not fall under any of the possible basis in Article 19(2).

Another right engaged by this restriction is children’s right to education and development. In Unnikrishnan v State of A.P., the SC held that Article 21 includes the protection of children’s right to educational opportunities and facilities for children to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity. This arguably encompasses their rights to protest and freedom of expression. Preventing children from expressing their opinions compromises the freedom to express their opinions and arguably curtails their right to develop in conditions of freedom and dignity. The jurisprudence of Indian courts has not had an opportunity to set out the scope of the rights to protest and expression in the context of children.

Under international law, Article 13 of the UNCRC, ratified by India in 1992, provides that children have the right to freedom of expression, this includes, “freedom to seek, receive and impart information and ideas of all kinds”. Further, Article 15 of the UNCRC protects children’s freedom to associate and peaceful assembly. These rights can only be restricted by provisions which are ‘necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security or public safety, public order, the protection of public health or morals or the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.’ There may be reasons to restrict the presence of very young and unsupervised children at protests. However, the court’s order arbitrarily banned all children from the Shaheen-Bagh protest site, irrespective of their age and for an indefinite period. This wide ban is arbitrary and a manifestly disproportionate tool for realising any laudable aims under the Indian Constitution and in international law. In addition to violating children’s right to protest, the order also limits the participation of parents and other child caregivers. This will have a disproportionate impact on women as they bear the larger share of child care, limiting their right to freedom of expression and protest.

The author is most likely to agree with which of the following alternatives?

Solution: The author’s concern is related to the arbitrary and disproportionate ban on the entry of children in the protest site. Hence, a likely alternative would be to strike a balance between safety of children and right to protest.
QUESTION: 103

On February 10, the Supreme Court (SC) issued a notice to prohibit children from entering the areas where Anti – CAA protests were held. The notice was issued in a matter where the SC took suo moto cognisance of the involvement of children in protests in a letter addressing the death of a four-month-old. This order violates children’s right to protest. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to protest. This right reasonably extends to children. According to Article 19(2), the right to protest can be restricted for various reasons, including protecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality. Considering the fact that the children were protesting peacefully and for legitimate reasons, the restriction on their right to protest does not fall under any of the possible basis in Article 19(2).

Another right engaged by this restriction is children’s right to education and development. In Unnikrishnan v State of A.P., the SC held that Article 21 includes the protection of children’s right to educational opportunities and facilities for children to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity. This arguably encompasses their rights to protest and freedom of expression. Preventing children from expressing their opinions compromises the freedom to express their opinions and arguably curtails their right to develop in conditions of freedom and dignity. The jurisprudence of Indian courts has not had an opportunity to set out the scope of the rights to protest and expression in the context of children.

Under international law, Article 13 of the UNCRC, ratified by India in 1992, provides that children have the right to freedom of expression, this includes, “freedom to seek, receive and impart information and ideas of all kinds”. Further, Article 15 of the UNCRC protects children’s freedom to associate and peaceful assembly. These rights can only be restricted by provisions which are ‘necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security or public safety, public order, the protection of public health or morals or the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.’ There may be reasons to restrict the presence of very young and unsupervised children at protests. However, the court’s order arbitrarily banned all children from the Shaheen-Bagh protest site, irrespective of their age and for an indefinite period. This wide ban is arbitrary and a manifestly disproportionate tool for realising any laudable aims under the Indian Constitution and in international law. In addition to violating children’s right to protest, the order also limits the participation of parents and other child caregivers. This will have a disproportionate impact on women as they bear the larger share of child care, limiting their right to freedom of expression and protest.

If a group of armed protestors are moving towards the residence of Prime Minister, claiming the right to secede their State from the Union of India, on what grounds can the right to protest be restricted?

Solution: According to Article 19(2), the right to protest can be restricted for various reasons, including protecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality. The group of armed protestors being a threat to sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state and public order, all at once, can be restricted from exercising their right to protest.
QUESTION: 104

On February 10, the Supreme Court (SC) issued a notice to prohibit children from entering the areas where Anti – CAA protests were held. The notice was issued in a matter where the SC took suo moto cognisance of the involvement of children in protests in a letter addressing the death of a four-month-old. This order violates children’s right to protest. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to protest. This right reasonably extends to children. According to Article 19(2), the right to protest can be restricted for various reasons, including protecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality. Considering the fact that the children were protesting peacefully and for legitimate reasons, the restriction on their right to protest does not fall under any of the possible basis in Article 19(2).

Another right engaged by this restriction is children’s right to education and development. In Unnikrishnan v State of A.P., the SC held that Article 21 includes the protection of children’s right to educational opportunities and facilities for children to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity. This arguably encompasses their rights to protest and freedom of expression. Preventing children from expressing their opinions compromises the freedom to express their opinions and arguably curtails their right to develop in conditions of freedom and dignity. The jurisprudence of Indian courts has not had an opportunity to set out the scope of the rights to protest and expression in the context of children.

Under international law, Article 13 of the UNCRC, ratified by India in 1992, provides that children have the right to freedom of expression, this includes, “freedom to seek, receive and impart information and ideas of all kinds”. Further, Article 15 of the UNCRC protects children’s freedom to associate and peaceful assembly. These rights can only be restricted by provisions which are ‘necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security or public safety, public order, the protection of public health or morals or the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.’ There may be reasons to restrict the presence of very young and unsupervised children at protests. However, the court’s order arbitrarily banned all children from the Shaheen-Bagh protest site, irrespective of their age and for an indefinite period. This wide ban is arbitrary and a manifestly disproportionate tool for realising any laudable aims under the Indian Constitution and in international law. In addition to violating children’s right to protest, the order also limits the participation of parents and other child caregivers. This will have a disproportionate impact on women as they bear the larger share of child care, limiting their right to freedom of expression and protest.

In the light of the information given in the passage, which of the following public policy will be encouraged by the Article 13 & Article 15 of the UNCRC?

Solution: Under international law, Article 13 of the UNCRC, ratified by India in 1992, provides that children have the right to freedom of expression, this includes, “freedom to seek, receive and impart information and ideas of all kinds”. Further, Article 15 of the UNCRC protects children’s freedom to associate and peaceful assembly. These rights can only be restricted by provisions which are ‘necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security or public safety, public order, the protection of public health or morals or the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.’ Since, option (a) deals with the imparting of information by trained professionals, it will be encouraged by the Article 13 of the UNCRC. Additionally, option (d) is not restricted by Article 13 or Article 15, but it does not concern the subject-matter that these provisions address.
QUESTION: 105

On February 10, the Supreme Court (SC) issued a notice to prohibit children from entering the areas where Anti – CAA protests were held. The notice was issued in a matter where the SC took suo moto cognisance of the involvement of children in protests in a letter addressing the death of a four-month-old. This order violates children’s right to protest. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to protest. This right reasonably extends to children. According to Article 19(2), the right to protest can be restricted for various reasons, including protecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality. Considering the fact that the children were protesting peacefully and for legitimate reasons, the restriction on their right to protest does not fall under any of the possible basis in Article 19(2).

Another right engaged by this restriction is children’s right to education and development. In Unnikrishnan v State of A.P., the SC held that Article 21 includes the protection of children’s right to educational opportunities and facilities for children to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity. This arguably encompasses their rights to protest and freedom of expression. Preventing children from expressing their opinions compromises the freedom to express their opinions and arguably curtails their right to develop in conditions of freedom and dignity. The jurisprudence of Indian courts has not had an opportunity to set out the scope of the rights to protest and expression in the context of children.

Under international law, Article 13 of the UNCRC, ratified by India in 1992, provides that children have the right to freedom of expression, this includes, “freedom to seek, receive and impart information and ideas of all kinds”. Further, Article 15 of the UNCRC protects children’s freedom to associate and peaceful assembly. These rights can only be restricted by provisions which are ‘necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security or public safety, public order, the protection of public health or morals or the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.’ There may be reasons to restrict the presence of very young and unsupervised children at protests. However, the court’s order arbitrarily banned all children from the Shaheen-Bagh protest site, irrespective of their age and for an indefinite period. This wide ban is arbitrary and a manifestly disproportionate tool for realising any laudable aims under the Indian Constitution and in international law. In addition to violating children’s right to protest, the order also limits the participation of parents and other child caregivers. This will have a disproportionate impact on women as they bear the larger share of child care, limiting their right to freedom of expression and protest.

In Unnikrishnan v. State of A.P., the SC held that Article 21 includes the protection of children’s right to educational opportunities and facilities for children to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity. Which of the following can be said to be not flowing from this interpretation?

Solution: Article 21 talks about development of children in healthy and dignified manner. Creation of school project groups and social groups on the basis of economic-group identities severely restricts the holistic opportunities of interaction and practical learnings.
QUESTION: 106

On February 10, the Supreme Court (SC) issued a notice to prohibit children from entering the areas where Anti – CAA protests were held. The notice was issued in a matter where the SC took suo moto cognisance of the involvement of children in protests in a letter addressing the death of a four-month-old. This order violates children’s right to protest. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution protects the right to protest. This right reasonably extends to children. According to Article 19(2), the right to protest can be restricted for various reasons, including protecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality. Considering the fact that the children were protesting peacefully and for legitimate reasons, the restriction on their right to protest does not fall under any of the possible basis in Article 19(2).

Another right engaged by this restriction is children’s right to education and development. In Unnikrishnan v State of A.P., the SC held that Article 21 includes the protection of children’s right to educational opportunities and facilities for children to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity. This arguably encompasses their rights to protest and freedom of expression. Preventing children from expressing their opinions compromises the freedom to express their opinions and arguably curtails their right to develop in conditions of freedom and dignity. The jurisprudence of Indian courts has not had an opportunity to set out the scope of the rights to protest and expression in the context of children.

Under international law, Article 13 of the UNCRC, ratified by India in 1992, provides that children have the right to freedom of expression, this includes, “freedom to seek, receive and impart information and ideas of all kinds”. Further, Article 15 of the UNCRC protects children’s freedom to associate and peaceful assembly. These rights can only be restricted by provisions which are ‘necessary in a democratic society in the interests of national security or public safety, public order, the protection of public health or morals or the protection of the rights and freedoms of others.’ There may be reasons to restrict the presence of very young and unsupervised children at protests. However, the court’s order arbitrarily banned all children from the Shaheen-Bagh protest site, irrespective of their age and for an indefinite period. This wide ban is arbitrary and a manifestly disproportionate tool for realising any laudable aims under the Indian Constitution and in international law. In addition to violating children’s right to protest, the order also limits the participation of parents and other child caregivers. This will have a disproportionate impact on women as they bear the larger share of child care, limiting their right to freedom of expression and protest.

Which of the following is the major disagreement of the author with the Supreme Court judgment?

Solution: The passage tells that: “The court’s order arbitrarily banned all children from the Shaheen-Bagh protest site, irrespective of their age and for an indefinite period. This wide ban is arbitrary and a manifestly disproportionate tool for realising any laudable aims under the Indian Constitution and in international law”.
QUESTION: 107

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 is an Act aimed at providing for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants. Section 9 of the Act prohibits hunting of animals except when expressly allowed by way of subsequent sections. Section 51 punishes such an act with imprisonment upto three years or a fine upto twenty-five thousand rupees or both whereas the offence related to hunting in a sanctuary is punishable with imprisonment of three to seven years and a fine not less than ten thousand rupees. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 aims to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals. Section 11 of the Act provides for the acts considered as animal cruelty including beating, causing pain or suffering, willfully and unreasonably administering any injurious drug or injurious substance, confining the animal to a cage without reasonable opportunity for their movement etc. Such acts being punishable on the first offence with a fine of ten rupees to fifty rupees and in the case of a second or subsequent offence committed within three years of the previous offence, with fine not be less than twenty-five rupees but which may extend, to one hundred rupees or with imprisonment for a term which may extend, to three months, or with both. The Explosives Act, 1860 punishes unlicensed manufacturing, possession and use of explosives. Section 9B under sub-clause (b) penalises possession, usage, sale or transport of any explosive with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to three thousand rupees or with both. The Elephants Preservation Act, 1879 which extends to the territories now respectively administered by the State Governments of Uttar Pradesh, the Madhya Pradesh and the Chief Commissioners of Coorg; and the State Governments may extend it to any other local area immediately before the 1st of November, 1956. Section 3 of this Act prohibits killing, capturing, injuring or attempting any of these acts except when acting in self-defence or when such elephant is found injuring houses or cultivation, or upon, or in the immediate vicinity of, any main public road or any railway or canal. Section 7 penalizes these acts with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees for each elephant concerned and with imprisonment which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both on a second offence. Over and above these specific legislations, the Constitution of India also imposes a Fundamental Duty on all citizens, by way of Article 51A (g)

Q. Sivam industries was in the business of making explosives for the mining industry. Wasabi minings was a new mining company and wanted explosives from sivam industries. During the transfer of the explosives they were caught. Will they be liable under the explosives act, 1860?

Solution: Both the industries need license to manufacture, transport and possess explosives. If they have the license then they will not be liable for any offense under the act.
QUESTION: 108

According to many peer-reviewed studies, over 97% of climate scientists agree that human activity is extremely likely to be the cause of global climate change. An examination of scientific papers that didn’t agree that humans cause climate change found serious flaws and bias in their research. But a Purdue University survey found that 47% of climatologists challenge the idea that humans are primarily responsible for climate change and instead believe that climate change is caused by an equal combination of humans and the environment. Gases released into the atmosphere trap heat and cause the planet to warm through a process called the greenhouse effect. Over the 20th century, as the concentrations of CO2, CH4, and NO2 increased in the atmosphere due to human activity, the earth warmed by approximately 1.4°F. The specific type of CO2 that is increasing in earth’s atmosphere can be directly connected to human activity.

We can tell that CO2 produced by humans burning fossil fuels such as oil and coal is different from naturally occurring CO2 by looking at the specific isotopic ratio. The amount of solar energy received by the earth goes up and down in cycles, but overall, there is no net change since the 1950s. There has, however, been a big increase in global temperatures that is too large to attribute to the sun. The World Meteorological Organization said the current acceleration in the rate of ocean acidification ""appears unprecedented"" over the last 300 million years. Human-caused global warming is changing weather systems and making heat waves and droughts more intense and more frequent. In a process known as a positive feedback loop, more warming causes more humidity which causes even more warming.

Q. Which of the following, helps in understanding the discrepancy in Purdue University research representation, in comparison to that of peer-reviewed researches?

Solution: The use of the word “combination” helps us in settling that humans are not the sole cause of climate change. But that itself does not mean that humans are not the primary factors of climate change, and they can still be made blameworthy. Hence, the peer-reviewed researches showed the conclusive figure to be as high as 97%.
QUESTION: 109

According to many peer-reviewed studies, over 97% of climate scientists agree that human activity is extremely likely to be the cause of global climate change. An examination of scientific papers that didn’t agree that humans cause climate change found serious flaws and bias in their research. But a Purdue University survey found that 47% of climatologists challenge the idea that humans are primarily responsible for climate change and instead believe that climate change is caused by an equal combination of humans and the environment. Gases released into the atmosphere trap heat and cause the planet to warm through a process called the greenhouse effect. Over the 20th century, as the concentrations of CO2, CH4, and NO2 increased in the atmosphere due to human activity, the earth warmed by approximately 1.4°F. The specific type of CO2 that is increasing in earth’s atmosphere can be directly connected to human activity.

We can tell that CO2 produced by humans burning fossil fuels such as oil and coal is different from naturally occurring CO2 by looking at the specific isotopic ratio. The amount of solar energy received by the earth goes up and down in cycles, but overall, there is no net change since the 1950s. There has, however, been a big increase in global temperatures that is too large to attribute to the sun. The World Meteorological Organization said the current acceleration in the rate of ocean acidification ""appears unprecedented"" over the last 300 million years. Human-caused global warming is changing weather systems and making heat waves and droughts more intense and more frequent. In a process known as a positive feedback loop, more warming causes more humidity which causes even more warming.

Q. Which of the additional information, if introduced to the author, would reduce the author’s concern about the rising temperature?

Solution: Out of all the options, only option (a) seems to be normalising the rise of 1.4°F. Other options are just talking about things that are the result of the rise of temperature. If the rise of 1.4°F is below the average rise of past 15 centuries then it is not such a cause of concern.
QUESTION: 110

According to many peer-reviewed studies, over 97% of climate scientists agree that human activity is extremely likely to be the cause of global climate change. An examination of scientific papers that didn’t agree that humans cause climate change found serious flaws and bias in their research. But a Purdue University survey found that 47% of climatologists challenge the idea that humans are primarily responsible for climate change and instead believe that climate change is caused by an equal combination of humans and the environment. Gases released into the atmosphere trap heat and cause the planet to warm through a process called the greenhouse effect. Over the 20th century, as the concentrations of CO2, CH4, and NO2 increased in the atmosphere due to human activity, the earth warmed by approximately 1.4°F. The specific type of CO2 that is increasing in earth’s atmosphere can be directly connected to human activity.

We can tell that CO2 produced by humans burning fossil fuels such as oil and coal is different from naturally occurring CO2 by looking at the specific isotopic ratio. The amount of solar energy received by the earth goes up and down in cycles, but overall, there is no net change since the 1950s. There has, however, been a big increase in global temperatures that is too large to attribute to the sun. The World Meteorological Organization said the current acceleration in the rate of ocean acidification ""appears unprecedented"" over the last 300 million years. Human-caused global warming is changing weather systems and making heat waves and droughts more intense and more frequent. In a process known as a positive feedback loop, more warming causes more humidity which causes even more warming.

Q. Which of the following could be inferred from the passage about the CO2?

Solution: When the author tells that there is a different isotopic ratio if CO2 produced by humans and CO2 produced by the burning of fossil fuels, it becomes clear that there are different categories of CO2. Option (c), (d) and (a) talks about the information which is not present in the passage.
QUESTION: 111

According to many peer-reviewed studies, over 97% of climate scientists agree that human activity is extremely likely to be the cause of global climate change. An examination of scientific papers that didn’t agree that humans cause climate change found serious flaws and bias in their research. But a Purdue University survey found that 47% of climatologists challenge the idea that humans are primarily responsible for climate change and instead believe that climate change is caused by an equal combination of humans and the environment. Gases released into the atmosphere trap heat and cause the planet to warm through a process called the greenhouse effect. Over the 20th century, as the concentrations of CO2, CH4, and NO2 increased in the atmosphere due to human activity, the earth warmed by approximately 1.4°F. The specific type of CO2 that is increasing in earth’s atmosphere can be directly connected to human activity.

We can tell that CO2 produced by humans burning fossil fuels such as oil and coal is different from naturally occurring CO2 by looking at the specific isotopic ratio. The amount of solar energy received by the earth goes up and down in cycles, but overall, there is no net change since the 1950s. There has, however, been a big increase in global temperatures that is too large to attribute to the sun. The World Meteorological Organization said the current acceleration in the rate of ocean acidification ""appears unprecedented"" over the last 300 million years. Human-caused global warming is changing weather systems and making heat waves and droughts more intense and more frequent. In a process known as a positive feedback loop, more warming causes more humidity which causes even more warming.

Q. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the conclusion that Ocean acidification is causing degradation of ocean life?

Solution: The direct effect on coral reefs is bound to hamper marine life. Option (d) completely denounces any effect of CO2 into form of acidification, hence it is not strengthening. Option (a) and (b) seem to be mellowing down the effect of acidic oceans, in a way not strengthening the statement presented.
QUESTION: 112

According to many peer-reviewed studies, over 97% of climate scientists agree that human activity is extremely likely to be the cause of global climate change. An examination of scientific papers that didn’t agree that humans cause climate change found serious flaws and bias in their research. But a Purdue University survey found that 47% of climatologists challenge the idea that humans are primarily responsible for climate change and instead believe that climate change is caused by an equal combination of humans and the environment. Gases released into the atmosphere trap heat and cause the planet to warm through a process called the greenhouse effect. Over the 20th century, as the concentrations of CO2, CH4, and NO2 increased in the atmosphere due to human activity, the earth warmed by approximately 1.4°F. The specific type of CO2 that is increasing in earth’s atmosphere can be directly connected to human activity.

We can tell that CO2 produced by humans burning fossil fuels such as oil and coal is different from naturally occurring CO2 by looking at the specific isotopic ratio. The amount of solar energy received by the earth goes up and down in cycles, but overall, there is no net change since the 1950s. There has, however, been a big increase in global temperatures that is too large to attribute to the sun. The World Meteorological Organization said the current acceleration in the rate of ocean acidification ""appears unprecedented"" over the last 300 million years. Human-caused global warming is changing weather systems and making heat waves and droughts more intense and more frequent. In a process known as a positive feedback loop, more warming causes more humidity which causes even more warming.

Q. Which of the following would best represent the main point of the passage?

Solution: The whole passage is trying to connect the ongoing climate change with the activities of humans. Option (c) has a small mention in the passage, hence it is not the main point. Option (b) and (a) do not find a place in the passage.
QUESTION: 113

The business lobby risks crying wolf once too often over the UK Government’s plans to give fathers a fortnight’s paid paternity leave. If that sounds too sentimental, then think practically. The hospitals push mothers out of maternity wards as soon as possible. Who looks after them? Up to 20 percent of these women have had Caesarean deliveries. Fathers are a key support.

Breast–feeding is apparently more successful when dads are more supportive and well–informed. This is why the health service in Scotland targets dads in its public health education programme. It also points to a vital purpose for paternity leave. During the first fortnight, ham–fisted first–time parents gain both confidence and some knowledge. Health visitors are in and out of the home. But if dad is at work, he misses out, and so may his children. Does it matter that so many fathers are ignorant of the basics in child care? It does, when you stop to realise that more and more children are in the sole care of their fathers more of the time. In short, ignorant fathers are a danger to their children.

If this is still too sentimental for the business lobby, then let’s talk profit. AMP, Australia’s largest insurer, gives its new dads six weeks’ paid parental leave, far more than the Government’s parsimonious proposal. They reckon the scheme saves them money through reduced staff turnover. Looking after dads is not just good for families, it can be good for business.

Q. Which one of the following accurately expresses the main point of the passage?

Solution: The passage talks about why paternity leave is a hot potato. The passage talks about why paternity leaves are as important as maternity leaves but it does not delve into the equality between the two. Hence, option (b) is incorrect. Both option (c) and (d) are sub parts of the passage. Hence, the correct answer is option (a).
QUESTION: 114

The business lobby risks crying wolf once too often over the UK Government’s plans to give fathers a fortnight’s paid paternity leave. If that sounds too sentimental, then think practically. The hospitals push mothers out of maternity wards as soon as possible. Who looks after them? Up to 20 percent of these women have had Caesarean deliveries. Fathers are a key support.

Breast–feeding is apparently more successful when dads are more supportive and well–informed. This is why the health service in Scotland targets dads in its public health education programme. It also points to a vital purpose for paternity leave. During the first fortnight, ham–fisted first–time parents gain both confidence and some knowledge. Health visitors are in and out of the home. But if dad is at work, he misses out, and so may his children. Does it matter that so many fathers are ignorant of the basics in child care? It does, when you stop to realise that more and more children are in the sole care of their fathers more of the time. In short, ignorant fathers are a danger to their children.

If this is still too sentimental for the business lobby, then let’s talk profit. AMP, Australia’s largest insurer, gives its new dads six weeks’ paid parental leave, far more than the Government’s parsimonious proposal. They reckon the scheme saves them money through reduced staff turnover. Looking after dads is not just good for families, it can be good for business.

Q. Which one of the following strengthens the author’s argument in the first paragraph?

Solution: The first paragraph talks about how 80% of the women have cesarean deliveries and there is no one to take care of them. Moreover, absence of a father makes the father ignorant of the child's needs. Hence, option (b)is right.
QUESTION: 115

The business lobby risks crying wolf once too often over the UK Government’s plans to give fathers a fortnight’s paid paternity leave. If that sounds too sentimental, then think practically. The hospitals push mothers out of maternity wards as soon as possible. Who looks after them? Up to 20 percent of these women have had Caesarean deliveries. Fathers are a key support.

Breast–feeding is apparently more successful when dads are more supportive and well–informed. This is why the health service in Scotland targets dads in its public health education programme. It also points to a vital purpose for paternity leave. During the first fortnight, ham–fisted first–time parents gain both confidence and some knowledge. Health visitors are in and out of the home. But if dad is at work, he misses out, and so may his children. Does it matter that so many fathers are ignorant of the basics in child care? It does, when you stop to realise that more and more children are in the sole care of their fathers more of the time. In short, ignorant fathers are a danger to their children.

If this is still too sentimental for the business lobby, then let’s talk profit. AMP, Australia’s largest insurer, gives its new dads six weeks’ paid parental leave, far more than the Government’s parsimonious proposal. They reckon the scheme saves them money through reduced staff turnover. Looking after dads is not just good for families, it can be good for business.

Q. Which of the following is an assumption required by the author’s argument in the second paragraph?

Solution: The author of the passage assumes that the first fifteen days of a newborn is very critical. It is imperative for both the parents to be present as the lost time can’t come back. Hence, option (b) is the right answer.
QUESTION: 116

The business lobby risks crying wolf once too often over the UK Government’s plans to give fathers a fortnight’s paid paternity leave. If that sounds too sentimental, then think practically. The hospitals push mothers out of maternity wards as soon as possible. Who looks after them? Up to 20 percent of these women have had Caesarean deliveries. Fathers are a key support.

Breast–feeding is apparently more successful when dads are more supportive and well–informed. This is why the health service in Scotland targets dads in its public health education programme. It also points to a vital purpose for paternity leave. During the first fortnight, ham–fisted first–time parents gain both confidence and some knowledge. Health visitors are in and out of the home. But if dad is at work, he misses out, and so may his children. Does it matter that so many fathers are ignorant of the basics in child care? It does, when you stop to realise that more and more children are in the sole care of their fathers more of the time. In short, ignorant fathers are a danger to their children.

If this is still too sentimental for the business lobby, then let’s talk profit. AMP, Australia’s largest insurer, gives its new dads six weeks’ paid parental leave, far more than the Government’s parsimonious proposal. They reckon the scheme saves them money through reduced staff turnover. Looking after dads is not just good for families, it can be good for business.

Q. Which one of the following is a flaw in reasoning in the last paragraph?

Solution: Option (a) is wrong the author of the passage is advocating for paternity leaves in a suggestive manner. Option (b) is very vague. Option (c) is incorrect as the sources of the data are not mentioned and we can’t assume the validity of the same. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer as only the example of Australia is quoted to show that the policy should be implemented in UK.
QUESTION: 117

Four legal approaches may be followed in attempting to channel technological development in socially useful direction: specific directives, market incentive modifications, criminal prohibitions, and changes in decision-making structures. Specific directives involve the government’s identifying factors controlling research, development, or implementation of a given technology. Market incentive modifications are deliberate alterations of the market within which private decisions regarding the development and implementation of technology are made. eg Imposing taxes to cover the costs to society, granting subsidies to pay for social benefits, or easing procedural rules to enable the recovery of damages to compensate for harm caused by destructive technological activity. Criminal prohibitions may modify technological activity in areas impinging on fundamental social values, or they may modify human behavior likely to result from technological applications. Alteration of decision-making structures includes all possible modifications in the authority, constitution, or responsibility of private and public entities deciding questions of technological development and implementation.

Effective use of these methods to control technology depends on whether or not the goal of regulation is the optimal allocation of resources. When the object is optimal resource allocation, that combination of legal methods should be used that most nearly yields the allocation that would exist if there were no external costs resulting from allocating resources through market activity. There are external costs when the price set by buyers and sellers of goods fails to include some costs, to anyone, that result from the production and use of the goods. Such costs are internalized when buyers pay them.

Air pollution from motor vehicles imposes external costs on all those exposed to it, in the form of soiling, materials damage, and disease: these externalities result from failure to place a price on air, thus making it a free good, common to all. Such externalities lead to nonoptimal resource allocation, because the private net product and the social net product of market activity are not often identical. If all externalities were internalized, transactions would occur until bargaining could no longer improve the situation, thus giving an optimal allocation of resources at a given time.

Q. The passage is primarily concerned with describing

Solution: The passage talks about the four legal approaches that may be followed in attempting to channel technological development in socially useful direction.
QUESTION: 118

Four legal approaches may be followed in attempting to channel technological development in socially useful direction: specific directives, market incentive modifications, criminal prohibitions, and changes in decision-making structures. Specific directives involve the government’s identifying factors controlling research, development, or implementation of a given technology. Market incentive modifications are deliberate alterations of the market within which private decisions regarding the development and implementation of technology are made. eg Imposing taxes to cover the costs to society, granting subsidies to pay for social benefits, or easing procedural rules to enable the recovery of damages to compensate for harm caused by destructive technological activity. Criminal prohibitions may modify technological activity in areas impinging on fundamental social values, or they may modify human behavior likely to result from technological applications. Alteration of decision-making structures includes all possible modifications in the authority, constitution, or responsibility of private and public entities deciding questions of technological development and implementation.

Effective use of these methods to control technology depends on whether or not the goal of regulation is the optimal allocation of resources. When the object is optimal resource allocation, that combination of legal methods should be used that most nearly yields the allocation that would exist if there were no external costs resulting from allocating resources through market activity. There are external costs when the price set by buyers and sellers of goods fails to include some costs, to anyone, that result from the production and use of the goods. Such costs are internalized when buyers pay them.

Air pollution from motor vehicles imposes external costs on all those exposed to it, in the form of soiling, materials damage, and disease: these externalities result from failure to place a price on air, thus making it a free good, common to all. Such externalities lead to non optimal resource allocation, because the private net product and the social net product of market activity are not often identical. If all externalities were internalized, transactions would occur until bargaining could no longer improve the situation, thus giving an optimal allocation of resources at a given time.

Q. The author cites air pollution from motor vehicles in the last paragraph in order to

Solution: Air pollution imposes external costs not included in the transactions. So Option (C) is the answer.
QUESTION: 119

Four legal approaches may be followed in attempting to channel technological development in socially useful direction: specific directives, market incentive modifications, criminal prohibitions, and changes in decision-making structures. Specific directives involve the government’s identifying factors controlling research, development, or implementation of a given technology. Market incentive modifications are deliberate alterations of the market within which private decisions regarding the development and implementation of technology are made. eg Imposing taxes to cover the costs to society, granting subsidies to pay for social benefits, or easing procedural rules to enable the recovery of damages to compensate for harm caused by destructive technological act