CLAT Mock Test- 15


150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 15


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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 15 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 15 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 15 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 15 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 15 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

With #BoycottNetflix trending on Twitter and the Netizens' calls for justice against the seemingly Hindu-phobic content being showcased with streams such as the recent 'Krishna and his Leela', curiosity about the influence of movies and TV shows on the general public and trends of 'film-criticism' have been raised to their peak, begging the question of 'where exactly are we headed with this?

The purpose of movies and TV shows, as it was supposed to be, consisted of a world of fantasies created factoring in immersive cinematography, screenwriting and soundscapes along with a great extent of creative liberty which diverted people from their day to day lives for those 2 or 3 hours and provided them with a place of mental rest. Movies and TV shows are synonymous with practices of passing time and a leisurely, tension-free practice of 'being', where all a viewer is supposed to do is to sit and consume the prepared content being played in front of her/his eyes.

With the advent of films, somewhere down the line came the need for film-criticism and reviews. With the need for film-criticism and reviews came the need to watch films academically instead of leisurely. With the need for academic and analytical viewing of films, that were by default supposed to be viewed applying the least bit of our own brains, came the greed of a bunch of business-minded men who stopped at nothing in turning it into a prospectively prosperous field of study. The unwavering pursuit of excellence in the then newfound film-studies for a few became an obsession which led to unwanted lengths of dissection of even the simplest of films.

The consumers were now being delivered colossal amounts of free desserts with their limited main course, and a long-standing saturation of information led us all into turning a blind eye towards the true purpose of this creative industry. The haze that surrounded the idea of a layman's own opinion about films after watching them diverted everyone else's attention towards these unwanted research journals created over a bedrock of an oftentimes entirely fictitious world, solely pushed into being for the purpose of mindless entertainment.

Now the world is pissed off, the Hindus demand for their gods to not be demeaned the way they have been, Americans demand for their country to be showcased as the King of the Jungle with the most vibrant and richest historical value the world has ever seen, the Congress party demands for their past leaders to be sensationalized, the B.J.P. demands for their present leaders to be sensationalized, and so on and so forth.

As per the author what was the purpose of movies and TV shows when they were first made?

Solution: Only Option (A) is the purpose as per the second paragraph.
QUESTION: 2

With #BoycottNetflix trending on Twitter and the Netizens' calls for justice against the seemingly Hindu-phobic content being showcased with streams such as the recent 'Krishna and his Leela', curiosity about the influence of movies and TV shows on the general public and trends of 'film-criticism' have been raised to their peak, begging the question of 'where exactly are we headed with this?

The purpose of movies and TV shows, as it was supposed to be, consisted of a world of fantasies created factoring in immersive cinematography, screenwriting and soundscapes along with a great extent of creative liberty which diverted people from their day to day lives for those 2 or 3 hours and provided them with a place of mental rest. Movies and TV shows are synonymous with practices of passing time and a leisurely, tension-free practice of 'being', where all a viewer is supposed to do is to sit and consume the prepared content being played in front of her/his eyes.

With the advent of films, somewhere down the line came the need for film-criticism and reviews. With the need for film-criticism and reviews came the need to watch films academically instead of leisurely. With the need for academic and analytical viewing of films, that were by default supposed to be viewed applying the least bit of our own brains, came the greed of a bunch of business-minded men who stopped at nothing in turning it into a prospectively prosperous field of study. The unwavering pursuit of excellence in the then newfound film-studies for a few became an obsession which led to unwanted lengths of dissection of even the simplest of films.

The consumers were now being delivered colossal amounts of free desserts with their limited main course, and a long-standing saturation of information led us all into turning a blind eye towards the true purpose of this creative industry. The haze that surrounded the idea of a layman's own opinion about films after watching them diverted everyone else's attention towards these unwanted research journals created over a bedrock of an oftentimes entirely fictitious world, solely pushed into being for the purpose of mindless entertainment.

Now the world is pissed off, the Hindus demand for their gods to not be demeaned the way they have been, Americans demand for their country to be showcased as the King of the Jungle with the most vibrant and richest historical value the world has ever seen, the Congress party demands for their past leaders to be sensationalized, the B.J.P. demands for their present leaders to be sensationalized, and so on and so forth.

As per the author how are movies and TV shows viewed in the present scenario?

Solution: The claim of the author is that today, movies and TV shows are considered as academic works, where every frame is studied detail and reviewed critically. It is no longer considered as a creative work of art to be viewed without the mind/brains in a leisurely manner.
QUESTION: 3

With #BoycottNetflix trending on Twitter and the Netizens' calls for justice against the seemingly Hindu-phobic content being showcased with streams such as the recent 'Krishna and his Leela', curiosity about the influence of movies and TV shows on the general public and trends of 'film-criticism' have been raised to their peak, begging the question of 'where exactly are we headed with this?

The purpose of movies and TV shows, as it was supposed to be, consisted of a world of fantasies created factoring in immersive cinematography, screenwriting and soundscapes along with a great extent of creative liberty which diverted people from their day to day lives for those 2 or 3 hours and provided them with a place of mental rest. Movies and TV shows are synonymous with practices of passing time and a leisurely, tension-free practice of 'being', where all a viewer is supposed to do is to sit and consume the prepared content being played in front of her/his eyes.

With the advent of films, somewhere down the line came the need for film-criticism and reviews. With the need for film-criticism and reviews came the need to watch films academically instead of leisurely. With the need for academic and analytical viewing of films, that were by default supposed to be viewed applying the least bit of our own brains, came the greed of a bunch of business-minded men who stopped at nothing in turning it into a prospectively prosperous field of study. The unwavering pursuit of excellence in the then newfound film-studies for a few became an obsession which led to unwanted lengths of dissection of even the simplest of films.

The consumers were now being delivered colossal amounts of free desserts with their limited main course, and a long-standing saturation of information led us all into turning a blind eye towards the true purpose of this creative industry. The haze that surrounded the idea of a layman's own opinion about films after watching them diverted everyone else's attention towards these unwanted research journals created over a bedrock of an oftentimes entirely fictitious world, solely pushed into being for the purpose of mindless entertainment.

Now the world is pissed off, the Hindus demand for their gods to not be demeaned the way they have been, Americans demand for their country to be showcased as the King of the Jungle with the most vibrant and richest historical value the world has ever seen, the Congress party demands for their past leaders to be sensationalized, the B.J.P. demands for their present leaders to be sensationalized, and so on and so forth.

Solution: That is the essence of the passage.
QUESTION: 4

With #BoycottNetflix trending on Twitter and the Netizens' calls for justice against the seemingly Hindu-phobic content being showcased with streams such as the recent 'Krishna and his Leela', curiosity about the influence of movies and TV shows on the general public and trends of 'film-criticism' have been raised to their peak, begging the question of 'where exactly are we headed with this?

The purpose of movies and TV shows, as it was supposed to be, consisted of a world of fantasies created factoring in immersive cinematography, screenwriting and soundscapes along with a great extent of creative liberty which diverted people from their day to day lives for those 2 or 3 hours and provided them with a place of mental rest. Movies and TV shows are synonymous with practices of passing time and a leisurely, tension-free practice of 'being', where all a viewer is supposed to do is to sit and consume the prepared content being played in front of her/his eyes.

With the advent of films, somewhere down the line came the need for film-criticism and reviews. With the need for film-criticism and reviews came the need to watch films academically instead of leisurely. With the need for academic and analytical viewing of films, that were by default supposed to be viewed applying the least bit of our own brains, came the greed of a bunch of business-minded men who stopped at nothing in turning it into a prospectively prosperous field of study. The unwavering pursuit of excellence in the then newfound film-studies for a few became an obsession which led to unwanted lengths of dissection of even the simplest of films.

The consumers were now being delivered colossal amounts of free desserts with their limited main course, and a long-standing saturation of information led us all into turning a blind eye towards the true purpose of this creative industry. The haze that surrounded the idea of a layman's own opinion about films after watching them diverted everyone else's attention towards these unwanted research journals created over a bedrock of an oftentimes entirely fictitious world, solely pushed into being for the purpose of mindless entertainment.

Now the world is pissed off, the Hindus demand for their gods to not be demeaned the way they have been, Americans demand for their country to be showcased as the King of the Jungle with the most vibrant and richest historical value the world has ever seen, the Congress party demands for their past leaders to be sensationalized, the B.J.P. demands for their present leaders to be sensationalized, and so on and so forth.

What does the author mean by “that were by default supposed to be viewed applying the least bit of our own brains”?

Solution: Without our brains indicates without any coloured judgment or predetermined standards.
QUESTION: 5

With #BoycottNetflix trending on Twitter and the Netizens' calls for justice against the seemingly Hindu-phobic content being showcased with streams such as the recent 'Krishna and his Leela', curiosity about the influence of movies and TV shows on the general public and trends of 'film-criticism' have been raised to their peak, begging the question of 'where exactly are we headed with this?

The purpose of movies and TV shows, as it was supposed to be, consisted of a world of fantasies created factoring in immersive cinematography, screenwriting and soundscapes along with a great extent of creative liberty which diverted people from their day to day lives for those 2 or 3 hours and provided them with a place of mental rest. Movies and TV shows are synonymous with practices of passing time and a leisurely, tension-free practice of 'being', where all a viewer is supposed to do is to sit and consume the prepared content being played in front of her/his eyes.

With the advent of films, somewhere down the line came the need for film-criticism and reviews. With the need for film-criticism and reviews came the need to watch films academically instead of leisurely. With the need for academic and analytical viewing of films, that were by default supposed to be viewed applying the least bit of our own brains, came the greed of a bunch of business-minded men who stopped at nothing in turning it into a prospectively prosperous field of study. The unwavering pursuit of excellence in the then newfound film-studies for a few became an obsession which led to unwanted lengths of dissection of even the simplest of films.

The consumers were now being delivered colossal amounts of free desserts with their limited main course, and a long-standing saturation of information led us all into turning a blind eye towards the true purpose of this creative industry. The haze that surrounded the idea of a layman's own opinion about films after watching them diverted everyone else's attention towards these unwanted research journals created over a bedrock of an oftentimes entirely fictitious world, solely pushed into being for the purpose of mindless entertainment.

Now the world is pissed off, the Hindus demand for their gods to not be demeaned the way they have been, Americans demand for their country to be showcased as the King of the Jungle with the most vibrant and richest historical value the world has ever seen, the Congress party demands for their past leaders to be sensationalized, the B.J.P. demands for their present leaders to be sensationalized, and so on and so forth.

Why is the world pissed off as per the author in the current times while watching movies?

Solution: Option (A) as inferred from the last paragraph. Aggrandize means "to increase the power or reputation of something," and it usually implies that there's some exaggeration going on.
QUESTION: 6

With #BoycottNetflix trending on Twitter and the Netizens' calls for justice against the seemingly Hindu-phobic content being showcased with streams such as the recent 'Krishna and his Leela', curiosity about the influence of movies and TV shows on the general public and trends of 'film-criticism' have been raised to their peak, begging the question of 'where exactly are we headed with this?

The purpose of movies and TV shows, as it was supposed to be, consisted of a world of fantasies created factoring in immersive cinematography, screenwriting and soundscapes along with a great extent of creative liberty which diverted people from their day to day lives for those 2 or 3 hours and provided them with a place of mental rest. Movies and TV shows are synonymous with practices of passing time and a leisurely, tension-free practice of 'being', where all a viewer is supposed to do is to sit and consume the prepared content being played in front of her/his eyes.

With the advent of films, somewhere down the line came the need for film-criticism and reviews. With the need for film-criticism and reviews came the need to watch films academically instead of leisurely. With the need for academic and analytical viewing of films, that were by default supposed to be viewed applying the least bit of our own brains, came the greed of a bunch of business-minded men who stopped at nothing in turning it into a prospectively prosperous field of study. The unwavering pursuit of excellence in the then newfound film-studies for a few became an obsession which led to unwanted lengths of dissection of even the simplest of films.

The consumers were now being delivered colossal amounts of free desserts with their limited main course, and a long-standing saturation of information led us all into turning a blind eye towards the true purpose of this creative industry. The haze that surrounded the idea of a layman's own opinion about films after watching them diverted everyone else's attention towards these unwanted research journals created over a bedrock of an oftentimes entirely fictitious world, solely pushed into being for the purpose of mindless entertainment.

Now the world is pissed off, the Hindus demand for their gods to not be demeaned the way they have been, Americans demand for their country to be showcased as the King of the Jungle with the most vibrant and richest historical value the world has ever seen, the Congress party demands for their past leaders to be sensationalized, the B.J.P. demands for their present leaders to be sensationalized, and so on and so forth.

Choose the antonyms of the following words in order - “Advent, Colossal, Demean”.

Solution: Advent means arrival, creation of something opposite of which would be disappearance. Colossal means tremendous, massive opposite of which is miniscule, tiny, miniature. Demean means humiliating opposite of this would be dignified.
QUESTION: 7

The chair of the judging panel, Margaret Busby, announced the selection of 13 novels for the 2020 Booker Prize longlist (the “Booker dozen”) one of the most interesting and diverse we’ve seen in a long time.

The inclusion of Hilary Mantel’s latest book, and the final in her Wolf Hall trilogy, The Mirror & the Light. Both the two previous books in the trilogy – Wolf Hall and Bring Up the Bodies – won the Booker Prize, in 2009 and 2012 respectively. If Mantel was to win the 2020 Booker Prize for The Mirror & the Light she would be the first author to ever win three Bookers.

Second, nearly half of the longlist is made up of debut novels, which even the literary director of the Booker Prize Foundation, Gaby Wood, has admitted is an “unusually high proportion”. This is certainly something the Booker Prize and its judging panel should be commended for.

Like all other creative industries, publishing has been hit hard by the worldwide pandemic. From the cancellation of major events, including the London Book Fair in March and the closing of bookshops, to the postponement of major releases, including Ruth Jones’ second novel Us Three, the 2020 publishing calendar has been turned upside down.

The celebration of debut novels in the Booker Prize longlist, then, is particularly fortuitous, since many debut writers have lost the opportunity to go through the usual new book tours, literary event circuits and bookshop signings.

Finally, it is worth highlighting the kinds of themes and issues dealt with in the longlisted books. The books examine race, homosexuality, gender and gender identity, poverty, class (and in some cases, intersections of them all), homelessness, and climate change.

The subjects foregrounded by many of the longlisted books, therefore, not only speak to current socio-political movements and conflict – most notably Black Lives Matter and the call for active anti-racism. But they also foreshadow the kinds of issues we will undoubtedly come up against (and, in some circumstances, already are) in a post-coronavirus world. In other words, more so than ever before, this longlist feels both born from, and representative of, the very particular moment in history in which we are in.

But only time will tell if this will be reflected in the final shortlist which will be announced on September 15, with the winner being announced in November. If Mantel were to be crowned the winner – receiving her third Booker Prize in just over a decade – it would arguably prove that yet again the Booker Prize acts only to reinforce, as opposed to disrupting as hoped, the systemic inequalities and imbalances of contemporary publishing culture.

Which of the following were the problems faced by the publication houses or novelists due to Covid-19?

Solution: Because of covid-19, they had to push the release dates of many books according to the passage.
QUESTION: 8

The chair of the judging panel, Margaret Busby, announced the selection of 13 novels for the 2020 Booker Prize longlist (the “Booker dozen”) one of the most interesting and diverse we’ve seen in a long time.

The inclusion of Hilary Mantel’s latest book, and the final in her Wolf Hall trilogy, The Mirror & the Light. Both the two previous books in the trilogy – Wolf Hall and Bring Up the Bodies – won the Booker Prize, in 2009 and 2012 respectively. If Mantel was to win the 2020 Booker Prize for The Mirror & the Light she would be the first author to ever win three Bookers.

Second, nearly half of the longlist is made up of debut novels, which even the literary director of the Booker Prize Foundation, Gaby Wood, has admitted is an “unusually high proportion”. This is certainly something the Booker Prize and its judging panel should be commended for.

Like all other creative industries, publishing has been hit hard by the worldwide pandemic. From the cancellation of major events, including the London Book Fair in March and the closing of bookshops, to the postponement of major releases, including Ruth Jones’ second novel Us Three, the 2020 publishing calendar has been turned upside down.

The celebration of debut novels in the Booker Prize longlist, then, is particularly fortuitous, since many debut writers have lost the opportunity to go through the usual new book tours, literary event circuits and bookshop signings.

Finally, it is worth highlighting the kinds of themes and issues dealt with in the longlisted books. The books examine race, homosexuality, gender and gender identity, poverty, class (and in some cases, intersections of them all), homelessness, and climate change.

The subjects foregrounded by many of the longlisted books, therefore, not only speak to current socio-political movements and conflict – most notably Black Lives Matter and the call for active anti-racism. But they also foreshadow the kinds of issues we will undoubtedly come up against (and, in some circumstances, already are) in a post-coronavirus world. In other words, more so than ever before, this longlist feels both born from, and representative of, the very particular moment in history in which we are in.

But only time will tell if this will be reflected in the final shortlist which will be announced on September 15, with the winner being announced in November. If Mantel were to be crowned the winner – receiving her third Booker Prize in just over a decade – it would arguably prove that yet again the Booker Prize acts only to reinforce, as opposed to disrupting as hoped, the systemic inequalities and imbalances of contemporary publishing culture.

Who would be the first author to win three bookers if their nomination won in 2020?

Solution: Hilary Mantel won in 2009 and 2012, if she wins in 2020, it will be three times.
QUESTION: 9

The chair of the judging panel, Margaret Busby, announced the selection of 13 novels for the 2020 Booker Prize longlist (the “Booker dozen”) one of the most interesting and diverse we’ve seen in a long time.

The inclusion of Hilary Mantel’s latest book, and the final in her Wolf Hall trilogy, The Mirror & the Light. Both the two previous books in the trilogy – Wolf Hall and Bring Up the Bodies – won the Booker Prize, in 2009 and 2012 respectively. If Mantel was to win the 2020 Booker Prize for The Mirror & the Light she would be the first author to ever win three Bookers.

Second, nearly half of the longlist is made up of debut novels, which even the literary director of the Booker Prize Foundation, Gaby Wood, has admitted is an “unusually high proportion”. This is certainly something the Booker Prize and its judging panel should be commended for.

Like all other creative industries, publishing has been hit hard by the worldwide pandemic. From the cancellation of major events, including the London Book Fair in March and the closing of bookshops, to the postponement of major releases, including Ruth Jones’ second novel Us Three, the 2020 publishing calendar has been turned upside down.

The celebration of debut novels in the Booker Prize longlist, then, is particularly fortuitous, since many debut writers have lost the opportunity to go through the usual new book tours, literary event circuits and bookshop signings.

Finally, it is worth highlighting the kinds of themes and issues dealt with in the longlisted books. The books examine race, homosexuality, gender and gender identity, poverty, class (and in some cases, intersections of them all), homelessness, and climate change.

The subjects foregrounded by many of the longlisted books, therefore, not only speak to current socio-political movements and conflict – most notably Black Lives Matter and the call for active anti-racism. But they also foreshadow the kinds of issues we will undoubtedly come up against (and, in some circumstances, already are) in a post-coronavirus world. In other words, more so than ever before, this longlist feels both born from, and representative of, the very particular moment in history in which we are in.

But only time will tell if this will be reflected in the final shortlist which will be announced on September 15, with the winner being announced in November. If Mantel were to be crowned the winner – receiving her third Booker Prize in just over a decade – it would arguably prove that yet again the Booker Prize acts only to reinforce, as opposed to disrupting as hoped, the systemic inequalities and imbalances of contemporary publishing culture.

As per the author what should the Booker Prize and its judging panel be commended for?

Solution: Long list of debut novels made it to the list, which the author of the passage feels it commendable
QUESTION: 10

The chair of the judging panel, Margaret Busby, announced the selection of 13 novels for the 2020 Booker Prize longlist (the “Booker dozen”) one of the most interesting and diverse we’ve seen in a long time.

The inclusion of Hilary Mantel’s latest book, and the final in her Wolf Hall trilogy, The Mirror & the Light. Both the two previous books in the trilogy – Wolf Hall and Bring Up the Bodies – won the Booker Prize, in 2009 and 2012 respectively. If Mantel was to win the 2020 Booker Prize for The Mirror & the Light she would be the first author to ever win three Bookers.

Second, nearly half of the longlist is made up of debut novels, which even the literary director of the Booker Prize Foundation, Gaby Wood, has admitted is an “unusually high proportion”. This is certainly something the Booker Prize and its judging panel should be commended for.

Like all other creative industries, publishing has been hit hard by the worldwide pandemic. From the cancellation of major events, including the London Book Fair in March and the closing of bookshops, to the postponement of major releases, including Ruth Jones’ second novel Us Three, the 2020 publishing calendar has been turned upside down.

The celebration of debut novels in the Booker Prize longlist, then, is particularly fortuitous, since many debut writers have lost the opportunity to go through the usual new book tours, literary event circuits and bookshop signings.

Finally, it is worth highlighting the kinds of themes and issues dealt with in the longlisted books. The books examine race, homosexuality, gender and gender identity, poverty, class (and in some cases, intersections of them all), homelessness, and climate change.

The subjects foregrounded by many of the longlisted books, therefore, not only speak to current socio-political movements and conflict – most notably Black Lives Matter and the call for active anti-racism. But they also foreshadow the kinds of issues we will undoubtedly come up against (and, in some circumstances, already are) in a post-coronavirus world. In other words, more so than ever before, this longlist feels both born from, and representative of, the very particular moment in history in which we are in.

But only time will tell if this will be reflected in the final shortlist which will be announced on September 15, with the winner being announced in November. If Mantel were to be crowned the winner – receiving her third Booker Prize in just over a decade – it would arguably prove that yet again the Booker Prize acts only to reinforce, as opposed to disrupting as hoped, the systemic inequalities and imbalances of contemporary publishing culture.

Solution:
QUESTION: 11

The chair of the judging panel, Margaret Busby, announced the selection of 13 novels for the 2020 Booker Prize longlist (the “Booker dozen”) one of the most interesting and diverse we’ve seen in a long time.

The inclusion of Hilary Mantel’s latest book, and the final in her Wolf Hall trilogy, The Mirror & the Light. Both the two previous books in the trilogy – Wolf Hall and Bring Up the Bodies – won the Booker Prize, in 2009 and 2012 respectively. If Mantel was to win the 2020 Booker Prize for The Mirror & the Light she would be the first author to ever win three Bookers.

Second, nearly half of the longlist is made up of debut novels, which even the literary director of the Booker Prize Foundation, Gaby Wood, has admitted is an “unusually high proportion”. This is certainly something the Booker Prize and its judging panel should be commended for.

Like all other creative industries, publishing has been hit hard by the worldwide pandemic. From the cancellation of major events, including the London Book Fair in March and the closing of bookshops, to the postponement of major releases, including Ruth Jones’ second novel Us Three, the 2020 publishing calendar has been turned upside down.

The celebration of debut novels in the Booker Prize longlist, then, is particularly fortuitous, since many debut writers have lost the opportunity to go through the usual new book tours, literary event circuits and bookshop signings.

Finally, it is worth highlighting the kinds of themes and issues dealt with in the longlisted books. The books examine race, homosexuality, gender and gender identity, poverty, class (and in some cases, intersections of them all), homelessness, and climate change.

The subjects foregrounded by many of the longlisted books, therefore, not only speak to current socio-political movements and conflict – most notably Black Lives Matter and the call for active anti-racism. But they also foreshadow the kinds of issues we will undoubtedly come up against (and, in some circumstances, already are) in a post-coronavirus world. In other words, more so than ever before, this longlist feels both born from, and representative of, the very particular moment in history in which we are in.

But only time will tell if this will be reflected in the final shortlist which will be announced on September 15, with the winner being announced in November. If Mantel were to be crowned the winner – receiving her third Booker Prize in just over a decade – it would arguably prove that yet again the Booker Prize acts only to reinforce, as opposed to disrupting as hoped, the systemic inequalities and imbalances of contemporary publishing culture.

As per the author, what would arguably prove that the Booker Prize acts only to reinforce, as opposed to disrupting as hoped, the systemic inequalities and imbalances of contemporary publishing culture.

Solution: If Hilary Mantel wins, the booker prize would only reinforce the hegemony. instead it would have disrupted the hegemony if they chose new authors with important themes as the author hoped.
QUESTION: 12

The chair of the judging panel, Margaret Busby, announced the selection of 13 novels for the 2020 Booker Prize longlist (the “Booker dozen”) one of the most interesting and diverse we’ve seen in a long time.

The inclusion of Hilary Mantel’s latest book, and the final in her Wolf Hall trilogy, The Mirror & the Light. Both the two previous books in the trilogy – Wolf Hall and Bring Up the Bodies – won the Booker Prize, in 2009 and 2012 respectively. If Mantel was to win the 2020 Booker Prize for The Mirror & the Light she would be the first author to ever win three Bookers.

Second, nearly half of the longlist is made up of debut novels, which even the literary director of the Booker Prize Foundation, Gaby Wood, has admitted is an “unusually high proportion”. This is certainly something the Booker Prize and its judging panel should be commended for.

Like all other creative industries, publishing has been hit hard by the worldwide pandemic. From the cancellation of major events, including the London Book Fair in March and the closing of bookshops, to the postponement of major releases, including Ruth Jones’ second novel Us Three, the 2020 publishing calendar has been turned upside down.

The celebration of debut novels in the Booker Prize longlist, then, is particularly fortuitous, since many debut writers have lost the opportunity to go through the usual new book tours, literary event circuits and bookshop signings.

Finally, it is worth highlighting the kinds of themes and issues dealt with in the longlisted books. The books examine race, homosexuality, gender and gender identity, poverty, class (and in some cases, intersections of them all), homelessness, and climate change.

The subjects foregrounded by many of the longlisted books, therefore, not only speak to current socio-political movements and conflict – most notably Black Lives Matter and the call for active anti-racism. But they also foreshadow the kinds of issues we will undoubtedly come up against (and, in some circumstances, already are) in a post-coronavirus world. In other words, more so than ever before, this longlist feels both born from, and representative of, the very particular moment in history in which we are in.

But only time will tell if this will be reflected in the final shortlist which will be announced on September 15, with the winner being announced in November. If Mantel were to be crowned the winner – receiving her third Booker Prize in just over a decade – it would arguably prove that yet again the Booker Prize acts only to reinforce, as opposed to disrupting as hoped, the systemic inequalities and imbalances of contemporary publishing culture.

Which of the following is not true as per the passage?

Solution: The short list will be announced on September 15th not October 18th.
QUESTION: 13

The worst time to discover you’re out of cough medicine is when you wake up in the middle of the night hacking and barking. And when your child is fretful with a fever there is no time to rifle through the supply bin and wonder if it’s okay to use expired Tylenol. Be prepared for your next health incident by knowing what you have and what you don’t so you can stock up as necessary. Medicine—like good health itself—is one of those things you rarely think about until you need it. But when you need it, you really need it right that minute. Going through your medicine closet is also a matter of safety. Medication poses a risk to animals and children when it’s accessible; the less you have around, the better. Check out the guidelines from the National Library of Medicine for proper storage of medication. Go through your medicine and medical supplies, discard what’s too old, and make a list of what you need to replenish. Here’s what to do:

Open the medicine cabinet, unpack the drawers, and pull down those storage baskets. Look for used and unused medication, but also other supplies such as bandages and antiseptic so you can see what needs restocking. Once you have everything together, check expiration dates and decide whether you will keep or discard those items. For those items you’re keeping, place them back into your cabinets and drawers. If there’s anything you need to toss and/or restock, add it to a list of things to buy next time you’re at the store. For everything you decided to toss, dispose of your medication safely. The best way to dispose of your unused or unwanted medicine is through a drug take back program. Check out DisposeMyMeds.com to find a location near you. This applies to both prescription and over-the-counter medication. If a drug takes back location is not readily available, check the FDA flush list for medication that should be flushed in order to avoid a deadly risk to children and pets. When a drug takes back program is not available, medication not on the flush list may be disposed of according to the instructions from the FDA, which recommend mixing medicine with dirt, cat litter, or coffee grounds, then disposing of them inside a zippered plastic bag in the trash.

Why is it so that the less you have the medications around, the better?

Solution: Medication poses a risk to animals and children when it’s accessible That’s why the less you have around, the better.
QUESTION: 14

The worst time to discover you’re out of cough medicine is when you wake up in the middle of the night hacking and barking. And when your child is fretful with a fever there is no time to rifle through the supply bin and wonder if it’s okay to use expired Tylenol. Be prepared for your next health incident by knowing what you have and what you don’t so you can stock up as necessary. Medicine—like good health itself—is one of those things you rarely think about until you need it. But when you need it, you really need it right that minute. Going through your medicine closet is also a matter of safety. Medication poses a risk to animals and children when it’s accessible; the less you have around, the better. Check out the guidelines from the National Library of Medicine for proper storage of medication. Go through your medicine and medical supplies, discard what’s too old, and make a list of what you need to replenish. Here’s what to do:

Open the medicine cabinet, unpack the drawers, and pull down those storage baskets. Look for used and unused medication, but also other supplies such as bandages and antiseptic so you can see what needs restocking. Once you have everything together, check expiration dates and decide whether you will keep or discard those items. For those items you’re keeping, place them back into your cabinets and drawers. If there’s anything you need to toss and/or restock, add it to a list of things to buy next time you’re at the store. For everything you decided to toss, dispose of your medication safely. The best way to dispose of your unused or unwanted medicine is through a drug take back program. Check out DisposeMyMeds.com to find a location near you. This applies to both prescription and over-the-counter medication. If a drug takes back location is not readily available, check the FDA flush list for medication that should be flushed in order to avoid a deadly risk to children and pets. When a drug takes back program is not available, medication not on the flush list may be disposed of according to the instructions from the FDA, which recommend mixing medicine with dirt, cat litter, or coffee grounds, then disposing of them inside a zippered plastic bag in the trash.

Choose the option with correct order:

Solution: Open cabinet – unpack drawers – pull down storage baskets – look for used and unused medication – check expiration dates – place back items you’re keeping – make a list of things you need to buy. This is the correct sequence.
QUESTION: 15

The worst time to discover you’re out of cough medicine is when you wake up in the middle of the night hacking and barking. And when your child is fretful with a fever there is no time to rifle through the supply bin and wonder if it’s okay to use expired Tylenol. Be prepared for your next health incident by knowing what you have and what you don’t so you can stock up as necessary. Medicine—like good health itself—is one of those things you rarely think about until you need it. But when you need it, you really need it right that minute. Going through your medicine closet is also a matter of safety. Medication poses a risk to animals and children when it’s accessible; the less you have around, the better. Check out the guidelines from the National Library of Medicine for proper storage of medication. Go through your medicine and medical supplies, discard what’s too old, and make a list of what you need to replenish. Here’s what to do:

Open the medicine cabinet, unpack the drawers, and pull down those storage baskets. Look for used and unused medication, but also other supplies such as bandages and antiseptic so you can see what needs restocking. Once you have everything together, check expiration dates and decide whether you will keep or discard those items. For those items you’re keeping, place them back into your cabinets and drawers. If there’s anything you need to toss and/or restock, add it to a list of things to buy next time you’re at the store. For everything you decided to toss, dispose of your medication safely. The best way to dispose of your unused or unwanted medicine is through a drug take back program. Check out DisposeMyMeds.com to find a location near you. This applies to both prescription and over-the-counter medication. If a drug takes back location is not readily available, check the FDA flush list for medication that should be flushed in order to avoid a deadly risk to children and pets. When a drug takes back program is not available, medication not on the flush list may be disposed of according to the instructions from the FDA, which recommend mixing medicine with dirt, cat litter, or coffee grounds, then disposing of them inside a zippered plastic bag in the trash.

Which of the following is the best way to dispose of unwanted medicine?

Solution: The best way to dispose of your unused or unwanted medicine is through a drug take back program.
QUESTION: 16

The worst time to discover you’re out of cough medicine is when you wake up in the middle of the night hacking and barking. And when your child is fretful with a fever there is no time to rifle through the supply bin and wonder if it’s okay to use expired Tylenol. Be prepared for your next health incident by knowing what you have and what you don’t so you can stock up as necessary. Medicine—like good health itself—is one of those things you rarely think about until you need it. But when you need it, you really need it right that minute. Going through your medicine closet is also a matter of safety. Medication poses a risk to animals and children when it’s accessible; the less you have around, the better. Check out the guidelines from the National Library of Medicine for proper storage of medication. Go through your medicine and medical supplies, discard what’s too old, and make a list of what you need to replenish. Here’s what to do:

Open the medicine cabinet, unpack the drawers, and pull down those storage baskets. Look for used and unused medication, but also other supplies such as bandages and antiseptic so you can see what needs restocking. Once you have everything together, check expiration dates and decide whether you will keep or discard those items. For those items you’re keeping, place them back into your cabinets and drawers. If there’s anything you need to toss and/or restock, add it to a list of things to buy next time you’re at the store. For everything you decided to toss, dispose of your medication safely. The best way to dispose of your unused or unwanted medicine is through a drug take back program. Check out DisposeMyMeds.com to find a location near you. This applies to both prescription and over-the-counter medication. If a drug takes back location is not readily available, check the FDA flush list for medication that should be flushed in order to avoid a deadly risk to children and pets. When a drug takes back program is not available, medication not on the flush list may be disposed of according to the instructions from the FDA, which recommend mixing medicine with dirt, cat litter, or coffee grounds, then disposing of them inside a zippered plastic bag in the trash.

When can we be needed to dispose of the medicines inside a zippered plastic bag in the trash?

Solution: When a drug takes back program is not available, medication not on the flush list may be disposed of according to the instructions from the FDA, which recommend mixing medicine with dirt, cat litter, or coffee grounds, then disposing of them inside a zippered plastic bag in the trash.
QUESTION: 17

The worst time to discover you’re out of cough medicine is when you wake up in the middle of the night hacking and barking. And when your child is fretful with a fever there is no time to rifle through the supply bin and wonder if it’s okay to use expired Tylenol. Be prepared for your next health incident by knowing what you have and what you don’t so you can stock up as necessary. Medicine—like good health itself—is one of those things you rarely think about until you need it. But when you need it, you really need it right that minute. Going through your medicine closet is also a matter of safety. Medication poses a risk to animals and children when it’s accessible; the less you have around, the better. Check out the guidelines from the National Library of Medicine for proper storage of medication. Go through your medicine and medical supplies, discard what’s too old, and make a list of what you need to replenish. Here’s what to do:

Open the medicine cabinet, unpack the drawers, and pull down those storage baskets. Look for used and unused medication, but also other supplies such as bandages and antiseptic so you can see what needs restocking. Once you have everything together, check expiration dates and decide whether you will keep or discard those items. For those items you’re keeping, place them back into your cabinets and drawers. If there’s anything you need to toss and/or restock, add it to a list of things to buy next time you’re at the store. For everything you decided to toss, dispose of your medication safely. The best way to dispose of your unused or unwanted medicine is through a drug take back program. Check out DisposeMyMeds.com to find a location near you. This applies to both prescription and over-the-counter medication. If a drug takes back location is not readily available, check the FDA flush list for medication that should be flushed in order to avoid a deadly risk to children and pets. When a drug takes back program is not available, medication not on the flush list may be disposed of according to the instructions from the FDA, which recommend mixing medicine with dirt, cat litter, or coffee grounds, then disposing of them inside a zippered plastic bag in the trash.

Which of the following is the suitable title for the passage?

Solution: The title of the passage should cover the theme/highlight of the passage. Hence, option (D) fits.
QUESTION: 18

The worst time to discover you’re out of cough medicine is when you wake up in the middle of the night hacking and barking. And when your child is fretful with a fever there is no time to rifle through the supply bin and wonder if it’s okay to use expired Tylenol. Be prepared for your next health incident by knowing what you have and what you don’t so you can stock up as necessary. Medicine—like good health itself—is one of those things you rarely think about until you need it. But when you need it, you really need it right that minute. Going through your medicine closet is also a matter of safety. Medication poses a risk to animals and children when it’s accessible; the less you have around, the better. Check out the guidelines from the National Library of Medicine for proper storage of medication. Go through your medicine and medical supplies, discard what’s too old, and make a list of what you need to replenish. Here’s what to do:

Open the medicine cabinet, unpack the drawers, and pull down those storage baskets. Look for used and unused medication, but also other supplies such as bandages and antiseptic so you can see what needs restocking. Once you have everything together, check expiration dates and decide whether you will keep or discard those items. For those items you’re keeping, place them back into your cabinets and drawers. If there’s anything you need to toss and/or restock, add it to a list of things to buy next time you’re at the store. For everything you decided to toss, dispose of your medication safely. The best way to dispose of your unused or unwanted medicine is through a drug take back program. Check out DisposeMyMeds.com to find a location near you. This applies to both prescription and over-the-counter medication. If a drug takes back location is not readily available, check the FDA flush list for medication that should be flushed in order to avoid a deadly risk to children and pets. When a drug takes back program is not available, medication not on the flush list may be disposed of according to the instructions from the FDA, which recommend mixing medicine with dirt, cat litter, or coffee grounds, then disposing of them inside a zippered plastic bag in the trash.

Find the odd one out:

Solution: Refill, Replenish and Restock are synonymous. Whereas Replete means already filled or well-supplied with something.
QUESTION: 19

Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh’s refusal to conduct a division of votes on two controversial pieces of legislation on Sunday, despite persistent demands from members, was unprecedented in its sheer brazenness. The Bills in question have been challenged on constitutional and practical grounds, but that is a different point. The rules of procedure regarding voting are unambiguous that if a voice vote is challenged, “votes shall be taken by operating the automatic vote recorder or by the members going into the Lobbies”. Even if a single member demands a division, it is required to be carried out. Quite often, a division of vote is demanded even when the outcome is predictable, in order to bring on record the positions of parties and members on a particular bill. The explanation that members were not demanding a division from their seats and the House was not in order is disingenuous. To begin with, the disorder was triggered by the Chair’s refusal to order a division. And curiously, the Chair went on to declare the Bills passed amid the din, this time unaffected by disorder. Significant amendments were sought and several parties had demanded that they be referred to a parliamentary select committee. The government’s claim that it had the numbers to pass the Bills is dubious in the wake of the skulduggery it deployed for their passage. In any case, regardless of which side has the majority, procedure is sacrosanct and voting is the foremost tool of establishing parliamentary authority. It cannot be reduced to an act of benevolence by the Chair or the executive.

The chaos that followed in the Upper House, though not unprecedented, was unsavoury. Parliament is a deliberative forum and not a theatre for protest demonstration. Regardless of the provocation, the Opposition should have adhered to decorum while articulating its concerns. But, meaningful parliamentary discussions have become infrequent, and the voice of the Opposition is often ignored. Upper House functions have been significantly curtailed by the arbitrary labelling of money bills, which bypass it. The flat out denial of a division of votes was a new low in parliamentary history. Not stopping there, eight Opposition members were suspended for one week while notice for a no-confidence motion against the Deputy Chairman was rejected at the threshold by Chairman M. Venkaiah Naidu. Opposition parties have now petitioned President Ram Nath Kovind to not give assent to the two Bills passed by voice vote. There must be immediate efforts led by the executive to restore the effective and meaningful functioning of Parliament.

From the reading of the passage, which of the following could be ascribed as the author's viewpoint?

Solution: The author argues that the business in the parliament has been carried out in an inefficient manner lately, and any justification of the Chair for passing various bills could not be accepted as they are based on dubious grounds. Considering that neither constructive discussions nor the demands of the members of the house are being met during the vote on a bill, it could be inferred that the manner in which the bills are being passed is problematic.
QUESTION: 20

Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh’s refusal to conduct a division of votes on two controversial pieces of legislation on Sunday, despite persistent demands from members, was unprecedented in its sheer brazenness. The Bills in question have been challenged on constitutional and practical grounds, but that is a different point. The rules of procedure regarding voting are unambiguous that if a voice vote is challenged, “votes shall be taken by operating the automatic vote recorder or by the members going into the Lobbies”. Even if a single member demands a division, it is required to be carried out. Quite often, a division of vote is demanded even when the outcome is predictable, in order to bring on record the positions of parties and members on a particular bill. The explanation that members were not demanding a division from their seats and the House was not in order is disingenuous. To begin with, the disorder was triggered by the Chair’s refusal to order a division. And curiously, the Chair went on to declare the Bills passed amid the din, this time unaffected by disorder. Significant amendments were sought and several parties had demanded that they be referred to a parliamentary select committee. The government’s claim that it had the numbers to pass the Bills is dubious in the wake of the skulduggery it deployed for their passage. In any case, regardless of which side has the majority, procedure is sacrosanct and voting is the foremost tool of establishing parliamentary authority. It cannot be reduced to an act of benevolence by the Chair or the executive.

The chaos that followed in the Upper House, though not unprecedented, was unsavoury. Parliament is a deliberative forum and not a theatre for protest demonstration. Regardless of the provocation, the Opposition should have adhered to decorum while articulating its concerns. But, meaningful parliamentary discussions have become infrequent, and the voice of the Opposition is often ignored. Upper House functions have been significantly curtailed by the arbitrary labelling of money bills, which bypass it. The flat out denial of a division of votes was a new low in parliamentary history. Not stopping there, eight Opposition members were suspended for one week while notice for a no-confidence motion against the Deputy Chairman was rejected at the threshold by Chairman M. Venkaiah Naidu. Opposition parties have now petitioned President Ram Nath Kovind to not give assent to the two Bills passed by voice vote. There must be immediate efforts led by the executive to restore the effective and meaningful functioning of Parliament.

Which of the following ways could be employed for recording the votes of the members in the parliament?

1.Through voice

2.Through automatic vote recorder

3. By means of members going to the lobbies

Solution: The rules of procedure regarding voting are unambiguous that if a voice vote is challenged, “votes shall be taken by operating the automatic vote recorder or by the members going into the Lobbies”.
QUESTION: 21

Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh’s refusal to conduct a division of votes on two controversial pieces of legislation on Sunday, despite persistent demands from members, was unprecedented in its sheer brazenness. The Bills in question have been challenged on constitutional and practical grounds, but that is a different point. The rules of procedure regarding voting are unambiguous that if a voice vote is challenged, “votes shall be taken by operating the automatic vote recorder or by the members going into the Lobbies”. Even if a single member demands a division, it is required to be carried out. Quite often, a division of vote is demanded even when the outcome is predictable, in order to bring on record the positions of parties and members on a particular bill. The explanation that members were not demanding a division from their seats and the House was not in order is disingenuous. To begin with, the disorder was triggered by the Chair’s refusal to order a division. And curiously, the Chair went on to declare the Bills passed amid the din, this time unaffected by disorder. Significant amendments were sought and several parties had demanded that they be referred to a parliamentary select committee. The government’s claim that it had the numbers to pass the Bills is dubious in the wake of the skulduggery it deployed for their passage. In any case, regardless of which side has the majority, procedure is sacrosanct and voting is the foremost tool of establishing parliamentary authority. It cannot be reduced to an act of benevolence by the Chair or the executive.

The chaos that followed in the Upper House, though not unprecedented, was unsavoury. Parliament is a deliberative forum and not a theatre for protest demonstration. Regardless of the provocation, the Opposition should have adhered to decorum while articulating its concerns. But, meaningful parliamentary discussions have become infrequent, and the voice of the Opposition is often ignored. Upper House functions have been significantly curtailed by the arbitrary labelling of money bills, which bypass it. The flat out denial of a division of votes was a new low in parliamentary history. Not stopping there, eight Opposition members were suspended for one week while notice for a no-confidence motion against the Deputy Chairman was rejected at the threshold by Chairman M. Venkaiah Naidu. Opposition parties have now petitioned President Ram Nath Kovind to not give assent to the two Bills passed by voice vote. There must be immediate efforts led by the executive to restore the effective and meaningful functioning of Parliament.

Which of the following is the synonym for skulduggery?

Solution: Skulduggery means dishonesty or trickery: bribery, graft, and other such skulduggery. an instance of dishonest or deceitful behavior
QUESTION: 22

Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh’s refusal to conduct a division of votes on two controversial pieces of legislation on Sunday, despite persistent demands from members, was unprecedented in its sheer brazenness. The Bills in question have been challenged on constitutional and practical grounds, but that is a different point. The rules of procedure regarding voting are unambiguous that if a voice vote is challenged, “votes shall be taken by operating the automatic vote recorder or by the members going into the Lobbies”. Even if a single member demands a division, it is required to be carried out. Quite often, a division of vote is demanded even when the outcome is predictable, in order to bring on record the positions of parties and members on a particular bill. The explanation that members were not demanding a division from their seats and the House was not in order is disingenuous. To begin with, the disorder was triggered by the Chair’s refusal to order a division. And curiously, the Chair went on to declare the Bills passed amid the din, this time unaffected by disorder. Significant amendments were sought and several parties had demanded that they be referred to a parliamentary select committee. The government’s claim that it had the numbers to pass the Bills is dubious in the wake of the skulduggery it deployed for their passage. In any case, regardless of which side has the majority, procedure is sacrosanct and voting is the foremost tool of establishing parliamentary authority. It cannot be reduced to an act of benevolence by the Chair or the executive.

The chaos that followed in the Upper House, though not unprecedented, was unsavoury. Parliament is a deliberative forum and not a theatre for protest demonstration. Regardless of the provocation, the Opposition should have adhered to decorum while articulating its concerns. But, meaningful parliamentary discussions have become infrequent, and the voice of the Opposition is often ignored. Upper House functions have been significantly curtailed by the arbitrary labelling of money bills, which bypass it. The flat out denial of a division of votes was a new low in parliamentary history. Not stopping there, eight Opposition members were suspended for one week while notice for a no-confidence motion against the Deputy Chairman was rejected at the threshold by Chairman M. Venkaiah Naidu. Opposition parties have now petitioned President Ram Nath Kovind to not give assent to the two Bills passed by voice vote. There must be immediate efforts led by the executive to restore the effective and meaningful functioning of Parliament.

As per the passage, which of the following could be inferred regarding the voting on the bills in the Parliament?

1. The members can demand for the division of votes

2. It is the first instance of its kind where the members were denied the opportunity of division of votes

3. The decision on allowance regarding the division of votes rests with the Chairman/ Deputy Chairman

Solution: The author states that the refusal to conduct a division of votes despite persistent demands from members, has been an unprecedented instance. The request was denied by the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha. It could be inferred that members can demand a particular manner of voting over a bill; and the denial of request since was unprecedented hence statement 2 is correct; and the request was denied by the deputy chairman, which indicates that statement 3 is true as well
QUESTION: 23

Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh’s refusal to conduct a division of votes on two controversial pieces of legislation on Sunday, despite persistent demands from members, was unprecedented in its sheer brazenness. The Bills in question have been challenged on constitutional and practical grounds, but that is a different point. The rules of procedure regarding voting are unambiguous that if a voice vote is challenged, “votes shall be taken by operating the automatic vote recorder or by the members going into the Lobbies”. Even if a single member demands a division, it is required to be carried out. Quite often, a division of vote is demanded even when the outcome is predictable, in order to bring on record the positions of parties and members on a particular bill. The explanation that members were not demanding a division from their seats and the House was not in order is disingenuous. To begin with, the disorder was triggered by the Chair’s refusal to order a division. And curiously, the Chair went on to declare the Bills passed amid the din, this time unaffected by disorder. Significant amendments were sought and several parties had demanded that they be referred to a parliamentary select committee. The government’s claim that it had the numbers to pass the Bills is dubious in the wake of the skulduggery it deployed for their passage. In any case, regardless of which side has the majority, procedure is sacrosanct and voting is the foremost tool of establishing parliamentary authority. It cannot be reduced to an act of benevolence by the Chair or the executive.

The chaos that followed in the Upper House, though not unprecedented, was unsavoury. Parliament is a deliberative forum and not a theatre for protest demonstration. Regardless of the provocation, the Opposition should have adhered to decorum while articulating its concerns. But, meaningful parliamentary discussions have become infrequent, and the voice of the Opposition is often ignored. Upper House functions have been significantly curtailed by the arbitrary labelling of money bills, which bypass it. The flat out denial of a division of votes was a new low in parliamentary history. Not stopping there, eight Opposition members were suspended for one week while notice for a no-confidence motion against the Deputy Chairman was rejected at the threshold by Chairman M. Venkaiah Naidu. Opposition parties have now petitioned President Ram Nath Kovind to not give assent to the two Bills passed by voice vote. There must be immediate efforts led by the executive to restore the effective and meaningful functioning of Parliament.

On the basis of the passage, which of the following is the minimum number of members required to change the voting procedure over a bill in the house of the Parliament?

Solution: Even if a single member demands a division, it is required to be carried out.
QUESTION: 24

Rajya Sabha Deputy Chairman Harivansh’s refusal to conduct a division of votes on two controversial pieces of legislation on Sunday, despite persistent demands from members, was unprecedented in its sheer brazenness. The Bills in question have been challenged on constitutional and practical grounds, but that is a different point. The rules of procedure regarding voting are unambiguous that if a voice vote is challenged, “votes shall be taken by operating the automatic vote recorder or by the members going into the Lobbies”. Even if a single member demands a division, it is required to be carried out. Quite often, a division of vote is demanded even when the outcome is predictable, in order to bring on record the positions of parties and members on a particular bill. The explanation that members were not demanding a division from their seats and the House was not in order is disingenuous. To begin with, the disorder was triggered by the Chair’s refusal to order a division. And curiously, the Chair went on to declare the Bills passed amid the din, this time unaffected by disorder. Significant amendments were sought and several parties had demanded that they be referred to a parliamentary select committee. The government’s claim that it had the numbers to pass the Bills is dubious in the wake of the skulduggery it deployed for their passage. In any case, regardless of which side has the majority, procedure is sacrosanct and voting is the foremost tool of establishing parliamentary authority. It cannot be reduced to an act of benevolence by the Chair or the executive.

The chaos that followed in the Upper House, though not unprecedented, was unsavoury. Parliament is a deliberative forum and not a theatre for protest demonstration. Regardless of the provocation, the Opposition should have adhered to decorum while articulating its concerns. But, meaningful parliamentary discussions have become infrequent, and the voice of the Opposition is often ignored. Upper House functions have been significantly curtailed by the arbitrary labelling of money bills, which bypass it. The flat out denial of a division of votes was a new low in parliamentary history. Not stopping there, eight Opposition members were suspended for one week while notice for a no-confidence motion against the Deputy Chairman was rejected at the threshold by Chairman M. Venkaiah Naidu. Opposition parties have now petitioned President Ram Nath Kovind to not give assent to the two Bills passed by voice vote. There must be immediate efforts led by the executive to restore the effective and meaningful functioning of Parliament.

Which of the following is true for establishment of Parliamentary authority?

Solution: According to the passage, adherence to the procedure is sacrosanct and voting is the foremost tool of establishing parliamentary authority.
QUESTION: 25

At a special session marking 75 years of the United Nations on Tuesday (September, 2020), Prime Minister Narendra Modi called for reform of its “outdated structures”, pointing out that in the absence of comprehensive changes, the world body today faces a “crisis of confidence”. While the words appear harsh given the occasion, they can hardly be faulted. India has been at the forefront of demanding reform in the UN, particularly its principal organ, the Security Council, for decades, staking its claim as one of the world’s largest economies and most populous countries, with a track record in promoting a rules-based international order, and contributing to peacekeeping through UN forces. The UN was born in the crisis of the World War era, and the realities of that time can hardly be compared to the present. The UNSC’s permanent, veto-carrying members, chosen by virtue of being “winners” of World War II — the U.S., the U.K., France, Russia and later China — can hardly claim adequate representation of the world’s leadership today. The UNSC does not include a permanent member from the African, Australian and South American continents, and the pillars of the multilateral order, such as the G-4 group of Brazil, India, Germany and Japan, have been ignored for long. Other, more representative options exist, and that has been the crux of the battle for change. Also, there is a deep polarisation within the UN’s membership, so decisions are either not taken, or not heeded. Frequent divisions within the UNSC P-5 end up blocking key decisions. These issues are underlined in a year where the coronavirus pandemic has brought the world to a standstill; yet, the UN, the UNSC, and WHO have failed to play an effective role in helping nations deal with the spread.

For India, what has been most frustrating is that despite the dysfunctional power balance that prevails, the UN’s reform process, held through Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN) has not made progress over decades, despite commitments. The UN has chosen to “rollover” the discussions of the IGN, which are looking at five major issues: enlarging the Security Council, categories of membership, the question of the veto that five Permanent members of the UNSC wield, regional representation, and redistributing the Security Council-General Assembly power balance. It is some comfort that the UN’s 75th anniversary declaration passed by all member countries this week pledges to “upgrade the United Nations” with a commitment to “instil new life in the discussions on the reform of the Security Council”. Those words can only be realised if the UNSC’s permanent members recognise the deep peril the UN faces and support the reform process, an act that will require looking beyond their own interests for the greater good of the world and its peace-building

According to the passage, infer in which year was the UN established?

Solution: Considering the year is 2020; 75 years of the UN would mean that it was established in 1945.
QUESTION: 26

At a special session marking 75 years of the United Nations on Tuesday (September, 2020), Prime Minister Narendra Modi called for reform of its “outdated structures”, pointing out that in the absence of comprehensive changes, the world body today faces a “crisis of confidence”. While the words appear harsh given the occasion, they can hardly be faulted. India has been at the forefront of demanding reform in the UN, particularly its principal organ, the Security Council, for decades, staking its claim as one of the world’s largest economies and most populous countries, with a track record in promoting a rules-based international order, and contributing to peacekeeping through UN forces. The UN was born in the crisis of the World War era, and the realities of that time can hardly be compared to the present. The UNSC’s permanent, veto-carrying members, chosen by virtue of being “winners” of World War II — the U.S., the U.K., France, Russia and later China — can hardly claim adequate representation of the world’s leadership today. The UNSC does not include a permanent member from the African, Australian and South American continents, and the pillars of the multilateral order, such as the G-4 group of Brazil, India, Germany and Japan, have been ignored for long. Other, more representative options exist, and that has been the crux of the battle for change. Also, there is a deep polarisation within the UN’s membership, so decisions are either not taken, or not heeded. Frequent divisions within the UNSC P-5 end up blocking key decisions. These issues are underlined in a year where the coronavirus pandemic has brought the world to a standstill; yet, the UN, the UNSC, and WHO have failed to play an effective role in helping nations deal with the spread.

For India, what has been most frustrating is that despite the dysfunctional power balance that prevails, the UN’s reform process, held through Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN) has not made progress over decades, despite commitments. The UN has chosen to “rollover” the discussions of the IGN, which are looking at five major issues: enlarging the Security Council, categories of membership, the question of the veto that five Permanent members of the UNSC wield, regional representation, and redistributing the Security Council-General Assembly power balance. It is some comfort that the UN’s 75th anniversary declaration passed by all member countries this week pledges to “upgrade the United Nations” with a commitment to “instil new life in the discussions on the reform of the Security Council”. Those words can only be realised if the UNSC’s permanent members recognise the deep peril the UN faces and support the reform process, an act that will require looking beyond their own interests for the greater good of the world and its peace-building

What does the author mean when he states “outdated structures”?

Solution: The phrase “outdated structures” is a figure of speech here meaning that the working mechanism inside the UN requires changes.
QUESTION: 27

At a special session marking 75 years of the United Nations on Tuesday (September, 2020), Prime Minister Narendra Modi called for reform of its “outdated structures”, pointing out that in the absence of comprehensive changes, the world body today faces a “crisis of confidence”. While the words appear harsh given the occasion, they can hardly be faulted. India has been at the forefront of demanding reform in the UN, particularly its principal organ, the Security Council, for decades, staking its claim as one of the world’s largest economies and most populous countries, with a track record in promoting a rules-based international order, and contributing to peacekeeping through UN forces. The UN was born in the crisis of the World War era, and the realities of that time can hardly be compared to the present. The UNSC’s permanent, veto-carrying members, chosen by virtue of being “winners” of World War II — the U.S., the U.K., France, Russia and later China — can hardly claim adequate representation of the world’s leadership today. The UNSC does not include a permanent member from the African, Australian and South American continents, and the pillars of the multilateral order, such as the G-4 group of Brazil, India, Germany and Japan, have been ignored for long. Other, more representative options exist, and that has been the crux of the battle for change. Also, there is a deep polarisation within the UN’s membership, so decisions are either not taken, or not heeded. Frequent divisions within the UNSC P-5 end up blocking key decisions. These issues are underlined in a year where the coronavirus pandemic has brought the world to a standstill; yet, the UN, the UNSC, and WHO have failed to play an effective role in helping nations deal with the spread.

For India, what has been most frustrating is that despite the dysfunctional power balance that prevails, the UN’s reform process, held through Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN) has not made progress over decades, despite commitments. The UN has chosen to “rollover” the discussions of the IGN, which are looking at five major issues: enlarging the Security Council, categories of membership, the question of the veto that five Permanent members of the UNSC wield, regional representation, and redistributing the Security Council-General Assembly power balance. It is some comfort that the UN’s 75th anniversary declaration passed by all member countries this week pledges to “upgrade the United Nations” with a commitment to “instil new life in the discussions on the reform of the Security Council”. Those words can only be realised if the UNSC’s permanent members recognise the deep peril the UN faces and support the reform process, an act that will require looking beyond their own interests for the greater good of the world and its peace-building

Which of the following organs of the UN does India wish to be a part of, as per the passage?

Solution: The passage suggests that India has been wanting to be a permanent member of the UN Security Council for the past few years, and due to multiple factors it is not being able to be a part of it.
QUESTION: 28

At a special session marking 75 years of the United Nations on Tuesday (September, 2020), Prime Minister Narendra Modi called for reform of its “outdated structures”, pointing out that in the absence of comprehensive changes, the world body today faces a “crisis of confidence”. While the words appear harsh given the occasion, they can hardly be faulted. India has been at the forefront of demanding reform in the UN, particularly its principal organ, the Security Council, for decades, staking its claim as one of the world’s largest economies and most populous countries, with a track record in promoting a rules-based international order, and contributing to peacekeeping through UN forces. The UN was born in the crisis of the World War era, and the realities of that time can hardly be compared to the present. The UNSC’s permanent, veto-carrying members, chosen by virtue of being “winners” of World War II — the U.S., the U.K., France, Russia and later China — can hardly claim adequate representation of the world’s leadership today. The UNSC does not include a permanent member from the African, Australian and South American continents, and the pillars of the multilateral order, such as the G-4 group of Brazil, India, Germany and Japan, have been ignored for long. Other, more representative options exist, and that has been the crux of the battle for change. Also, there is a deep polarisation within the UN’s membership, so decisions are either not taken, or not heeded. Frequent divisions within the UNSC P-5 end up blocking key decisions. These issues are underlined in a year where the coronavirus pandemic has brought the world to a standstill; yet, the UN, the UNSC, and WHO have failed to play an effective role in helping nations deal with the spread.

For India, what has been most frustrating is that despite the dysfunctional power balance that prevails, the UN’s reform process, held through Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN) has not made progress over decades, despite commitments. The UN has chosen to “rollover” the discussions of the IGN, which are looking at five major issues: enlarging the Security Council, categories of membership, the question of the veto that five Permanent members of the UNSC wield, regional representation, and redistributing the Security Council-General Assembly power balance. It is some comfort that the UN’s 75th anniversary declaration passed by all member countries this week pledges to “upgrade the United Nations” with a commitment to “instil new life in the discussions on the reform of the Security Council”. Those words can only be realised if the UNSC’s permanent members recognise the deep peril the UN faces and support the reform process, an act that will require looking beyond their own interests for the greater good of the world and its peace-building

Which of the following factors seems to be the qualifying criteria for the present members of the security council, which got them to the security council in the first place?

1.They were the wealthiest of all the countries present in the world

2.The 5 countries won the World War II

3.The five countries have the world’s strongest security forces

Solution: The UNSC’s permanent, veto-carrying members, chosen by virtue of being “winners” of World War II — the U.S., the U.K., France, Russia and later China — can hardly claim adequate representation of the world’s leadership today.
QUESTION: 29

At a special session marking 75 years of the United Nations on Tuesday (September, 2020), Prime Minister Narendra Modi called for reform of its “outdated structures”, pointing out that in the absence of comprehensive changes, the world body today faces a “crisis of confidence”. While the words appear harsh given the occasion, they can hardly be faulted. India has been at the forefront of demanding reform in the UN, particularly its principal organ, the Security Council, for decades, staking its claim as one of the world’s largest economies and most populous countries, with a track record in promoting a rules-based international order, and contributing to peacekeeping through UN forces. The UN was born in the crisis of the World War era, and the realities of that time can hardly be compared to the present. The UNSC’s permanent, veto-carrying members, chosen by virtue of being “winners” of World War II — the U.S., the U.K., France, Russia and later China — can hardly claim adequate representation of the world’s leadership today. The UNSC does not include a permanent member from the African, Australian and South American continents, and the pillars of the multilateral order, such as the G-4 group of Brazil, India, Germany and Japan, have been ignored for long. Other, more representative options exist, and that has been the crux of the battle for change. Also, there is a deep polarisation within the UN’s membership, so decisions are either not taken, or not heeded. Frequent divisions within the UNSC P-5 end up blocking key decisions. These issues are underlined in a year where the coronavirus pandemic has brought the world to a standstill; yet, the UN, the UNSC, and WHO have failed to play an effective role in helping nations deal with the spread.

For India, what has been most frustrating is that despite the dysfunctional power balance that prevails, the UN’s reform process, held through Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN) has not made progress over decades, despite commitments. The UN has chosen to “rollover” the discussions of the IGN, which are looking at five major issues: enlarging the Security Council, categories of membership, the question of the veto that five Permanent members of the UNSC wield, regional representation, and redistributing the Security Council-General Assembly power balance. It is some comfort that the UN’s 75th anniversary declaration passed by all member countries this week pledges to “upgrade the United Nations” with a commitment to “instil new life in the discussions on the reform of the Security Council”. Those words can only be realised if the UNSC’s permanent members recognise the deep peril the UN faces and support the reform process, an act that will require looking beyond their own interests for the greater good of the world and its peace-building

Which of the following is the most appropriate title to the passage?

Solution: The author has tried to encompass the issues which is causing trouble to India in being a part of the security council, even after there being no substantive reasons or justification against India’s competition.
QUESTION: 30

At a special session marking 75 years of the United Nations on Tuesday (September, 2020), Prime Minister Narendra Modi called for reform of its “outdated structures”, pointing out that in the absence of comprehensive changes, the world body today faces a “crisis of confidence”. While the words appear harsh given the occasion, they can hardly be faulted. India has been at the forefront of demanding reform in the UN, particularly its principal organ, the Security Council, for decades, staking its claim as one of the world’s largest economies and most populous countries, with a track record in promoting a rules-based international order, and contributing to peacekeeping through UN forces. The UN was born in the crisis of the World War era, and the realities of that time can hardly be compared to the present. The UNSC’s permanent, veto-carrying members, chosen by virtue of being “winners” of World War II — the U.S., the U.K., France, Russia and later China — can hardly claim adequate representation of the world’s leadership today. The UNSC does not include a permanent member from the African, Australian and South American continents, and the pillars of the multilateral order, such as the G-4 group of Brazil, India, Germany and Japan, have been ignored for long. Other, more representative options exist, and that has been the crux of the battle for change. Also, there is a deep polarisation within the UN’s membership, so decisions are either not taken, or not heeded. Frequent divisions within the UNSC P-5 end up blocking key decisions. These issues are underlined in a year where the coronavirus pandemic has brought the world to a standstill; yet, the UN, the UNSC, and WHO have failed to play an effective role in helping nations deal with the spread.

For India, what has been most frustrating is that despite the dysfunctional power balance that prevails, the UN’s reform process, held through Inter-Governmental Negotiations (IGN) has not made progress over decades, despite commitments. The UN has chosen to “rollover” the discussions of the IGN, which are looking at five major issues: enlarging the Security Council, categories of membership, the question of the veto that five Permanent members of the UNSC wield, regional representation, and redistributing the Security Council-General Assembly power balance. It is some comfort that the UN’s 75th anniversary declaration passed by all member countries this week pledges to “upgrade the United Nations” with a commitment to “instil new life in the discussions on the reform of the Security Council”. Those words can only be realised if the UNSC’s permanent members recognise the deep peril the UN faces and support the reform process, an act that will require looking beyond their own interests for the greater good of the world and its peace-building

Which of the following could be a suitable synonym for crux?

Solution: The meaning of crux in this context is something of importance. Pith essentially means the instrumental part of something.
QUESTION: 31

No man likes to acknowledge that he has made a mistake in the option of his profession, and every man, worthy of the name, will row long against wind and tide before he allows himself to cry out, “I am baffled!” and submits to be floated passively back to land. From the first week of my residence in X— l felt my occupation irksome. The thing itself—the work of copying and translating business-letters—was a dry and tedious task enough, but had that been all, I should long have borne with the nuisance; I am not of an impatient nature, and influenced by the double desire of getting my living and justifying to myself and others the resolution I had taken to become a tradesman, I should not have whispered, even inwardly, that I longed for liberty. But this was not all; the antipathy which had sprung up between myself and my employer excluded me from every glimpse of the sunshine of life; and I began to feel like a plant growing in humid darkness out of the slimy walls of a well.

Antipathy is the only word which can express the feeling Edward Crimsworth had for me—a feeling, in a great measure, involuntary, and which was liable to be excited by every, the most trifling movement, look, or word of mine. My southern accent annoyed him; the degree of education evinced in my language irritated him; my punctuality, industry, and accuracy, fixed his dislike, and gave it the high flavour and poignant relish of envy; he feared that I too should one day make a successful tradesman. Had I been in anything inferior to him, he would not have hated me so thoroughly, but I knew all that he knew, and, what was worse, he suspected that I kept the padlock of silence on mental wealth in which he was no sharer. If he could have once placed me in a ridiculous or mortifying position, he would have forgiven me much, but I was guarded by three faculties—Caution, Tact, Observation; and prowling and prying as was Edward’s malignity, it could never baffle the lynx-eyes of these, my natural sentinels. Day by day did his malice watch my tact, hoping it would sleep, and prepared to steal snake-like on its slumber; but tact, if it be genuine, never sleeps.

I had received my first quarter’s wages, and was returning to my lodgings. Thoughts, not varied but strong occupied my mind; two voices spoke within me; again and again they uttered the same monotonous phrases. One said: “William, your life is intolerable.” The other: “What can you do to alter it?” I walked fast, for it was a cold, frosty night in January; as I approached my lodgings, I turned from a general view of my affairs to the particular speculation as to whether my fire would be out; looking towards the window of my sitting-room, I saw no cheering red gleam.

The passage indicates that Edward Crimsworth’s behavior was mainly caused by his

Solution:

Option D is the best answer. The narrator states that Crimsworth dislikes him because the narrator may “one day make a successful tradesman”. Crimsworth recognizes that the narrator is not “inferior to him” but rather more intelligent, someone who keeps “the padlock of silence on mental wealth which [Crimsworth] was no sharer”. Crimsworth feels inferior to the narrator and is jealous of the narrator’s intellectual and professional abilities.

Options A and C are incorrect because the narrator is not described as exhibiting “high spirits” or “rash actions,” but “Caution, Tact, [and] Observation”. Option B is incorrect because the narrator’s “humble background” is not discussed.

QUESTION: 32

Commission for Air Quality Managment to partner with premier technical institutions to establish Decision Support Systems for improving the Air Quality in [X] and adjoining areas has begun the process of setting up a Decision Support System (DSS) for air quality having a web, GIS and multi-model based operational and planning decision support tool. The Ministry of Environment and Forest and Climate Change stated in a release that this tool will help immensely in capturing the static and dynamic features of the emissions from various sources.

It will have an integrated framework to handle both primary and secondary pollutants using a chemical transport model. The system will also be able to handle the source-specific interventions with the framework to estimate the benefits of interventions and will focus on presenting the best results in a comprehensive user-friendly and simple format for different users, the ministry added. The Commission has entrusted the task to expert groups from reputed knowledge institutions of the country which include IIT [...], IMD, C-DAC among others.

Name the place [X], which has been redacted in the said passage.

Solution: The Decision Support System for air quality will be set up by CAQM in Delhi.
QUESTION: 33

Which of the following is NOT true about the Commission for Air Quality Managment?

Solution: This statement is incorrect. The headquaters is situated in New Delhi.
QUESTION: 34

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons behind the air pollution in the National Capital Region?

Solution: None of the above, all the above options are attributed to be many of the reasons behind the air pollution problem in the National Capital Region.
QUESTION: 35

Who is the Union Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate?

Solution: Prakash Javadekar is the union minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
QUESTION: 36

Name the scientist who first coined the term "smog".

Solution: Henry Antoine has coined the term Smog to describe the layers of smoking.
QUESTION: 37

[X] had inaugurated the 69th plenary meeting of the North Eastern Council in [Y]. The meeting will be attended by Dr Jitender Singh, Minister of State (MoS) for Development of North Eastern Region, Governors and Chief Ministers of eight north-eastern states, according to a an official statement of Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

"Senior officials from the states and key ministries of the Government of India are also expected to be present on the occasion,"" the release stated. Dr. Jitender Singh today held a meeting with senior officers of Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) and North Eastern Council (NEC) in New Delhi to review the preparedness and modalities for the 69th Plenary Session.

During the two-day session, there will be presentations from the Ministry of DoNER, NEC, the state governments as well as selected central ministries on various developmental initiatives and future plans for the North East Region.

Name the person [X] who had inaugurated the 69th plenary meeting of the North Eastern Council.

Solution: Amit Shah had inaugurated the 69th plenary session of North Eastern Council.
QUESTION: 38

The said meeting was held in city [Y]. Fill in the blank.

Solution: The 69th Plenary Meeting of North Eastern Council was held in Shillong.
QUESTION: 39

[X] had inaugurated the 69th plenary meeting of the North Eastern Council in [Y]. The meeting will be attended by Dr Jitender Singh, Minister of State (MoS) for Development of North Eastern Region, Governors and Chief Ministers of eight north-eastern states, according to a an official statement of Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

"Senior officials from the states and key ministries of the Government of India are also expected to be present on the occasion,"" the release stated. Dr. Jitender Singh today held a meeting with senior officers of Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) and North Eastern Council (NEC) in New Delhi to review the preparedness and modalities for the 69th Plenary Session.

During the two-day session, there will be presentations from the Ministry of DoNER, NEC, the state governments as well as selected central ministries on various developmental initiatives and future plans for the North East Region.

Which of the following is not one of the salient points regarding this particular meeting?

Solution: This statement is incorrect. This aspect was not discussed in the meeting.
QUESTION: 40

[X] had inaugurated the 69th plenary meeting of the North Eastern Council in [Y]. The meeting will be attended by Dr Jitender Singh, Minister of State (MoS) for Development of North Eastern Region, Governors and Chief Ministers of eight north-eastern states, according to a an official statement of Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

"Senior officials from the states and key ministries of the Government of India are also expected to be present on the occasion,"" the release stated. Dr. Jitender Singh today held a meeting with senior officers of Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) and North Eastern Council (NEC) in New Delhi to review the preparedness and modalities for the 69th Plenary Session.

During the two-day session, there will be presentations from the Ministry of DoNER, NEC, the state governments as well as selected central ministries on various developmental initiatives and future plans for the North East Region.

In which year was the North Eastern Council constituted?

Solution: The North Eastern Council was set up in the year 1971 by the parliament.
QUESTION: 41

[X] had inaugurated the 69th plenary meeting of the North Eastern Council in [Y]. The meeting will be attended by Dr Jitender Singh, Minister of State (MoS) for Development of North Eastern Region, Governors and Chief Ministers of eight north-eastern states, according to a an official statement of Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

"Senior officials from the states and key ministries of the Government of India are also expected to be present on the occasion,"" the release stated. Dr. Jitender Singh today held a meeting with senior officers of Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) and North Eastern Council (NEC) in New Delhi to review the preparedness and modalities for the 69th Plenary Session.

During the two-day session, there will be presentations from the Ministry of DoNER, NEC, the state governments as well as selected central ministries on various developmental initiatives and future plans for the North East Region.

Where is the headquarters of the North Eastern Council?

Solution: The headquaters of the North Eastern Council is in Shillong.
QUESTION: 42

Which of the following is true regarding MSP?

Solution: MSP is fixed by the central government to ensure minimum profit for the farmers.
QUESTION: 43

What is the name of the person [X], which has been redacted from the passge?

Solution: Narendra Modi was the chairman of the Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs.
QUESTION: 44

Who is the chairman of Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?

Solution: Vijay Paul Sharma is the chairman of Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
QUESTION: 45

Which article of the Indian constitution deals with the budget?

Solution: Article 112 deals with the union budget; in the Indian constitution, it is envisaged as the Annual Financial Statement.
QUESTION: 46

The chief minister of [X] has released the new M-sand Policy in light of government's commitment to meet the quantity of sand required for the construction work.

In the state of [X], the availability of sand is not as per the requirement of construction works. There is a demand of around 70 million tonnes of river sand for various construction work. But, only 20 M-sand units are operating in the state. These 20 units produces 20,000 tonnes of M-sand every day. Now, this new M-sand policy will be promoting it as a long-term alternative to gravel and help in setting up of new mining units.

The Supreme Court had on November 16, 2017 restrained 82 large lease holders in the State from carrying out mining of riverbed sand. The mining was banned until a scientific replenishment study was completed and the Ministry of Environment and Forest granted the clearance. The apex court later appointed a Central Empowered Committee to look into the issue of illegal sand mining.

What is the name of the state [X], which has been redacted from the above passage?

Solution: Rajasthan CM has released the new M-sand policy of Rajasthan .
QUESTION: 47

The chief minister of [X] has released the new M-sand Policy in light of governement's commitment to meet the quantity of sand required for the construction work.

In the state of [X], the availability of sand is not as per the requirement of construction works. There is a demand of around 70 million tonnes of river sand for various construction work. But, only 20 M-sand units are operating in the state. These 20 units produces 20,000 tonnes of M-sand every day. Now, this new M-sand policy will be promoting it as a long-term alternative to gravel and help in setting up of new mining units.

The Supreme Court had on November 16, 2017 restrained 82 large lease holders in the State from carrying out mining of riverbed sand. The mining was banned until a scientific replenishment study was completed and the Ministry of Environment and Forest granted the clearance. The apex court later appointed a Central Empowered Committee to look into the issue of illegal sand mining.

Which of the following is not true with respect to the salient features of the policy?

Solution: The policy was not designed to increase the salt production in the state.
QUESTION: 48

The chief minister of [X] has released the new M-sand Policy in light of governement's commitment to meet the quantity of sand required for the construction work.

In the state of [X], the availability of sand is not as per the requirement of construction works. There is a demand of around 70 million tonnes of river sand for various construction work. But, only 20 M-sand units are operating in the state. These 20 units produces 20,000 tonnes of M-sand every day. Now, this new M-sand policy will be promoting it as a long-term alternative to gravel and help in setting up of new mining units.

The Supreme Court had on November 16, 2017 restrained 82 large lease holders in the State from carrying out mining of riverbed sand. The mining was banned until a scientific replenishment study was completed and the Ministry of Environment and Forest granted the clearance. The apex court later appointed a Central Empowered Committee to look into the issue of illegal sand mining.

Which of the following is NOT true with respect to M-Sand?

Solution: This statement is incorrect. M-sand is a substitute of river sand that is used for construction of concrete construction. It is NOT a substitute for cement.
QUESTION: 49

The chief minister of [X] has released the new M-sand Policy in light of government's commitment to meet the quantity of sand required for the construction work.

In the state of [X], the availability of sand is not as per the requirement of construction works. There is a demand of around 70 million tonnes of river sand for various construction work. But, only 20 M-sand units are operating in the state. These 20 units produces 20,000 tonnes of M-sand every day. Now, this new M-sand policy will be promoting it as a long-term alternative to gravel and help in setting up of new mining units.

The Supreme Court had on November 16, 2017 restrained 82 large lease holders in the State from carrying out mining of riverbed sand. The mining was banned until a scientific replenishment study was completed and the Ministry of Environment and Forest granted the clearance. The apex court later appointed a Central Empowered Committee to look into the issue of illegal sand mining.

The Supreme Court of India had banned illegal mining on riverbeds in which year?

Solution: The Supreme Court of India had banned the mining on riverbeds in the year 2017.
QUESTION: 50

The chief minister of [X] has released the new M-sand Policy in light of government's commitment to meet the quantity of sand required for the construction work.

In the state of [X], the availability of sand is not as per the requirement of construction works. There is a demand of around 70 million tonnes of river sand for various construction work. But, only 20 M-sand units are operating in the state. These 20 units produces 20,000 tonnes of M-sand every day. Now, this new M-sand policy will be promoting it as a long-term alternative to gravel and help in setting up of new mining units.

The Supreme Court had on November 16, 2017 restrained 82 large lease holders in the State from carrying out mining of riverbed sand. The mining was banned until a scientific replenishment study was completed and the Ministry of Environment and Forest granted the clearance. The apex court later appointed a Central Empowered Committee to look into the issue of illegal sand mining.

In which state, Monazite sand, which is rich in thorium is found?

Solution: Monazite sands, which is rich in Thorium is found in the state of Kerala.
QUESTION: 51

The [X] government recently sought GI tag for Gucchi mushroom. A geographical indication (GI) tag has been sought for one of the costliest mushrooms in the world that grows in[Y] district.

Locally called Gucchi, or Morel, the mushroom, priced at over ₹20,000 a kg, is a forest produce collected by local farmers and tribals.

The spongy, edible fungus that is said to have medicinal and anti-inflammatory properties is found in the temperate forests of the [Y] district. The applicants hope that a GI tag will create branding and commercial interest for this rare heirloom crop, thereby helping the tribal populace dependent on it for their livelihoods.

The exotic wild mushrooms are used in pulaos and served during celebratory occasions such as marriages. They also find a place on the gourmet menus of high-end restaurants. The Dum Pukht restaurant in ITC Maurya, New Delhi, offers Gucchi pulao at ₹2,500 plus taxes.

What is the name of the state/union territory [X] wherein, the mushroom grow?

Solution: The mushroom, Gucchi grows in Jammu and Kashmir.
QUESTION: 52

The [X] government recently sought GI tag for Gucchi mushroom. A geographical indication (GI) tag has been sought for one of the costliest mushrooms in the world that grows in[Y] district.

Locally called Gucchi, or Morel, the mushroom, priced at over ₹20,000 a kg, is a forest produce collected by local farmers and tribals.

The spongy, edible fungus that is said to have medicinal and anti-inflammatory properties is found in the temperate forests of the [Y] district. The applicants hope that a GI tag will create branding and commercial interest for this rare heirloom crop, thereby helping the tribal populace dependent on it for their livelihoods.

The exotic wild mushrooms are used in pulaos and served during celebratory occasions such as marriages. They also find a place on the gourmet menus of high-end restaurants. The Dum Pukht restaurant in ITC Maurya, New Delhi, offers Gucchi pulao at ₹2,500 plus taxes.

Mushroom, Gucchi grows in which district?

Solution: The mushroom, Gucchi grows in Dodi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
QUESTION: 53

The [X] government recently sought GI tag for Gucchi mushroom. A geographical indication (GI) tag has been sought for one of the costliest mushrooms in the world that grows in[Y] district.

Locally called Gucchi, or Morel, the mushroom, priced at over ₹20,000 a kg, is a forest produce collected by local farmers and tribals.

The spongy, edible fungus that is said to have medicinal and anti-inflammatory properties is found in the temperate forests of the [Y] district. The applicants hope that a GI tag will create branding and commercial interest for this rare heirloom crop, thereby helping the tribal populace dependent on it for their livelihoods.

The exotic wild mushrooms are used in pulaos and served during celebratory occasions such as marriages. They also find a place on the gourmet menus of high-end restaurants. The Dum Pukht restaurant in ITC Maurya, New Delhi, offers Gucchi pulao at ₹2,500 plus taxes.

Who issues the Geographical Indication Tag in India?

Solution: The Geographical Indication Registry under the department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade grants Geographical Indications in India.
QUESTION: 54

The [X] government recently sought GI tag for Gucchi mushroom. A geographical indication (GI) tag has been sought for one of the costliest mushrooms in the world that grows in[Y] district.

Locally called Gucchi, or Morel, the mushroom, priced at over ₹20,000 a kg, is a forest produce collected by local farmers and tribals.

The spongy, edible fungus that is said to have medicinal and anti-inflammatory properties is found in the temperate forests of the [Y] district. The applicants hope that a GI tag will create branding and commercial interest for this rare heirloom crop, thereby helping the tribal populace dependent on it for their livelihoods.

The exotic wild mushrooms are used in pulaos and served during celebratory occasions such as marriages. They also find a place on the gourmet menus of high-end restaurants. The Dum Pukht restaurant in ITC Maurya, New Delhi, offers Gucchi pulao at ₹2,500 plus taxes.

What is the time limit for GI tag?

Solution: Ten years is the expiry period for Geographical Indications
QUESTION: 55

The [X] government recently sought GI tag for Gucchi mushroom. A geographical indication (GI) tag has been sought for one of the costliest mushrooms in the world that grows in[Y] district.

Locally called Gucchi, or Morel, the mushroom, priced at over ₹20,000 a kg, is a forest produce collected by local farmers and tribals.

The spongy, edible fungus that is said to have medicinal and anti-inflammatory properties is found in the temperate forests of the [Y] district. The applicants hope that a GI tag will create branding and commercial interest for this rare heirloom crop, thereby helping the tribal populace dependent on it for their livelihoods.

The exotic wild mushrooms are used in pulaos and served during celebratory occasions such as marriages. They also find a place on the gourmet menus of high-end restaurants. The Dum Pukht restaurant in ITC Maurya, New Delhi, offers Gucchi pulao at ₹2,500 plus taxes.

Which of the following are incorrectly paired?

Solution: This has been paired incorrectly. Tezpur Litchi of Assam had received a GI tag.
QUESTION: 56

When was the Official Language Rules came in to existence?

Solution: Under the Official Language Rules 1976, all government offices are encouraged to communicate in Hindi so that it reaches out to more common people. Hindi originated from the ancient Indic language of Sanskrit and is written in the Devanagari script.
QUESTION: 57

World Hindi Day is celebrated on ?

Solution: Vishwa Hindi Diwas, also known as World Hindi Day, is celebrated across the globe on January 10 each year. With over 49 crore speakers, Hindi is the second most popular language in the world. The language is spoken primarily in India, Guyana, Mauritius, Nepal, Guyana, Fiji, Suriname, Trinidad and Tobago.
QUESTION: 58

When did the Constituent Assembly of India adopted Hindi as the official language of the newly formed nation?

Solution: It was on 14th September 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted Hindi as the official language of the newly formed nation. The language was chosen owing to its penetration and number of speakers who could understand the language in the country. 14th September is celebrated as ‘Hindi Diwas’ to commemorate its adoption by the Constituent Assembly.
QUESTION: 59

Hindi is also the official language of which country?

Solution: Hindi is the official language of India only.
QUESTION: 60

What is the theme of the World Hindi Day 2021

Solution: World Hindi Day 2021 Theme. In India Biggest International Hindi Conference is organized with the World Hindi Day 2021 theme “New World, New India, New Hindi “ by Hansraj College & Mahakavi Jaishankar Prasad Foundation.
QUESTION: 61

Indian-origin Kamala Harris on Wednesday created history as she was sworn in as America's first woman vice-president at a historic inauguration at the West Front of the Capitol. Moments after her swearing in, she tweeted "Ready to serve" from her official handle Vice President Kamala Harris. Harris, 56, the 49th US Vice-President, is the daughter of an Indian immigrant from (A) and African-American father from Jamaica. She will serve as the deputy of President Joe Biden, 78, who also took the oath of office, becoming the 46th US President. Harris is also the first female, first Black and first South Asian American vice-president. Her husband Douglas Emhoff, 56, is the first ‘Second Gentleman' - the first male spouse of a vice-president in the US. Justice Sonia Sotomayor, the first Latina member of the Supreme Court, administered the oath of office to Harris. In 2003, Harris won her first race for San Francisco district attorney, becoming the first Black woman to hold such an office in California. In 2010, she became the first Black woman elected as California attorney general, and in 2016, she became only the second Black woman ever elected as a US senator.

Kamala Harris have her Indian roots from which state?

Solution: Harris, 56, the 49th US Vice-President, is the daughter of an Indian immigrant from Chennai and African-American father from Jamaica.
QUESTION: 62

Indian-origin Kamala Harris on Wednesday created history as she was sworn in as America's first woman vice-president at a historic inauguration at the West Front of the Capitol. Moments after her swearing in, she tweeted "Ready to serve" from her official handle Vice President Kamala Harris. Harris, 56, the 49th US Vice-President, is the daughter of an Indian immigrant from (A) and African-American father from Jamaica. She will serve as the deputy of President Joe Biden, 78, who also took the oath of office, becoming the 46th US President. Harris is also the first female, first Black and first South Asian American vice-president. Her husband Douglas Emhoff, 56, is the first ‘Second Gentleman' - the first male spouse of a vice-president in the US. Justice Sonia Sotomayor, the first Latina member of the Supreme Court, administered the oath of office to Harris. In 2003, Harris won her first race for San Francisco district attorney, becoming the first Black woman to hold such an office in California. In 2010, she became the first Black woman elected as California attorney general, and in 2016, she became only the second Black woman ever elected as a US senator.

Which of the following is not true about Kamala Harris?

Solution: She will serve as the deputy of President Joe Biden, 78, who also took the oath of office, becoming the 46th US President. Harris is also the first female, first Black and first South Asian American vice-president.
QUESTION: 63

Indian-origin Kamala Harris on Wednesday created history as she was sworn in as America's first woman vice-president at a historic inauguration at the West Front of the Capitol. Moments after her swearing in, she tweeted "Ready to serve" from her official handle Vice President Kamala Harris. Harris, 56, the 49th US Vice-President, is the daughter of an Indian immigrant from (A) and African-American father from Jamaica. She will serve as the deputy of President Joe Biden, 78, who also took the oath of office, becoming the 46th US President. Harris is also the first female, first Black and first South Asian American vice-president. Her husband Douglas Emhoff, 56, is the first ‘Second Gentleman' - the first male spouse of a vice-president in the US. Justice Sonia Sotomayor, the first Latina member of the Supreme Court, administered the oath of office to Harris. In 2003, Harris won her first race for San Francisco district attorney, becoming the first Black woman to hold such an office in California. In 2010, she became the first Black woman elected as California attorney general, and in 2016, she became only the second Black woman ever elected as a US senator.

Kamala Harris succeeded whom to become the 49th vice-president of USA?

Solution:
QUESTION: 64

Indian-origin Kamala Harris on Wednesday created history as she was sworn in as America's first woman vice-president at a historic inauguration at the West Front of the Capitol. Moments after her swearing in, she tweeted "Ready to serve" from her official handle Vice President Kamala Harris. Harris, 56, the 49th US Vice-President, is the daughter of an Indian immigrant from (A) and African-American father from Jamaica. She will serve as the deputy of President Joe Biden, 78, who also took the oath of office, becoming the 46th US President. Harris is also the first female, first Black and first South Asian American vice-president. Her husband Douglas Emhoff, 56, is the first ‘Second Gentleman' - the first male spouse of a vice-president in the US. Justice Sonia Sotomayor, the first Latina member of the Supreme Court, administered the oath of office to Harris. In 2003, Harris won her first race for San Francisco district attorney, becoming the first Black woman to hold such an office in California. In 2010, she became the first Black woman elected as California attorney general, and in 2016, she became only the second Black woman ever elected as a US senator.

Who is called as the "second gentleman" in USA?

Solution: Husband of vice president(in case where vice president is female)
QUESTION: 65

Indian-origin Kamala Harris on Wednesday created history as she was sworn in as America's first woman vice-president at a historic inauguration at the West Front of the Capitol. Moments after her swearing in, she tweeted "Ready to serve" from her official handle Vice President Kamala Harris. Harris, 56, the 49th US Vice-President, is the daughter of an Indian immigrant from (A) and African-American father from Jamaica. She will serve as the deputy of President Joe Biden, 78, who also took the oath of office, becoming the 46th US President. Harris is also the first female, first Black and first South Asian American vice-president. Her husband Douglas Emhoff, 56, is the first ‘Second Gentleman' - the first male spouse of a vice-president in the US. Justice Sonia Sotomayor, the first Latina member of the Supreme Court, administered the oath of office to Harris. In 2003, Harris won her first race for San Francisco district attorney, becoming the first Black woman to hold such an office in California. In 2010, she became the first Black woman elected as California attorney general, and in 2016, she became only the second Black woman ever elected as a US senator.

Find the wrong one according to passage?

Solution: she is first black woman USA senator
QUESTION: 66

U.S. Space Command’s traffic watchers have been working with SpaceX and satellite operators in recent days in preparation for Transporter-1, a rideshare mission scheduled to launch from Cape Canaveral, Florida, Jan. 23 that could set a new record for the most satellites ever launched in a single flight.

Space Command crews at Vandenberg Air Force Base, California, will attempt to track as many as 143 commercial and government satellites that Transporter-1 will deploy to a sun-synchronous orbit 500 kilometers above Earth. The 18th Space Control Squadron, which monitors satellites and space debris for close approaches, has been coordinating with SpaceX and the satellite owners and operators “to understand the launch plan for Transporter-1 and the satellite deployment sequence so that we can provide optimal spaceflight safety support,” Diana McKissock, a space situational awareness officer at the 18th SPCS, said in a statement to SpaceNews.

Transporter-1 is SpaceX’s first dedicated commercial rideshare on a Falcon 9 rocket. This will be a record-breaking ride with 143 satellites, beating India’s PSLV-C37 launch of 104 satellites in February 2017.

The ability to track so many payloads from a single launch is a concern for satellite watchers. “One of the problems is that we don’t even know for sure what all of the 143 satellites are,” spaceflight analyst and astronomer Jonathan McDowell told SpaceNews. “It’s certainly going to be a challenge to sort them all out,” he said. SpaceX has not released a detailed manifest for this rideshare “which is disappointing,” said McDowell.

McDowell said there are a couple of experiments on this mission to test RFID tags that will identify satellites. “If those eventually get wide adoption it will make these large cluster launches easier to track.

Some information has emerged on the satellites flying on Transporter-1. The largest customer on this mission is Planet, with 48 SuperDove satellites hitching a ride to space. There are 10 of SpaceX’s own Starlink internet satellites and 36 very small satellites from Swarm Technologies which is building an internet-of-things service with “SpaceBee” spacecraft the size of a slice of bread. Another payload riding on Transporter-1 is Spaceflight’s SHERPA-FX — a new type of spacecraft that will dispense 18 secondary payloads.

The launch vehicle for the SpaceX record-breaking flight was ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 67

U.S. Space Command’s traffic watchers have been working with SpaceX and satellite operators in recent days in preparation for Transporter-1, a rideshare mission scheduled to launch from Cape Canaveral, Florida, Jan. 23 that could set a new record for the most satellites ever launched in a single flight.

Space Command crews at Vandenberg Air Force Base, California, will attempt to track as many as 143 commercial and government satellites that Transporter-1 will deploy to a sun-synchronous orbit 500 kilometers above Earth. The 18th Space Control Squadron, which monitors satellites and space debris for close approaches, has been coordinating with SpaceX and the satellite owners and operators “to understand the launch plan for Transporter-1 and the satellite deployment sequence so that we can provide optimal spaceflight safety support,” Diana McKissock, a space situational awareness officer at the 18th SPCS, said in a statement to SpaceNews.

Transporter-1 is SpaceX’s first dedicated commercial rideshare on a Falcon 9 rocket. This will be a record-breaking ride with 143 satellites, beating India’s PSLV-C37 launch of 104 satellites in February 2017.

The ability to track so many payloads from a single launch is a concern for satellite watchers. “One of the problems is that we don’t even know for sure what all of the 143 satellites are,” spaceflight analyst and astronomer Jonathan McDowell told SpaceNews. “It’s certainly going to be a challenge to sort them all out,” he said. SpaceX has not released a detailed manifest for this rideshare “which is disappointing,” said McDowell.

McDowell said there are a couple of experiments on this mission to test RFID tags that will identify satellites. “If those eventually get wide adoption it will make these large cluster launches easier to track.

Some information has emerged on the satellites flying on Transporter-1. The largest customer on this mission is Planet, with 48 SuperDove satellites hitching a ride to space. There are 10 of SpaceX’s own Starlink internet satellites and 36 very small satellites from Swarm Technologies which is building an internet-of-things service with “SpaceBee” spacecraft the size of a slice of bread. Another payload riding on Transporter-1 is Spaceflight’s SHERPA-FX — a new type of spacecraft that will dispense 18 secondary payloads.

What is name of the mission which took off in cape Canaveral , florida?

Solution:
QUESTION: 68

U.S. Space Command’s traffic watchers have been working with SpaceX and satellite operators in recent days in preparation for Transporter-1, a rideshare mission scheduled to launch from Cape Canaveral, Florida, Jan. 23 that could set a new record for the most satellites ever launched in a single flight.

Space Command crews at Vandenberg Air Force Base, California, will attempt to track as many as 143 commercial and government satellites that Transporter-1 will deploy to a sun-synchronous orbit 500 kilometers above Earth. The 18th Space Control Squadron, which monitors satellites and space debris for close approaches, has been coordinating with SpaceX and the satellite owners and operators “to understand the launch plan for Transporter-1 and the satellite deployment sequence so that we can provide optimal spaceflight safety support,” Diana McKissock, a space situational awareness officer at the 18th SPCS, said in a statement to SpaceNews.

Transporter-1 is SpaceX’s first dedicated commercial rideshare on a Falcon 9 rocket. This will be a record-breaking ride with 143 satellites, beating India’s PSLV-C37 launch of 104 satellites in February 2017.

The ability to track so many payloads from a single launch is a concern for satellite watchers. “One of the problems is that we don’t even know for sure what all of the 143 satellites are,” spaceflight analyst and astronomer Jonathan McDowell told SpaceNews. “It’s certainly going to be a challenge to sort them all out,” he said. SpaceX has not released a detailed manifest for this rideshare “which is disappointing,” said McDowell.

McDowell said there are a couple of experiments on this mission to test RFID tags that will identify satellites. “If those eventually get wide adoption it will make these large cluster launches easier to track.

Some information has emerged on the satellites flying on Transporter-1. The largest customer on this mission is Planet, with 48 SuperDove satellites hitching a ride to space. There are 10 of SpaceX’s own Starlink internet satellites and 36 very small satellites from Swarm Technologies which is building an internet-of-things service with “SpaceBee” spacecraft the size of a slice of bread. Another payload riding on Transporter-1 is Spaceflight’s SHERPA-FX — a new type of spacecraft that will dispense 18 secondary payloads.

This mission has beat the record-breaking mark by sending how many satellites ?

Solution:
QUESTION: 69

U.S. Space Command’s traffic watchers have been working with SpaceX and satellite operators in recent days in preparation for Transporter-1, a rideshare mission scheduled to launch from Cape Canaveral, Florida, Jan. 23 that could set a new record for the most satellites ever launched in a single flight.

Space Command crews at Vandenberg Air Force Base, California, will attempt to track as many as 143 commercial and government satellites that Transporter-1 will deploy to a sun-synchronous orbit 500 kilometers above Earth. The 18th Space Control Squadron, which monitors satellites and space debris for close approaches, has been coordinating with SpaceX and the satellite owners and operators “to understand the launch plan for Transporter-1 and the satellite deployment sequence so that we can provide optimal spaceflight safety support,” Diana McKissock, a space situational awareness officer at the 18th SPCS, said in a statement to SpaceNews.

Transporter-1 is SpaceX’s first dedicated commercial rideshare on a Falcon 9 rocket. This will be a record-breaking ride with 143 satellites, beating India’s PSLV-C37 launch of 104 satellites in February 2017.

The ability to track so many payloads from a single launch is a concern for satellite watchers. “One of the problems is that we don’t even know for sure what all of the 143 satellites are,” spaceflight analyst and astronomer Jonathan McDowell told SpaceNews. “It’s certainly going to be a challenge to sort them all out,” he said. SpaceX has not released a detailed manifest for this rideshare “which is disappointing,” said McDowell.

McDowell said there are a couple of experiments on this mission to test RFID tags that will identify satellites. “If those eventually get wide adoption it will make these large cluster launches easier to track.

Some information has emerged on the satellites flying on Transporter-1. The largest customer on this mission is Planet, with 48 SuperDove satellites hitching a ride to space. There are 10 of SpaceX’s own Starlink internet satellites and 36 very small satellites from Swarm Technologies which is building an internet-of-things service with “SpaceBee” spacecraft the size of a slice of bread. Another payload riding on Transporter-1 is Spaceflight’s SHERPA-FX — a new type of spacecraft that will dispense 18 secondary payloads.

India has set the earlier record in feb 2017 by sending 104 satellites on a single go on which launch vehicle?

Solution:
QUESTION: 70

The United Kingdom has invited Prime Minister Narendra Modi to attend the G7 summit that is scheduled to be held in June. Apart from India, Australia and South Korea are also invited to participate in the proceedings of the summit as “guest countries”.

“U.K. Prime Minister Boris Johnson will use the first in-person G7 summit in almost two years to ask leaders, including Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, to seize the opportunity to build back better from coronavirus, uniting to make the future fairer, greener and more prosperous,” a statement issued by the British High Commission announced on Sunday. The G7 summit will be held in (A) from June 11 to 13. Mr. Modi participated in the Biarritz G7 summit in 2019 when French President Emmanuel Macron had invited India.

Addressing the member countries of G7, Mr. Johnson described the COVID-19 pandemic as the “most destructive” force that the world has seen in several generations. “It is only right that we approach the challenge of building back better by uniting with a spirit of openness to create a better future,” said Mr. Johnson.The invitation came days after Mr. Johnson had to cancel his visit to India in the last week of January because of a new wave of the COVID-19 pandemic in Britain. He has said he will visit India “ahead” of the G7 summit. Cooperation between the U.K. and India is significant this year as India is a non-permanent member at the UN Security Council, where the United Kingdom will take over the presidency in February.

Q. Which of the following countries is not a part of G-7?

Solution: Russia
QUESTION: 71

IPC Sec 124A: Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards, the Government established by law in India, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.

The insidiously developing use of technology by the government to create a surveillance security regime to monitor and track communication in India has a dangerous relationship with the retention of statutory offences criminalising political speech. In that, their object is the same – of imposing fundamental restrictions to constitutional freedoms.

The explosion of instances in the recent past has gained “a special degree of notoriety” with the othering of human rights activists, university teachers and students and journalists as ‘anti-nationals’. They have been charged with and arrested for the offence of sedition for simply speaking against or criticising governmental action.

This has lead to the creation of a state-sanctioned chilling effect on free speech and has sharply re-introduced serious concerns about the political use of the law in clamping down on an individual’s human rights – foremost among them of the right to freedom of speech and expression, encompassing the right to rebel and protest against the government and the policy of the state. The same right(s), which in its broadest formulation remain unquestionably vital for sustaining a resilient and vibrant democratic political process.

In this context, despite its apparent initial disposition to broadly interpreting constitutional protections to free speech, the SC in Kedar Nath vs State of Bihar (where the constitutionality of sedition was challenged) on the first part, did re-state the test of ‘incitement to violence’.

However, at the same time – and more importantly – the court also ignored a direct precedent that was laid down in Superintendent, Central Prison, Fategarh vs Ram Manohar Lohia, wherein it had formulated a strict test of proximity between speech and consequence to instead harshly reaffirm the speech restrictive standard of mere ‘intention or tendency’ to public disorder for prohibiting speech alleged to be ‘seditious’. The decisions of the SC in Arup Bhuyan vs State of Assam and Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, progress towards establishing a similar test of ‘imminent incitement to lawless action’ for deciding protectable speech, as evolved by the Supreme Court of the United States in Brandenburg vs Ohio.

Q. The author is calling for removal of a section which the SC has upheld to be constitutional. Can the author be tried for Sedition for advocating views against the law of the land? Decide.

Solution: Article 19 protects freedom to express one’s view in a peaceful manner which includes criticism of government policies until they do not incite violence. Thus, both (A) and (B) are correct.
QUESTION: 72

IPC Sec 124A: Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards, the Government established by law in India, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.

The insidiously developing use of technology by the government to create a surveillance security regime to monitor and track communication in India has a dangerous relationship with the retention of statutory offences criminalising political speech. In that, their object is the same – of imposing fundamental restrictions to constitutional freedoms.

The explosion of instances in the recent past has gained “a special degree of notoriety” with the othering of human rights activists, university teachers and students and journalists as ‘anti-nationals’. They have been charged with and arrested for the offence of sedition for simply speaking against or criticising governmental action.

This has lead to the creation of a state-sanctioned chilling effect on free speech and has sharply re-introduced serious concerns about the political use of the law in clamping down on an individual’s human rights – foremost among them of the right to freedom of speech and expression, encompassing the right to rebel and protest against the government and the policy of the state. The same right(s), which in its broadest formulation remain unquestionably vital for sustaining a resilient and vibrant democratic political process.

In this context, despite its apparent initial disposition to broadly interpreting constitutional protections to free speech, the SC in Kedar Nath vs State of Bihar (where the constitutionality of sedition was challenged) on the first part, did re-state the test of ‘incitement to violence’.

However, at the same time – and more importantly – the court also ignored a direct precedent that was laid down in Superintendent, Central Prison, Fatehgarh vs Ram Manohar Lohia, wherein it had formulated a strict test of proximity between speech and consequence to instead harshly reaffirm the speech restrictive standard of mere ‘intention or tendency’ to public disorder for prohibiting speech alleged to be ‘seditious’. The decisions of the SC in Arup Bhuyan vs State of Assam and Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, progress towards establishing a similar test of ‘imminent incitement to lawless action’ for deciding protectable speech, as evolved by the Supreme Court of the United States in Brandenburg vs Ohio.

Q. What test did the SC adopt from the case of Brandenburg v Ohio in relation to protection of speech?

Solution: The US SC had held that the speech should be capable of causing immediate incitement of violence in the society. The SC upheld the same standard when testing speech vis a vis Sedition law. Both option (a) and option (d) are not stated in the passage.
QUESTION: 73

IPC Sec 124A: Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards, the Government established by law in India, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.

The insidiously developing use of technology by the government to create a surveillance security regime to monitor and track communication in India has a dangerous relationship with the retention of statutory offences criminalising political speech. In that, their object is the same – of imposing fundamental restrictions to constitutional freedoms.

The explosion of instances in the recent past has gained “a special degree of notoriety” with the othering of human rights activists, university teachers and students and journalists as ‘anti-nationals’. They have been charged with and arrested for the offence of sedition for simply speaking against or criticising governmental action.

This has lead to the creation of a state-sanctioned chilling effect on free speech and has sharply re-introduced serious concerns about the political use of the law in clamping down on an individual’s human rights – foremost among them of the right to freedom of speech and expression, encompassing the right to rebel and protest against the government and the policy of the state. The same right(s), which in its broadest formulation remain unquestionably vital for sustaining a resilient and vibrant democratic political process.

In this context, despite its apparent initial disposition to broadly interpreting constitutional protections to free speech, the SC in Kedar Nath vs State of Bihar (where the constitutionality of sedition was challenged) on the first part, did re-state the test of ‘incitement to violence’.

However, at the same time – and more importantly – the court also ignored a direct precedent that was laid down in Superintendent, Central Prison, Fategarh vs Ram Manohar Lohia, wherein it had formulated a strict test of proximity between speech and consequence to instead harshly reaffirm the speech restrictive standard of mere ‘intention or tendency’ to public disorder for prohibiting speech alleged to be ‘seditious’. The decisions of the SC in Arup Bhuyan vs State of Assam and Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, progress towards establishing a similar test of ‘imminent incitement to lawless action’ for deciding protectable speech, as evolved by the Supreme Court of the United States in Brandenburg vs Ohio.

Q. The SC in the case of Kedar Nath v UOI read down the section to the discerned principle of?

Solution: Applying the test of Brandenburg v. Ohio, the SC read down section 124A to a similar standard in KedarNath. Both option (a) and option (d) are not stated in the passage and hence are irrelevant.
QUESTION: 74

IPC Sec 124A: Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards, the Government established by law in India, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.

The insidiously developing use of technology by the government to create a surveillance security regime to monitor and track communication in India has a dangerous relationship with the retention of statutory offences criminalising political speech. In that, their object is the same – of imposing fundamental restrictions to constitutional freedoms.

The explosion of instances in the recent past has gained “a special degree of notoriety” with the othering of human rights activists, university teachers and students and journalists as ‘anti-nationals’. They have been charged with and arrested for the offence of sedition for simply speaking against or criticising governmental action.

This has lead to the creation of a state-sanctioned chilling effect on free speech and has sharply re-introduced serious concerns about the political use of the law in clamping down on an individual’s human rights – foremost among them of the right to freedom of speech and expression, encompassing the right to rebel and protest against the government and the policy of the state. The same right(s), which in its broadest formulation remain unquestionably vital for sustaining a resilient and vibrant democratic political process.

In this context, despite its apparent initial disposition to broadly interpreting constitutional protections to free speech, the SC in Kedar Nath vs State of Bihar (where the constitutionality of sedition was challenged) on the first part, did re-state the test of ‘incitement to violence’.

However, at the same time – and more importantly – the court also ignored a direct precedent that was laid down in Superintendent, Central Prison, Fatehgarh vs Ram Manohar Lohia, wherein it had formulated a strict test of proximity between speech and consequence to instead harshly reaffirm the speech restrictive standard of mere ‘intention or tendency’ to public disorder for prohibiting speech alleged to be ‘seditious’. The decisions of the SC in Arup Bhuyan vs State of Assam and Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, progress towards establishing a similar test of ‘imminent incitement to lawless action’ for deciding protectable speech, as evolved by the Supreme Court of the United States in Brandenburg vs Ohio.

Q. Ketan uploaded a TikTok video in which an army officer is beating two women for not listening to him. Under the video, the caption reads, “#state sponsored violence. Godi is a political supporter of the current government, he is enraged by seeing the video. He filed an FIR against Ketan under 124A of IPC. Relying on SC rulings, Decide.

Solution: As per the test of Kedar Nath, the action has to incite violence against the ruling government. Here, Ketan’s actions are not inciting violence against the state and therefore not liable under Sedition. Option (c) leans on the emotional side and hence is irrelevant. Option (b) is incorrect as criticising armed forces does not lead to inciting violence.
QUESTION: 75

IPC Sec 124A: Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards, the Government established by law in India, shall be punished with imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.

The insidiously developing use of technology by the government to create a surveillance security regime to monitor and track communication in India has a dangerous relationship with the retention of statutory offences criminalising political speech. In that, their object is the same – of imposing fundamental restrictions to constitutional freedoms.

The explosion of instances in the recent past has gained “a special degree of notoriety” with the othering of human rights activists, university teachers and students and journalists as ‘anti-nationals’. They have been charged with and arrested for the offence of sedition for simply speaking against or criticising governmental action.

This has lead to the creation of a state-sanctioned chilling effect on free speech and has sharply re-introduced serious concerns about the political use of the law in clamping down on an individual’s human rights – foremost among them of the right to freedom of speech and expression, encompassing the right to rebel and protest against the government and the policy of the state. The same right(s), which in its broadest formulation remain unquestionably vital for sustaining a resilient and vibrant democratic political process.

In this context, despite its apparent initial disposition to broadly interpreting constitutional protections to free speech, the SC in Kedar Nath vs State of Bihar (where the constitutionality of sedition was challenged) on the first part, did re-state the test of ‘incitement to violence’.

However, at the same time – and more importantly – the court also ignored a direct precedent that was laid down in Superintendent, Central Prison, Fatehgarh vs Ram Manohar Lohia, wherein it had formulated a strict test of proximity between speech and consequence to instead harshly reaffirm the speech restrictive standard of mere ‘intention or tendency’ to public disorder for prohibiting speech alleged to be ‘seditious’. The decisions of the SC in Arup Bhuyan vs State of Assam and Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, progress towards establishing a similar test of ‘imminent incitement to lawless action’ for deciding protectable speech, as evolved by the Supreme Court of the United States in Brandenburg vs Ohio.

Q. Azhar is a kashmiri student living in Gujarat. Rajesh and Manto always bully him by calling him out as a terrorist sympathizer. One day out of frustration and anger he prints a Pakistani flag and puts it out on the house of Rajesh and Manto. Jyoti sees a Pakistani flag outside their house and informs the police. Can Rajesh and Manto be tried for Sedition. Decide.

Solution: The test for sedition is whether speech or expression is capable of inciting violence. Merely flying of a flag does not amount to incitement of violence, even if it is a Pakistani flag. Thus, there is no case for sedition at all. Thus, option (a) is incorrect and option (c) is the correct answer. Option (b) is not within the scope of the questioning. Here, it doesn't matter who has printed the flag.
QUESTION: 76

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side-effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can be few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limits to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. Which among the following is the most logical inference to the above passage?

Solution: Option (a) is the correct choice. Option (b) is incorrect as there is no implication that all governmental actions require absolute transparency in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect because of the phrase 'this is not possible' as there may be other ways to achieve the same. Option (d) incorrectly singles out flexibility and opaqueness of laws but there could be other institutional reasons for delays as well.
QUESTION: 77

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side-effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can be few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limits to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. Zeshan appeared for the Board Examination. When he got the mark sheet he was disappointed with his marks. He thought that he had done well in the examination but his answer-books were not properly valued and that improper valuation had resulted in low marks. Therefore he made an application for inspection and re-evaluation of his answer-books. Board rejected the said request. If this is true, then, based on the author's reasoning in the passage above:

Solution: Given answer encompasses the substance of the Right to information. Paragraph 4th mentions "The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process." Going by the reading of this line the only appropriate option is choice (d).
QUESTION: 78

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side-effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can be few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limits to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. It is witnessed neither the Central Government nor the State Government are filling the vacancies for the appointment of Commissioners in a timely manner. As a result the functioning of RTI Act is stifled. It is leading to huge backlogs of appeals and complaints in many Commissions across the country. What, according to the author, would be the effect of not filling the vacancies

Solution: Central idea of the passage is that the steps are to be taken to strengthen the RTI. It is axiomatic that vacancies in any institution lead to arrears and backlog. Therefore only sound choice is
QUESTION: 79

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side-effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can be few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limits to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. Parliament has passed The Right to Information (Amendment) Bill which seeks to give the government powers to fix salaries, tenures and other terms and conditions of employment of information commissioners. Based on the inference drawn, what should be the author's stand on the amending Act

Solution: Central idea of the passage is that the steps are to be taken to strengthen the RTI. It is given that through the Amending Act there is conferred huge power in the government. Government may abuse the same. Therefore only sound choice is option (d).
QUESTION: 80

In modern constitutional democracies, it is axiomatic that citizens have a right to know about the affairs of the Government which, having been elected by them, seeks to formulate sound policies of governance aimed at their welfare. Democracy, therefore, expects openness and openness is a concomitant of a free society. Sunlight is the best disinfectant. But it is equally important to be alive to the dangers that lie ahead. It is important to realise that undue popular pressure brought to bear on decision-makers is Government can have frightening side-effects.

In a government of responsibility like ours, where all the agents of the public must be responsible for their conduct, there can be few secrets. The people of this country have a right to know every public act, everything, that is done in a public way, by their public functionaries. They are entitled to know the particulars of every public transaction in all its bearing. The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security.

The Right to Information (RTI) Act has been a powerful instrument in the hands of people to ensure transparency in the decision making process. There are a number of cases where this right has been used by the people to get better civic facilities, cut down red-tape and delay in decision making and punish the corrupt. State governments have taken steps to come out with a public service charter that fixes time limits to the government departments for providing services to the people. This is expected to address a number of grievances of people arising from delayed delivery of public services which often lies at the root of corruption and inefficiency.

Q. The Official Secrets Act and National Security Act is sought to be repealed. Both the Acts contain the provisions relating to official secrets. These statutes are time tested legislations securing India's sovereignty and Integrity. If this is true, then, based on the author's reasoning in the passage above

Solution: Option (d) is the correct choice. Option (d) correctly identifies the idea from the line mentioning that "The right to know, which is derived from the concept of freedom of speech, though not absolute, is a factor which should make one wary, when secrecy is claimed for transactions which can, at any rate, have no repercussion on public security."
QUESTION: 81

Justice S. Muralidhar – who until February 25, 2020 was at the Delhi High Court before being transferred to the Punjab and Haryana High Court – on February 24, 2020 reminded the police that it must act in line with the Lalita Kumari guidelines. The court was hearing a case about registering FIRs against BJP leaders Anurag Thakur, Parvesh Verma and Kapil Mishra, and others who made alleged hate speeches that may have incited violence in the national capital.

A by-product of the decision in Lalita Kumari v. Government of UP & Others (2013), the Supreme Court established the Lalita Kumari guidelines which are a mandatory set of directions to be followed by the police when someone seeks to register a complaint. The guidelines lay down that the registration of an FIR (First Information Report) is binding under Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) if the complaint discloses commission of a cognizable offence, with no requirement for a preliminary investigation.

A cognizable offence is one where the police are authorised to start an investigation or make an arrest without court authorisation. Inflammatory speech – covered by Section 153 and Section 505 (2) of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) – is a cognizable offence.

Even if the police felt that the complaints against Mishra and other BJP leaders did not reveal a cognizable offence, the guidelines oblige them to conduct a preliminary inquiry to determine whether the offence is cognizable or not. The scope of such an inquiry is not to authenticate the facts of the complaint, but only to confirm whether the offence alleged is cognizable. The preliminary inquiry has to be concluded within a week.

If the inquiry reveals the commission of a cognizable offence, the police must register an FIR. Strict action must be implemented against officers who do not register the FIR, the guidelines say. However, in cases where the preliminary inquiry results in closing the complaint, the complainant must be informed in writing about the reasons for this within a week.

Q. Riya attended a political rally of the legislator from his constituency, Reyan. In the rally, Reyan gave a rousing speech targeting a certain religious minority in the constituency. Riya registered a complaint with the local police station, alleging that Reyan gave an inflammatory speech at the rally. However, when the police questioned Riya further, they came to the conclusion that the speech was not inflammatory and did not proceed with the investigation. Can the police be said to have carried out the Lalita Kumari guidelines?

Solution: As described in the passage, even if the police feel that the complaints it receives do not reveal a cognizable offence, it is obligated to conduct a preliminary inquiry to determine the nature of the offence. In the given fact situation, when Riya complained to the police about the inflammatory speech, the police merely asked Riya questions, and did not conduct any preliminary inquiry. Hence, they did not follow the Lalita Kumari guidelines.
QUESTION: 82

Justice S. Muralidhar – who until February 25, 2020 was at the Delhi High Court before being transferred to the Punjab and Haryana High Court – on February 24, 2020 reminded the police that it must act in line with the Lalita Kumari guidelines. The court was hearing a case about registering FIRs against BJP leaders Anurag Thakur, Parvesh Verma and Kapil Mishra, and others who made alleged hate speeches that may have incited violence in the national capital.

A by-product of the decision in Lalita Kumari v. Government of UP & Others (2013), the Supreme Court established the Lalita Kumari guidelines which are a mandatory set of directions to be followed by the police when someone seeks to register a complaint. The guidelines lay down that the registration of an FIR (First Information Report) is binding under Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) if the complaint discloses commission of a cognizable offence, with no requirement for a preliminary investigation.

A cognizable offence is one where the police are authorised to start an investigation or make an arrest without court authorisation. Inflammatory speech – covered by Section 153 and Section 505 (2) of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) – is a cognizable offence.

Even if the police felt that the complaints against Mishra and other BJP leaders did not reveal a cognizable offence, the guidelines oblige them to conduct a preliminary inquiry to determine whether the offence is cognizable or not. The scope of such an inquiry is not to authenticate the facts of the complaint, but only to confirm whether the offence alleged is cognizable. The preliminary inquiry has to be concluded within a week.

If the inquiry reveals the commission of a cognizable offence, the police must register an FIR. Strict action must be implemented against officers who do not register the FIR, the guidelines say. However, in cases where the preliminary inquiry results in closing the complaint, the complainant must be informed in writing about the reasons for this within a week.

Q. Consider that in the factual scenario presented in the previous question, the police does conduct a preliminary inquiry. However, the inquiry was completed only within a month as Reyan was not in the country for some period. At the end of their inquiry, the police concluded that the speech was not inflammatory. Has the police followed the Lalita Kumari guidelines?

Solution: As stated in the passage, the Lalita Kumari guidelines require the police to finish the preliminary inquiry within a period of seven days. In this case, the police took a month to finish the inquiry.
QUESTION: 83

Justice S. Muralidhar – who until February 25, 2020 was at the Delhi High Court before being transferred to the Punjab and Haryana High Court – on February 24, 2020 reminded the police that it must act in line with the Lalita Kumari guidelines. The court was hearing a case about registering FIRs against BJP leaders Anurag Thakur, Parvesh Verma and Kapil Mishra, and others who made alleged hate speeches that may have incited violence in the national capital.

A by-product of the decision in Lalita Kumari v. Government of UP & Others (2013), the Supreme Court established the Lalita Kumari guidelines which are a mandatory set of directions to be followed by the police when someone seeks to register a complaint. The guidelines lay down that the registration of an FIR (First Information Report) is binding under Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) if the complaint discloses commission of a cognizable offence, with no requirement for a preliminary investigation.

A cognizable offence is one where the police are authorised to start an investigation or make an arrest without court authorisation. Inflammatory speech – covered by Section 153 and Section 505 (2) of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) – is a cognizable offence.

Even if the police felt that the complaints against Mishra and other BJP leaders did not reveal a cognizable offence, the guidelines oblige them to conduct a preliminary inquiry to determine whether the offence is cognizable or not. The scope of such an inquiry is not to authenticate the facts of the complaint, but only to confirm whether the offence alleged is cognizable. The preliminary inquiry has to be concluded within a week.

If the inquiry reveals the commission of a cognizable offence, the police must register an FIR. Strict action must be implemented against officers who do not register the FIR, the guidelines say. However, in cases where the preliminary inquiry results in closing the complaint, the complainant must be informed in writing about the reasons for this within a week.

Q. Consider that in the factual scenario presented in the earlier question, the police conducts a preliminary inquiry, and comes to a finding (within a week) that the speech by Reyan was inflammatory. What should be the next step by the police?

Solution: Once the police conducted its preliminary inquiry and came to the conclusion that the speech was inflammatory, it is a cognizable offence. As explained in the passage, a cognizable offence is one where the police can commence investigation or arrest without the authorization of the court. Since the investigation has already been done by the police, their next goal would be to arrest Reyan.
QUESTION: 84

Justice S. Muralidhar – who until February 25, 2020 was at the Delhi High Court before being transferred to the Punjab and Haryana High Court – on February 24, 2020 reminded the police that it must act in line with the Lalita Kumari guidelines. The court was hearing a case about registering FIRs against BJP leaders Anurag Thakur, Parvesh Verma and Kapil Mishra, and others who made alleged hate speeches that may have incited violence in the national capital.

A by-product of the decision in Lalita Kumari v. Government of UP & Others (2013), the Supreme Court established the Lalita Kumari guidelines which are a mandatory set of directions to be followed by the police when someone seeks to register a complaint. The guidelines lay down that the registration of an FIR (First Information Report) is binding under Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) if the complaint discloses commission of a cognizable offence, with no requirement for a preliminary investigation.

A cognizable offence is one where the police are authorised to start an investigation or make an arrest without court authorisation. Inflammatory speech – covered by Section 153 and Section 505 (2) of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) – is a cognizable offence.

Even if the police felt that the complaints against Mishra and other BJP leaders did not reveal a cognizable offence, the guidelines oblige them to conduct a preliminary inquiry to determine whether the offence is cognizable or not. The scope of such an inquiry is not to authenticate the facts of the complaint, but only to confirm whether the offence alleged is cognizable. The preliminary inquiry has to be concluded within a week.

If the inquiry reveals the commission of a cognizable offence, the police must register an FIR. Strict action must be implemented against officers who do not register the FIR, the guidelines say. However, in cases where the preliminary inquiry results in closing the complaint, the complainant must be informed in writing about the reasons for this within a week.

Q. Jethalal, a student of Delhi University, plans to stand for the post of the president of the students’ union. Another candidate, Daya complains to the police that in one of the presidential debate speeches, Jethalal called for the destruction of the university library alleging that it is home to western literature, which has adversely affected Indian culture. The police are under no doubt that this is a cognizable offence. What is the first step that needs to be taken in such a case?

Solution: As stated in the passage, the Lalita Kumari guidelines lay down that the registration of an FIR (First Information Report) is binding under Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) if the complaint discloses commission of a cognizable offence. Since the police have reason to believe that what was told to them was a cognizable offence, the first thing they need to do is register an FIR.
QUESTION: 85

Justice S. Muralidhar – who until February 25, 2020 was at the Delhi High Court before being transferred to the Punjab and Haryana High Court – on February 24, 2020 reminded the police that it must act in line with the Lalita Kumari guidelines. The court was hearing a case about registering FIRs against BJP leaders Anurag Thakur, Parvesh Verma and Kapil Mishra, and others who made alleged hate speeches that may have incited violence in the national capital.

A by-product of the decision in Lalita Kumari v. Government of UP & Others (2013), the Supreme Court established the Lalita Kumari guidelines which are a mandatory set of directions to be followed by the police when someone seeks to register a complaint. The guidelines lay down that the registration of an FIR (First Information Report) is binding under Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) if the complaint discloses commission of a cognizable offence, with no requirement for a preliminary investigation.

A cognizable offence is one where the police are authorised to start an investigation or make an arrest without court authorisation. Inflammatory speech – covered by Section 153 and Section 505 (2) of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) – is a cognizable offence.

Even if the police felt that the complaints against Mishra and other BJP leaders did not reveal a cognizable offence, the guidelines oblige them to conduct a preliminary inquiry to determine whether the offence is cognizable or not. The scope of such an inquiry is not to authenticate the facts of the complaint, but only to confirm whether the offence alleged is cognizable. The preliminary inquiry has to be concluded within a week.

If the inquiry reveals the commission of a cognizable offence, the police must register an FIR. Strict action must be implemented against officers who do not register the FIR, the guidelines say. However, in cases where the preliminary inquiry results in closing the complaint, the complainant must be informed in writing about the reasons for this within a week.

Q. Consider that in the factual scenario presented in the previous question, the police registers an FIR and makes a preliminary inquiry and comes to the conclusion that the offence committed was not a cognizable one. It shuts the case. Has the police followed all the requirements of the Lalita Kumari guidelines?

Solution: As stated in the passage, where the preliminary inquiry results in closing the complaint, the complainant must be informed in writing about the reasons for this within a week. As described in the passage, Daya was not informed of the same. Hence, (c).
QUESTION: 86

The question before the apex court for consideration was “whether an unregistered agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession or executed in favor of a person in possession, i.e. an agreement that conceive of part performance, of an agreement to sell as conceived by Section 53A of Transfer of Property Act 1882, can be received in evidence as proof of the agreement and as to whether a suit for specific performance would lie on the basis of such an unregistered agreement to sell.”

The object of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 gives a right to the defendant to protect his possession against the transferor. It is equally available against a person who claims under him such as heirs, assigns and legal representative. This section is ordinarily to be used as a defense and not as a weapon of attack.

In the case of Gurbachan Singh V. Raghubir Singh, the Hon'ble court held that agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession is inadmissible in evidence if it is not registered but in the matter of Birham Pal & Ors. V. Niranjan Singh & Ors., the Court held that on the basis of section 49 of the Registration Act, such an agreement can form the basis of a suit for specific performance.

It has been judicially held that section 17(1A) merely declares that such an unregistered contract shall not be pressed into service for the purpose of Section 53(A) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Section 17(1A) of the Indian Registration Act, 1908, does not, whether in specific terms or by necessary intent, prohibit the filing of a suit for specific performance based upon an unregistered agreement to sell, that records delivery of possession or is executed in favour of a person to whom possession is delivered and the proviso to Section 49 of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 put paid to any argument to the contrary.

Further, it is legally expounded that a suit for specific performance, based upon an unregistered contract/agreement to sell that contains a clause recording part performance of the contract by delivery of possession or has been executed with a person, who is already in possession shall not be dismissed for want of registration of the contract/agreement. The proviso to Section 49 of the Registration Act, legitimizes such a contract to the extent that, even though unregistered, it can form the basis of a suit for specific performance and be led into evidence as proof of the agreement or part performance of a contract.

Q. Which of the following is true with respect to the judgements as mentioned in the paragraph above?

Solution: As one case law doesn't allow an unregistered agreement to sell to be admissible whereas the other allows it to be admissible and that is why sanctions a suit of specific performance to be filed on that agreement.
QUESTION: 87

The question before the apex court for consideration was “whether an unregistered agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession or executed in favor of a person in possession, i.e. an agreement that conceive of part performance, of an agreement to sell as conceived by Section 53A of Transfer of Property Act 1882, can be received in evidence as proof of the agreement and as to whether a suit for specific performance would lie on the basis of such an unregistered agreement to sell.”

The object of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 gives a right to the defendant to protect his possession against the transferor. It is equally available against a person who claims under him such as heirs, assigns and legal representative. This section is ordinarily to be used as a defense and not as a weapon of attack.

In the case of Gurbachan Singh V. Raghubir Singh, the Hon'ble court held that agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession is inadmissible in evidence if it is not registered but in the matter of Birham Pal & Ors. V. Niranjan Singh & Ors., the Court held that on the basis of section 49 of the Registration Act, such an agreement can form the basis of a suit for specific performance.

It has been judicially held that section 17(1A) merely declares that such an unregistered contract shall not be pressed into service for the purpose of Section 53(A) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Section 17(1A) of the Indian Registration Act, 1908, does not, whether in specific terms or by necessary intent, prohibit the filing of a suit for specific performance based upon an unregistered agreement to sell, that records delivery of possession or is executed in favour of a person to whom possession is delivered and the proviso to Section 49 of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 put paid to any argument to the contrary.

Further, it is legally expounded that a suit for specific performance, based upon an unregistered contract/agreement to sell that contains a clause recording part performance of the contract by delivery of possession or has been executed with a person, who is already in possession shall not be dismissed for want of registration of the contract/agreement. The proviso to Section 49 of the Registration Act, legitimizes such a contract to the extent that, even though unregistered, it can form the basis of a suit for specific performance and be led into evidence as proof of the agreement or part performance of a contract.

Q. Which provision allows for an unregistered agreement to sell to be used as evidence?

Solution: Both Section 49 and 17(1)(A) of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 allow the suit of specific performance to be filed over an unregistered agreement to sell and considers it as legitimate evidence.
QUESTION: 88

The question before the apex court for consideration was “whether an unregistered agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession or executed in favor of a person in possession, i.e. an agreement that conceive of part performance, of an agreement to sell as conceived by Section 53A of Transfer of Property Act 1882, can be received in evidence as proof of the agreement and as to whether a suit for specific performance would lie on the basis of such an unregistered agreement to sell.”

The object of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 gives a right to the defendant to protect his possession against the transferor. It is equally available against a person who claims under him such as heirs, assigns and legal representative. This section is ordinarily to be used as a defense and not as a weapon of attack.

In the case of Gurbachan Singh V. Raghubir Singh, the Hon'ble court held that agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession is inadmissible in evidence if it is not registered but in the matter of Birham Pal & Ors. V. Niranjan Singh & Ors., the Court held that on the basis of section 49 of the Registration Act, such an agreement can form the basis of a suit for specific performance.

It has been judicially held that section 17(1A) merely declares that such an unregistered contract shall not be pressed into service for the purpose of Section 53(A) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Section 17(1A) of the Indian Registration Act, 1908, does not, whether in specific terms or by necessary intent, prohibit the filing of a suit for specific performance based upon an unregistered agreement to sell, that records delivery of possession or is executed in favour of a person to whom possession is delivered and the proviso to Section 49 of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 put paid to any argument to the contrary.

Further, it is legally expounded that a suit for specific performance, based upon an unregistered contract/agreement to sell that contains a clause recording part performance of the contract by delivery of possession or has been executed with a person, who is already in possession shall not be dismissed for want of registration of the contract/agreement. The proviso to Section 49 of the Registration Act, legitimizes such a contract to the extent that, even though unregistered, it can form the basis of a suit for specific performance and be led into evidence as proof of the agreement or part performance of a contract.

Q. Can an unregistered agreement to sell be used to file for suit of specific performance?

Solution: Both Section 49 and 17(1)(A) of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 allow the suit of specific performance to be filed over an unregistered agreement to sell and considers it as legitimate evidence.
QUESTION: 89

The question before the apex court for consideration was “whether an unregistered agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession or executed in favor of a person in possession, i.e. an agreement that conceive of part performance, of an agreement to sell as conceived by Section 53A of Transfer of Property Act 1882, can be received in evidence as proof of the agreement and as to whether a suit for specific performance would lie on the basis of such an unregistered agreement to sell.”

The object of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 gives a right to the defendant to protect his possession against the transferor. It is equally available against a person who claims under him such as heirs, assigns and legal representative. This section is ordinarily to be used as a defense and not as a weapon of attack.

In the case of Gurbachan Singh V. Raghubir Singh, the Hon'ble court held that agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession is inadmissible in evidence if it is not registered but in the matter of Birham Pal & Ors. V. Niranjan Singh & Ors., the Court held that on the basis of section 49 of the Registration Act, such an agreement can form the basis of a suit for specific performance.

It has been judicially held that section 17(1A) merely declares that such an unregistered contract shall not be pressed into service for the purpose of Section 53(A) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Section 17(1A) of the Indian Registration Act, 1908, does not, whether in specific terms or by necessary intent, prohibit the filing of a suit for specific performance based upon an unregistered agreement to sell, that records delivery of possession or is executed in favour of a person to whom possession is delivered and the proviso to Section 49 of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 put paid to any argument to the contrary.

Further, it is legally expounded that a suit for specific performance, based upon an unregistered contract/agreement to sell that contains a clause recording part performance of the contract by delivery of possession or has been executed with a person, who is already in possession shall not be dismissed for want of registration of the contract/agreement. The proviso to Section 49 of the Registration Act, legitimizes such a contract to the extent that, even though unregistered, it can form the basis of a suit for specific performance and be led into evidence as proof of the agreement or part performance of a contract.

Q. Which of the following is true with respect to Section 53-A of the Transfer of Property Act?

Solution: As per the information provided in the passage with respect to part performance, all of the above statements are true.
QUESTION: 90

The question before the apex court for consideration was “whether an unregistered agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession or executed in favor of a person in possession, i.e. an agreement that conceive of part performance, of an agreement to sell as conceived by Section 53A of Transfer of Property Act 1882, can be received in evidence as proof of the agreement and as to whether a suit for specific performance would lie on the basis of such an unregistered agreement to sell.”

The object of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 gives a right to the defendant to protect his possession against the transferor. It is equally available against a person who claims under him such as heirs, assigns and legal representative. This section is ordinarily to be used as a defense and not as a weapon of attack.

In the case of Gurbachan Singh V. Raghubir Singh, the Hon'ble court held that agreement to sell, acquired by delivery of possession is inadmissible in evidence if it is not registered but in the matter of Birham Pal & Ors. V. Niranjan Singh & Ors., the Court held that on the basis of section 49 of the Registration Act, such an agreement can form the basis of a suit for specific performance.

It has been judicially held that section 17(1A) merely declares that such an unregistered contract shall not be pressed into service for the purpose of Section 53(A) of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Section 17(1A) of the Indian Registration Act, 1908, does not, whether in specific terms or by necessary intent, prohibit the filing of a suit for specific performance based upon an unregistered agreement to sell, that records delivery of possession or is executed in favour of a person to whom possession is delivered and the proviso to Section 49 of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 put paid to any argument to the contrary.

Further, it is legally expounded that a suit for specific performance, based upon an unregistered contract/agreement to sell that contains a clause recording part performance of the contract by delivery of possession or has been executed with a person, who is already in possession shall not be dismissed for want of registration of the contract/agreement. The proviso to Section 49 of the Registration Act, legitimizes such a contract to the extent that, even though unregistered, it can form the basis of a suit for specific performance and be led into evidence as proof of the agreement or part performance of a contract.

Q. What will be the correct inference among the following which can be drawn with respect to the paragraph above?

Solution: As per the passage, an unregistered agreement to sell can be used both as evidence for part performance and for suit to file for specific performance.
QUESTION: 91

"The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property. Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382. Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away away without his/her consent. Theft is defined under the Section 378 of The Indian Penal Code as, any person intending to take any movable property without honesty, out of the possession of any person without that individual’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking is said to commit theft. The subject of the theft is movable property. Movable property is that type of property which is able to move easily and is not stationary or which is not immovable. On the other hand, the kind of property which cannot be moved and is attached to the Earth is considered as immovable property, and it is not the subject of theft. It becomes the subject of theft when it is taken off from the surface of the Earth.

Dishonest Intention is the core element of the theft. It is also called as malafide intention which can be represented in the form of mens rea. This is the core element of the theft. The petitioner has to prove that something was taken away by someone with a dishonest intention. However, intention acts as a mental element in this case which is difficult to prove but evidence according to the circumstances of the case is considered for this purpose. The main measurement of dishonest intention is to make a wrongful loss to another person then such an act is considered to be done with dishonest intention.

The term extortion has been defined in Section 383 of the Indian penal code, which states that if a person intentionally puts another person in a position of fear or of threat to cause him injury, or deceitfully persuades him so that he may deliver the property or any other valuable goods to another person or any document which has been signed and can be turned in a valuable security, then it is extortion. The ingredients of extortion- (i) Fear of Injury - There must be intentionally putting a person in fear of injury to himself or another. Injury implies illegal harm, and it may be of any kind. (ii) Dishonest Inducement - The element of dishonesty if the essence of the offence of extortion. There can be no extortion unless a person is by threat of injury dishonestly induced to deliver to any person any property or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into valuable security."

Q. Joe finds a gold bangle lying on the road. Joe picked the bangle and walked away. Has Joe committed theft?

Solution: Joe by taking it commits no theft. As per section 378, in order for theft to occur, the movable property has to be taken from the possession of someone. In this case, the ring was found lying on the road. So it is not theft.
QUESTION: 92

"The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property. Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382. Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away away without his/her consent. Theft is defined under the Section 378 of The Indian Penal Code as, any person intending to take any movable property without honesty, out of the possession of any person without that individual’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking is said to commit theft. The subject of the theft is movable property. Movable property is that type of property which is able to move easily and is not stationary or which is not immovable. On the other hand, the kind of property which cannot be moved and is attached to the Earth is considered as immovable property, and it is not the subject of theft. It becomes the subject of theft when it is taken off from the surface of the Earth.

Dishonest Intention is the core element of the theft. It is also called as malafide intention which can be represented in the form of mens rea. This is the core element of the theft. The petitioner has to prove that something was taken away by someone with a dishonest intention. However, intention acts as a mental element in this case which is difficult to prove but evidence according to the circumstances of the case is considered for this purpose. The main measurement of dishonest intention is to make a wrongful loss to another person then such an act is considered to be done with dishonest intention.

The term extortion has been defined in Section 383 of the Indian penal code, which states that if a person intentionally puts another person in a position of fear or of threat to cause him injury, or deceitfully persuades him so that he may deliver the property or any other valuable goods to another person or any document which has been signed and can be turned in a valuable security, then it is extortion. The ingredients of extortion- (i) Fear of Injury - There must be intentionally putting a person in fear of injury to himself or another. Injury implies illegal harm, and it may be of any kind. (ii) Dishonest Inducement - The element of dishonesty if the essence of the offence of extortion. There can be no extortion unless a person is by threat of injury dishonestly induced to deliver to any person any property or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into valuable security."

Q. Romesh befriended Lata and got into a relation with her. They took a lot of selfies in compromising positions. Later these photos were used by Romesh in order to extract money from Lata and her father in exchange for not making the photos public. The act of Romesh can be considered as

Solution: The act can be considered an offence of extortion as per Section 383.
QUESTION: 93

"The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property. Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382. Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away away without his/her consent. Theft is defined under the Section 378 of The Indian Penal Code as, any person intending to take any movable property without honesty, out of the possession of any person without that individual’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking is said to commit theft. The subject of the theft is movable property. Movable property is that type of property which is able to move easily and is not stationary or which is not immovable. On the other hand, the kind of property which cannot be moved and is attached to the Earth is considered as immovable property, and it is not the subject of theft. It becomes the subject of theft when it is taken off from the surface of the Earth.

Dishonest Intention is the core element of the theft. It is also called as malafide intention which can be represented in the form of mens rea. This is the core element of the theft. The petitioner has to prove that something was taken away by someone with a dishonest intention. However, intention acts as a mental element in this case which is difficult to prove but evidence according to the circumstances of the case is considered for this purpose. The main measurement of dishonest intention is to make a wrongful loss to another person then such an act is considered to be done with dishonest intention.

The term extortion has been defined in Section 383 of the Indian penal code, which states that if a person intentionally puts another person in a position of fear or of threat to cause him injury, or deceitfully persuades him so that he may deliver the property or any other valuable goods to another person or any document which has been signed and can be turned in a valuable security, then it is extortion. The ingredients of extortion- (i) Fear of Injury - There must be intentionally putting a person in fear of injury to himself or another. Injury implies illegal harm, and it may be of any kind. (ii) Dishonest Inducement - The element of dishonesty if the essence of the offence of extortion. There can be no extortion unless a person is by threat of injury dishonestly induced to deliver to any person any property or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into valuable security."

Q. "Which of the following belonging to Sandeep cannot be the subject of theft?

I. Car belonging to Sandeep parked in his house.

II. House which is in his name.

III. Tree in the garden of Sandeep.

IV. Car belonging to Sandeep given on loan to the accused. "

Solution: House and tree are considered as immovable property and so, do not come under theft. Car is not in the possession of the owner but with the accused itself. So it cannot be called theft.
QUESTION: 94

"The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property. Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382. Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away away without his/her consent. Theft is defined under the Section 378 of The Indian Penal Code as, any person intending to take any movable property without honesty, out of the possession of any person without that individual’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking is said to commit theft. The subject of the theft is movable property. Movable property is that type of property which is able to move easily and is not stationary or which is not immovable. On the other hand, the kind of property which cannot be moved and is attached to the Earth is considered as immovable property, and it is not the subject of theft. It becomes the subject of theft when it is taken off from the surface of the Earth.

Dishonest Intention is the core element of the theft. It is also called as malafide intention which can be represented in the form of mens rea. This is the core element of the theft. The petitioner has to prove that something was taken away by someone with a dishonest intention. However, intention acts as a mental element in this case which is difficult to prove but evidence according to the circumstances of the case is considered for this purpose. The main measurement of dishonest intention is to make a wrongful loss to another person then such an act is considered to be done with dishonest intention.

The term extortion has been defined in Section 383 of the Indian penal code, which states that if a person intentionally puts another person in a position of fear or of threat to cause him injury, or deceitfully persuades him so that he may deliver the property or any other valuable goods to another person or any document which has been signed and can be turned in a valuable security, then it is extortion. The ingredients of extortion- (i) Fear of Injury - There must be intentionally putting a person in fear of injury to himself or another. Injury implies illegal harm, and it may be of any kind. (ii) Dishonest Inducement - The element of dishonesty if the essence of the offence of extortion. There can be no extortion unless a person is by threat of injury dishonestly induced to deliver to any person any property or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into valuable security."

Q. Pavan finds Srikanth's briefcase and writes to him that he will give it on payment of Rs. 500. Srikanth pays Rs. 500. What offence, if any, has been committed?

Solution:
QUESTION: 95

"The offence of Theft comes under the purview of offences against property. Theft has been dealt with under sections 378 to 382. Theft is an offence in which movable property of a person is taken away away without his/her consent. Theft is defined under the Section 378 of The Indian Penal Code as, any person intending to take any movable property without honesty, out of the possession of any person without that individual’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking is said to commit theft. The subject of the theft is movable property. Movable property is that type of property which is able to move easily and is not stationary or which is not immovable. On the other hand, the kind of property which cannot be moved and is attached to the Earth is considered as immovable property, and it is not the subject of theft. It becomes the subject of theft when it is taken off from the surface of the Earth.

Dishonest Intention is the core element of the theft. It is also called as malafide intention which can be represented in the form of mens rea. This is the core element of the theft. The petitioner has to prove that something was taken away by someone with a dishonest intention. However, intention acts as a mental element in this case which is difficult to prove but evidence according to the circumstances of the case is considered for this purpose. The main measurement of dishonest intention is to make a wrongful loss to another person then such an act is considered to be done with dishonest intention.

The term extortion has been defined in Section 383 of the Indian penal code, which states that if a person intentionally puts another person in a position of fear or of threat to cause him injury, or deceitfully persuades him so that he may deliver the property or any other valuable goods to another person or any document which has been signed and can be turned in a valuable security, then it is extortion. The ingredients of extortion- (i) Fear of Injury - There must be intentionally putting a person in fear of injury to himself or another. Injury implies illegal harm, and it may be of any kind. (ii) Dishonest Inducement - The element of dishonesty if the essence of the offence of extortion. There can be no extortion unless a person is by threat of injury dishonestly induced to deliver to any person any property or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed which may be converted into valuable security."

Q. Ashish and Sandesh were cadets on training in the Indian Air Force Academy at Dundigal. Sandesh had been discharged from the Academy on the grounds of misconduct. Ashish was a cadet receiving training as a navigator and was due for a flight in a Dakota as part of his training. However, on the scheduled day, Ashish along with Sandesh took off, not in a Dakota, but in a Harvard HT 822, before the prescribed time, without authorization, and without observing any of the formalities which were prerequisites for an aircraft flight. They landed at a place in China about 100 miles away from the Indo-China border. Both of them were sent back to Hyderabad and arrested for theft.

Solution: Ashish was supposed to take off in a Dakota. He took off unauthorized, without proper procedure, and that too taking Sandesh, who has been discharged for misconduct. So it was clearly theft because the act had nothing to do with the training.
QUESTION: 96

In Paresh Nath Singha vs Nabogopal Chattopadhya the court held that when a mortgage is executed it is said to be a transfer of an interest in an immovable property. Immovable property under General Clauses Act is defined as one which includes land, benefits arising out of the land, things attached to the land or things that are permanently fastened to anything that is attached to the earth. Whereas in J&K (Bombay) Pvt. Ltd. v. New Kaiser-i-hind Spg. &Wvg. Ltd. Case - the Supreme Court held that to create a charge no particular words are necessary. However, there should be a clear intention to give a property as security for the payment of money due.

According to section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, a charge is said to be created onan immovable property when the property of an individual is by the act of the parties or by the operation of law made a security for the repayment of money advanced by the lender. In other words, when a property of the borrower is kept as security to secure the repayment of debt in favour of the lender who has advanced money to him is called a charge. The person in whose favour the security is held is called the charge holder, he is said to have a charge on the property till the repayment of money. However, such a transfer shall not amount to a mortgage.

According to section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, when a borrower transfers interest in an immovable property to the lender for securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced, an existing or future debt from the lender who might be a bank or financial institution that creates a pecuniary liability is said to have created a mortgage of the immovable property. The borrower is called the mortgagor and the lender is the mortgagee. If the mortgagor fails to repay the debt, the mortgagee can sell the security after giving a notice to the mortgagee. The transfer of such interest takes place by executing a mortgage deed. The money advanced is known as mortgage money.

Q. Suneetha files a suit in the court against her husband Karan for maintenance. The court grants the decree and orders the husband to pay a monthly maintenance of rupees 2000 to the wife. In case of default to pay the maintenance, husband agreed that rents acquired from his property would be liable for the same. This is called as

Solution: A charge is said to be created on an immovable property when the property of an individual is by the act of the parties or by the operation of law made a security for the repayment of money advanced by the lender.
QUESTION: 97

In Paresh Nath Singha vs Nabogopal Chattopadhya the court held that when a mortgage is executed it is said to be a transfer of an interest in an immovable property. Immovable property under General Clauses Act is defined as one which includes land, benefits arising out of the land, things attached to the land or things that are permanently fastened to anything that is attached to the earth. Whereas in J&K (Bombay) Pvt. Ltd. v. New Kaiser-i-hind Spg. &Wvg. Ltd. Case - the Supreme Court held that to create a charge no particular words are necessary. However, there should be a clear intention to give a property as security for the payment of money due.

According to section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, a charge is said to be created on an immovable property when the property of an individual is by the act of the parties or by the operation of law made a security for the repayment of money advanced by the lender. In other words, when a property of the borrower is kept as security to secure the repayment of debt in favour of the lender who has advanced money to him is called a charge. The person in whose favour the security is held is called the charge holder, he is said to have a charge on the property till the repayment of money. However, such a transfer shall not amount to a mortgage.

According to section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, when a borrower transfers interest in an immovable property to the lender for securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced, an existing or future debt from the lender who might be a bank or financial institution that creates a pecuniary liability is said to have created a mortgage of the immovable property. The borrower is called the mortgagor and the lender is the mortgagee. If the mortgagor fails to repay the debt, the mortgagee can sell the security after giving a notice to the mortgagee. The transfer of such interest takes place by executing a mortgage deed. The money advanced is known as mortgage money.

Q. In relation to the above passage which of the following given scenarios is correct in relation to Charge?

Solution: The ownership lies with Kabir, but according to the agreement, an amount needs to be paid to Manya out of the rents of the estate. This causes a charge to Manya on the estate.
QUESTION: 98

In Paresh Nath Singha vs Nabogopal Chattopadhya the court held that when a mortgage is executed it is said to be a transfer of an interest in an immovable property. Immovable property under General Clauses Act is defined as one which includes land, benefits arising out of the land, things attached to the land or things that are permanently fastened to anything that is attached to the earth. Whereas in J&K (Bombay) Pvt. Ltd. v. New Kaiser-i-hind Spg. &Wvg. Ltd. Case - the Supreme Court held that to create a charge no particular words are necessary. However, there should be a clear intention to give a property as security for the payment of money due.

According to section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, a charge is said to be created on an immovable property when the property of an individual is by the act of the parties or by the operation of law made a security for the repayment of money advanced by the lender. In other words, when a property of the borrower is kept as security to secure the repayment of debt in favour of the lender who has advanced money to him is called a charge. The person in whose favour the security is held is called the charge holder, he is said to have a charge on the property till the repayment of money. However, such a transfer shall not amount to a mortgage.

According to section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, when a borrower transfers interest in an immovable property to the lender for securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced, an existing or future debt from the lender who might be a bank or financial institution that creates a pecuniary liability is said to have created a mortgage of the immovable property. The borrower is called the mortgagor and the lender is the mortgagee. If the mortgagor fails to repay the debt, the mortgagee can sell the security after giving a notice to the mortgagee. The transfer of such interest takes place by executing a mortgage deed. The money advanced is known as mortgage money.

Q. Pranav sued Naveen on a promissory note. The compromise decree directed the payment of the money and further directed that Naveen shall not dispose of his share in a factory until satisfaction of the entire decretal amount. Decide the rights of Pranav.

Solution: A charge is said to be created on an immovable property when the property of an individual is by the act of the parties or by the operation of law made a security for the repayment of money advanced by the lender.
QUESTION: 99

In Paresh Nath Singha vs Nabogopal Chattopadhya the court held that when a mortgage is executed it is said to be a transfer of an interest in an immovable property. Immovable property under General Clauses Act is defined as one which includes land, benefits arising out of the land, things attached to the land or things that are permanently fastened to anything that is attached to the earth. Whereas in J&K (Bombay) Pvt. Ltd. v. New Kaiser-i-hind Spg. &Wvg. Ltd. Case - the Supreme Court held that to create a charge no particular words are necessary. However, there should be a clear intention to give a property as security for the payment of money due.

According to section 100 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, a charge is said to be created on an immovable property when the property of an individual is by the act of the parties or by the operation of law made a security for the repayment of money advanced by the lender. In other words, when a property of the borrower is kept as security to secure the repayment of debt in favour of the lender who has advanced money to him is called a charge. The person in whose favour the security is held is called the charge holder, he is said to have a charge on the property till the repayment of money. However, such a transfer shall not amount to a mortgage.

According to section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882, when a borrower transfers interest in an immovable property to the lender for securing the payment of money advanced or to be advanced, an existing or future debt from the lender who might be a bank or financial institution that creates a pecuniary liability is said to have created a mortgage of the immovable property.The borrower is called the mortgagor and the lender is the mortgagee. If the mortgagor fails to repay the debt, the mortgagee can sell the security after giving a notice to the mortgagee. The transfer of such interest takes place by executing a mortgage deed. The money advanced is known as mortgage money.

Q. Nihal takes a loan of rupees 5,00,000 from the bank, keeping his house as a security. He deposits the title deeds of the house with the bank. This is called as

Solution: In this case, Nihal is said to have mortgaged his house.
QUESTION: 100

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has suspended functions relating to the filing of new matters and ongoing matters due to the pandemic caused by the novel coronavirus. The CCI has not come up with any guidelines on the application of Competition laws during this period. This suspension by the CCI nowhere means that a complaint cannot be filed later for the price surging and collusion against the sellers of these daily essentials.

As quoted by the Economic Times, “As Covid-19 patients continue to rise in India, some retailers and mask manufacturers are cashing in on the virus terror by jacking up prices by 2 to 3 times. Most e-commerce platforms have not had stocks of frontline sanitizer brands at several locations. Chemist shops in several cities in India said they are not getting any fresh supplies of sanitizer.” After such news started coming from PAN India, the government came into action and added hand sanitizers and masks in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 on 13th of March 2020. Still, there was no decrease in prices of these products. Since one cannot surely say that the companies are indulging in pro-competitive activity, therefore on 20th March 2020 the government fixed the prices of both the products.

The companies, traders, sellers (players) in the market, at any level, cannot be said to be out of the scope of competition authorities, even though coordinating with competitors may be, or may appear to be, an efficient way to respond to some of those challenges. The government and the authority shall also strictly intervene as to how these businesses are behaving in times of the crisis so that the respective companies are aware of their rights and obligations.

Companies providing essentials at the time of crisis should not indulge in anti-competitive activities of price surge, stocking among other things, morally and they should also be vigilant of different competition law risks. Since the Competition law of India is relevantly new than few of the other established jurisdictions therefore the companies, businesses have less knowledge about the competition law implications in the market. Therefore, if an advisory from the side of the commission is published, it might help curb such situations at the times of crisis even in the future and shall also give powers to the commission for taking action against the offenders. All the big jurisdictions have published guidelines to inform the respective players in the market, so that the respective companies are well aware of the laws in terms of being relaxed and also to what extent. In the times of crisis, the companies do go for profit maximization which ultimately may cause harm to the consumers and the market.

Q. What change did the Government try to initiate when the prices of masks and sanitizers rose during Covid 19?

Solution: The Government added these commodities to the Essential Commodities Act on 13th March 2020.
QUESTION: 101

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has suspended functions relating to the filing of new matters and ongoing matters due to the pandemic caused by the novel coronavirus. The CCI has not come up with any guidelines on the application of Competition laws during this period. This suspension by the CCI nowhere means that a complaint cannot be filed later for the price surging and collusion against the sellers of these daily essentials.

As quoted by the Economic Times, “As Covid-19 patients continue to rise in India, some retailers and mask manufacturers are cashing in on the virus terror by jacking up prices by 2 to 3 times. Most e-commerce platforms have not had stocks of frontline sanitizer brands at several locations. Chemist shops in several cities in India said they are not getting any fresh supplies of sanitizer.” After such news started coming from PAN India, the government came into action and added hand sanitizers and masks in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 on 13th of March 2020. Still, there was no decrease in prices of these products. Since one cannot surely say that the companies are indulging in pro-competitive activity, therefore on 20th March 2020 the government fixed the prices of both the products.

The companies, traders, sellers (players) in the market, at any level, cannot be said to be out of the scope of competition authorities, even though coordinating with competitors may be, or may appear to be, an efficient way to respond to some of those challenges. The government and the authority shall also strictly intervene as to how these businesses are behaving in times of the crisis so that the respective companies are aware of their rights and obligations.

Companies providing essentials at the time of crisis should not indulge in anti-competitive activities of price surge, stocking among other things, morally and they should also be vigilant of different competition law risks. Since the Competition law of India is relevantly new than few of the other established jurisdictions therefore the companies, businesses have less knowledge about the competition law implications in the market. Therefore, if an advisory from the side of the commission is published, it might help curb such situations at the times of crisis even in the future and shall also give powers to the commission for taking action against the offenders. All the big jurisdictions have published guidelines to inform the respective players in the market, so that the respective companies are well aware of the laws in terms of being relaxed and also to what extent. In the times of crisis, the companies do go for profit maximization which ultimately may cause harm to the consumers and the market.

Q. Can other companies file case in CCI against those who are surging their prices on commodities essential during the Covid 19 situation?

Solution: Clearly mentioned in the first paragraph.
QUESTION: 102

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has suspended functions relating to the filing of new matters and ongoing matters due to the pandemic caused by the novel coronavirus. The CCI has not come up with any guidelines on the application of Competition laws during this period. This suspension by the CCI nowhere means that a complaint cannot be filed later for the price surging and collusion against the sellers of these daily essentials.

As quoted by the Economic Times, “As Covid-19 patients continue to rise in India, some retailers and mask manufacturers are cashing in on the virus terror by jacking up prices by 2 to 3 times. Most e-commerce platforms have not had stocks of frontline sanitizer brands at several locations. Chemist shops in several cities in India said they are not getting any fresh supplies of sanitizer.” After such news started coming from PAN India, the government came into action and added hand sanitizers and masks in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 on 13th of March 2020. Still, there was no decrease in prices of these products. Since one cannot surely say that the companies are indulging in pro-competitive activity, therefore on 20th March 2020 the government fixed the prices of both the products.

The companies, traders, sellers (players) in the market, at any level, cannot be said to be out of the scope of competition authorities, even though coordinating with competitors may be, or may appear to be, an efficient way to respond to some of those challenges. The government and the authority shall also strictly intervene as to how these businesses are behaving in times of the crisis so that the respective companies are aware of their rights and obligations.

Companies providing essentials at the time of crisis should not indulge in anti-competitive activities of price surge, stocking among other things, morally and they should also be vigilant of different competition law risks. Since the Competition law of India is relevantly new than few of the other established jurisdictions therefore the companies, businesses have less knowledge about the competition law implications in the market. Therefore, if an advisory from the side of the commission is published, it might help curb such situations at the times of crisis even in the future and shall also give powers to the commission for taking action against the offenders. All the big jurisdictions have published guidelines to inform the respective players in the market, so that the respective companies are well aware of the laws in terms of being relaxed and also to what extent. In the times of crisis, the companies do go for profit maximization which ultimately may cause harm to the consumers and the market.

Q. Which factors in the paragraph are considered to be anti-competitive as per the author under The Competition Act?

Solution: All the given activities are considered anti-competitive.
QUESTION: 103

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has suspended functions relating to the filing of new matters and ongoing matters due to the pandemic caused by the novel coronavirus. The CCI has not come up with any guidelines on the application of Competition laws during this period. This suspension by the CCI nowhere means that a complaint cannot be filed later for the price surging and collusion against the sellers of these daily essentials.

As quoted by the Economic Times, “As Covid-19 patients continue to rise in India, some retailers and mask manufacturers are cashing in on the virus terror by jacking up prices by 2 to 3 times. Most e-commerce platforms have not had stocks of frontline sanitizer brands at several locations. Chemist shops in several cities in India said they are not getting any fresh supplies of sanitizer.” After such news started coming from PAN India, the government came into action and added hand sanitizers and masks in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 on 13th of March 2020. Still, there was no decrease in prices of these products. Since one cannot surely say that the companies are indulging in pro-competitive activity, therefore on 20th March 2020 the government fixed the prices of both the products.

The companies, traders, sellers (players) in the market, at any level, cannot be said to be out of the scope of competition authorities, even though coordinating with competitors may be, or may appear to be, an efficient way to respond to some of those challenges. The government and the authority shall also strictly intervene as to how these businesses are behaving in times of the crisis so that the respective companies are aware of their rights and obligations.

Companies providing essentials at the time of crisis should not indulge in anti-competitive activities of price surge, stocking among other things, morally and they should also be vigilant of different competition law risks. Since the Competition law of India is relevantly new than few of the other established jurisdictions therefore the companies, businesses have less knowledge about the competition law implications in the market. Therefore, if an advisory from the side of the commission is published, it might help curb such situations at the times of crisis even in the future and shall also give powers to the commission for taking action against the offenders. All the big jurisdictions have published guidelines to inform the respective players in the market, so that the respective companies are well aware of the laws in terms of being relaxed and also to what extent. In the times of crisis, the companies do go for profit maximization which ultimately may cause harm to the consumers and the market.

Q. The author criticises which of the following institutions for not taking an action against the price surge of essential commodities?

Solution: According to the author, the Government, CCI and Companies should all take appropriate steps against the price surge of essential commodities.
QUESTION: 104

The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has suspended functions relating to the filing of new matters and ongoing matters due to the pandemic caused by the novel coronavirus. The CCI has not come up with any guidelines on the application of Competition laws during this period. This suspension by the CCI nowhere means that a complaint cannot be filed later for the price surging and collusion against the sellers of these daily essentials.

As quoted by the Economic Times, “As Covid-19 patients continue to rise in India, some retailers and mask manufacturers are cashing in on the virus terror by jacking up prices by 2 to 3 times. Most e-commerce platforms have not had stocks of frontline sanitizer brands at several locations. Chemist shops in several cities in India said they are not getting any fresh supplies of sanitizer.” After such news started coming from PAN India, the government came into action and added hand sanitizers and masks in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 on 13th of March 2020. Still, there was no decrease in prices of these products. Since one cannot surely say that the companies are indulging in pro-competitive activity, therefore on 20th March 2020 the government fixed the prices of both the products.

The companies, traders, sellers (players) in the market, at any level, cannot be said to be out of the scope of competition authorities, even though coordinating with competitors may be, or may appear to be, an efficient way to respond to some of those challenges. The government and the authority shall also strictly intervene as to how these businesses are behaving in times of the crisis so that the respective companies are aware of their rights and obligations.

Companies providing essentials at the time of crisis should not indulge in anti-competitive activities of price surge, stocking among other things, morally and they should also be vigilant of different competition law risks. Since the Competition law of India is relevantly new than few of the other established jurisdictions therefore the companies, businesses have less knowledge about the competition law implications in the market. Therefore, if an advisory from the side of the commission is published, it might help curb such situations at the times of crisis even in the future and shall also give powers to the commission for taking action against the offenders. All the big jurisdictions have published guidelines to inform the respective players in the market, so that the respective companies are well aware of the laws in terms of being relaxed and also to what extent. In the times of crisis, the companies do go for profit maximization which ultimately may cause harm to the consumers and the market.

Q. As per the author which of the following is the most affected due to the anti-competitive measures?

Solution: Last paragraph clearly explains how consumers are the worst hit.
QUESTION: 105

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 is an Act aimed at providing for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants. Section 9 of the Act prohibits hunting of animals except when expressly allowed by way of subsequent sections. Section 51 punishes such an act with imprisonment upto three years or a fine upto twenty-five thousand rupees or both whereas the offence related to hunting in a sanctuary is punishable with imprisonment of three to seven years and a fine not less than ten thousand rupees. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 aims to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals. Section 11 of the Act provides for the acts considered as animal cruelty including beating, causing pain or suffering, willfully and unreasonably administering any injurious drug or injurious substance, confining the animal to a cage without reasonable opportunity for their movement etc. Such acts being punishable on the first offence with a fine of ten rupees to fifty rupees and in the case of a second or subsequent offence committed within three years of the previous offence, with fine not be less than twenty-five rupees but which may extend, to one hundred rupees or with imprisonment for a term which may extend, to three months, or with both. The Explosives Act, 1860 punishes unlicensed manufacturing, possession and use of explosives. Section 9B under sub-clause (b) penalises possession, usage, sale or transport of any explosive with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to three thousand rupees or with both. The Elephants Preservation Act, 1879 which extends to the territories now respectively administered by the State Governments of Uttar Pradesh, the Madhya Pradesh and the Chief Commissioners of Coorg; and the State Governments may extend it to any other local area immediately before the 1st of November, 1956. Section 3 of this Act prohibits killing, capturing, injuring or attempting any of these acts except when acting in self-defence or when such elephant is found injuring houses or cultivation, or upon, or in the immediate vicinity of, any main public road or any railway or canal. Section 7 penalizes these acts with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees for each elephant concerned and with imprisonment which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both on a second offence. Over and above these specific legislations, the Constitution of India also imposes a Fundamental Duty on all citizens, by way of Article 51A (g)

Q. Hunting of wild boars was permitted by Section 23 of the Wildlife protection act, 1923. Harris went to the first and shot a wild boar. When he was coming back from the forest he saw that the wild boar was still alive and was trying to escape from the trunk of the car. He stopped and tried shooting the boar. In the process, he shot the dog of his neighbor. Will he be liable under section 9 of the 1972 act?

Solution: No, he will not be liable because the act only deals with the hunting of wild animals and not pet animals.
QUESTION: 106

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 is an Act aimed at providing for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants. Section 9 of the Act prohibits hunting of animals except when expressly allowed by way of subsequent sections. Section 51 punishes such an act with imprisonment upto three years or a fine upto twenty-five thousand rupees or both whereas the offence related to hunting in a sanctuary is punishable with imprisonment of three to seven years and a fine not less than ten thousand rupees. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 aims to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals. Section 11 of the Act provides for the acts considered as animal cruelty including beating, causing pain or suffering, willfully and unreasonably administering any injurious drug or injurious substance, confining the animal to a cage without reasonable opportunity for their movement etc. Such acts being punishable on the first offence with a fine of ten rupees to fifty rupees and in the case of a second or subsequent offence committed within three years of the previous offence, with fine not be less than twenty-five rupees but which may extend, to one hundred rupees or with imprisonment for a term which may extend, to three months, or with both. The Explosives Act, 1860 punishes unlicensed manufacturing, possession and use of explosives. Section 9B under sub-clause (b) penalises possession, usage, sale or transport of any explosive with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to three thousand rupees or with both. The Elephants Preservation Act, 1879 which extends to the territories now respectively administered by the State Governments of Uttar Pradesh, the Madhya Pradesh and the Chief Commissioners of Coorg; and the State Governments may extend it to any other local area immediately before the 1st of November, 1956. Section 3 of this Act prohibits killing, capturing, injuring or attempting any of these acts except when acting in self-defence or when such elephant is found injuring houses or cultivation, or upon, or in the immediate vicinity of, any main public road or any railway or canal. Section 7 penalizes these acts with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees for each elephant concerned and with imprisonment which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both on a second offence. Over and above these specific legislations, the Constitution of India also imposes a Fundamental Duty on all citizens, by way of Article 51A (g)

Q. Bagira is a tiger in the zoo. Bagira was kept in a 200 sq ft cage and was left in the sanctuary of the zoo on weekdays. Bagira fell ill and had to be administered drugs for him to get well and heal from the injury. Rajeev, an animal rights activist, filed a complaint against the zoo authorities for administering drugs to an animal. Will the authorities be liable under prevention of cruelty to animals?

Solution: BThey would be liable if they administered a drug that was harmful or infectious and not when the administered drug was for his well-being and so that he recovers from his injury.
QUESTION: 107

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 is an Act aimed at providing for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants. Section 9 of the Act prohibits hunting of animals except when expressly allowed by way of subsequent sections. Section 51 punishes such an act with imprisonment upto three years or a fine upto twenty-five thousand rupees or both whereas the offence related to hunting in a sanctuary is punishable with imprisonment of three to seven years and a fine not less than ten thousand rupees. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 aims to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals. Section 11 of the Act provides for the acts considered as animal cruelty including beating, causing pain or suffering, willfully and unreasonably administering any injurious drug or injurious substance, confining the animal to a cage without reasonable opportunity for their movement etc. Such acts being punishable on the first offence with a fine of ten rupees to fifty rupees and in the case of a second or subsequent offence committed within three years of the previous offence, with fine not be less than twenty-five rupees but which may extend, to one hundred rupees or with imprisonment for a term which may extend, to three months, or with both. The Explosives Act, 1860 punishes unlicensed manufacturing, possession and use of explosives. Section 9B under sub-clause (b) penalises possession, usage, sale or transport of any explosive with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to three thousand rupees or with both. The Elephants Preservation Act, 1879 which extends to the territories now respectively administered by the State Governments of Uttar Pradesh, the Madhya Pradesh and the Chief Commissioners of Coorg; and the State Governments may extend it to any other local area immediately before the 1st of November, 1956. Section 3 of this Act prohibits killing, capturing, injuring or attempting any of these acts except when acting in self-defence or when such elephant is found injuring houses or cultivation, or upon, or in the immediate vicinity of, any main public road or any railway or canal. Section 7 penalizes these acts with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees for each elephant concerned and with imprisonment which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both on a second offence. Over and above these specific legislations, the Constitution of India also imposes a Fundamental Duty on all citizens, by way of Article 51A (g)

Q. Gunjan goes on a trip to Madhya Pradesh. She visits a tourist spot in Madhya Pradesh where the entire trek is done on the back of an elephant. She comes to know that the elephants are kept in the nearby shed and fed their favourite food everyday. She comes back and is concerned about the elephants and asks your advice. You are a lawyer and have to advise the right course of action for her.

Solution: The elephant preservation act is applicable in the state of Madhya Pradesh and makes the capturing of an elephant also illegal. The elephants were being captured and used at tourist spots and were kept in sheds.
QUESTION: 108

The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 is an Act aimed at providing for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants. Section 9 of the Act prohibits hunting of animals except when expressly allowed by way of subsequent sections. Section 51 punishes such an act with imprisonment upto three years or a fine upto twenty-five thousand rupees or both whereas the offence related to hunting in a sanctuary is punishable with imprisonment of three to seven years and a fine not less than ten thousand rupees. The Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 aims to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals. Section 11 of the Act provides for the acts considered as animal cruelty including beating, causing pain or suffering, willfully and unreasonably administering any injurious drug or injurious substance, confining the animal to a cage without reasonable opportunity for their movement etc. Such acts being punishable on the first offence with a fine of ten rupees to fifty rupees and in the case of a second or subsequent offence committed within three years of the previous offence, with fine not be less than twenty-five rupees but which may extend, to one hundred rupees or with imprisonment for a term which may extend, to three months, or with both. The Explosives Act, 1860 punishes unlicensed manufacturing, possession and use of explosives. Section 9B under sub-clause (b) penalises possession, usage, sale or transport of any explosive with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to two years or with fine which may extend to three thousand rupees or with both. The Elephants Preservation Act, 1879 which extends to the territories now respectively administered by the State Governments of Uttar Pradesh, the Madhya Pradesh and the Chief Commissioners of Coorg; and the State Governments may extend it to any other local area immediately before the 1st of November, 1956. Section 3 of this Act prohibits killing, capturing, injuring or attempting any of these acts except when acting in self-defence or when such elephant is found injuring houses or cultivation, or upon, or in the immediate vicinity of, any main public road or any railway or canal. Section 7 penalizes these acts with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees for each elephant concerned and with imprisonment which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both on a second offence. Over and above these specific legislations, the Constitution of India also imposes a Fundamental Duty on all citizens, by way of Article 51A (g)

Q. What is the status of the directive principle of state policy?

Solution: Directive principles are not enforceable in the court of law.
QUESTION: 109

Violence is recognized as a form of aggression. The reaction of every individual can be different in the same situation though. Thus, short tempered persons and those who are not able to put a halter upon their emotions because of the environment that constantly changes will usually behave irrationally. Taking a look in the dictionaries will show us the meaning of violence that is “the intentional use of power or physical force, threatened or actual, against oneself, another person or against a group or community that either results in or has a high likelihood of resulting in injury, death, psychological harm, mal-development or deprivation.” According to psychologists, violent traits are rather inherent in nature than learned. Consequently, genetics does play a big role for behaviour of an individual.

Violence can be expressed in various ways. Thus, individuals can exhibit violence in the following psychological, physical, or even sexual form. Also, by neglecting another person. This way, violence is usually taking place inside the family, friends and even be spread in the communities. Sure, violent action may be easily justified, however, in the end, behaviour of the kind may be a choice of an individual’s perception. Self-violence is another type of aggression that is expressed in self assault or suicide commitment. Frequently when an individual cannot adapt to the changes happening in the external environment in society, namely at work or at home, or even inside the country, he tends to have harmful behaviour towards himself. Such behaviour is usually caused by the lack of self-confidence and a feeling of inferiority that results in frustration. Hence, when an individual tries to take control of the situation, he can easily direct anger towards those who are around. The best example that illustrates this way of behaviour is domestic violence that is spread around towards children, women, as well as elder relatives.

Q. Which of the following does not fit into the dictionary definition of Violence?

Solution: The violence has to be intentional use of force. Whereas in this case, falling on someone, after slipping on paper cannot be said to be intentional. Hence, the act doesn’t fit into the definition of the Violence.
QUESTION: 110

Violence is recognized as a form of aggression. The reaction of every individual can be different in the same situation though. Thus, short tempered persons and those who are not able to put a halter upon their emotions because of the environment that constantly changes will usually behave irrationally. Taking a look in the dictionaries will show us the meaning of violence that is “the intentional use of power or physical force, threatened or actual, against oneself, another person or against a group or community that either results in or has a high likelihood of resulting in injury, death, psychological harm, mal-development or deprivation.” According to psychologists, violent traits are rather inherent in nature than learned. Consequently, genetics does play a big role for behaviour of an individual.

Violence can be expressed in various ways. Thus, individuals can exhibit violence in the following psychological, physical, or even sexual form. Also, by neglecting another person. This way, violence is usually taking place inside the family, friends and even be spread in the communities. Sure, violent action may be easily justified, however, in the end, behaviour of the kind may be a choice of an individual’s perception. Self-violence is another type of aggression that is expressed in self assault or suicide commitment. Frequently when an individual cannot adapt to the changes happening in the external environment in society, namely at work or at home, or even inside the country, he tends to have harmful behaviour towards himself. Such behaviour is usually caused by the lack of self-confidence and a feeling of inferiority that results in frustration. Hence, when an individual tries to take control of the situation, he can easily direct anger towards those who are around. The best example that illustrates this way of behaviour is domestic violence that is spread around towards children, women, as well as elder relatives.

Q. What can be inferred about the author’s view on the ‘easy justification’ of violence?

Solution: Author is saying that violence can be easily justified, however it is a behaviour of a certain kind and individual’s perception.
QUESTION: 111

Violence is recognized as a form of aggression. The reaction of every individual can be different in the same situation though. Thus, short tempered persons and those who are not able to put a halter upon their emotions because of the environment that constantly changes will usually behave irrationally. Taking a look in the dictionaries will show us the meaning of violence that is “the intentional use of power or physical force, threatened or actual, against oneself, another person or against a group or community that either results in or has a high likelihood of resulting in injury, death, psychological harm, mal-development or deprivation.” According to psychologists, violent traits are rather inherent in nature than learned. Consequently, genetics does play a big role for behaviour of an individual.

Violence can be expressed in various ways. Thus, individuals can exhibit violence in the following psychological, physical, or even sexual form. Also, by neglecting another person. This way, violence is usually taking place inside the family, friends and even be spread in the communities. Sure, violent action may be easily justified, however, in the end, behaviour of the kind may be a choice of an individual’s perception. Self-violence is another type of aggression that is expressed in self assault or suicide commitment. Frequently when an individual cannot adapt to the changes happening in the external environment in society, namely at work or at home, or even inside the country, he tends to have harmful behaviour towards himself. Such behaviour is usually caused by the lack of self-confidence and a feeling of inferiority that results in frustration. Hence, when an individual tries to take control of the situation, he can easily direct anger towards those who are around. The best example that illustrates this way of behaviour is domestic violence that is spread around towards children, women, as well as elder relatives.

Q. Which of the following most weakens the author’s link of self-violence and self-confidence?

Solution: The author’s link gets weakened by the fact that self-harm is caused in a state of Depression, which in turn is completely out of the influence of any outer element.
QUESTION: 112

Violence is recognized as a form of aggression. The reaction of every individual can be different in the same situation though. Thus, short tempered persons and those who are not able to put a halter upon their emotions because of the environment that constantly changes will usually behave irrationally. Taking a look in the dictionaries will show us the meaning of violence that is “the intentional use of power or physical force, threatened or actual, against oneself, another person or against a group or community that either results in or has a high likelihood of resulting in injury, death, psychological harm, mal-development or deprivation.” According to psychologists, violent traits are rather inherent in nature than learned. Consequently, genetics does play a big role for behaviour of an individual.

Violence can be expressed in various ways. Thus, individuals can exhibit violence in the following psychological, physical, or even sexual form. Also, by neglecting another person. This way, violence is usually taking place inside the family, friends and even be spread in the communities. Sure, violent action may be easily justified, however, in the end, behaviour of the kind may be a choice of an individual’s perception. Self-violence is another type of aggression that is expressed in self assault or suicide commitment. Frequently when an individual cannot adapt to the changes happening in the external environment in society, namely at work or at home, or even inside the country, he tends to have harmful behaviour towards himself. Such behaviour is usually caused by the lack of self-confidence and a feeling of inferiority that results in frustration. Hence, when an individual tries to take control of the situation, he can easily direct anger towards those who are around. The best example that illustrates this way of behaviour is domestic violence that is spread around towards children, women, as well as elder relatives.

Q. To which of the following the author is most likely to disagree with?

Solution: The author asserts in the beginning only that the violence is a rather irrational response.
QUESTION: 113

Violence is recognized as a form of aggression. The reaction of every individual can be different in the same situation though. Thus, short tempered persons and those who are not able to put a halter upon their emotions because of the environment that constantly changes will usually behave irrationally. Taking a look in the dictionaries will show us the meaning of violence that is “the intentional use of power or physical force, threatened or actual, against oneself, another person or against a group or community that either results in or has a high likelihood of resulting in injury, death, psychological harm, mal-development or deprivation.” According to psychologists, violent traits are rather inherent in nature than learned. Consequently, genetics does play a big role for behaviour of an individual.

Violence can be expressed in various ways. Thus, individuals can exhibit violence in the following psychological, physical, or even sexual form. Also, by neglecting another person. This way, violence is usually taking place inside the family, friends and even be spread in the communities. Sure, violent action may be easily justified, however, in the end, behaviour of the kind may be a choice of an individual’s perception. Self-violence is another type of aggression that is expressed in self assault or suicide commitment. Frequently when an individual cannot adapt to the changes happening in the external environment in society, namely at work or at home, or even inside the country, he tends to have harmful behaviour towards himself. Such behaviour is usually caused by the lack of self-confidence and a feeling of inferiority that results in frustration. Hence, when an individual tries to take control of the situation, he can easily direct anger towards those who are around. The best example that illustrates this way of behaviour is domestic violence that is spread around towards children, women, as well as elder relatives.

Q. Which of the following strengthens the author's claim about Genetics and violence?

Solution: The data clearly links the violent criminals with their ancestry, and thereby strengthens this link between violence and genetics.
QUESTION: 114

Imagine you and your colleague do exactly the same work but you get paid lesser than him, just because you happen to be a woman. Gender pay gap is the difference between men’s and women’s average wages. Being in the informal sector not only pays less but also makes women extremely vulnerable, with inadequate pay and no social security benefits. A report brought out by McKinsey Global Institute (MGI) in 2016 has estimated that Indian women’s contribution of 17% towards the GDP is the lowest amongst all regions in the world, as compared to the global average of 37%. However, their real contribution is very substantial in the areas of agriculture, traditional occupations and household work. Unfortunately, there is no way to account for it. As a woman advances in her career, the gender pay gap increases too. In a society like ours, we believe that higher education and experience are a guaranteed way to get a bigger salary. That’s far from reality though. It is also true that the wage disparity exists in the topmost jobs. What’s even more disturbing is that the gender pay gap is even wider at the bottom and it affects poor women the most. Article 39 of the Indian constitution states that men and women are entitled to equal pay for equal work. However, the reality in the Indian formal sector is quite the contrary. The Monster Salary Index (MSI) released in 2016 by the employment website Monster India showed that the gender pay gap in India is 27%. Till India’s social stigma against women in the workforce and the general environment of social injustice against women is not tackled, the gender pay gap may not show any sign of closing.

Q. Which of the following is not true for gender pay gap?

Solution: The definition of gender pay gap, is presented as a gender-neutral problem. Hence, it does not make a difference if a woman is paid less or a man is paid less.
QUESTION: 115

Imagine you and your colleague do exactly the same work but you get paid lesser than him, just because you happen to be a woman. Gender pay gap is the difference between men’s and women’s average wages. Being in the informal sector not only pays less but also makes women extremely vulnerable, with inadequate pay and no social security benefits. A report brought out by McKinsey Global Institute (MGI) in 2016 has estimated that Indian women’s contribution of 17% towards the GDP is the lowest amongst all regions in the world, as compared to the global average of 37%. However, their real contribution is very substantial in the areas of agriculture, traditional occupations and household work. Unfortunately, there is no way to account for it. As a woman advances in her career, the gender pay gap increases too. In a society like ours, we believe that higher education and experience are a guaranteed way to get a bigger salary. That’s far from reality though. It is also true that the wage disparity exists in the topmost jobs. What’s even more disturbing is that the gender pay gap is even wider at the bottom and it affects poor women the most. Article 39 of the Indian constitution states that men and women are entitled to equal pay for equal work. However, the reality in the Indian formal sector is quite the contrary. The Monster Salary Index (MSI) released in 2016 by the employment website Monster India showed that the gender pay gap in India is 27%. Till India’s social stigma against women in the workforce and the general environment of social injustice against women is not tackled, the gender pay gap may not show any sign of closing.

Q. Which of the following could best weaken the conclusion reached in MGI 2016 report, that women’s contribution in India GDP is below the global average?

Solution: The MGI report concludes that contribution of women in Indian GDP is low, but option (a) asserts that a lot of substantial contribution of women in the Indian GDP often goes uncalculated. This raises questions on the credibility and accuracy of the conclusion and weakens it.
QUESTION: 116

Imagine you and your colleague do exactly the same work but you get paid lesser than him, just because you happen to be a woman. Gender pay gap is the difference between men’s and women’s average wages. Being in the informal sector not only pays less but also makes women extremely vulnerable, with inadequate pay and no social security benefits. A report brought out by McKinsey Global Institute (MGI) in 2016 has estimated that Indian women’s contribution of 17% towards the GDP is the lowest amongst all regions in the world, as compared to the global average of 37%. However, their real contribution is very substantial in the areas of agriculture, traditional occupations and household work. Unfortunately, there is no way to account for it. As a woman advances in her career, the gender pay gap increases too. In a society like ours, we believe that higher education and experience are a guaranteed way to get a bigger salary. That’s far from reality though. It is also true that the wage disparity exists in the topmost jobs. What’s even more disturbing is that the gender pay gap is even wider at the bottom and it affects poor women the most. Article 39 of the Indian constitution states that men and women are entitled to equal pay for equal work. However, the reality in the Indian formal sector is quite the contrary. The Monster Salary Index (MSI) released in 2016 by the employment website Monster India showed that the gender pay gap in India is 27%. Till India’s social stigma against women in the workforce and the general environment of social injustice against women is not tackled, the gender pay gap may not show any sign of closing.

Q. Which of the following could be inferred from the passage correctly?

Solution: Author agrees that reality of the India formal sector is contrary to that mandated by Article 39, hence option (b) can be directly inferred from the passage. Option (d) might look lucrative and true, but when the question has asked what can be inferred from the passage, even the most gospel truth would not be the correct answer, if it is not found in the passage.
QUESTION: 117

Imagine you and your colleague do exactly the same work but you get paid lesser than him, just because you happen to be a woman. Gender pay gap is the difference between men’s and women’s average wages. Being in the informal sector not only pays less but also makes women extremely vulnerable, with inadequate pay and no social security benefits. A report brought out by McKinsey Global Institute (MGI) in 2016 has estimated that Indian women’s contribution of 17% towards the GDP is the lowest amongst all regions in the world, as compared to the global average of 37%. However, their real contribution is very substantial in the areas of agriculture, traditional occupations and household work. Unfortunately, there is no way to account for it. As a woman advances in her career, the gender pay gap increases too. In a society like ours, we believe that higher education and experience are a guaranteed way to get a bigger salary. That’s far from reality though. It is also true that the wage disparity exists in the topmost jobs. What’s even more disturbing is that the gender pay gap is even wider at the bottom and it affects poor women the most. Article 39 of the Indian constitution states that men and women are entitled to equal pay for equal work. However, the reality in the Indian formal sector is quite the contrary. The Monster Salary Index (MSI) released in 2016 by the employment website Monster India showed that the gender pay gap in India is 27%. Till India’s social stigma against women in the workforce and the general environment of social injustice against women is not tackled, the gender pay gap may not show any sign of closing.

Q. Which of the following could not be a logical contributor to the lower contribution of women in the Indian GDP?

Solution: Evasion of taxes in gender-neutral crimes and anyone can be doing it regardless of their gender, hence it does not contribute towards the reduced share of women in Indian GDP. However, all the other options touch upon the problems related to women.
QUESTION: 118

Imagine you and your colleague do exactly the same work but you get paid lesser than him, just because you happen to be a woman. Gender pay gap is the difference between men’s and women’s average wages. Being in the informal sector not only pays less but also makes women extremely vulnerable, with inadequate pay and no social security benefits. A report brought out by McKinsey Global Institute (MGI) in 2016 has estimated that Indian women’s contribution of 17% towards the GDP is the lowest amongst all regions in the world, as compared to the global average of 37%. However, their real contribution is very substantial in the areas of agriculture, traditional occupations and household work. Unfortunately, there is no way to account for it. As a woman advances in her career, the gender pay gap increases too. In a society like ours, we believe that higher education and experience are a guaranteed way to get a bigger salary. That’s far from reality though. It is also true that the wage disparity exists in the topmost jobs. What’s even more disturbing is that the gender pay gap is even wider at the bottom and it affects poor women the most. Article 39 of the Indian constitution states that men and women are entitled to equal pay for equal work. However, the reality in the Indian formal sector is quite the contrary. The Monster Salary Index (MSI) released in 2016 by the employment website Monster India showed that the gender pay gap in India is 27%. Till India’s social stigma against women in the workforce and the general environment of social injustice against women is not tackled, the gender pay gap may not show any sign of closing.

Q. Why does the author blame social stigma as the reason behind the gender pay gap?

Solution: The stigma attached to a woman not being suited for working outside the house and earning for herself is prevalent and it acts as a justification for paying the women less than the men.
QUESTION: 119

The modern multinational corporation is described as having originated when the owner-managers of nineteenth-century British firms carrying on international trade were replaced by teams of salaried managers organized into hierarchies. Increases in the volume of transactions in such firms are commonly believed to have necessitated this structural change. Nineteenth-century inventions like the steamship and the telegraph, by facilitating coordination of managerial activities, are described as key factors. Sixteenth- and seventeenth-century chartered trading companies, despite the international scope of their activities, are usually considered irrelevant to this discussion: the volume of their transactions is assumed to have been too low and the communications and transport of their day too primitive to make comparisons with modern multinationals interesting.

In reality, however, early trading companies successfully purchased and outfitted ships, built and operated offices and warehouses, manufactured trade goods for use abroad, maintained trading posts and production facilities overseas, procured goods for import, and sold those goods both at home and in other countries. The large volume of transactions associated with these activities seems to have necessitated hierarchical management structures well before the advent of modern communications and transportation. For example, in the Hudson’s Bay Company, each far-flung trading outpost was managed by a salaried agent, who carried out the trade with the Native Americans, managed day-to-day operations, and oversaw the post’s workers and servants. One chief agent, answerable to the Court of Directors in London through the correspondence committee, was appointed with control over all of the agents on the bay.

The early trading companies did differ strikingly from modern multinationals in many respects. They depended heavily on the national governments of their home countries and thus characteristically acted abroad to promote national interests. Their top managers were typically owners with a substantial minority share, whereas senior managers’ holdings in modern multinationals are usually insignificant. They operated in a pre-industrial world, grafting a system of capitalist international trade onto a pre-modern system of artisan and peasant production. Despite these differences, however, early trading companies organized effectively in remarkably modern ways and merit further study as analogues of more modern structures.

Q. The author’s main point is that

Solution: See the last line of the passage. Despite these differences, however, early trading companies organized effectively in remarkably modern ways and merit further study as analogues of more modern structures. This is the main point of the author.
QUESTION: 120

The modern multinational corporation is described as having originated when the owner-managers of nineteenth-century British firms carrying on international trade were replaced by teams of salaried managers organized into hierarchies. Increases in the volume of transactions in such firms are commonly believed to have necessitated this structural change. Nineteenth-century inventions like the steamship and the telegraph, by facilitating coordination of managerial activities, are described as key factors. Sixteenth- and seventeenth-century chartered trading companies, despite the international scope of their activities, are usually considered irrelevant to this discussion: the volume of their transactions is assumed to have been too low and the communications and transport of their day too primitive to make comparisons with modern multinationals interesting.

In reality, however, early trading companies successfully purchased and outfitted ships, built and operated offices and warehouses, manufactured trade goods for use abroad, maintained trading posts and production facilities overseas, procured goods for import, and sold those goods both at home and in other countries. The large volume of transactions associated with these activities seems to have necessitated hierarchical management structures well before the advent of modern communications and transportation. For example, in the Hudson’s Bay Company, each far-flung trading outpost was managed by a salaried agent, who carried out the trade with the Native Americans, managed day-to-day operations, and oversaw the post’s workers and servants. One chief agent, answerable to the Court of Directors in London through the correspondence committee, was appointed with control over all of the agents on the bay.

The early trading compan