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# CLAT Mock Test- 18

## 150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT 2021 | CLAT Mock Test- 18

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This mock test of CLAT Mock Test- 18 for CLAT helps you for every CLAT entrance exam. This contains 150 Multiple Choice Questions for CLAT CLAT Mock Test- 18 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this CLAT Mock Test- 18 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CLAT students definitely take this CLAT Mock Test- 18 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other CLAT Mock Test- 18 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CLAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Solution: All that the passage tells that the boy didn’t think about how he was going to persuade his father. Apart from that, nothing else can be inferred without additional information.
QUESTION: 2

Solution: The word Ajar means (of a door or other opening) slightly open. In that context, only option (c) uses it correctly.
QUESTION: 3

Solution: ‘I watched him with half an eye’ is an idiom that means to look at or watch something while doing something else, especially in a secret way so that other people do not notice.
QUESTION: 4

Q. What was the boy expecting with the one last visit of his father?

Solution: With each visit, the scar was getting healed. So that boy expected the last visit to heal the last scar that was left.
QUESTION: 5

Q. What did the boy see at the cemetery gate?

Solution: ‘To lay into’ means to attack violently with words or blows. So, the boy saw the mother laying into the father with the stick.
QUESTION: 6

Q. Which of the following cannot be true, based on the above passage?

Solution: The question asks that which of the following cannot be true. In that case, the answer lies in the option which goes contrary to something that is explicitly mentioned in the passage. All the four options are hypothetical and do not find any mention in the passage, but it is only option (d) that goes directly against of something that is written in the passage. Option (d) reads that – The mother killed the boy. But, in the passage the mother can be seen criticising the father for hitting the boy on the head, that means that she was, surely, not the one who killed the boy. All the options can be false, but option (d) can never be true.
QUESTION: 7

A myth is sometimes put out that development can cure this sickness. While the frequency of violence against women varies across countries, our conviction rate of 26% is above that of France at less than 10%. 11% of our parliamentarians are women, in England that figure is 23%. In the US Congress it is only 18%.

In this country, though, the people have risen and are looking to this government to act as never before. Luckily we have an action plan for governance. Economists, lawyers, academics and grassroots women’s organisations have brought together research, data and field experience in the National Womanifesto that I helped draft. It’s simple, it’s also sufficient to prevent a lot of this violence and bring better justice and equality. This could be the starting point.

There are encouraging signs that the government will tackle this. The new PM used his first speech in the Lok Sabha to call for women to be respected and protected, and pledged that the government would act. The language used is of safety and protection, while the Constitution speaks of freedoms and liberties for all. But there is an important overlap. They will mean nothing though, without concrete steps to tackle the problem.

We need to enforce laws that inevitably deter violence. Against the rapists in Badaun, Jaipur and Muzaffarnagar, in media houses and government quarters. Police reforms need to happen, but service rules for police prosecutors and trial judges also need to change — so recruitment, promotion and penalties include gender metrics. And each ministry needs to sit down and list exactly what it will take to make sure women are safe — more police, more judges, more training, chair and tables, protocols — and lay this out before the finance ministry. We need to prevent violence before it happens through pilot studies, also hearts and minds campaigns targeting men and boys, so that they grow up knowing deep within themselves that women are equal.

Women who have been raped need support, not pity. The Center needs to work with States to scale-up assistance to rape victims by opening 24-hour crisis and support centres, and legal aid should be made available to ensure that no rapist walks free because his victim lacked the resources.

And we must put women in every decision-making body in the country, and men who have committed sexual crimes must be disqualified from public office. The casual misogyny must be stamped out and women’s voices heard so their wisdom and leadership can help us solve this crisis.

Of course, if we are serious about cutting out this cancer, we must focus on where it’s ugliest — the police. It’s worse that the people we entrust with our safety laugh in our faces when we report our loved ones missing. The hard-won law of 2013, allowing police officers to be prosecuted if they fail to follow fair criminal procedure, needs to be used, and often.

Q. Choose the meaning of the word inevitable from the following options.

Solution: Inevitable means something which is bound to happen. It is unavoidable and certain.
QUESTION: 8

A myth is sometimes put out that development can cure this sickness. While the frequency of violence against women varies across countries, our conviction rate of 26% is above that of France at less than 10%. 11% of our parliamentarians are women, in England that figure is 23%. In the US Congress it is only 18%.

In this country, though, the people have risen and are looking to this government to act as never before. Luckily we have an action plan for governance. Economists, lawyers, academics and grassroots women’s organisations have brought together research, data and field experience in the National Womanifesto that I helped draft. It’s simple, it’s also sufficient to prevent a lot of this violence and bring better justice and equality. This could be the starting point.

There are encouraging signs that the government will tackle this. The new PM used his first speech in the Lok Sabha to call for women to be respected and protected, and pledged that the government would act. The language used is of safety and protection, while the Constitution speaks of freedoms and liberties for all. But there is an important overlap. They will mean nothing though, without concrete steps to tackle the problem.

We need to enforce laws that inevitably deter violence. Against the rapists in Badaun, Jaipur and Muzaffarnagar, in media houses and government quarters. Police reforms need to happen, but service rules for police prosecutors and trial judges also need to change — so recruitment, promotion and penalties include gender metrics. And each ministry needs to sit down and list exactly what it will take to make sure women are safe — more police, more judges, more training, chair and tables, protocols — and lay this out before the finance ministry. We need to prevent violence before it happens through pilot studies, also hearts and minds campaigns targeting men and boys, so that they grow up knowing deep within themselves that women are equal.

Women who have been raped need support, not pity. The Center needs to work with States to scale-up assistance to rape victims by opening 24-hour crisis and support centres, and legal aid should be made available to ensure that no rapist walks free because his victim lacked the resources.

And we must put women in every decision-making body in the country, and men who have committed sexual crimes must be disqualified from public office. The casual misogyny must be stamped out and women’s voices heard so their wisdom and leadership can help us solve this crisis.

Of course, if we are serious about cutting out this cancer, we must focus on where it’s ugliest — the police. It’s worse that the people we entrust with our safety laugh in our faces when we report our loved ones missing. The hard-won law of 2013, allowing police officers to be prosecuted if they fail to follow fair criminal procedure, needs to be used, and often.

Q. Choose the correct conclusion from the above passage.

1.Conviction rate against women is higher in India than in France.

2. Conviction rate against women is higher in France than in India.

3. Women across the world are better protected against crimes than in India.

Solution: The author in the first paragraph mentions that the conviction rate for crime against women is higher in India than in France.
QUESTION: 9

A myth is sometimes put out that development can cure this sickness. While the frequency of violence against women varies across countries, our conviction rate of 26% is above that of France at less than 10%. 11% of our parliamentarians are women, in England that figure is 23%. In the US Congress it is only 18%.

In this country, though, the people have risen and are looking to this government to act as never before. Luckily we have an action plan for governance. Economists, lawyers, academics and grassroots women’s organisations have brought together research, data and field experience in the National Womanifesto that I helped draft. It’s simple, it’s also sufficient to prevent a lot of this violence and bring better justice and equality. This could be the starting point.

There are encouraging signs that the government will tackle this. The new PM used his first speech in the Lok Sabha to call for women to be respected and protected, and pledged that the government would act. The language used is of safety and protection, while the Constitution speaks of freedoms and liberties for all. But there is an important overlap. They will mean nothing though, without concrete steps to tackle the problem.

We need to enforce laws that inevitably deter violence. Against the rapists in Badaun, Jaipur and Muzaffarnagar, in media houses and government quarters. Police reforms need to happen, but service rules for police prosecutors and trial judges also need to change — so recruitment, promotion and penalties include gender metrics. And each ministry needs to sit down and list exactly what it will take to make sure women are safe — more police, more judges, more training, chair and tables, protocols — and lay this out before the finance ministry. We need to prevent violence before it happens through pilot studies, also hearts and minds campaigns targeting men and boys, so that they grow up knowing deep within themselves that women are equal.

Women who have been raped need support, not pity. The Center needs to work with States to scale-up assistance to rape victims by opening 24-hour crisis and support centres, and legal aid should be made available to ensure that no rapist walks free because his victim lacked the resources.

And we must put women in every decision-making body in the country, and men who have committed sexual crimes must be disqualified from public office. The casual misogyny must be stamped out and women’s voices heard so their wisdom and leadership can help us solve this crisis.

Of course, if we are serious about cutting out this cancer, we must focus on where it’s ugliest — the police. It’s worse that the people we entrust with our safety laugh in our faces when we report our loved ones missing. The hard-won law of 2013, allowing police officers to be prosecuted if they fail to follow fair criminal procedure, needs to be used, and often.

Q. Which of the following would the author support?

Solution: The passage mentions that- And we must put women in power. Women must be represented in every decision-making body in the country, and men who have committed sexual crimes must be disqualified from public office. The casual misogyny we see in the Lok Sabha must be stamped out and women’s voices heard so their wisdom and leadership can help us solve this crisis.
QUESTION: 10

A myth is sometimes put out that development can cure this sickness. While the frequency of violence against women varies across countries, our conviction rate of 26% is above that of France at less than 10%. 11% of our parliamentarians are women, in England that figure is 23%. In the US Congress it is only 18%.

In this country, though, the people have risen and are looking to this government to act as never before. Luckily we have an action plan for governance. Economists, lawyers, academics and grassroots women’s organisations have brought together research, data and field experience in the National Womanifesto that I helped draft. It’s simple, it’s also sufficient to prevent a lot of this violence and bring better justice and equality. This could be the starting point.

There are encouraging signs that the government will tackle this. The new PM used his first speech in the Lok Sabha to call for women to be respected and protected, and pledged that the government would act. The language used is of safety and protection, while the Constitution speaks of freedoms and liberties for all. But there is an important overlap. They will mean nothing though, without concrete steps to tackle the problem.

We need to enforce laws that inevitably deter violence. Against the rapists in Badaun, Jaipur and Muzaffarnagar, in media houses and government quarters. Police reforms need to happen, but service rules for police prosecutors and trial judges also need to change — so recruitment, promotion and penalties include gender metrics. And each ministry needs to sit down and list exactly what it will take to make sure women are safe — more police, more judges, more training, chair and tables, protocols — and lay this out before the finance ministry. We need to prevent violence before it happens through pilot studies, also hearts and minds campaigns targeting men and boys, so that they grow up knowing deep within themselves that women are equal.

Women who have been raped need support, not pity. The Center needs to work with States to scale-up assistance to rape victims by opening 24-hour crisis and support centres, and legal aid should be made available to ensure that no rapist walks free because his victim lacked the resources.

And we must put women in every decision-making body in the country, and men who have committed sexual crimes must be disqualified from public office. The casual misogyny must be stamped out and women’s voices heard so their wisdom and leadership can help us solve this crisis.

Of course, if we are serious about cutting out this cancer, we must focus on where it’s ugliest — the police. It’s worse that the people we entrust with our safety laugh in our faces when we report our loved ones missing. The hard-won law of 2013, allowing police officers to be prosecuted if they fail to follow fair criminal procedure, needs to be used, and often.

Q. Which of the following would not be contrary to the author’s view?

Solution: The central theme of the passage is to highlight the crime and discrimination which takes place against women. Therefore, option (a) is apposite.
QUESTION: 11

A myth is sometimes put out that development can cure this sickness. While the frequency of violence against women varies across countries, our conviction rate of 26% is above that of France at less than 10%. 11% of our parliamentarians are women, in England that figure is 23%. In the US Congress it is only 18%.

In this country, though, the people have risen and are looking to this government to act as never before. Luckily we have an action plan for governance. Economists, lawyers, academics and grassroots women’s organisations have brought together research, data and field experience in the National Womanifesto that I helped draft. It’s simple, it’s also sufficient to prevent a lot of this violence and bring better justice and equality. This could be the starting point.

There are encouraging signs that the government will tackle this. The new PM used his first speech in the Lok Sabha to call for women to be respected and protected, and pledged that the government would act. The language used is of safety and protection, while the Constitution speaks of freedoms and liberties for all. But there is an important overlap. They will mean nothing though, without concrete steps to tackle the problem.

We need to enforce laws that inevitably deter violence. Against the rapists in Badaun, Jaipur and Muzaffarnagar, in media houses and government quarters. Police reforms need to happen, but service rules for police prosecutors and trial judges also need to change — so recruitment, promotion and penalties include gender metrics. And each ministry needs to sit down and list exactly what it will take to make sure women are safe — more police, more judges, more training, chair and tables, protocols — and lay this out before the finance ministry. We need to prevent violence before it happens through pilot studies, also hearts and minds campaigns targeting men and boys, so that they grow up knowing deep within themselves that women are equal.

Women who have been raped need support, not pity. The Center needs to work with States to scale-up assistance to rape victims by opening 24-hour crisis and support centres, and legal aid should be made available to ensure that no rapist walks free because his victim lacked the resources.

And we must put women in every decision-making body in the country, and men who have committed sexual crimes must be disqualified from public office. The casual misogyny must be stamped out and women’s voices heard so their wisdom and leadership can help us solve this crisis.

Of course, if we are serious about cutting out this cancer, we must focus on where it’s ugliest — the police. It’s worse that the people we entrust with our safety laugh in our faces when we report our loved ones missing. The hard-won law of 2013, allowing police officers to be prosecuted if they fail to follow fair criminal procedure, needs to be used, and often.

Q. Which of the following could be the title to the passage?

Solution: The author has highlighted the ways in which discrimination and crime against women can be put to halt, and life of women can ameliorate especially by way of representation and governance, therefore, making option (c) the correct choice.
QUESTION: 12

For centuries women have been sidelined from the mainstream society. However, it is pertinent to note that during the early Vedic period women had a powerful role in both family and society. But with the passage of time her power and privilege both in family and society decreased. However, on an average the position of woman at that time period was nothing less than that of a puppet operated as per the whims and fancies of the man. She had no voice of her own, she lacked a self-identity.

In context of India, the women’s movement can be broadly divided into three phases. The first phase can be traced from 1850 -1915. In the pre- independence era, the Women Movement started as a social change development in the nineteenth century. The colonial intervention in the nineteenth century was not chained uniquely to the market or polity but was however intruding into the areas of our culture and society, and this could affect change in the social texture of Indian culture. The second phase can be traced from 1915-1947. Gandhi legitimized and extended Indian women's public activities by absorbing them into the non-violent civil disobedience movement against the Raj which infused in women the confidence, leadership and zeal amongst them to find against the oppression and also against the patriarchy. The third stage can be identified from the year of independence to the present date. It was essentially and primarily because of the endeavors of women and their role in the freedom struggle that women got the right to vote and complete equality in the constitution in India.

20th century witnessed a rise of many strong Indian women who not only made their families proud, but also their country proud. Annie Besant was a British socialist whose heart bled for India. Sarojini Naidu was political activist and a poet. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was an Indian diplomat and politician who later became the first female president of the United Nations General Assembly. Bachendri Pal is an Indian mountaineer, who in the year 1984 became the first Indian woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest. She was awarded Padma Bhushan by Government of India in 2019.

##For first time in history of Apex court there are 3 sitting women judges.## Apart from that the current central government led by Shri Narendra Modi has also appointed a number of women ministers in the cabinet which is a classic case of women empowerment. Further every year we listen to the news that how girls outshine boys in high school and university examinations. This proves us that how modern-day women are breaking the traditional patriarchal social norms and are excelling in both personal and professional spheres when given a chance. Things like these would not have been possible without the Feminist Movement and those strong women who changed the thinking of society towards women forever.

Q. Which of the following is untrue according to the passage?

Solution: Things like these would not have been possible without the Feminist Movement and those strong women who changed the thinking of society towards women forever”
QUESTION: 13

For centuries women have been sidelined from the mainstream society. However, it is pertinent to note that during the early Vedic period women had a powerful role in both family and society. But with the passage of time her power and privilege both in family and society decreased. However, on an average the position of woman at that time period was nothing less than that of a puppet operated as per the whims and fancies of the man. She had no voice of her own, she lacked a self-identity.

In context of India, the women’s movement can be broadly divided into three phases. The first phase can be traced from 1850 -1915. In the pre- independence era, the Women Movement started as a social change development in the nineteenth century. The colonial intervention in the nineteenth century was not chained uniquely to the market or polity but was however intruding into the areas of our culture and society, and this could affect change in the social texture of Indian culture. The second phase can be traced from 1915-1947. Gandhi legitimized and extended Indian women's public activities by absorbing them into the non-violent civil disobedience movement against the Raj which infused in women the confidence, leadership and zeal amongst them to find against the oppression and also against the patriarchy. The third stage can be identified from the year of independence to the present date. It was essentially and primarily because of the endeavors of women and their role in the freedom struggle that women got the right to vote and complete equality in the constitution in India.

20th century witnessed a rise of many strong Indian women who not only made their families proud, but also their country proud. Annie Besant was a British socialist whose heart bled for India. Sarojini Naidu was political activist and a poet. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was an Indian diplomat and politician who later became the first female president of the United Nations General Assembly. Bachendri Pal is an Indian mountaineer, who in the year 1984 became the first Indian woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest. She was awarded Padma Bhushan by Government of India in 2019.

##For first time in history of Apex court there are 3 sitting women judges.## Apart from that the current central government led by Shri Narendra Modi has also appointed a number of women ministers in the cabinet which is a classic case of women empowerment. Further every year we listen to the news that how girls outshine boys in high school and university examinations. This proves us that how modern-day women are breaking the traditional patriarchal social norms and are excelling in both personal and professional spheres when given a chance. Things like these would not have been possible without the Feminist Movement and those strong women who changed the thinking of society towards women forever.

Q. Which of the following statements are true according to the passage?

1. For the first time in the history of the District court there are 3 sitting women judges.

2. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was the first female president of the United Nations General Assembly

3. Annie Besant was a British communist whose heart bled for India.

4. Gandhi legitimized and extended Indian women's public activities by retaining them into the non-violent civil disobedience movement.

Solution: As per the passage, only statements 2 and 4 holds true hence, (c) would be correct.
QUESTION: 14

For centuries women have been sidelined from the mainstream society. However, it is pertinent to note that during the early Vedic period women had a powerful role in both family and society. But with the passage of time her power and privilege both in family and society decreased. However, on an average the position of woman at that time period was nothing less than that of a puppet operated as per the whims and fancies of the man. She had no voice of her own, she lacked a self-identity.

In context of India, the women’s movement can be broadly divided into three phases. The first phase can be traced from 1850 -1915. In the pre- independence era, the Women Movement started as a social change development in the nineteenth century. The colonial intervention in the nineteenth century was not chained uniquely to the market or polity but was however intruding into the areas of our culture and society, and this could affect change in the social texture of Indian culture. The second phase can be traced from 1915-1947. Gandhi legitimized and extended Indian women's public activities by absorbing them into the non-violent civil disobedience movement against the Raj which infused in women the confidence, leadership and zeal amongst them to find against the oppression and also against the patriarchy. The third stage can be identified from the year of independence to the present date. It was essentially and primarily because of the endeavors of women and their role in the freedom struggle that women got the right to vote and complete equality in the constitution in India.

20th century witnessed a rise of many strong Indian women who not only made their families proud, but also their country proud. Annie Besant was a British socialist whose heart bled for India. Sarojini Naidu was political activist and a poet. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was an Indian diplomat and politician who later became the first female president of the United Nations General Assembly. Bachendri Pal is an Indian mountaineer, who in the year 1984 became the first Indian woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest. She was awarded Padma Bhushan by Government of India in 2019.

##For first time in history of Apex court there are 3 sitting women judges.## Apart from that the current central government led by Shri Narendra Modi has also appointed a number of women ministers in the cabinet which is a classic case of women empowerment. Further every year we listen to the news that how girls outshine boys in high school and university examinations. This proves us that how modern-day women are breaking the traditional patriarchal social norms and are excelling in both personal and professional spheres when given a chance. Things like these would not have been possible without the Feminist Movement and those strong women who changed the thinking of society towards women forever.

Q. In how many instances should the definite article (‘the’) be used in the sentence enclosed with ## to make it grammatically correct without altering it in any other way?

Solution: For the first time in the history of the Apex court there are 3 sitting women judges.
QUESTION: 15

For centuries women have been sidelined from the mainstream society. However, it is pertinent to note that during the early Vedic period women had a powerful role in both family and society. But with the passage of time her power and privilege both in family and society decreased. However, on an average the position of woman at that time period was nothing less than that of a puppet operated as per the whims and fancies of the man. She had no voice of her own, she lacked a self-identity.

In context of India, the women’s movement can be broadly divided into three phases. The first phase can be traced from 1850 -1915. In the pre- independence era, the Women Movement started as a social change development in the nineteenth century. The colonial intervention in the nineteenth century was not chained uniquely to the market or polity but was however intruding into the areas of our culture and society, and this could affect change in the social texture of Indian culture. The second phase can be traced from 1915-1947. Gandhi legitimized and extended Indian women's public activities by absorbing them into the non-violent civil disobedience movement against the Raj which infused in women the confidence, leadership and zeal amongst them to find against the oppression and also against the patriarchy. The third stage can be identified from the year of independence to the present date. It was essentially and primarily because of the endeavors of women and their role in the freedom struggle that women got the right to vote and complete equality in the constitution in India.

20th century witnessed a rise of many strong Indian women who not only made their families proud, but also their country proud. Annie Besant was a British socialist whose heart bled for India. Sarojini Naidu was political activist and a poet. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was an Indian diplomat and politician who later became the first female president of the United Nations General Assembly. Bachendri Pal is an Indian mountaineer, who in the year 1984 became the first Indian woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest. She was awarded Padma Bhushan by Government of India in 2019.

##For first time in history of Apex court there are 3 sitting women judges.## Apart from that the current central government led by Shri Narendra Modi has also appointed a number of women ministers in the cabinet which is a classic case of women empowerment. Further every year we listen to the news that how girls outshine boys in high school and university examinations. This proves us that how modern-day women are breaking the traditional patriarchal social norms and are excelling in both personal and professional spheres when given a chance. Things like these would not have been possible without the Feminist Movement and those strong women who changed the thinking of society towards women forever.

Q. Give the synonym of the word “pertinent”

Solution: The word means ‘relevant or applicable to a particular matter’
QUESTION: 16

For centuries women have been sidelined from the mainstream society. However, it is pertinent to note that during the early Vedic period women had a powerful role in both family and society. But with the passage of time her power and privilege both in family and society decreased. However, on an average the position of woman at that time period was nothing less than that of a puppet operated as per the whims and fancies of the man. She had no voice of her own, she lacked a self-identity.

In context of India, the women’s movement can be broadly divided into three phases. The first phase can be traced from 1850 -1915. In the pre- independence era, the Women Movement started as a social change development in the nineteenth century. The colonial intervention in the nineteenth century was not chained uniquely to the market or polity but was however intruding into the areas of our culture and society, and this could affect change in the social texture of Indian culture. The second phase can be traced from 1915-1947. Gandhi legitimized and extended Indian women's public activities by absorbing them into the non-violent civil disobedience movement against the Raj which infused in women the confidence, leadership and zeal amongst them to find against the oppression and also against the patriarchy. The third stage can be identified from the year of independence to the present date. It was essentially and primarily because of the endeavors of women and their role in the freedom struggle that women got the right to vote and complete equality in the constitution in India.

20th century witnessed a rise of many strong Indian women who not only made their families proud, but also their country proud. Annie Besant was a British socialist whose heart bled for India. Sarojini Naidu was political activist and a poet. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was an Indian diplomat and politician who later became the first female president of the United Nations General Assembly. Bachendri Pal is an Indian mountaineer, who in the year 1984 became the first Indian woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest. She was awarded Padma Bhushan by Government of India in 2019.

##For first time in history of Apex court there are 3 sitting women judges.## Apart from that the current central government led by Shri Narendra Modi has also appointed a number of women ministers in the cabinet which is a classic case of women empowerment. Further every year we listen to the news that how girls outshine boys in high school and university examinations. This proves us that how modern-day women are breaking the traditional patriarchal social norms and are excelling in both personal and professional spheres when given a chance. Things like these would not have been possible without the Feminist Movement and those strong women who changed the thinking of society towards women forever.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding the tone of the author in the passage?

Solution: This tone is appropriate when the author has given a lot of figures, facts or data in the passage. The author' purpose of writing the passage/ article was to increase the reader's knowledge of the given issue or subject. Hence a lot of details are given.
QUESTION: 17

For centuries women have been sidelined from the mainstream society. However, it is pertinent to note that during the early Vedic period women had a powerful role in both family and society. But with the passage of time her power and privilege both in family and society decreased. However, on an average the position of woman at that time period was nothing less than that of a puppet operated as per the whims and fancies of the man. She had no voice of her own, she lacked a self-identity.

In context of India, the women’s movement can be broadly divided into three phases. The first phase can be traced from 1850 -1915. In the pre- independence era, the Women Movement started as a social change development in the nineteenth century. The colonial intervention in the nineteenth century was not chained uniquely to the market or polity but was however intruding into the areas of our culture and society, and this could affect change in the social texture of Indian culture. The second phase can be traced from 1915-1947. Gandhi legitimized and extended Indian women's public activities by absorbing them into the non-violent civil disobedience movement against the Raj which infused in women the confidence, leadership and zeal amongst them to find against the oppression and also against the patriarchy. The third stage can be identified from the year of independence to the present date. It was essentially and primarily because of the endeavors of women and their role in the freedom struggle that women got the right to vote and complete equality in the constitution in India.

20th century witnessed a rise of many strong Indian women who not only made their families proud, but also their country proud. Annie Besant was a British socialist whose heart bled for India. Sarojini Naidu was political activist and a poet. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit was an Indian diplomat and politician who later became the first female president of the United Nations General Assembly. Bachendri Pal is an Indian mountaineer, who in the year 1984 became the first Indian woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest. She was awarded Padma Bhushan by Government of India in 2019.

##For first time in history of Apex court there are 3 sitting women judges.## Apart from that the current central government led by Shri Narendra Modi has also appointed a number of women ministers in the cabinet which is a classic case of women empowerment. Further every year we listen to the news that how girls outshine boys in high school and university examinations. This proves us that how modern-day women are breaking the traditional patriarchal social norms and are excelling in both personal and professional spheres when given a chance. Things like these would not have been possible without the Feminist Movement and those strong women who changed the thinking of society towards women forever.

Q. Give the antonym of the word “infused”

Solution: The term means “fill”.
QUESTION: 18

The government and the Opposition are headed on a collision course in the Budget session of Parliament, with the latter planning to move a joint motion demanding a repeal of the three laws that are agitating farmers in much of the country. The confrontation over these laws is a legacy of the last session when they were passed without detailed and proper consultation with political parties, experts and farmer representatives. The session began with around 20 Opposition parties boycotting the President’s address to a joint sitting of Parliament. BSP President Mayawati belatedly announced her party’s decision to also stay away as a mark of protest. The delay clearly outlined her intention to keep a distance from the Opposition bloc, which among others has the Congress and the Samajwadi Party. The boycott indicated a worsening of the relationship between the government and the Opposition. In January 2020, the Opposition had attended the President’s address wearing black bands. The last time the Opposition boycotted the President’s Address was in November 2019 to commemorate the Constitution Day. President Ram Nath Kovind said the government would keep the farm Bills on hold as per a Supreme Court directive but did not indicate any rethink.

The government has advantages over the Opposition, in terms of the numerical strength in both Houses of Parliament. With the Tamil Nadu and West Bengal Assembly elections round the corner, two key Opposition parties, the DMK and the Trinamool Congress, are expected to be largely absent, further reducing the Opposition’s strength. The Opposition, despite its united front on the first day of the session, has a record of disintegrating in the face of the BJP’s manoeuvring in previous sessions. There will be discussion on the Motion of Thanks to the President and later on the Budget. As of now there are no indications of the Opposition skipping these events. In legislative business, recent ordinances such as the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020, which has provisions to deal with domestic and international arbitration and defines the law for conducting conciliation proceedings, and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021, which is for merging the J&K cadre of All India Services Officers such as the IAS, IPS and the Indian Forest Service with the Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram Union Territory (AGMUT) cadre, will have to get a parliamentary nod. The government draws its legitimacy from a parliamentary majority, but democratic conduct is more than enforcing the will of the majority. The government’s conduct in Parliament and outside, where its critics are facing the strong arm of the state machinery, should meet the high standards India has set for itself as a democracy.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding democracy according to the author?

Solution: At the end of the passage it is mentioned that The government draws its legitimacy from a parliamentary majority, but democratic conduct is more than enforcing the will of the majority. The government’s conduct in Parliament and outside, where its critics are facing the strong arm of the state machinery, should meet the high standards India has set for itself as a democracy.
QUESTION: 19

The government and the Opposition are headed on a collision course in the Budget session of Parliament, with the latter planning to move a joint motion demanding a repeal of the three laws that are agitating farmers in much of the country. The confrontation over these laws is a legacy of the last session when they were passed without detailed and proper consultation with political parties, experts and farmer representatives. The session began with around 20 Opposition parties boycotting the President’s address to a joint sitting of Parliament. BSP President Mayawati belatedly announced her party’s decision to also stay away as a mark of protest. The delay clearly outlined her intention to keep a distance from the Opposition bloc, which among others has the Congress and the Samajwadi Party. The boycott indicated a worsening of the relationship between the government and the Opposition. In January 2020, the Opposition had attended the President’s address wearing black bands. The last time the Opposition boycotted the President’s Address was in November 2019 to commemorate the Constitution Day. President Ram Nath Kovind said the government would keep the farm Bills on hold as per a Supreme Court directive but did not indicate any rethink.

The government has advantages over the Opposition, in terms of the numerical strength in both Houses of Parliament. With the Tamil Nadu and West Bengal Assembly elections round the corner, two key Opposition parties, the DMK and the Trinamool Congress, are expected to be largely absent, further reducing the Opposition’s strength. The Opposition, despite its united front on the first day of the session, has a record of disintegrating in the face of the BJP’s manoeuvring in previous sessions. There will be discussion on the Motion of Thanks to the President and later on the Budget. As of now there are no indications of the Opposition skipping these events. In legislative business, recent ordinances such as the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020, which has provisions to deal with domestic and international arbitration and defines the law for conducting conciliation proceedings, and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021, which is for merging the J&K cadre of All India Services Officers such as the IAS, IPS and the Indian Forest Service with the Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram Union Territory (AGMUT) cadre, will have to get a parliamentary nod. The government draws its legitimacy from a parliamentary majority, but democratic conduct is more than enforcing the will of the majority. The government’s conduct in Parliament and outside, where its critics are facing the strong arm of the state machinery, should meet the high standards India has set for itself as a democracy.

Q. Which of the following would the author agree to?

Solution: The author has insinuated the thought presented in option (a) in the beginning of the paragraph by stating that the confrontation over the laws is a legacy of the last session when they were passed without detailed and proper consultation with political parties, experts and farmer representatives. It can be deduced that the author would agree with the proposal of a detailed debate in the parliament.
QUESTION: 20

The government and the Opposition are headed on a collision course in the Budget session of Parliament, with the latter planning to move a joint motion demanding a repeal of the three laws that are agitating farmers in much of the country. The confrontation over these laws is a legacy of the last session when they were passed without detailed and proper consultation with political parties, experts and farmer representatives. The session began with around 20 Opposition parties boycotting the President’s address to a joint sitting of Parliament. BSP President Mayawati belatedly announced her party’s decision to also stay away as a mark of protest. The delay clearly outlined her intention to keep a distance from the Opposition bloc, which among others has the Congress and the Samajwadi Party. The boycott indicated a worsening of the relationship between the government and the Opposition. In January 2020, the Opposition had attended the President’s address wearing black bands. The last time the Opposition boycotted the President’s Address was in November 2019 to commemorate the Constitution Day. President Ram Nath Kovind said the government would keep the farm Bills on hold as per a Supreme Court directive but did not indicate any rethink.

The government has advantages over the Opposition, in terms of the numerical strength in both Houses of Parliament. With the Tamil Nadu and West Bengal Assembly elections round the corner, two key Opposition parties, the DMK and the Trinamool Congress, are expected to be largely absent, further reducing the Opposition’s strength. The Opposition, despite its united front on the first day of the session, has a record of disintegrating in the face of the BJP’s manoeuvring in previous sessions. There will be discussion on the Motion of Thanks to the President and later on the Budget. As of now there are no indications of the Opposition skipping these events. In legislative business, recent ordinances such as the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020, which has provisions to deal with domestic and international arbitration and defines the law for conducting conciliation proceedings, and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021, which is for merging the J&K cadre of All India Services Officers such as the IAS, IPS and the Indian Forest Service with the Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram Union Territory (AGMUT) cadre, will have to get a parliamentary nod. The government draws its legitimacy from a parliamentary majority, but democratic conduct is more than enforcing the will of the majority. The government’s conduct in Parliament and outside, where its critics are facing the strong arm of the state machinery, should meet the high standards India has set for itself as a democracy.

Q. Which of the following is true with respect to the opposition?

1. The opposition has a united front

2. The opposition is scattered among themselves

3. The opposition proposed a joint session

Solution: The opposition has not yet proposed but is planning to propose a joint session for repeal of the three farm laws. The passage gives an impression that the opposition does not have a united front, evident from the parts mentioned about Mayawati’s party and the DMK, and that they are scattered among themselves.
QUESTION: 21

The government and the Opposition are headed on a collision course in the Budget session of Parliament, with the latter planning to move a joint motion demanding a repeal of the three laws that are agitating farmers in much of the country. The confrontation over these laws is a legacy of the last session when they were passed without detailed and proper consultation with political parties, experts and farmer representatives. The session began with around 20 Opposition parties boycotting the President’s address to a joint sitting of Parliament. BSP President Mayawati belatedly announced her party’s decision to also stay away as a mark of protest. The delay clearly outlined her intention to keep a distance from the Opposition bloc, which among others has the Congress and the Samajwadi Party. The boycott indicated a worsening of the relationship between the government and the Opposition. In January 2020, the Opposition had attended the President’s address wearing black bands. The last time the Opposition boycotted the President’s Address was in November 2019 to commemorate the Constitution Day. President Ram Nath Kovind said the government would keep the farm Bills on hold as per a Supreme Court directive but did not indicate any rethink.

The government has advantages over the Opposition, in terms of the numerical strength in both Houses of Parliament. With the Tamil Nadu and West Bengal Assembly elections round the corner, two key Opposition parties, the DMK and the Trinamool Congress, are expected to be largely absent, further reducing the Opposition’s strength. The Opposition, despite its united front on the first day of the session, has a record of disintegrating in the face of the BJP’s manoeuvring in previous sessions. There will be discussion on the Motion of Thanks to the President and later on the Budget. As of now there are no indications of the Opposition skipping these events. In legislative business, recent ordinances such as the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020, which has provisions to deal with domestic and international arbitration and defines the law for conducting conciliation proceedings, and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021, which is for merging the J&K cadre of All India Services Officers such as the IAS, IPS and the Indian Forest Service with the Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram Union Territory (AGMUT) cadre, will have to get a parliamentary nod. The government draws its legitimacy from a parliamentary majority, but democratic conduct is more than enforcing the will of the majority. The government’s conduct in Parliament and outside, where its critics are facing the strong arm of the state machinery, should meet the high standards India has set for itself as a democracy.

Q. Which of the following is not consistent with the passage?

Solution: As per the passage, the significance of black bands on arms are limited to the idea of protest, and not in usual terms in the Parliament. The opposition has not signaled anything regarding skipping the budget session or any events taking place during that; and the President’s address did not indicate anything about repealing of the acts.
QUESTION: 22

The government and the Opposition are headed on a collision course in the Budget session of Parliament, with the latter planning to move a joint motion demanding a repeal of the three laws that are agitating farmers in much of the country. The confrontation over these laws is a legacy of the last session when they were passed without detailed and proper consultation with political parties, experts and farmer representatives. The session began with around 20 Opposition parties boycotting the President’s address to a joint sitting of Parliament. BSP President Mayawati belatedly announced her party’s decision to also stay away as a mark of protest. The delay clearly outlined her intention to keep a distance from the Opposition bloc, which among others has the Congress and the Samajwadi Party. The boycott indicated a worsening of the relationship between the government and the Opposition. In January 2020, the Opposition had attended the President’s address wearing black bands. The last time the Opposition boycotted the President’s Address was in November 2019 to commemorate the Constitution Day. President Ram Nath Kovind said the government would keep the farm Bills on hold as per a Supreme Court directive but did not indicate any rethink.

The government has advantages over the Opposition, in terms of the numerical strength in both Houses of Parliament. With the Tamil Nadu and West Bengal Assembly elections round the corner, two key Opposition parties, the DMK and the Trinamool Congress, are expected to be largely absent, further reducing the Opposition’s strength. The Opposition, despite its united front on the first day of the session, has a record of disintegrating in the face of the BJP’s manoeuvring in previous sessions. There will be discussion on the Motion of Thanks to the President and later on the Budget. As of now there are no indications of the Opposition skipping these events. In legislative business, recent ordinances such as the Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020, which has provisions to deal with domestic and international arbitration and defines the law for conducting conciliation proceedings, and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021, which is for merging the J&K cadre of All India Services Officers such as the IAS, IPS and the Indian Forest Service with the Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram Union Territory (AGMUT) cadre, will have to get a parliamentary nod. The government draws its legitimacy from a parliamentary majority, but democratic conduct is more than enforcing the will of the majority. The government’s conduct in Parliament and outside, where its critics are facing the strong arm of the state machinery, should meet the high standards India has set for itself as a democracy.

Q. Which of the following is the synonym to the word manoeuvring?

Solution: The word means to move something skillfully or to negotiate or mediate a situation in a cautious manner.
QUESTION: 23

The recent three-day-long protest, led by Puducherry Chief Minister V. Narayanasamy, under the banner of the Secular Democratic Progressive Alliance, against Lieutenant Governor Kiran Bedi came as no surprise, given the strained ties between the two constitutional functionaries. They have been at loggerheads over many matters, most recently on the appointment of the State Election Commissioner, an office critical to holding elections to local bodies in the Union Territory. But the principal issue of contention is the implementation of direct benefit transfer in the public distribution system using cash, instead of free rice, being given to beneficiaries. The agitation was meant to highlight the demand of the Congress and its allies for the recall of the Lt Governor. As a prelude to the stir, the Chief Minister presented memoranda to President Ram Nath Kovind and Union Minister of State for Home Affairs G. Kishan Reddy, accusing Ms. Bedi of “functioning in an autocratic manner” and adopting an “obstructionist attitude” in ensuring the progress and welfare of people. On her part, Ms. Bedi has advised him to refrain from misleading the public about the Centre and her office. She has even attributed his “anguish and disappointment” possibly to the “diligent and sustained care” exercised by the Lt Governor’s secretariat “in ensuring just, fair and accessible administration following the laws and rules of business scrupulously”.

With the Assembly election likely in April or May, the Chief Minister leading the protest against the Lt Governor was clearly an act of political mobilisation, even though the Congress’s major ally, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, chose to stay away from it. The agitation should be seen as a reflection of the political reality in the Union Territory as Mr. Narayanasamy does not have any effective Opposition. This allows him to turn all his energy and time against the Lt Governor instead of on his political adversaries at a time when the election is near. And this seems to be his strategy to ward off any criticism against his government’s “non-functioning” by laying the blame at the doorstep of the Lt Governor. On her part, Ms. Bedi should take into account the legitimate requirements of an elected government and try to accommodate Mr. Narayanasamy’s views on important matters such as the free rice scheme. After all, the Centre itself did not see any great virtue in the DBT mode when it decided to give additional food grains (rice or wheat) free of cost at five kg per person a month to ration cardholders during April-November last year — a relief measure during the COVID-19 pandemic. With the near breakdown of communication between the Lt Governor and the Chief Minister, the Centre should step in, in the interest of smooth administration.

Q. Which of the following is an apposite title to the passage?

Solution: Answer (a): The passage speaks about the tussle going on between the LG and the CM in Puducherry and the background of it. It also presents author’s bipartisan view on it. In such a scenario, option (a) presents most apt title.
QUESTION: 24

The recent three-day-long protest, led by Puducherry Chief Minister V. Narayanasamy, under the banner of the Secular Democratic Progressive Alliance, against Lieutenant Governor Kiran Bedi came as no surprise, given the strained ties between the two constitutional functionaries. They have been at loggerheads over many matters, most recently on the appointment of the State Election Commissioner, an office critical to holding elections to local bodies in the Union Territory. But the principal issue of contention is the implementation of direct benefit transfer in the public distribution system using cash, instead of free rice, being given to beneficiaries. The agitation was meant to highlight the demand of the Congress and its allies for the recall of the Lt Governor. As a prelude to the stir, the Chief Minister presented memoranda to President Ram Nath Kovind and Union Minister of State for Home Affairs G. Kishan Reddy, accusing Ms. Bedi of “functioning in an autocratic manner” and adopting an “obstructionist attitude” in ensuring the progress and welfare of people. On her part, Ms. Bedi has advised him to refrain from misleading the public about the Centre and her office. She has even attributed his “anguish and disappointment” possibly to the “diligent and sustained care” exercised by the Lt Governor’s secretariat “in ensuring just, fair and accessible administration following the laws and rules of business scrupulously”.

With the Assembly election likely in April or May, the Chief Minister leading the protest against the Lt Governor was clearly an act of political mobilisation, even though the Congress’s major ally, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, chose to stay away from it. The agitation should be seen as a reflection of the political reality in the Union Territory as Mr. Narayanasamy does not have any effective Opposition. This allows him to turn all his energy and time against the Lt Governor instead of on his political adversaries at a time when the election is near. And this seems to be his strategy to ward off any criticism against his government’s “non-functioning” by laying the blame at the doorstep of the Lt Governor. On her part, Ms. Bedi should take into account the legitimate requirements of an elected government and try to accommodate Mr. Narayanasamy’s views on important matters such as the free rice scheme. After all, the Centre itself did not see any great virtue in the DBT mode when it decided to give additional food grains (rice or wheat) free of cost at five kg per person a month to ration cardholders during April-November last year — a relief measure during the COVID-19 pandemic. With the near breakdown of communication between the Lt Governor and the Chief Minister, the Centre should step in, in the interest of smooth administration.

Q. Which of the following would the author agree to?

Solution: On her part, Ms. Bedi should take into account the legitimate requirements of an elected government and try to accommodate Mr. Narayanasamy’s views on important matters such as the free rice scheme. After all, the Centre itself did not see any great virtue in the DBT mode when it decided to give additional food grains (rice or wheat) free of cost at five kg per person a month to ration cardholders during April-November last year — a relief measure during the COVID-19 pandemic. With the near breakdown of communication between the Lt Governor and the Chief Minister, the Centre should step in, in the interest of smooth administration.
QUESTION: 25

The recent three-day-long protest, led by Puducherry Chief Minister V. Narayanasamy, under the banner of the Secular Democratic Progressive Alliance, against Lieutenant Governor Kiran Bedi came as no surprise, given the strained ties between the two constitutional functionaries. They have been at loggerheads over many matters, most recently on the appointment of the State Election Commissioner, an office critical to holding elections to local bodies in the Union Territory. But the principal issue of contention is the implementation of direct benefit transfer in the public distribution system using cash, instead of free rice, being given to beneficiaries. The agitation was meant to highlight the demand of the Congress and its allies for the recall of the Lt Governor. As a prelude to the stir, the Chief Minister presented memoranda to President Ram Nath Kovind and Union Minister of State for Home Affairs G. Kishan Reddy, accusing Ms. Bedi of “functioning in an autocratic manner” and adopting an “obstructionist attitude” in ensuring the progress and welfare of people. On her part, Ms. Bedi has advised him to refrain from misleading the public about the Centre and her office. She has even attributed his “anguish and disappointment” possibly to the “diligent and sustained care” exercised by the Lt Governor’s secretariat “in ensuring just, fair and accessible administration following the laws and rules of business scrupulously”.

With the Assembly election likely in April or May, the Chief Minister leading the protest against the Lt Governor was clearly an act of political mobilisation, even though the Congress’s major ally, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, chose to stay away from it. The agitation should be seen as a reflection of the political reality in the Union Territory as Mr. Narayanasamy does not have any effective Opposition. This allows him to turn all his energy and time against the Lt Governor instead of on his political adversaries at a time when the election is near. And this seems to be his strategy to ward off any criticism against his government’s “non-functioning” by laying the blame at the doorstep of the Lt Governor. On her part, Ms. Bedi should take into account the legitimate requirements of an elected government and try to accommodate Mr. Narayanasamy’s views on important matters such as the free rice scheme. After all, the Centre itself did not see any great virtue in the DBT mode when it decided to give additional food grains (rice or wheat) free of cost at five kg per person a month to ration cardholders during April-November last year — a relief measure during the COVID-19 pandemic. With the near breakdown of communication between the Lt Governor and the Chief Minister, the Centre should step in, in the interest of smooth administration.

Q. What is the tone of the author in the passage?

Solution: In the last part of the passage, the author has tried to find a middle ground between the ongoing tussle and has blamed the LG and the CM in an unequivocal manner for the current situation which the population has to face.
QUESTION: 26

The recent three-day-long protest, led by Puducherry Chief Minister V. Narayanasamy, under the banner of the Secular Democratic Progressive Alliance, against Lieutenant Governor Kiran Bedi came as no surprise, given the strained ties between the two constitutional functionaries. They have been at loggerheads over many matters, most recently on the appointment of the State Election Commissioner, an office critical to holding elections to local bodies in the Union Territory. But the principal issue of contention is the implementation of direct benefit transfer in the public distribution system using cash, instead of free rice, being given to beneficiaries. The agitation was meant to highlight the demand of the Congress and its allies for the recall of the Lt Governor. As a prelude to the stir, the Chief Minister presented memoranda to President Ram Nath Kovind and Union Minister of State for Home Affairs G. Kishan Reddy, accusing Ms. Bedi of “functioning in an autocratic manner” and adopting an “obstructionist attitude” in ensuring the progress and welfare of people. On her part, Ms. Bedi has advised him to refrain from misleading the public about the Centre and her office. She has even attributed his “anguish and disappointment” possibly to the “diligent and sustained care” exercised by the Lt Governor’s secretariat “in ensuring just, fair and accessible administration following the laws and rules of business scrupulously”.

With the Assembly election likely in April or May, the Chief Minister leading the protest against the Lt Governor was clearly an act of political mobilisation, even though the Congress’s major ally, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, chose to stay away from it. The agitation should be seen as a reflection of the political reality in the Union Territory as Mr. Narayanasamy does not have any effective Opposition. This allows him to turn all his energy and time against the Lt Governor instead of on his political adversaries at a time when the election is near. And this seems to be his strategy to ward off any criticism against his government’s “non-functioning” by laying the blame at the doorstep of the Lt Governor. On her part, Ms. Bedi should take into account the legitimate requirements of an elected government and try to accommodate Mr. Narayanasamy’s views on important matters such as the free rice scheme. After all, the Centre itself did not see any great virtue in the DBT mode when it decided to give additional food grains (rice or wheat) free of cost at five kg per person a month to ration cardholders during April-November last year — a relief measure during the COVID-19 pandemic. With the near breakdown of communication between the Lt Governor and the Chief Minister, the Centre should step in, in the interest of smooth administration.

Q. Which of the following is not consistent with the passage?

1.The LG has vested interests in the election of the state election commissioner

2.Ms. Bedi has been found guilty of adopting an obstructionist approach towards executing her duties

3.The CM of Puducherry has no strong political opposition

Solution: Nothing in the passage suggests that the LG has a vested interest in the appointment of State Election Commissioner or that Ms. Bedi has been found guilty for the allegation that has been made against her. The third statement is true, and has been made by the author towards the end of the passage.
QUESTION: 27

The recent three-day-long protest, led by Puducherry Chief Minister V. Narayanasamy, under the banner of the Secular Democratic Progressive Alliance, against Lieutenant Governor Kiran Bedi came as no surprise, given the strained ties between the two constitutional functionaries. They have been at loggerheads over many matters, most recently on the appointment of the State Election Commissioner, an office critical to holding elections to local bodies in the Union Territory. But the principal issue of contention is the implementation of direct benefit transfer in the public distribution system using cash, instead of free rice, being given to beneficiaries. The agitation was meant to highlight the demand of the Congress and its allies for the recall of the Lt Governor. As a prelude to the stir, the Chief Minister presented memoranda to President Ram Nath Kovind and Union Minister of State for Home Affairs G. Kishan Reddy, accusing Ms. Bedi of “functioning in an autocratic manner” and adopting an “obstructionist attitude” in ensuring the progress and welfare of people. On her part, Ms. Bedi has advised him to refrain from misleading the public about the Centre and her office. She has even attributed his “anguish and disappointment” possibly to the “diligent and sustained care” exercised by the Lt Governor’s secretariat “in ensuring just, fair and accessible administration following the laws and rules of business scrupulously”.

With the Assembly election likely in April or May, the Chief Minister leading the protest against the Lt Governor was clearly an act of political mobilisation, even though the Congress’s major ally, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, chose to stay away from it. The agitation should be seen as a reflection of the political reality in the Union Territory as Mr. Narayanasamy does not have any effective Opposition. This allows him to turn all his energy and time against the Lt Governor instead of on his political adversaries at a time when the election is near. And this seems to be his strategy to ward off any criticism against his government’s “non-functioning” by laying the blame at the doorstep of the Lt Governor. On her part, Ms. Bedi should take into account the legitimate requirements of an elected government and try to accommodate Mr. Narayanasamy’s views on important matters such as the free rice scheme. After all, the Centre itself did not see any great virtue in the DBT mode when it decided to give additional food grains (rice or wheat) free of cost at five kg per person a month to ration cardholders during April-November last year — a relief measure during the COVID-19 pandemic. With the near breakdown of communication between the Lt Governor and the Chief Minister, the Centre should step in, in the interest of smooth administration.

Q. Which of the following is the antonym to the word, dissemination?

Solution: Dissemination means to distribute, which makes (a) a synonym. Dissipation means to waste the resources which would be closest antonym to the word given. Desiccate mean to dry, and Destitute means the lack of resources.
QUESTION: 28

The word “Hindu” is a Persianate derivative of “Sindhu”, Sanskrit for the Indus River. Only during India’s colonial encounter in the 19th century did “Hindu” become an ascriptive label for a wide range of practices and ideas across South Asia that do not fall within the three world religions labelled “Islam”, “Christianity”, and “Buddhism”. But this term defined by negation did not mean much to those located within a mosaic of Indic ritual and philosophical traditions that lacked a holy book based on divine revelation. The reformers were answering British criticisms of Indic polytheisms as “beastly” and “superstitious”. They enthusiastically embraced the colonial view of Muslims being wholly separate from Hindus, ignoring the accommodations and intermixing over centuries that had produced shared ritual, intellectual, sartorial, culinary, and musical traditions between the two groups.

As the reforming Hindu men worked to draw sharp lines between “Hindus” and “Muslims”, the newly emerging print media became their accomplice. The adoption of the Nagri script by reformist groups such as the Arya Samaj contrasted with the shared orality of a public sphere defined by the Hindustani language. Devanagari, the divine Nagri as it became known, also started to be used alongside Urdu and English in the new world of print technology, helping reformists in their efforts to create a distinct Hindu identity.

Then, as it is now, the chief obstacle to transforming India into a Hindu nation was the caste system which divided society into strict hierarchical groups. To accommodate the lower orders of society, the conservatism of the Brahmins, the traditional priestly class who sit atop the rigid caste hierarchy, had to be diluted. But to the-brahmins Hinduism would have dissolved the abstract new polity of the reformers’ imagination into a melange of lived traditions across the localities and regions of India. A hierarchical society, suggested Gandhi, could learn to be humane and to avoid excesses. Vertical hierarchies could be held together by horizontal alliances between those of similar rank, whether at the top or the bottom. Hindu and Muslim elites could be tied together by common interests of peace and prosperity just as the Hindu and Muslim masses were held together by shared solidarities of class and occupation.

With economic liberalisation and neoliberal globalisation since 1980, the old hierarchies have been shaken up. The myriad castes that constitute Indian society have been shattered into infinitesimal fragments, which have given rise to fractalized identities vying for equality at the expense of each other. The centrifugal force in pursuit of equality in public life led to dissensus, not a new national consensus.

Q. Which of the following could be extrapolated from the passage?

Solution: The entire passage talks about how Hindutva is an abstract political religion.
QUESTION: 29

The word “Hindu” is a Persianate derivative of “Sindhu”, Sanskrit for the Indus River. Only during India’s colonial encounter in the 19th century did “Hindu” become an ascriptive label for a wide range of practices and ideas across South Asia that do not fall within the three world religions labelled “Islam”, “Christianity”, and “Buddhism”. But this term defined by negation did not mean much to those located within a mosaic of Indic ritual and philosophical traditions that lacked a holy book based on divine revelation. The reformers were answering British criticisms of Indic polytheisms as “beastly” and “superstitious”. They enthusiastically embraced the colonial view of Muslims being wholly separate from Hindus, ignoring the accommodations and intermixing over centuries that had produced shared ritual, intellectual, sartorial, culinary, and musical traditions between the two groups.

As the reforming Hindu men worked to draw sharp lines between “Hindus” and “Muslims”, the newly emerging print media became their accomplice. The adoption of the Nagri script by reformist groups such as the Arya Samaj contrasted with the shared orality of a public sphere defined by the Hindustani language. Devanagari, the divine Nagri as it became known, also started to be used alongside Urdu and English in the new world of print technology, helping reformists in their efforts to create a distinct Hindu identity.

Then, as it is now, the chief obstacle to transforming India into a Hindu nation was the caste system which divided society into strict hierarchical groups. To accommodate the lower orders of society, the conservatism of the Brahmins, the traditional priestly class who sit atop the rigid caste hierarchy, had to be diluted. But to the-brahmins Hinduism would have dissolved the abstract new polity of the reformers’ imagination into a melange of lived traditions across the localities and regions of India. A hierarchical society, suggested Gandhi, could learn to be humane and to avoid excesses. Vertical hierarchies could be held together by horizontal alliances between those of similar rank, whether at the top or the bottom. Hindu and Muslim elites could be tied together by common interests of peace and prosperity just as the Hindu and Muslim masses were held together by shared solidarities of class and occupation.

With economic liberalisation and neoliberal globalisation since 1980, the old hierarchies have been shaken up. The myriad castes that constitute Indian society have been shattered into infinitesimal fragments, which have given rise to fractalized identities vying for equality at the expense of each other. The centrifugal force in pursuit of equality in public life led to dissensus, not a new national consensus.

Q. Which of the following is the means the same as mélange?

Solution: The term means blend/mix.
QUESTION: 30

The word “Hindu” is a Persianate derivative of “Sindhu”, Sanskrit for the Indus River. Only during India’s colonial encounter in the 19th century did “Hindu” become an ascriptive label for a wide range of practices and ideas across South Asia that do not fall within the three world religions labelled “Islam”, “Christianity”, and “Buddhism”. But this term defined by negation did not mean much to those located within a mosaic of Indic ritual and philosophical traditions that lacked a holy book based on divine revelation. The reformers were answering British criticisms of Indic polytheisms as “beastly” and “superstitious”. They enthusiastically embraced the colonial view of Muslims being wholly separate from Hindus, ignoring the accommodations and intermixing over centuries that had produced shared ritual, intellectual, sartorial, culinary, and musical traditions between the two groups.

As the reforming Hindu men worked to draw sharp lines between “Hindus” and “Muslims”, the newly emerging print media became their accomplice. The adoption of the Nagri script by reformist groups such as the Arya Samaj contrasted with the shared orality of a public sphere defined by the Hindustani language. Devanagari, the divine Nagri as it became known, also started to be used alongside Urdu and English in the new world of print technology, helping reformists in their efforts to create a distinct Hindu identity.

Then, as it is now, the chief obstacle to transforming India into a Hindu nation was the caste system which divided society into strict hierarchical groups. To accommodate the lower orders of society, the conservatism of the Brahmins, the traditional priestly class who sit atop the rigid caste hierarchy, had to be diluted. But to the-brahmins Hinduism would have dissolved the abstract new polity of the reformers’ imagination into a melange of lived traditions across the localities and regions of India. A hierarchical society, suggested Gandhi, could learn to be humane and to avoid excesses. Vertical hierarchies could be held together by horizontal alliances between those of similar rank, whether at the top or the bottom. Hindu and Muslim elites could be tied together by common interests of peace and prosperity just as the Hindu and Muslim masses were held together by shared solidarities of class and occupation.

With economic liberalisation and neoliberal globalisation since 1980, the old hierarchies have been shaken up. The myriad castes that constitute Indian society have been shattered into infinitesimal fragments, which have given rise to fractalized identities vying for equality at the expense of each other. The centrifugal force in pursuit of equality in public life led to dissensus, not a new national consensus.

Q. Which of the following is true regarding the tone of the author in the passage?

Solution: This tone is appropriate when the author has given a lot of figures, facts or data in the passage. The author' purpose of writing the passage/ article was to increase the reader's knowledge of the given issue or subject. Hence a lot of details are given.
QUESTION: 31

The word “Hindu” is a Persianate derivative of “Sindhu”, Sanskrit for the Indus River. Only during India’s colonial encounter in the 19th century did “Hindu” become an ascriptive label for a wide range of practices and ideas across South Asia that do not fall within the three world religions labelled “Islam”, “Christianity”, and “Buddhism”. But this term defined by negation did not mean much to those located within a mosaic of Indic ritual and philosophical traditions that lacked a holy book based on divine revelation. The reformers were answering British criticisms of Indic polytheisms as “beastly” and “superstitious”. They enthusiastically embraced the colonial view of Muslims being wholly separate from Hindus, ignoring the accommodations and intermixing over centuries that had produced shared ritual, intellectual, sartorial, culinary, and musical traditions between the two groups.

As the reforming Hindu men worked to draw sharp lines between “Hindus” and “Muslims”, the newly emerging print media became their accomplice. The adoption of the Nagri script by reformist groups such as the Arya Samaj contrasted with the shared orality of a public sphere defined by the Hindustani language. Devanagari, the divine Nagri as it became known, also started to be used alongside Urdu and English in the new world of print technology, helping reformists in their efforts to create a distinct Hindu identity.

Then, as it is now, the chief obstacle to transforming India into a Hindu nation was the caste system which divided society into strict hierarchical groups. To accommodate the lower orders of society, the conservatism of the Brahmins, the traditional priestly class who sit atop the rigid caste hierarchy, had to be diluted. But to the-brahmins Hinduism would have dissolved the abstract new polity of the reformers’ imagination into a melange of lived traditions across the localities and regions of India. A hierarchical society, suggested Gandhi, could learn to be humane and to avoid excesses. Vertical hierarchies could be held together by horizontal alliances between those of similar rank, whether at the top or the bottom. Hindu and Muslim elites could be tied together by common interests of peace and prosperity just as the Hindu and Muslim masses were held together by shared solidarities of class and occupation.

With economic liberalisation and neoliberal globalisation since 1980, the old hierarchies have been shaken up. The myriad castes that constitute Indian society have been shattered into infinitesimal fragments, which have given rise to fractalized identities vying for equality at the expense of each other. The centrifugal force in pursuit of equality in public life led to dissensus, not a new national consensus.

Q. Which of the following is the antonym to the word centrifugal?

Solution: The term means moving or tending to move away from a centre.
QUESTION: 32

The word “Hindu” is a Persianate derivative of “Sindhu”, Sanskrit for the Indus River. Only during India’s colonial encounter in the 19th century did “Hindu” become an ascriptive label for a wide range of practices and ideas across South Asia that do not fall within the three world religions labelled “Islam”, “Christianity”, and “Buddhism”. But this term defined by negation did not mean much to those located within a mosaic of Indic ritual and philosophical traditions that lacked a holy book based on divine revelation. The reformers were answering British criticisms of Indic polytheisms as “beastly” and “superstitious”. They enthusiastically embraced the colonial view of Muslims being wholly separate from Hindus, ignoring the accommodations and intermixing over centuries that had produced shared ritual, intellectual, sartorial, culinary, and musical traditions between the two groups.

As the reforming Hindu men worked to draw sharp lines between “Hindus” and “Muslims”, the newly emerging print media became their accomplice. The adoption of the Nagri script by reformist groups such as the Arya Samaj contrasted with the shared orality of a public sphere defined by the Hindustani language. Devanagari, the divine Nagri as it became known, also started to be used alongside Urdu and English in the new world of print technology, helping reformists in their efforts to create a distinct Hindu identity.

Then, as it is now, the chief obstacle to transforming India into a Hindu nation was the caste system which divided society into strict hierarchical groups. To accommodate the lower orders of society, the conservatism of the Brahmins, the traditional priestly class who sit atop the rigid caste hierarchy, had to be diluted. But to the-brahmins Hinduism would have dissolved the abstract new polity of the reformers’ imagination into a melange of lived traditions across the localities and regions of India. A hierarchical society, suggested Gandhi, could learn to be humane and to avoid excesses. Vertical hierarchies could be held together by horizontal alliances between those of similar rank, whether at the top or the bottom. Hindu and Muslim elites could be tied together by common interests of peace and prosperity just as the Hindu and Muslim masses were held together by shared solidarities of class and occupation.

With economic liberalisation and neoliberal globalisation since 1980, the old hierarchies have been shaken up. The myriad castes that constitute Indian society have been shattered into infinitesimal fragments, which have given rise to fractalized identities vying for equality at the expense of each other. The centrifugal force in pursuit of equality in public life led to dissensus, not a new national consensus.

Q. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?

Solution: The entire passage talks about how Hindutva is an abstract political religion
QUESTION: 33

India, Singapore and [X] recently concluded their trilateral naval exercise SITMEX-20. This is the second edition of SITMEX. Hosted by the Republic of Singapore Navy from November 21-22, the exercise was held in the [Y]. This represents a growing number of naval engagements that India has been holding with various navies, including those in Southeast Asia. But it also indicates the growing willingness of regional navies to look to India as a maritime partner, as well as the increasing comfort level in coming together at the regional level rather than look to just the U.S. in dealing with a rising China. That these exercises were held in spite the challenges imposed by COVID-19 pandemic suggests the importance attached by the three navies to these exercises and also the seriousness of the threats they mutually face.

This particular trilateral exercise is relatively new. The first edition was held in the [Y] only last year, in September 2019. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi had announced the trilateral exercise at his keynote address at the 2018 Shangri La Dialogue in Singapore. At the inaugural edition of the exercise, the Indian Navy was represented by the guided missile destroyer INS Ranvir, missile corvette INS Kora, Offshore Patrol Vessel Sumedha and P8I long-range maritime reconnaissance aircraft.

The military exercises with Singapore and [X] also demonstrate the increasingly strategic nature of engagements that India has developed with the countries in Southeast Asia. From a “Look East” policy in the 1990s (which itself was not very successful) that focused on economic issues to an “Act East” policy initiated by Modi in 2014, bilateral relations in the region as well as the regional context have been transformative. Even though these exercises have been shortened on account of the pandemic, the fact that the navies of the three countries decided to go ahead with the exercise is a clear reflection of the similarity of views between India, Singapore and [X]. This could mean that the three navies may continue to strengthen these exercises in terms of scope of the maneuvers, expansion of the geographical areas of their exercise, and greater sophistication in terms of their overall objectives of SITMEX.

Q. What is the bilateral naval exercise between India and Singapore called?

Solution: Singapore India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) is an annual bilateral naval exercise conducted by the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN). The exercise has been held annually since 1994.
QUESTION: 34

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the Farming Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020, which will pave the way for creating [X]. Briefing the decisions taken in the Cabinet meeting headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, [Y] said the ordinance will create an ecosystem where farmers and traders will enjoy freedom of choice of sale and purchase of agri-produce.

He said it will also promote barrier-free inter-state and intra-state trade and commerce outside the physical premises of markets notified under the state Agricultural Produce Marketing legislations, and this is a historic step in unlocking the vastly regulated agriculture markets in the country. There are restrictions for farmers in selling agri-produce outside the notified APMC market yards. The farmers are also restricted to sell the produce only to the registered licensees of the state governments.

Further, barriers exist in free-flow of agricultural produce between various states owing to the prevalence of various APMC legislations enacted by the state governments. The ordinance basically aims at creating additional trading opportunities outside the APMC market yards to help farmers get remunerative prices due to additional competition. The ordinance will certainly pave the way for creating [X', according to the Agriculture Ministry.

Q. What is ‘X’ mentioned in the passage?

Solution: The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the Farming Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020, which will pave the way for creating 'One India, One Agriculture Market'.
QUESTION: 35

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the Farming Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020, which will pave the way for creating [X]. Briefing the decisions taken in the Cabinet meeting headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, [Y] said the ordinance will create an ecosystem where farmers and traders will enjoy freedom of choice of sale and purchase of agri-produce.

He said it will also promote barrier-free inter-state and intra-state trade and commerce outside the physical premises of markets notified under the state Agricultural Produce Marketing legislations, and this is a historic step in unlocking the vastly regulated agriculture markets in the country. There are restrictions for farmers in selling agri-produce outside the notified APMC market yards. The farmers are also restricted to sell the produce only to the registered licensees of the state governments.

Further, barriers exist in free-flow of agricultural produce between various states owing to the prevalence of various APMC legislations enacted by the state governments. The ordinance basically aims at creating additional trading opportunities outside the APMC market yards to help farmers get remunerative prices due to additional competition. The ordinance will certainly pave the way for creating [X', according to the Agriculture Ministry.

Q. Centre government approved amendment to ‘A’ act to deregulate food items, including cereals, pulses and onion, a move that will transform the farm sector and help raise farmers' income. What is Act ‘A’ that is amended?

Solution: The Essential Commodities (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated on June 5, 2020. It amends the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. The Act empowers the central government to control the production, supply, distribution, trade, and commerce in certain commodities. The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved amendment to the six-a-and-half decade old Essential Commodities Act to deregulate food items, including cereals, pulses and onion, a move that will transform the farm sector and help raise farmers' income.  The Cabinet also approved 'The Farming Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020' to ensure barrier free trade in agriculture produce.  The government also approved 'The Farmers (Empowerment and Protection.
QUESTION: 36

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the Farming Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020, which will pave the way for creating [X]. Briefing the decisions taken in the Cabinet meeting headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, [Y] said the ordinance will create an ecosystem where farmers and traders will enjoy freedom of choice of sale and purchase of agri-produce.

He said it will also promote barrier-free inter-state and intra-state trade and commerce outside the physical premises of markets notified under the state Agricultural Produce Marketing legislations, and this is a historic step in unlocking the vastly regulated agriculture markets in the country. There are restrictions for farmers in selling agri-produce outside the notified APMC market yards. The farmers are also restricted to sell the produce only to the registered licensees of the state governments.

Further, barriers exist in free-flow of agricultural produce between various states owing to the prevalence of various APMC legislations enacted by the state governments. The ordinance basically aims at creating additional trading opportunities outside the APMC market yards to help farmers get remunerative prices due to additional competition. The ordinance will certainly pave the way for creating [X', according to the Agriculture Ministry.

Q. Who determines the minimum support price in India?

Solution: MSP are announced at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on recommendations by Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices(CACP) and announced by Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) chaired by the Prime Minister of India. So it is decided by the Central government.
QUESTION: 37

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the Farming Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020, which will pave the way for creating [X]. Briefing the decisions taken in the Cabinet meeting headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, [Y] said the ordinance will create an ecosystem where farmers and traders will enjoy freedom of choice of sale and purchase of agri-produce.

He said it will also promote barrier-free inter-state and intra-state trade and commerce outside the physical premises of markets notified under the state Agricultural Produce Marketing legislations, and this is a historic step in unlocking the vastly regulated agriculture markets in the country. There are restrictions for farmers in selling agri-produce outside the notified APMC market yards. The farmers are also restricted to sell the produce only to the registered licensees of the state governments.

Further, barriers exist in free-flow of agricultural produce between various states owing to the prevalence of various APMC legislations enacted by the state governments. The ordinance basically aims at creating additional trading opportunities outside the APMC market yards to help farmers get remunerative prices due to additional competition. The ordinance will certainly pave the way for creating [X', according to the Agriculture Ministry.

Q. Which agency is responsible for procurement, distribution and storage of food grain production in India?

Solution: The Food Corporation of India is an organization created and run by the Government of India. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India. Its top official is designated as Chairman. It was set up in 1965 with its Initial headquarters at Chennai.
QUESTION: 38

The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved the Farming Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020, which will pave the way for creating [X]. Briefing the decisions taken in the Cabinet meeting headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, [Y] said the ordinance will create an ecosystem where farmers and traders will enjoy freedom of choice of sale and purchase of agri-produce.

He said it will also promote barrier-free inter-state and intra-state trade and commerce outside the physical premises of markets notified under the state Agricultural Produce Marketing legislations, and this is a historic step in unlocking the vastly regulated agriculture markets in the country. There are restrictions for farmers in selling agri-produce outside the notified APMC market yards. The farmers are also restricted to sell the produce only to the registered licensees of the state governments.

Further, barriers exist in free-flow of agricultural produce between various states owing to the prevalence of various APMC legislations enacted by the state governments. The ordinance basically aims at creating additional trading opportunities outside the APMC market yards to help farmers get remunerative prices due to additional competition. The ordinance will certainly pave the way for creating [X', according to the Agriculture Ministry.

Q. Who is the Union Minister ‘Y’ mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Narendra Singh Tomar is an Indian politician and a member of the 17th Lok Sabha. He is the Minister of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare and Minister of Rural Development in the Second Modi ministry. Previously he was the Minister of Mines and Minister of Parliamentary Affair in the Government of India.
QUESTION: 39

Finance Minister [X] on Friday, 12 June, announced that the maximum late fee for non-filing of monthly GST sales return for July 2017 to January 2020 has been capped at Rs 500, reported PTI.

Announcing the decisions taken after the 40th GST Council meeting, [X] also said those taxpayers with nil liability will have to pay zero late fee for late filing of GSTR-3B for the same period.

The taxpayers having tax liability can file past returns between 1 July and 30 September, she said.

Moreover, small taxpayers with turnover upto Rs 5 crore will pay reduced rate of interest, of 9 percent from 18 percent, for returns filed for February-April 2020 post 6 July, if filed by 30 September.

Small businesses with the same turnover will also be provided a waiver of late fees and interest if they file form GSTR-3B for the supplies affected in months of May, June and July 2020, by September 2020. No late fee or interest will be charged till September, the finance minister said.

She also said that a special one-agenda meeting will take place in July to discuss compensation requirements of states.

""In July, which is on the request of all the ministers, there shall be a meeting to discuss exclusively one agenda point – compensation cess. The compensation which has to be given to the states, and if at all, it results in some kinds of borrowing, how and who is going to pay for it,"" [X] was quoted by ANI as saying.

[X]’s announcements comes amid the country reeling under severe economic stress due to the COVID-19 outbreak and the resulting lockdown.

Q. Who is Finance minister is mentioned in [X]?

Solution: The Minister of Finance is the head of the Ministry of Finance of the Government of India. One of the senior-most offices in the Union Cabinet, the finance minister is responsible for the fiscal policy of the government. The current Finance Minister of India is Nirmala Sitharaman.
QUESTION: 40

Finance Minister [X] on Friday, 12 June, announced that the maximum late fee for non-filing of monthly GST sales return for July 2017 to January 2020 has been capped at Rs 500, reported PTI.

Announcing the decisions taken after the 40th GST Council meeting, [X] also said those taxpayers with nil liability will have to pay zero late fee for late filing of GSTR-3B for the same period.

The taxpayers having tax liability can file past returns between 1 July and 30 September, she said.

Moreover, small taxpayers with turnover upto Rs 5 crore will pay reduced rate of interest, of 9 percent from 18 percent, for returns filed for February-April 2020 post 6 July, if filed by 30 September.

Small businesses with the same turnover will also be provided a waiver of late fees and interest if they file form GSTR-3B for the supplies affected in months of May, June and July 2020, by September 2020. No late fee or interest will be charged till September, the finance minister said.

She also said that a special one-agenda meeting will take place in July to discuss compensation requirements of states.

""In July, which is on the request of all the ministers, there shall be a meeting to discuss exclusively one agenda point – compensation cess. The compensation which has to be given to the states, and if at all, it results in some kinds of borrowing, how and who is going to pay for it,"" [X] was quoted by ANI as saying.

[X]’s announcements comes amid the country reeling under severe economic stress due to the COVID-19 outbreak and the resulting lockdown.

Q. GST was introduced through which amendment act into the constitution?

Solution: The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Second Amendment) Bill, 2016, for introduction of Goods and Services tax in the country was introduced in the Parliament and passed by Rajya Sabha on 3rd August, 2016 and by Lok Sabha on 8th August, 2016. Consequent upon this, the Hon’ble President of India accorded assent on 8th September, 2016, and the same was notified as the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016. As per Article 279A (1) of the amended Constitution, the GST Council has to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of Article 279A. The notification for bringing into force Article 279A with effect from 12th September, 2016 was issued on 10thSeptember, 2016.
QUESTION: 41

Finance Minister [X] on Friday, 12 June, announced that the maximum late fee for non-filing of monthly GST sales return for July 2017 to January 2020 has been capped at Rs 500, reported PTI.

Announcing the decisions taken after the 40th GST Council meeting, [X] also said those taxpayers with nil liability will have to pay zero late fee for late filing of GSTR-3B for the same period.

The taxpayers having tax liability can file past returns between 1 July and 30 September, she said.

Moreover, small taxpayers with turnover upto Rs 5 crore will pay reduced rate of interest, of 9 percent from 18 percent, for returns filed for February-April 2020 post 6 July, if filed by 30 September.

Small businesses with the same turnover will also be provided a waiver of late fees and interest if they file form GSTR-3B for the supplies affected in months of May, June and July 2020, by September 2020. No late fee or interest will be charged till September, the finance minister said.

She also said that a special one-agenda meeting will take place in July to discuss compensation requirements of states.

""In July, which is on the request of all the ministers, there shall be a meeting to discuss exclusively one agenda point – compensation cess. The compensation which has to be given to the states, and if at all, it results in some kinds of borrowing, how and who is going to pay for it,"" [X] was quoted by ANI as saying.

[X]’s announcements comes amid the country reeling under severe economic stress due to the COVID-19 outbreak and the resulting lockdown.

Q. Which of the following statements is true?

Solution: Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax (or consumption tax) used in India on the supply of goods and services. It is a comprehensive, multistage, destination-based tax: comprehensive because it has subsumed almost all the indirect taxes except a few state taxes. Multi-staged as it is, the GST is imposed at every step in the production process, but is meant to be refunded to all parties in the various stages of production other than the final consumer and as a destination-based tax, it is collected from point of consumption and not point of origin like previous taxes.
QUESTION: 42

Finance Minister [X] on Friday, 12 June, announced that the maximum late fee for non-filing of monthly GST sales return for July 2017 to January 2020 has been capped at Rs 500, reported PTI.

Announcing the decisions taken after the 40th GST Council meeting, [X] also said those taxpayers with nil liability will have to pay zero late fee for late filing of GSTR-3B for the same period.

The taxpayers having tax liability can file past returns between 1 July and 30 September, she said.

Moreover, small taxpayers with turnover upto Rs 5 crore will pay reduced rate of interest, of 9 percent from 18 percent, for returns filed for February-April 2020 post 6 July, if filed by 30 September.

Small businesses with the same turnover will also be provided a waiver of late fees and interest if they file form GSTR-3B for the supplies affected in months of May, June and July 2020, by September 2020. No late fee or interest will be charged till September, the finance minister said.

She also said that a special one-agenda meeting will take place in July to discuss compensation requirements of states.

""In July, which is on the request of all the ministers, there shall be a meeting to discuss exclusively one agenda point – compensation cess. The compensation which has to be given to the states, and if at all, it results in some kinds of borrowing, how and who is going to pay for it,"" [X] was quoted by ANI as saying.

[X]’s announcements comes amid the country reeling under severe economic stress due to the COVID-19 outbreak and the resulting lockdown.

Q. What is the highest slab that is collected for GST?

Solution: That process is already on.” The GST system currently has four slabs — 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%. On top of the 28% slab, a cess is levied on automobiles, luxury, demerit and sin goods.
QUESTION: 43

Finance Minister [X] on Friday, 12 June, announced that the maximum late fee for non-filing of monthly GST sales return for July 2017 to January 2020 has been capped at Rs 500, reported PTI.

Announcing the decisions taken after the 40th GST Council meeting, [X] also said those taxpayers with nil liability will have to pay zero late fee for late filing of GSTR-3B for the same period.

The taxpayers having tax liability can file past returns between 1 July and 30 September, she said.

Moreover, small taxpayers with turnover upto Rs 5 crore will pay reduced rate of interest, of 9 percent from 18 percent, for returns filed for February-April 2020 post 6 July, if filed by 30 September.

Small businesses with the same turnover will also be provided a waiver of late fees and interest if they file form GSTR-3B for the supplies affected in months of May, June and July 2020, by September 2020. No late fee or interest will be charged till September, the finance minister said.

She also said that a special one-agenda meeting will take place in July to discuss compensation requirements of states.

""In July, which is on the request of all the ministers, there shall be a meeting to discuss exclusively one agenda point – compensation cess. The compensation which has to be given to the states, and if at all, it results in some kinds of borrowing, how and who is going to pay for it,"" [X] was quoted by ANI as saying.

[X]’s announcements comes amid the country reeling under severe economic stress due to the COVID-19 outbreak and the resulting lockdown.

Q. Who is the first chairperson of GST council?

Solution: The very first meeting of GST Council was placed on 22-23 September 2016 with the determination to roll out GST on 1 April 2017. The two-day meeting was accessed by 29 states and 2 union territories and headed by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley.
QUESTION: 44

"New Zealand voted to award Prime Minister [X] a second term in office on Saturday. Prime Minister [X]'s liberal Labour Party won a historic mandate by securing 49 per cent of the vote in comparison to the 27 per cent bagged by its primary challenger, the conservative National Party.

In fact, this is the first time since New Zealand implemented a proportional voting system 24 years ago that a single party (Labour) won an outright majority of seats in Parliament. [X] was voted to the top job in 2017 when her Labour Party entered into an alliance with two other parties.

This time around, the Labour Party will be able to comfortable form a government on its own, a first for the party in 50 years. Its ally Green Party won 7.5 per cent of the voters while the libertarian ACT Party managed to increase its vote share to 8 per cent this time around. At the same time, Deputy Prime Minister Winston Peters and his New Zealand First party was voted out.Addressing supporters in Auckland, Prime Minister [X] said in her victory speech, ""This has not been an ordinary election, and it's not an ordinary time. It's been full of uncertainty and anxiety, and we set out to be an antidote to that."""

Q. Who was elected as the Prime Minister of New Zealand in the recent elections? [X] as mentioned in the passage?

Solution: Jacinda Kate Laurell Ardern is a New Zealand politician who has been serving as the 40th prime minister of New Zealand and leader of the Labour Party since 2017. First elected to the House of Representatives as a list MP in 2008, she has been the member of Parliament for Mount Albert since March 2017. She was elected for a second term in 2020.
QUESTION: 45

"New Zealand voted to award Prime Minister [X] a second term in office on Saturday. Prime Minister [X]'s liberal Labour Party won a historic mandate by securing 49 per cent of the vote in comparison to the 27 per cent bagged by its primary challenger, the conservative National Party.

In fact, this is the first time since New Zealand implemented a proportional voting system 24 years ago that a single party (Labour) won an outright majority of seats in Parliament. [X] was voted to the top job in 2017 when her Labour Party entered into an alliance with two other parties.

This time around, the Labour Party will be able to comfortable form a government on its own, a first for the party in 50 years. Its ally Green Party won 7.5 per cent of the voters while the libertarian ACT Party managed to increase its vote share to 8 per cent this time around. At the same time, Deputy Prime Minister Winston Peters and his New Zealand First party was voted out.Addressing supporters in Auckland, Prime Minister [X] said in her victory speech, ""This has not been an ordinary election, and it's not an ordinary time. It's been full of uncertainty and anxiety, and we set out to be an antidote to that."""

Q. [X] has gained international recognition for her fight against which of the following?

Solution: For most of 2020, New Zealand was preoccupied with fighting Covid-19. Ms Ardern's success in uniting "the team of five million" - a reference to the population of the country - is a testament to her extraordinary abilities. the country closed its border very early and thus prevented community transmission of the virus and hasn't recorded a case of the virus infection in a long time.
QUESTION: 46

"New Zealand voted to award Prime Minister [X] a second term in office on Saturday. Prime Minister [X]'s liberal Labour Party won a historic mandate by securing 49 per cent of the vote in comparison to the 27 per cent bagged by its primary challenger, the conservative National Party.

In fact, this is the first time since New Zealand implemented a proportional voting system 24 years ago that a single party (Labour) won an outright majority of seats in Parliament. [X] was voted to the top job in 2017 when her Labour Party entered into an alliance with two other parties.

This time around, the Labour Party will be able to comfortable form a government on its own, a first for the party in 50 years. Its ally Green Party won 7.5 per cent of the voters while the libertarian ACT Party managed to increase its vote share to 8 per cent this time around. At the same time, Deputy Prime Minister Winston Peters and his New Zealand First party was voted out.Addressing supporters in Auckland, Prime Minister [X] said in her victory speech, ""This has not been an ordinary election, and it's not an ordinary time. It's been full of uncertainty and anxiety, and we set out to be an antidote to that."""

Q. The Country also had a referendum for which of the following?

Solution: The 2020 New Zealand cannabis referendum was a non-binding referendum held on 17 October 2020 in conjunction with the 2020 general election and a euthanasia referendum, on the question of whether to legalise the sale, use, possession and production of cannabis.
QUESTION: 47

"New Zealand voted to award Prime Minister [X] a second term in office on Saturday. Prime Minister [X]'s liberal Labour Party won a historic mandate by securing 49 per cent of the vote in comparison to the 27 per cent bagged by its primary challenger, the conservative National Party.

In fact, this is the first time since New Zealand implemented a proportional voting system 24 years ago that a single party (Labour) won an outright majority of seats in Parliament. [X] was voted to the top job in 2017 when her Labour Party entered into an alliance with two other parties.

This time around, the Labour Party will be able to comfortable form a government on its own, a first for the party in 50 years. Its ally Green Party won 7.5 per cent of the voters while the libertarian ACT Party managed to increase its vote share to 8 per cent this time around. At the same time, Deputy Prime Minister Winston Peters and his New Zealand First party was voted out.Addressing supporters in Auckland, Prime Minister [X] said in her victory speech, ""This has not been an ordinary election, and it's not an ordinary time. It's been full of uncertainty and anxiety, and we set out to be an antidote to that."""

Q. New Zealand is part of which continent?

Solution: Oceania is dominated by the nation of Australia. The other two major landmasses of Oceania are the microcontinent of Zealandia, which includes the country of New Zealand, and the eastern half of the island of New Guinea, made up of the nation of Papua New Guinea
QUESTION: 48

"New Zealand voted to award Prime Minister [X] a second term in office on Saturday. Prime Minister [X]'s liberal Labour Party won a historic mandate by securing 49 per cent of the vote in comparison to the 27 per cent bagged by its primary challenger, the conservative National Party.

In fact, this is the first time since New Zealand implemented a proportional voting system 24 years ago that a single party (Labour) won an outright majority of seats in Parliament. [X] was voted to the top job in 2017 when her Labour Party entered into an alliance with two other parties.

This time around, the Labour Party will be able to comfortable form a government on its own, a first for the party in 50 years. Its ally Green Party won 7.5 per cent of the voters while the libertarian ACT Party managed to increase its vote share to 8 per cent this time around. At the same time, Deputy Prime Minister Winston Peters and his New Zealand First party was voted out.Addressing supporters in Auckland, Prime Minister [X] said in her victory speech, ""This has not been an ordinary election, and it's not an ordinary time. It's been full of uncertainty and anxiety, and we set out to be an antidote to that."""

Q. Who has been elected as the first female Vice President of USA?

Solution: First time Senator Kamala Devi Harris has scripted history by becoming first woman, Black and Indian-American vice president of the United States. Harris was picked by Democratic presidential candidate Joe Biden as his running mate in August,
QUESTION: 49

India, Singapore and [X] recently concluded their trilateral naval exercise SITMEX-20. This is the second edition of SIMTEX. Hosted by the Republic of Singapore Navy from November 21-22, the exercise was held in the [Y]. This represents a growing number of naval engagements that India has been holding with various navies, including those in Southeast Asia. But it also indicates the growing willingness of regional navies to look to India as a maritime partner, as well as the increasing comfort level in coming together at the regional level rather than look to just the U.S. in dealing with a rising China. That these exercises were held in spite the challenges imposed by COVID-19 pandemic suggests the importance attached by the three navies to these exercises and also the seriousness of the threats they mutually face.

This particular trilateral exercise is relatively new. The first edition was held in the [Y] only last year, in September 2019. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi had announced the trilateral exercise at his keynote address at the 2018 Shangri La Dialogue in Singapore. At the inaugural edition of the exercise, the Indian Navy was represented by the guided missile destroyer INS Ranvir, missile corvette INS Kora, Offshore Patrol Vessel Sumedha and P8I long-range maritime reconnaissance aircraft.

The military exercises with Singapore and [X] also demonstrate the increasingly strategic nature of engagements that India has developed with the countries in Southeast Asia. From a “Look East” policy in the 1990s (which itself was not very successful) that focused on economic issues to an “Act East” policy initiated by Modi in 2014, bilateral relations in the region as well as the regional context have been transformative. Even though these exercises have been shortened on account of the pandemic, the fact that the navies of the three countries decided to go ahead with the exercise is a clear reflection of the similarity of views between India, Singapore and [X]. This could mean that the three navies may continue to strengthen these exercises in terms of scope of the maneuvers, expansion of the geographical areas of their exercise, and greater sophistication in terms of their overall objectives of SIMTEX.

Q. SITMEX-20 is a naval exercise carried out between three countries. what is the country [X]?

Solution: SITMEX-20 is a two days maritime drill between India-Singapore-Thailand that aims to strengthen relations amongst the three nations. From 21 to 22 November 2020, Indian Navy Ship s including indigenously built Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) corvette INS Kamorta and missile corvette INS Karmuk participated in the second edition of India, Singapore and Thailand Trilateral Maritime Exercise SITMEX-20.
QUESTION: 50

India, Singapore and [X] recently concluded their trilateral naval exercise SITMEX-20. This is the second edition of SITMEX. Hosted by the Republic of Singapore Navy from November 21-22, the exercise was held in the [Y]. This represents a growing number of naval engagements that India has been holding with various navies, including those in Southeast Asia. But it also indicates the growing willingness of regional navies to look to India as a maritime partner, as well as the increasing comfort level in coming together at the regional level rather than look to just the U.S. in dealing with a rising China. That these exercises were held in spite the challenges imposed by COVID-19 pandemic suggests the importance attached by the three navies to these exercises and also the seriousness of the threats they mutually face.

This particular trilateral exercise is relatively new. The first edition was held in the [Y] only last year, in September 2019. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi had announced the trilateral exercise at his keynote address at the 2018 Shangri La Dialogue in Singapore. At the inaugural edition of the exercise, the Indian Navy was represented by the guided missile destroyer INS Ranvir, missile corvette INS Kora, Offshore Patrol Vessel Sumedha and P8I long-range maritime reconnaissance aircraft.

The military exercises with Singapore and [X] also demonstrate the increasingly strategic nature of engagements that India has developed with the countries in Southeast Asia. From a “Look East” policy in the 1990s (which itself was not very successful) that focused on economic issues to an “Act East” policy initiated by Modi in 2014, bilateral relations in the region as well as the regional context have been transformative. Even though these exercises have been shortened on account of the pandemic, the fact that the navies of the three countries decided to go ahead with the exercise is a clear reflection of the similarity of views between India, Singapore and [X]. This could mean that the three navies may continue to strengthen these exercises in terms of scope of the maneuvers, expansion of the geographical areas of their exercise, and greater sophistication in terms of their overall objectives of SITMEX.

Q. The look east policy was launched by whom (the then Prime Minister of India)?

Solution: The Look East policy has emerged as an important foreign policy initiative of India in the post-Cold War period. It was launched in 1991 by the Narasimha Rao government with the aim of developing political contacts, increasing economic integration and forging security cooperation with countries of Southeast Asia.
QUESTION: 51

India, Singapore and [X] recently concluded their trilateral naval exercise SITMEX-20. This is the second edition of SIMTEX. Hosted by the Republic of Singapore Navy from November 21-22, the exercise was held in the [Y]. This represents a growing number of naval engagements that India has been holding with various navies, including those in Southeast Asia. But it also indicates the growing willingness of regional navies to look to India as a maritime partner, as well as the increasing comfort level in coming together at the regional level rather than look to just the U.S. in dealing with a rising China. That these exercises were held in spite the challenges imposed by COVID-19 pandemic suggests the importance attached by the three navies to these exercises and also the seriousness of the threats they mutually face.

This particular trilateral exercise is relatively new. The first edition was held in the [Y] only last year, in September 2019. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi had announced the trilateral exercise at his keynote address at the 2018 Shangri La Dialogue in Singapore. At the inaugural edition of the exercise, the Indian Navy was represented by the guided missile destroyer INS Ranvir, missile corvette INS Kora, Offshore Patrol Vessel Sumedha and P8I long-range maritime reconnaissance aircraft.

The military exercises with Singapore and [X] also demonstrate the increasingly strategic nature of engagements that India has developed with the countries in Southeast Asia. From a “Look East” policy in the 1990s (which itself was not very successful) that focused on economic issues to an “Act East” policy initiated by Modi in 2014, bilateral relations in the region as well as the regional context have been transformative. Even though these exercises have been shortened on account of the pandemic, the fact that the navies of the three countries decided to go ahead with the exercise is a clear reflection of the similarity of views between India, Singapore and [X]. This could mean that the three navies may continue to strengthen these exercises in terms of scope of the maneuvers, expansion of the geographical areas of their exercise, and greater sophistication in terms of their overall objectives of SIMTEX.

Q. Which of the following is not a difference between Look east and Act east policy?

Solution: India’s ‘Act East’ policy is a diplomatic initiative to promote economic, strategic and cultural relations with the vast Asia-Pacific region at different levels. The country’s eastward drive since 1992 has underscored the importance of this region in its contemporary international relations. ‘Act East’ and its early avatar, ‘Look East’ are not different; rather, they are two sides of the same coin, representing two different, but continuing phases in the evolution of India’s policy towards the Asia-Pacific region. the launch in 1992 of the Look East policy was India’s response to the new challenges it faced in the region after the collapse of the Cold War structures. Although India’s relations particularly with Southeast Asian countries were old and historical, this advantage was not considered in the calculation of India’s policies towards the region. The Look East policy was first intended as an economic strategy to boost India’s trade and investment relations with the Southeast Asian region. Over the years, it not only expanded its geographical reach to include Japan, South Korea and Australia, but has also assumed significant strategic and political dimensions. With Modi’s adoption of the Act East policy, the strategic factor has assumed greater salience. India has now forged strategic partnerships with Indonesia, Vietnam, Malaysia, Japan, South Korea and Australia. In addition, it has also established close links with countries of the BIMSTEC group of countries and the IOR.
QUESTION: 52

India, Singapore and [X] recently concluded their trilateral naval exercise SITMEX-20. This is the second edition of SIMTEX. Hosted by the Republic of Singapore Navy from November 21-22, the exercise was held in the [Y]. This represents a growing number of naval engagements that India has been holding with various navies, including those in Southeast Asia. But it also indicates the growing willingness of regional navies to look to India as a maritime partner, as well as the increasing comfort level in coming together at the regional level rather than look to just the U.S. in dealing with a rising China. That these exercises were held in spite the challenges imposed by COVID-19 pandemic suggests the importance attached by the three navies to these exercises and also the seriousness of the threats they mutually face.

This particular trilateral exercise is relatively new. The first edition was held in the [Y] only last year, in September 2019. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi had announced the trilateral exercise at his keynote address at the 2018 Shangri La Dialogue in Singapore. At the inaugural edition of the exercise, the Indian Navy was represented by the guided missile destroyer INS Ranvir, missile corvette INS Kora, Offshore Patrol Vessel Sumedha and P8I long-range maritime reconnaissance aircraft.

The military exercises with Singapore and [X] also demonstrate the increasingly strategic nature of engagements that India has developed with the countries in Southeast Asia. From a “Look East” policy in the 1990s (which itself was not very successful) that focused on economic issues to an “Act East” policy initiated by Modi in 2014, bilateral relations in the region as well as the regional context have been transformative. Even though these exercises have been shortened on account of the pandemic, the fact that the navies of the three countries decided to go ahead with the exercise is a clear reflection of the similarity of views between India, Singapore and [X]. This could mean that the three navies may continue to strengthen these exercises in terms of scope of the maneuvers, expansion of the geographical areas of their exercise, and greater sophistication in terms of their overall objectives of SIMTEX.

Q. Where was SITMEX-20 held?

Solution: The trilateral Naval exercise, SITMEX-20 between India, Singapore and Thailand was held in the Andaman sea. The SITMEX-20 Naval exercise was scheduled in a “non-contact at sea only format” due to covid-19 restrictions. The main objective of the exercise is to increase the interoperability between the three navies. The exercise will also enhance multifaceted Maritime operations.

Apart from SIMTEX, India and Singapore held SIMBEX-20 separately in the Andaman sea.

QUESTION: 53

India, Singapore and [X] recently concluded their trilateral naval exercise SITMEX-20. This is the second edition of SIMTEX. Hosted by the Republic of Singapore Navy from November 21-22, the exercise was held in the [Y]. This represents a growing number of naval engagements that India has been holding with various navies, including those in Southeast Asia. But it also indicates the growing willingness of regional navies to look to India as a maritime partner, as well as the increasing comfort level in coming together at the regional level rather than look to just the U.S. in dealing with a rising China. That these exercises were held in spite the challenges imposed by COVID-19 pandemic suggests the importance attached by the three navies to these exercises and also the seriousness of the threats they mutually face.

This particular trilateral exercise is relatively new. The first edition was held in the [Y] only last year, in September 2019. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi had announced the trilateral exercise at his keynote address at the 2018 Shangri La Dialogue in Singapore. At the inaugural edition of the exercise, the Indian Navy was represented by the guided missile destroyer INS Ranvir, missile corvette INS Kora, Offshore Patrol Vessel Sumedha and P8I long-range maritime reconnaissance aircraft.

The military exercises with Singapore and [X] also demonstrate the increasingly strategic nature of engagements that India has developed with the countries in Southeast Asia. From a “Look East” policy in the 1990s (which itself was not very successful) that focused on economic issues to an “Act East” policy initiated by Modi in 2014, bilateral relations in the region as well as the regional context have been transformative. Even though these exercises have been shortened on account of the pandemic, the fact that the navies of the three countries decided to go ahead with the exercise is a clear reflection of the similarity of views between India, Singapore and [X]. This could mean that the three navies may continue to strengthen these exercises in terms of scope of the maneuvers, expansion of the geographical areas of their exercise, and greater sophistication in terms of their overall objectives of SIMTEX.

Q. Desert Knight-21’is the Military exercise between India and which country?

Solution: The bilateral Air Exercise, ‘Desert Knight Exercise’ between Indian Air Force and French Air and Space Force is scheduled to be held this month.

To participate in the exercise, A-400M tactical aircraft from France arrived at Jodhpur. Indian Air Force’s Mirage 2000, Su-30 MKI, Rafale, and IL-78 Flight Refuelling Aircraft will feature in the exercise. The two countries have organised six editions of air exercises named Garuda.

QUESTION: 54

[X] bridge is to be the World's highest rail bridge. [X] bridge, the world’s tallest railway bridge over Chenab River in Kouri area, will achieve another ""engineering milestone"", Railways minister [Y] said on Twitter on Thursday.

Infrastructural Marvel in Making: Indian Railways is well on track to achieve another engineering milestone with the steel arch of [X] bridge reaching at closure position. It is all set to be the world's highest Railway bridge,"" [Y] tweeted sharing the important development.

According to Railways officials, the [X] bridge is being constructed 359 metres above [X]'s river bed and will be 35 metres taller than the [Z] (which has a height of 324 metre).

According to Deepak Kumar, Chief Public Relations Officer, Northern Railway, the arch closure will be complete by March 2021. ""[X] bridge is expected to be complete by year end,"" Deepak Kumar said. The railway bridge is being built to cross the deep gorge, and the main arch has a span length of 467 metres, which Indian Railways claims is the largest in the country. Once the arch is complete, viaduct and track laying work will start, learns TOI.

Q. Name the bridge [X], which has been redacted from the passage.

Solution: Chenab Bridge is to be the highest railways bridge in the world.
QUESTION: 55

[X] bridge is to be the World's highest rail bridge. [X] bridge, the world’s tallest railway bridge over Chenab River in Kouri area, will achieve another ""engineering milestone"", Railways minister [Y] said on Twitter on Thursday.

Infrastructural Marvel in Making: Indian Railways is well on track to achieve another engineering milestone with the steel arch of [X] bridge reaching at closure position. It is all set to be the world's highest Railway bridge,"" [Y] tweeted sharing the important development.

According to Railways officials, the [X] bridge is being constructed 359 metres above [X]'s river bed and will be 35 metres taller than the [Z] (which has a height of 324 metre).

According to Deepak Kumar, Chief Public Relations Officer, Northern Railway, the arch closure will be complete by March 2021. ""[X] bridge is expected to be complete by year end,"" Deepak Kumar said. The railway bridge is being built to cross the deep gorge, and the main arch has a span length of 467 metres, which Indian Railways claims is the largest in the country. Once the arch is complete, viaduct and track laying work will start, learns TOI.

Q. Who is the current Railway Minister, [Y]?

Solution: Piyush Goyal is the current Railway Minister
QUESTION: 56

[X] bridge is to be the World's highest rail bridge. [X] bridge, the world’s tallest railway bridge over Chenab River in Kouri area, will achieve another ""engineering milestone"", Railways minister [Y] said on Twitter on Thursday.

Infrastructural Marvel in Making: Indian Railways is well on track to achieve another engineering milestone with the steel arch of [X] bridge reaching at closure position. It is all set to be the world's highest Railway bridge,"" [Y] tweeted sharing the important development.

According to Railways officials, the [X] bridge is being constructed 359 metres above [X]'s river bed and will be 35 metres taller than the [Z] (which has a height of 324 metre).

According to Deepak Kumar, Chief Public Relations Officer, Northern Railway, the arch closure will be complete by March 2021. ""[X] bridge is expected to be complete by year end,"" Deepak Kumar said. The railway bridge is being built to cross the deep gorge, and the main arch has a span length of 467 metres, which Indian Railways claims is the largest in the country. Once the arch is complete, viaduct and track laying work will start, learns TOI.

Q. Which monument [Z] has been redacted from the passage?

Solution: The bridge is taller than the Eiffel Tower.
QUESTION: 57

[X] bridge is to be the World's highest rail bridge. [X] bridge, the world’s tallest railway bridge over Chenab River in Kouri area, will achieve another ""engineering milestone"", Railways minister [Y] said on Twitter on Thursday.

Infrastructural Marvel in Making: Indian Railways is well on track to achieve another engineering milestone with the steel arch of [X] bridge reaching at closure position. It is all set to be the world's highest Railway bridge,"" [Y] tweeted sharing the important development.

According to Railways officials, the [X] bridge is being constructed 359 metres above [X]'s river bed and will be 35 metres taller than the [Z] (which has a height of 324 metre).

According to Deepak Kumar, Chief Public Relations Officer, Northern Railway, the arch closure will be complete by March 2021. ""[X] bridge is expected to be complete by year end,"" Deepak Kumar said. The railway bridge is being built to cross the deep gorge, and the main arch has a span length of 467 metres, which Indian Railways claims is the largest in the country. Once the arch is complete, viaduct and track laying work will start, learns TOI.

Q. Who is the CEO of the Railway Board?

Solution: Suneet Sharma is the CEO of the Railway Board.
QUESTION: 58

[X] bridge is to be the World's highest rail bridge. [X] bridge, the world’s tallest railway bridge over Chenab River in Kouri area, will achieve another ""engineering milestone"", Railways minister [Y] said on Twitter on Thursday.

Infrastructural Marvel in Making: Indian Railways is well on track to achieve another engineering milestone with the steel arch of [X] bridge reaching at closure position. It is all set to be the world's highest Railway bridge,"" [Y] tweeted sharing the important development.

According to Railways officials, the [X] bridge is being constructed 359 metres above [X]'s river bed and will be 35 metres taller than the [Z] (which has a height of 324 metre).

According to Deepak Kumar, Chief Public Relations Officer, Northern Railway, the arch closure will be complete by March 2021. ""[X] bridge is expected to be complete by year end,"" Deepak Kumar said. The railway bridge is being built to cross the deep gorge, and the main arch has a span length of 467 metres, which Indian Railways claims is the largest in the country. Once the arch is complete, viaduct and track laying work will start, learns TOI.

Q. In other news, India Railways' North East Frontier zone is constructing the world's taller pier bridge over which river?

Solution: In other news, India Railways' North East Frontier zone is constructing the world's taller pier bridge over Ijai River
QUESTION: 59

(A) unveiled a 48.5 trillion won (\$43.2 billion) plan to build the world’s largest wind power plant by 2030 as part of efforts to foster an environmentally-friendly recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic.The project is a major component of President Moon Jae-in’s Green New Deal, initiated last year to curb reliance on fossil fuels in Asia’s (B)th-largest economy and make it carbon neutral by 2050.

Moon attended a signing ceremony in the southwestern coastal town of Sinan for the plant, which will have a maximum capacity of 8.2 gigawatts.

“With this project, we are accelerating the eco-friendly energy transition and moving more vigorously toward carbon neutrality,” Moon said at the event.Utility and engineering companies also attended, including Korea Electric Power Corp, SK E&S, Hanwha Engineering & Construction Corp, Doosan Heavy Industries & Construction Co., CS Wind Corp and Samkang M&T Co.

The companies will provide 47.6 trillion of the required funding and the government the remaining 0.9 trillion, Moon’s office Blue House said.

It said the project would provide up to 5,600 jobs and help achieve a goal to boost the country’s wind power capacity to 16.5 GW by 2030 from 1.67 GW now.The envisaged 8.2 GW amounts to the energy produced by (C) nuclear reactors, or the effects of planting 71 million pine trees, officials said. To date, the world’s largest offshore wind farm is Hornsea 1 in Britain, which has 1.12 GW capacity.

Q. Which country is going to build world's largest wind power?

Solution: South Korea unveiled a 48.5 trillion won (\$43.2 billion) plan to build the world’s largest wind power plant by 2030 as part of efforts to foster an environmentally-friendly recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic.
QUESTION: 60

(A) unveiled a 48.5 trillion won (\$43.2 billion) plan to build the world’s largest wind power plant by 2030 as part of efforts to foster an environmentally-friendly recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic.The project is a major component of President Moon Jae-in’s Green New Deal, initiated last year to curb reliance on fossil fuels in Asia’s (B)th-largest economy and make it carbon neutral by 2050.

Moon attended a signing ceremony in the southwestern coastal town of Sinan for the plant, which will have a maximum capacity of 8.2 gigawatts.

“With this project, we are accelerating the eco-friendly energy transition and moving more vigorously toward carbon neutrality,” Moon said at the event.Utility and engineering companies also attended, including Korea Electric Power Corp, SK E&S, Hanwha Engineering & Construction Corp, Doosan Heavy Industries & Construction Co., CS Wind Corp and Samkang M&T Co.

The companies will provide 47.6 trillion of the required funding and the government the remaining 0.9 trillion, Moon’s office Blue House said.

It said the project would provide up to 5,600 jobs and help achieve a goal to boost the country’s wind power capacity to 16.5 GW by 2030 from 1.67 GW now.The envisaged 8.2 GW amounts to the energy produced by (C) nuclear reactors, or the effects of planting 71 million pine trees, officials said. To date, the world’s largest offshore wind farm is Hornsea 1 in Britain, which has 1.12 GW capacity.

Q. The world’s largest offshore wind farm is located in which country at present?

Solution: To date, the world's largest offshore wind farm is Hornsea 1 in Britain, which has 1.12 GW capacity.
QUESTION: 61

(A) unveiled a 48.5 trillion won (\$43.2 billion) plan to build the world’s largest wind power plant by 2030 as part of efforts to foster an environmentally-friendly recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic.The project is a major component of President Moon Jae-in’s Green New Deal, initiated last year to curb reliance on fossil fuels in Asia’s (B)th-largest economy and make it carbon neutral by 2050.

Moon attended a signing ceremony in the southwestern coastal town of Sinan for the plant, which will have a maximum capacity of 8.2 gigawatts.

“With this project, we are accelerating the eco-friendly energy transition and moving more vigorously toward carbon neutrality,” Moon said at the event.Utility and engineering companies also attended, including Korea Electric Power Corp, SK E&S, Hanwha Engineering & Construction Corp, Doosan Heavy Industries & Construction Co., CS Wind Corp and Samkang M&T Co.

The companies will provide 47.6 trillion of the required funding and the government the remaining 0.9 trillion, Moon’s office Blue House said.

It said the project would provide up to 5,600 jobs and help achieve a goal to boost the country’s wind power capacity to 16.5 GW by 2030 from 1.67 GW now.The envisaged 8.2 GW amounts to the energy produced by (C) nuclear reactors, or the effects of planting 71 million pine trees, officials said. To date, the world’s largest offshore wind farm is Hornsea 1 in Britain, which has 1.12 GW capacity.

Q. Which country is considered to be the Asia's largest Economy?

Solution: The largest economies in Asia in terms of PPP gross domestic product (GDP) are China, India, Japan, Indonesia, Turkey, South Korea, Saudi Arabia, Iran, Thailand and Taiwan and in terms of nominal gross domestic product (GDP) are China, Japan, India, South Korea, Indonesia, Saudi Arabia, Turkey, Taiwan, Thailand.
QUESTION: 62

(A) unveiled a 48.5 trillion won (\$43.2 billion) plan to build the world’s largest wind power plant by 2030 as part of efforts to foster an environmentally-friendly recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic.The project is a major component of President Moon Jae-in’s Green New Deal, initiated last year to curb reliance on fossil fuels in Asia’s (B)th-largest economy and make it carbon neutral by 2050.

Moon attended a signing ceremony in the southwestern coastal town of Sinan for the plant, which will have a maximum capacity of 8.2 gigawatts.

“With this project, we are accelerating the eco-friendly energy transition and moving more vigorously toward carbon neutrality,” Moon said at the event.Utility and engineering companies also attended, including Korea Electric Power Corp, SK E&S, Hanwha Engineering & Construction Corp, Doosan Heavy Industries & Construction Co., CS Wind Corp and Samkang M&T Co.

The companies will provide 47.6 trillion of the required funding and the government the remaining 0.9 trillion, Moon’s office Blue House said.

It said the project would provide up to 5,600 jobs and help achieve a goal to boost the country’s wind power capacity to 16.5 GW by 2030 from 1.67 GW now.The envisaged 8.2 GW amounts to the energy produced by (C) nuclear reactors, or the effects of planting 71 million pine trees, officials said. To date, the world’s largest offshore wind farm is Hornsea 1 in Britain, which has 1.12 GW capacity.

Q. Find The Odd one according to passage?

Solution: With this project, we are accelerating the eco-friendly energy transition and moving more vigorously toward carbon neutrality,” Moon said at the event.Utility and engineering companies also attended, including Korea Electric Power Corp, SK E&S, Hanwha Engineering & Construction Corp, Doosan Heavy Industries & Construction Co., CS Wind Corp and Samkang M&T Co.

The companies will provide 47.6 trillion of the required funding and the government the remaining 0.9 trillion, Moon’s office Blue House said.

QUESTION: 63

(A) unveiled a 48.5 trillion won (\$43.2 billion) plan to build the world’s largest wind power plant by 2030 as part of efforts to foster an environmentally-friendly recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic.The project is a major component of President Moon Jae-in’s Green New Deal, initiated last year to curb reliance on fossil fuels in Asia’s (B)th-largest economy and make it carbon neutral by 2050.

Moon attended a signing ceremony in the southwestern coastal town of Sinan for the plant, which will have a maximum capacity of 8.2 gigawatts.

“With this project, we are accelerating the eco-friendly energy transition and moving more vigorously toward carbon neutrality,” Moon said at the event.Utility and engineering companies also attended, including Korea Electric Power Corp, SK E&S, Hanwha Engineering & Construction Corp, Doosan Heavy Industries & Construction Co., CS Wind Corp and Samkang M&T Co.

The companies will provide 47.6 trillion of the required funding and the government the remaining 0.9 trillion, Moon’s office Blue House said.

It said the project would provide up to 5,600 jobs and help achieve a goal to boost the country’s wind power capacity to 16.5 GW by 2030 from 1.67 GW now.The envisaged 8.2 GW amounts to the energy produced by (C) nuclear reactors, or the effects of planting 71 million pine trees, officials said. To date, the world’s largest offshore wind farm is Hornsea 1 in Britain, which has 1.12 GW capacity.

Q. How many nuclear reactors are required to produce the same energy produced by the (A)'s wind power plant?

Solution: The envisaged 8.2 GW amounts to the energy produced by six nuclear reactors, or the effects of planting 71 million pine trees, officials said.
QUESTION: 64

(A) unveiled a 48.5 trillion won (\$43.2 billion) plan to build the world’s largest wind power plant by 2030 as part of efforts to foster an environmentally-friendly recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic.The project is a major component of President Moon Jae-in’s Green New Deal, initiated last year to curb reliance on fossil fuels in Asia’s (B)th-largest economy and make it carbon neutral by 2050.

Moon attended a signing ceremony in the southwestern coastal town of Sinan for the plant, which will have a maximum capacity of 8.2 gigawatts.

“With this project, we are accelerating the eco-friendly energy transition and moving more vigorously toward carbon neutrality,” Moon said at the event.Utility and engineering companies also attended, including Korea Electric Power Corp, SK E&S, Hanwha Engineering & Construction Corp, Doosan Heavy Industries & Construction Co., CS Wind Corp and Samkang M&T Co.

The companies will provide 47.6 trillion of the required funding and the government the remaining 0.9 trillion, Moon’s office Blue House said.

It said the project would provide up to 5,600 jobs and help achieve a goal to boost the country’s wind power capacity to 16.5 GW by 2030 from 1.67 GW now.The envisaged 8.2 GW amounts to the energy produced by (C) nuclear reactors, or the effects of planting 71 million pine trees, officials said. To date, the world’s largest offshore wind farm is Hornsea 1 in Britain, which has 1.12 GW capacity.

Q. PM Modi recently praised nuclear scientists for achieving criticality at the Kakrapar Atomic Power Plant-3. The power plant is located in which state?

Solution: Prime Minister Narendra Modi on July 22, 2020 congratulated the nuclear scientists as Gujarat's Kakrapar atomic power plant-3 achieved criticality. The Prime Minister highlighted that the indigenous 700 MWe KAPP-3 reactor will be a shining example of the 'Make in India' campaign.
QUESTION: 65

(A) last year overtook the United States as the EU's biggest trading partner, the EU statistics agency Eurostat said on Monday. According to news agency AFP, (B)which is no longer part of the European Union, was the third-largest trading partner for the bloc, behind (A) and the United States, the agency said. The supremacy of (A) came after it suffered from the coronavirus pandemic during the first quarter but recovered vigorously with consumption even exceeding its level of a year ago at the end of 2020, AFP said.

This helped drive sales of European products, particularly in the automobile and luxury goods sectors, while (A)'s exports to Europe benefited from strong demand for medical equipment and electronics. The dethroning of the US comes as the EU and (A) are seeking to ratify a long-negotiated investment deal that would give European companies better access to the Chinese market. Eurostat said the trade volume with (A) reached 586 billion euros (\$711 billion) in 2020, compared to 555 billion euros (\$673 billion) for the US, the news agency said.

The agency said EU exports rose by 2.2 percent to 202.5 billion euros while at the same time, imports from the People's Republic of (A) increased by 5.6 percent to 383.5 billion euros. EU exports to the United States fell by 13.2 per cent in the same period and imports by 8.2 percent. In addition to the Covid-19 crisis, transatlantic trade has been impaired by a series of tit-for-tat feuds that have resulted with tariffs being on steel and products such as French champagne or Harley-Davidson motorcycles. Eurostat said trade with the UK plummeted in 2020, the year Britain officially left the bloc, though it was in a transition period to blunt the effects of Brexit until December 31. EU exports to the UK fell by 13.2 percent, while imports from across the channel dropped by 13.9 per cent, Eurostat said.

Q. Which of the following country overtook the United States as the EU's biggest trading partner?

Solution: The People’s Republic of China has overtaken the United States (US) as the biggest trading partner of the European Union (EU) in 2020, according to the data by the European Union statistics agency, Eurostat. Britain, which left the European Union in 2020, was the third-largest trading partner for the bloc, behind China and the United States.
QUESTION: 66

(A) last year overtook the United States as the EU's biggest trading partner, the EU statistics agency Eurostat said on Monday. According to news agency AFP, (B)which is no longer part of the European Union, was the third-largest trading partner for the bloc, behind (A) and the United States, the agency said. The supremacy of (A) came after it suffered from the coronavirus pandemic during the first quarter but recovered vigorously with consumption even exceeding its level of a year ago at the end of 2020, AFP said.

This helped drive sales of European products, particularly in the automobile and luxury goods sectors, while (A)'s exports to Europe benefited from strong demand for medical equipment and electronics. The dethroning of the US comes as the EU and (A) are seeking to ratify a long-negotiated investment deal that would give European companies better access to the Chinese market. Eurostat said the trade volume with (A) reached 586 billion euros (\$711 billion) in 2020, compared to 555 billion euros (\$673 billion) for the US, the news agency said.

The agency said EU exports rose by 2.2 percent to 202.5 billion euros while at the same time, imports from the People's Republic of (A) increased by 5.6 percent to 383.5 billion euros. EU exports to the United States fell by 13.2 per cent in the same period and imports by 8.2 percent. In addition to the Covid-19 crisis, transatlantic trade has been impaired by a series of tit-for-tat feuds that have resulted with tariffs being on steel and products such as French champagne or Harley-Davidson motorcycles. Eurostat said trade with the UK plummeted in 2020, the year Britain officially left the bloc, though it was in a transition period to blunt the effects of Brexit until December 31. EU exports to the UK fell by 13.2 percent, while imports from across the channel dropped by 13.9 per cent, Eurostat said.

Q. Which country is the third largest trading partner with EU?

Solution: The People’s Republic of China has overtaken the United States (US) as the biggest trading partner of the European Union (EU) in 2020, according to the data by the European Union statistics agency, Eurostat. Britain, which left the European Union in 2020, was the third-largest trading partner for the bloc, behind China and the United States.
QUESTION: 67

(A) last year overtook the United States as the EU's biggest trading partner, the EU statistics agency Eurostat said on Monday. According to news agency AFP, (B)which is no longer part of the European Union, was the third-largest trading partner for the bloc, behind (A) and the United States, the agency said. The supremacy of (A) came after it suffered from the coronavirus pandemic during the first quarter but recovered vigorously with consumption even exceeding its level of a year ago at the end of 2020, AFP said.

This helped drive sales of European products, particularly in the automobile and luxury goods sectors, while (A)'s exports to Europe benefited from strong demand for medical equipment and electronics. The dethroning of the US comes as the EU and (A) are seeking to ratify a long-negotiated investment deal that would give European companies better access to the Chinese market. Eurostat said the trade volume with (A) reached 586 billion euros (\$711 billion) in 2020, compared to 555 billion euros (\$673 billion) for the US, the news agency said.

The agency said EU exports rose by 2.2 percent to 202.5 billion euros while at the same time, imports from the People's Republic of (A) increased by 5.6 percent to 383.5 billion euros. EU exports to the United States fell by 13.2 per cent in the same period and imports by 8.2 percent. In addition to the Covid-19 crisis, transatlantic trade has been impaired by a series of tit-for-tat feuds that have resulted with tariffs being on steel and products such as French champagne or Harley-Davidson motorcycles. Eurostat said trade with the UK plummeted in 2020, the year Britain officially left the bloc, though it was in a transition period to blunt the effects of Brexit until December 31. EU exports to the UK fell by 13.2 percent, while imports from across the channel dropped by 13.9 per cent, Eurostat said.

Q. Find the odd one?

Solution: The United Kingdom (UK) is made up of England, Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland. Norway does not include in UK.
QUESTION: 68

(A) last year overtook the United States as the EU's biggest trading partner, the EU statistics agency Eurostat said on Monday. According to news agency AFP, (B)which is no longer part of the European Union, was the third-largest trading partner for the bloc, behind (A) and the United States, the agency said. The supremacy of (A) came after it suffered from the coronavirus pandemic during the first quarter but recovered vigorously with consumption even exceeding its level of a year ago at the end of 2020, AFP said.

This helped drive sales of European products, particularly in the automobile and luxury goods sectors, while (A)'s exports to Europe benefited from strong demand for medical equipment and electronics. The dethroning of the US comes as the EU and (A) are seeking to ratify a long-negotiated investment deal that would give European companies better access to the Chinese market. Eurostat said the trade volume with (A) reached 586 billion euros (\$711 billion) in 2020, compared to 555 billion euros (\$673 billion) for the US, the news agency said.

The agency said EU exports rose by 2.2 percent to 202.5 billion euros while at the same time, imports from the People's Republic of (A) increased by 5.6 percent to 383.5 billion euros. EU exports to the United States fell by 13.2 per cent in the same period and imports by 8.2 percent. In addition to the Covid-19 crisis, transatlantic trade has been impaired by a series of tit-for-tat feuds that have resulted with tariffs being on steel and products such as French champagne or Harley-Davidson motorcycles. Eurostat said trade with the UK plummeted in 2020, the year Britain officially left the bloc, though it was in a transition period to blunt the effects of Brexit until December 31. EU exports to the UK fell by 13.2 percent, while imports from across the channel dropped by 13.9 per cent, Eurostat said.

Q. Abbreviate AFP?

Solution: Agence France-Presse (AFP) is the world's oldest news agency and one of the world's top three, behind the United Kingdom's Reuters and The Associated Press of the United States. Unlike its publicly traded rivals, AFP remains largely controlled by the French government, along with a number of its top media clients.
QUESTION: 69

(A) last year overtook the United States as the EU's biggest trading partner, the EU statistics agency Eurostat said on Monday. According to news agency AFP, (B)which is no longer part of the European Union, was the third-largest trading partner for the bloc, behind (A) and the United States, the agency said. The supremacy of (A) came after it suffered from the coronavirus pandemic during the first quarter but recovered vigorously with consumption even exceeding its level of a year ago at the end of 2020, AFP said.

This helped drive sales of European products, particularly in the automobile and luxury goods sectors, while (A)'s exports to Europe benefited from strong demand for medical equipment and electronics. The dethroning of the US comes as the EU and (A) are seeking to ratify a long-negotiated investment deal that would give European companies better access to the Chinese market. Eurostat said the trade volume with (A) reached 586 billion euros (\$711 billion) in 2020, compared to 555 billion euros (\$673 billion) for the US, the news agency said.

The agency said EU exports rose by 2.2 percent to 202.5 billion euros while at the same time, imports from the People's Republic of (A) increased by 5.6 percent to 383.5 billion euros. EU exports to the United States fell by 13.2 per cent in the same period and imports by 8.2 percent. In addition to the Covid-19 crisis, transatlantic trade has been impaired by a series of tit-for-tat feuds that have resulted with tariffs being on steel and products such as French champagne or Harley-Davidson motorcycles. Eurostat said trade with the UK plummeted in 2020, the year Britain officially left the bloc, though it was in a transition period to blunt the effects of Brexit until December 31. EU exports to the UK fell by 13.2 percent, while imports from across the channel dropped by 13.9 per cent, Eurostat said.

Q. Transatlantic trade has been impaired by a series of tit-for-tat feuds that have resulted with tariffs being on steel and products such as French champagne or Harley-Davidson motorcycles. tit-for-tat feuds were between which countries?

Solution: US President Donald Trump today threatened to impose ""reciprocal tax"" on countries like China and India if they do not match America's tariff.

Mr Trump has, in recent days, spoken a number of times about the 50 per cent duty that India levies on high-end motorbikes that Harley-Davidson, an American company, sells in India. He has repeatedly insisted that the US levies ""zero"" duty or ""nothing"" on motorbikes imported from India.

QUESTION: 70

(A) last year overtook the United States as the EU's biggest trading partner, the EU statistics agency Eurostat said on Monday. According to news agency AFP, (B)which is no longer part of the European Union, was the third-largest trading partner for the bloc, behind (A) and the United States, the agency said. The supremacy of (A) came after it suffered from the coronavirus pandemic during the first quarter but recovered vigorously with consumption even exceeding its level of a year ago at the end of 2020, AFP said.

This helped drive sales of European products, particularly in the automobile and luxury goods sectors, while (A)'s exports to Europe benefited from strong demand for medical equipment and electronics. The dethroning of the US comes as the EU and (A) are seeking to ratify a long-negotiated investment deal that would give European companies better access to the Chinese market. Eurostat said the trade volume with (A) reached 586 billion euros (\$711 billion) in 2020, compared to 555 billion euros (\$673 billion) for the US, the news agency said.

The agency said EU exports rose by 2.2 percent to 202.5 billion euros while at the same time, imports from the People's Republic of (A) increased by 5.6 percent to 383.5 billion euros. EU exports to the United States fell by 13.2 per cent in the same period and imports by 8.2 percent. In addition to the Covid-19 crisis, transatlantic trade has been impaired by a series of tit-for-tat feuds that have resulted with tariffs being on steel and products such as French champagne or Harley-Davidson motorcycles. Eurostat said trade with the UK plummeted in 2020, the year Britain officially left the bloc, though it was in a transition period to blunt the effects of Brexit until December 31. EU exports to the UK fell by 13.2 percent, while imports from across the channel dropped by 13.9 per cent, Eurostat said.

Q. India along with which organization adopted joint declaration on resource efficiency and circular economy?

Solution: India & European Union (EU) adopted a Joint Declaration on Resource Efficiency and Circular Economy and welcomed the upcoming renewal of the EU-India Science and Technology Agreement for another five years. They agreed to reconvene for the 16th India-EU Summit in 2021.
QUESTION: 71

Fake news, misinformation, false news are terms that are now being used interchangeably. This does not overshadow the menace and public hazard that fake news has become over social media. World Economic Forum has rated the spread of false information online as one of the ten biggest global problems in 2013. The consequences of fake news are not one but many. This article, has delved into analyzing electoral laws and psychological concepts behind the fake news. The first concept is “motivated reasoning,” the ideas that we readily believe because they match our views and beliefs. Once a stance is chosen by a person, the brain then constantly keeps filtrating information until he finds one that confirms his beliefs while rejecting the opposing views. This process is known as confirmation bias. Along with individual preference, social media platforms employ algorithms that reinforce these “filter bubbles” by curating information based on previous searches and likes. This one-sidedness of information hampers citizens’ critical thinking, which is essential to the functioning of democracy. No Indian statute or regulatory guideline has defined what is news or has laid down criteria for defining fake news. Any amendment in the existing legal framework should begin with defining this term. Learning from the experience of other countries, any regulation that defines fake news as simply consisting of falsehood may lead to an ambiguous and overbroad definition. This has been witnessed in the case of Malaysia’s Anti-Fake News Act, 2018. However, a bill to repeal this act has been passed. Such a definition would fail in a democratic country like India, where the citizens are guaranteed freedom of speech under the Indian Constitution. Furthermore, it will give the government an unfettered power to take down any content that it feels uncomfortable with. Another example is that of law in France that lays down three criteria to evaluate a piece of information as fake news. Firstly, the fake news must be manifest. Secondly, there should be a deliberate attempt towards the dissemination of such news on a large scale. Thirdly, it should lead to a disturbance of the peace or compromise the outcome of an election. While the last two criteria could seem to fit in the Indian regime, the first one brings in ambiguity. In order to bring clarity at the most fundamental level, policymakers must distinguish between harmless propaganda and verifiable misinformation that can cause imminent social harm or damage to the reputation of an individual. This line is not easy to draw as the term fake news in itself is an amorphous category, including misleading and false news. The evaluation may involve mere shoddy journalism from deliberate attempts to spread misinformation. After the policymakers make these necessary distinctions, according to the author, a potential definition that could fit in the Indian scenario could be “Any misinformation or disinformation deliberately disseminated on a large scale that has the potential to threaten the life or national security or an election outcome.”

Q. According to the World Economic Forum online fake information has been ranked at what number in list of global problems in the year 2013?

Solution:
QUESTION: 72

Fake news, misinformation, false news are terms that are now being used interchangeably. This does not overshadow the menace and public hazard that fake news has become over social media. World Economic Forum has rated the spread of false information online as one of the ten biggest global problems in 2013. The consequences of fake news are not one but many. This article, has delved into analyzing electoral laws and psychological concepts behind the fake news. The first concept is “motivated reasoning,” the ideas that we readily believe because they match our views and beliefs. Once a stance is chosen by a person, the brain then constantly keeps filtrating information until he finds one that confirms his beliefs while rejecting the opposing views. This process is known as confirmation bias. Along with individual preference, social media platforms employ algorithms that reinforce these “filter bubbles” by curating information based on previous searches and likes. This one-sidedness of information hampers citizens’ critical thinking, which is essential to the functioning of democracy. No Indian statute or regulatory guideline has defined what is news or has laid down criteria for defining fake news. Any amendment in the existing legal framework should begin with defining this term. Learning from the experience of other countries, any regulation that defines fake news as simply consisting of falsehood may lead to an ambiguous and overbroad definition. This has been witnessed in the case of Malaysia’s Anti-Fake News Act, 2018. However, a bill to repeal this act has been passed. Such a definition would fail in a democratic country like India, where the citizens are guaranteed freedom of speech under the Indian Constitution. Furthermore, it will give the government an unfettered power to take down any content that it feels uncomfortable with. Another example is that of law in France that lays down three criteria to evaluate a piece of information as fake news. Firstly, the fake news must be manifest. Secondly, there should be a deliberate attempt towards the dissemination of such news on a large scale. Thirdly, it should lead to a disturbance of the peace or compromise the outcome of an election. While the last two criteria could seem to fit in the Indian regime, the first one brings in ambiguity. In order to bring clarity at the most fundamental level, policymakers must distinguish between harmless propaganda and verifiable misinformation that can cause imminent social harm or damage to the reputation of an individual. This line is not easy to draw as the term fake news in itself is an amorphous category, including misleading and false news. The evaluation may involve mere shoddy journalism from deliberate attempts to spread misinformation. After the policymakers make these necessary distinctions, according to the author, a potential definition that could fit in the Indian scenario could be “Any misinformation or disinformation deliberately disseminated on a large scale that has the potential to threaten the life or national security or an election outcome.”

Q. Which of the following is not example of confirmation bias?

Solution: In A, B and C the people have a preconceived notion about something and filter out information according to their preconceived notion. However, in option D facts and experiments are used to arrive at a conclusion and there is no preconceived notion.
QUESTION: 73

Fake news, misinformation, false news are terms that are now being used interchangeably. This does not overshadow the menace and public hazard that fake news has become over social media. World Economic Forum has rated the spread of false information online as one of the ten biggest global problems in 2013. The consequences of fake news are not one but many. This article, has delved into analyzing electoral laws and psychological concepts behind the fake news. The first concept is “motivated reasoning,” the ideas that we readily believe because they match our views and beliefs. Once a stance is chosen by a person, the brain then constantly keeps filtrating information until he finds one that confirms his beliefs while rejecting the opposing views. This process is known as confirmation bias. Along with individual preference, social media platforms employ algorithms that reinforce these “filter bubbles” by curating information based on previous searches and likes. This one-sidedness of information hampers citizens’ critical thinking, which is essential to the functioning of democracy. No Indian statute or regulatory guideline has defined what is news or has laid down criteria for defining fake news. Any amendment in the existing legal framework should begin with defining this term. Learning from the experience of other countries, any regulation that defines fake news as simply consisting of falsehood may lead to an ambiguous and overbroad definition. This has been witnessed in the case of Malaysia’s Anti-Fake News Act, 2018. However, a bill to repeal this act has been passed. Such a definition would fail in a democratic country like India, where the citizens are guaranteed freedom of speech under the Indian Constitution. Furthermore, it will give the government an unfettered power to take down any content that it feels uncomfortable with. Another example is that of law in France that lays down three criteria to evaluate a piece of information as fake news. Firstly, the fake news must be manifest. Secondly, there should be a deliberate attempt towards the dissemination of such news on a large scale. Thirdly, it should lead to a disturbance of the peace or compromise the outcome of an election. While the last two criteria could seem to fit in the Indian regime, the first one brings in ambiguity. In order to bring clarity at the most fundamental level, policymakers must distinguish between harmless propaganda and verifiable misinformation that can cause imminent social harm or damage to the reputation of an individual. This line is not easy to draw as the term fake news in itself is an amorphous category, including misleading and false news. The evaluation may involve mere shoddy journalism from deliberate attempts to spread misinformation. After the policymakers make these necessary distinctions, according to the author, a potential definition that could fit in the Indian scenario could be “Any misinformation or disinformation deliberately disseminated on a large scale that has the potential to threaten the life or national security or an election outcome.”

Q. India can borrow the definition of fake law from which of the following countries?

Solution:
QUESTION: 74

Fake news, misinformation, false news are terms that are now being used interchangeably. This does not overshadow the menace and public hazard that fake news has become over social media. World Economic Forum has rated the spread of false information online as one of the ten biggest global problems in 2013. The consequences of fake news are not one but many. This article, has delved into analyzing electoral laws and psychological concepts behind the fake news. The first concept is “motivated reasoning,” the ideas that we readily believe because they match our views and beliefs. Once a stance is chosen by a person, the brain then constantly keeps filtrating information until he finds one that confirms his beliefs while rejecting the opposing views. This process is known as confirmation bias. Along with individual preference, social media platforms employ algorithms that reinforce these “filter bubbles” by curating information based on previous searches and likes. This one-sidedness of information hampers citizens’ critical thinking, which is essential to the functioning of democracy. No Indian statute or regulatory guideline has defined what is news or has laid down criteria for defining fake news. Any amendment in the existing legal framework should begin with defining this term. Learning from the experience of other countries, any regulation that defines fake news as simply consisting of falsehood may lead to an ambiguous and overbroad definition. This has been witnessed in the case of Malaysia’s Anti-Fake News Act, 2018. However, a bill to repeal this act has been passed. Such a definition would fail in a democratic country like India, where the citizens are guaranteed freedom of speech under the Indian Constitution. Furthermore, it will give the government an unfettered power to take down any content that it feels uncomfortable with. Another example is that of law in France that lays down three criteria to evaluate a piece of information as fake news. Firstly, the fake news must be manifest. Secondly, there should be a deliberate attempt towards the dissemination of such news on a large scale. Thirdly, it should lead to a disturbance of the peace or compromise the outcome of an election. While the last two criteria could seem to fit in the Indian regime, the first one brings in ambiguity. In order to bring clarity at the most fundamental level, policymakers must distinguish between harmless propaganda and verifiable misinformation that can cause imminent social harm or damage to the reputation of an individual. This line is not easy to draw as the term fake news in itself is an amorphous category, including misleading and false news. The evaluation may involve mere shoddy journalism from deliberate attempts to spread misinformation. After the policymakers make these necessary distinctions, according to the author, a potential definition that could fit in the Indian scenario could be “Any misinformation or disinformation deliberately disseminated on a large scale that has the potential to threaten the life or national security or an election outcome.”

Q. According to the definition suggested by the author for fake news in India, which of the following will be characterized as ‘fake news’ according to it?

Solution: Option A is not on large scale, since only 5 people are on the group. Option B is not deliberate since it was shared accidentally. Option C is right because, it is on a large scale, done deliberately and will threaten the national security of India. Option D is wrong because it is not on a large scale even though it can threaten a man’s life.
QUESTION: 75

Fake news, misinformation, false news are terms that are now being used interchangeably. This does not overshadow the menace and public hazard that fake news has become over social media. World Economic Forum has rated the spread of false information online as one of the ten biggest global problems in 2013. The consequences of fake news are not one but many. This article, has delved into analyzing electoral laws and psychological concepts behind the fake news. The first concept is “motivated reasoning,” the ideas that we readily believe because they match our views and beliefs. Once a stance is chosen by a person, the brain then constantly keeps filtrating information until he finds one that confirms his beliefs while rejecting the opposing views. This process is known as confirmation bias. Along with individual preference, social media platforms employ algorithms that reinforce these “filter bubbles” by curating information based on previous searches and likes. This one-sidedness of information hampers citizens’ critical thinking, which is essential to the functioning of democracy. No Indian statute or regulatory guideline has defined what is news or has laid down criteria for defining fake news. Any amendment in the existing legal framework should begin with defining this term. Learning from the experience of other countries, any regulation that defines fake news as simply consisting of falsehood may lead to an ambiguous and overbroad definition. This has been witnessed in the case of Malaysia’s Anti-Fake News Act, 2018. However, a bill to repeal this act has been passed. Such a definition would fail in a democratic country like India, where the citizens are guaranteed freedom of speech under the Indian Constitution. Furthermore, it will give the government an unfettered power to take down any content that it feels uncomfortable with. Another example is that of law in France that lays down three criteria to evaluate a piece of information as fake news. Firstly, the fake news must be manifest. Secondly, there should be a deliberate attempt towards the dissemination of such news on a large scale. Thirdly, it should lead to a disturbance of the peace or compromise the outcome of an election. While the last two criteria could seem to fit in the Indian regime, the first one brings in ambiguity. In order to bring clarity at the most fundamental level, policymakers must distinguish between harmless propaganda and verifiable misinformation that can cause imminent social harm or damage to the reputation of an individual. This line is not easy to draw as the term fake news in itself is an amorphous category, including misleading and false news. The evaluation may involve mere shoddy journalism from deliberate attempts to spread misinformation. After the policymakers make these necessary distinctions, according to the author, a potential definition that could fit in the Indian scenario could be “Any misinformation or disinformation deliberately disseminated on a large scale that has the potential to threaten the life or national security or an election outcome.”

Q. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

Solution: The passage tells that India has not defined ‘fake news’ in any of its statutes and that Social Media algorithms weaken democracy.
QUESTION: 76

A lot has been written about the new Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance 2020. Most of it has been around the law being a violation of an individual’s right to marry a person of one’s choice and being restrictive of the fundamental right to life, autonomy and privacy. It is certainly all of it. In addition, I argue that this ordinance, which is nothing less than a draconian law, is a serious violation of the right to equality based on religion.

The UP ordinance prohibits any religious conversion due to coercion, force, undue influence, allurement, fraud or by marriage and makes such a marriage liable to be declared void. It also makes such an act of conversion a non-bailable criminal offence. How is this a violation of the right to equality one might ask? The law would apply to people of all religions equally and would ban any kind of religious conversions for marriage. Merely because a law applies to persons of all religions, would not make the law fulfil the guarantee on equality. Our equality guarantees in the Constitution demand that all persons have equal protection of the law under Article 14. This goes together with the guarantee of non-discrimination under Article 15 which mandates that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. Imposing such restrictions on marriage only on the ground of religion amounts to discrimination and a violation of the right to equality. Our equality jurisprudence also requires that the state can make separate classification if such classification has a reasonable nexus with the purpose of the law. Hence, what is the purpose of such a law by the UP government? There is no data produced by the state government on any harm from inter-faith marriages. In fact, the percentage of inter-religious marriages in the country is extremely minuscule. There has been no census data on the numbers of inter-faith marriages, but an analysis of “India Human Development Survey data, 2005” — a survey of 41,554 households in 1,503 villages and 971 urban neighborhoods across India jointly organized by the National Council of Applied Economic Research — showed that only 2.21 per cent of all married women between the age of 15-49 had married outside their religion. This is an extremely small number and there is no empirical data whatsoever on harm, if any, resulting from inter-faith marriages after conversion. At the heart of this ordinance is a deep opposition to inter-faith marriages and the need to control women and girls under the garb of protecting them from being coerced into forced conversions by marriage. This deep-rooted opposition to inter-faith marriage is comparable to a similar deep-rooted opposition to inter-caste marriage, in that both stem from historical prejudices between specific communities.

Q. The Love Jihad Law goes against which of the following rights guaranteed to an individual?

Solution: In the very first para the author clearly states that the law is against the right to marry and right to life, autonomy and privacy and throughout the article he argues how it is violative of Article 14 as well.
QUESTION: 77

A lot has been written about the new Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance 2020. Most of it has been around the law being a violation of an individual’s right to marry a person of one’s choice and being restrictive of the fundamental right to life, autonomy and privacy. It is certainly all of it. In addition, I argue that this ordinance, which is nothing less than a draconian law, is a serious violation of the right to equality based on religion.

The UP ordinance prohibits any religious conversion due to coercion, force, undue influence, allurement, fraud or by marriage and makes such a marriage liable to be declared void. It also makes such an act of conversion a non-bailable criminal offence. How is this a violation of the right to equality one might ask? The law would apply to people of all religions equally and would ban any kind of religious conversions for marriage. Merely because a law applies to persons of all religions, would not make the law fulfil the guarantee on equality. Our equality guarantees in the Constitution demand that all persons have equal protection of the law under Article 14. This goes together with the guarantee of non-discrimination under Article 15 which mandates that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. Imposing such restrictions on marriage only on the ground of religion amounts to discrimination and a violation of the right to equality. Our equality jurisprudence also requires that the state can make separate classification if such classification has a reasonable nexus with the purpose of the law. Hence, what is the purpose of such a law by the UP government? There is no data produced by the state government on any harm from inter-faith marriages. In fact, the percentage of inter-religious marriages in the country is extremely minuscule. There has been no census data on the numbers of inter-faith marriages, but an analysis of “India Human Development Survey data, 2005” — a survey of 41,554 households in 1,503 villages and 971 urban neighborhoods across India jointly organized by the National Council of Applied Economic Research — showed that only 2.21 per cent of all married women between the age of 15-49 had married outside their religion. This is an extremely small number and there is no empirical data whatsoever on harm, if any, resulting from inter-faith marriages after conversion. At the heart of this ordinance is a deep opposition to inter-faith marriages and the need to control women and girls under the garb of protecting them from being coerced into forced conversions by marriage. This deep-rooted opposition to inter-faith marriage is comparable to a similar deep-rooted opposition to inter-caste marriage, in that both stem from historical prejudices between specific communities.

Q. Which of the following statements can be correctly attributed to the author of the above passage?

Solution: The author clearly states that there is no data whatsoever to corroborate the need for this law and then goes on to point that even the survey conducted by the India Human Development Survey, 2005 shows that there is only a miniscule percentage of interfaith marriages with no data on the actual harm accruing from such marriages.
QUESTION: 78

A lot has been written about the new Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance 2020. Most of it has been around the law being a violation of an individual’s right to marry a person of one’s choice and being restrictive of the fundamental right to life, autonomy and privacy. It is certainly all of it. In addition, I argue that this ordinance, which is nothing less than a draconian law, is a serious violation of the right to equality based on religion.

The UP ordinance prohibits any religious conversion due to coercion, force, undue influence, allurement, fraud or by marriage and makes such a marriage liable to be declared void. It also makes such an act of conversion a non-bailable criminal offence. How is this a violation of the right to equality one might ask? The law would apply to people of all religions equally and would ban any kind of religious conversions for marriage. Merely because a law applies to persons of all religions, would not make the law fulfil the guarantee on equality. Our equality guarantees in the Constitution demand that all persons have equal protection of the law under Article 14. This goes together with the guarantee of non-discrimination under Article 15 which mandates that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. Imposing such restrictions on marriage only on the ground of religion amounts to discrimination and a violation of the right to equality. Our equality jurisprudence also requires that the state can make separate classification if such classification has a reasonable nexus with the purpose of the law. Hence, what is the purpose of such a law by the UP government? There is no data produced by the state government on any harm from inter-faith marriages. In fact, the percentage of inter-religious marriages in the country is extremely minuscule. There has been no census data on the numbers of inter-faith marriages, but an analysis of “India Human Development Survey data, 2005” — a survey of 41,554 households in 1,503 villages and 971 urban neighborhoods across India jointly organized by the National Council of Applied Economic Research — showed that only 2.21 per cent of all married women between the age of 15-49 had married outside their religion. This is an extremely small number and there is no empirical data whatsoever on harm, if any, resulting from inter-faith marriages after conversion. At the heart of this ordinance is a deep opposition to inter-faith marriages and the need to control women and girls under the garb of protecting them from being coerced into forced conversions by marriage. This deep-rooted opposition to inter-faith marriage is comparable to a similar deep-rooted opposition to inter-caste marriage, in that both stem from historical prejudices between specific communities.

Q. Why does the author argue that the law violates right to equality of an individual?

Solution: Option A is factually incorrect according to the passage since the law would apply to people of all religions equally and would ban any kind of religious conversions for marriage. The author does not talk about Option B and Option D in the passage.
QUESTION: 79

A lot has been written about the new Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance 2020. Most of it has been around the law being a violation of an individual’s right to marry a person of one’s choice and being restrictive of the fundamental right to life, autonomy and privacy. It is certainly all of it. In addition, I argue that this ordinance, which is nothing less than a draconian law, is a serious violation of the right to equality based on religion.

The UP ordinance prohibits any religious conversion due to coercion, force, undue influence, allurement, fraud or by marriage and makes such a marriage liable to be declared void. It also makes such an act of conversion a non-bailable criminal offence. How is this a violation of the right to equality one might ask? The law would apply to people of all religions equally and would ban any kind of religious conversions for marriage. Merely because a law applies to persons of all religions, would not make the law fulfil the guarantee on equality. Our equality guarantees in the Constitution demand that all persons have equal protection of the law under Article 14. This goes together with the guarantee of non-discrimination under Article 15 which mandates that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. Imposing such restrictions on marriage only on the ground of religion amounts to discrimination and a violation of the right to equality. Our equality jurisprudence also requires that the state can make separate classification if such classification has a reasonable nexus with the purpose of the law. Hence, what is the purpose of such a law by the UP government? There is no data produced by the state government on any harm from inter-faith marriages. In fact, the percentage of inter-religious marriages in the country is extremely minuscule. There has been no census data on the numbers of inter-faith marriages, but an analysis of “India Human Development Survey data, 2005” — a survey of 41,554 households in 1,503 villages and 971 urban neighborhoods across India jointly organized by the National Council of Applied Economic Research — showed that only 2.21 per cent of all married women between the age of 15-49 had married outside their religion. This is an extremely small number and there is no empirical data whatsoever on harm, if any, resulting from inter-faith marriages after conversion. At the heart of this ordinance is a deep opposition to inter-faith marriages and the need to control women and girls under the garb of protecting them from being coerced into forced conversions by marriage. This deep-rooted opposition to inter-faith marriage is comparable to a similar deep-rooted opposition to inter-caste marriage, in that both stem from historical prejudices between specific communities.

Q. If a law bars woman to marry without parental consent, it will be violative of which of the following?

Solution: Right to marriage is not a right and only the right to marry a person of one’s choice is protected. If a person does not get married, they cannot go to the court to enforce a right of marriage. It is not guaranteed to everyone. Hence option B is not correct. Right to live without the interference of parents is not a right. As set out by the passage, such a law will clearly violate the right to life, autonomy and privacy and hence option A is the correct answer.
QUESTION: 80

A lot has been written about the new Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion Ordinance 2020. Most of it has been around the law being a violation of an individual’s right to marry a person of one’s choice and being restrictive of the fundamental right to life, autonomy and privacy. It is certainly all of it. In addition, I argue that this ordinance, which is nothing less than a draconian law, is a serious violation of the right to equality based on religion.

The UP ordinance prohibits any religious conversion due to coercion, force, undue influence, allurement, fraud or by marriage and makes such a marriage liable to be declared void. It also makes such an act of conversion a non-bailable criminal offence. How is this a violation of the right to equality one might ask? The law would apply to people of all religions equally and would ban any kind of religious conversions for marriage. Merely because a law applies to persons of all religions, would not make the law fulfil the guarantee on equality. Our equality guarantees in the Constitution demand that all persons have equal protection of the law under Article 14. This goes together with the guarantee of non-discrimination under Article 15 which mandates that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them. Imposing such restrictions on marriage only on the ground of religion amounts to discrimination and a violation of the right to equality. Our equality jurisprudence also requires that the state can make separate classification if such classification has a reasonable nexus with the purpose of the law. Hence, what is the purpose of such a law by the UP government? There is no data produced by the state government on any harm from inter-faith marriages. In fact, the percentage of inter-religious marriages in the country is extremely minuscule. There has been no census data on the numbers of inter-faith marriages, but an analysis of “India Human Development Survey data, 2005” — a survey of 41,554 households in 1,503 villages and 971 urban neighborhoods across India jointly organized by the National Council of Applied Economic Research — showed that only 2.21 per cent of all married women between the age of 15-49 had married outside their religion. This is an extremely small number and there is no empirical data whatsoever on harm, if any, resulting from inter-faith marriages after conversion. At the heart of this ordinance is a deep opposition to inter-faith marriages and the need to control women and girls under the garb of protecting them from being coerced into forced conversions by marriage. This deep-rooted opposition to inter-faith marriage is comparable to a similar deep-rooted opposition to inter-caste marriage, in that both stem from historical prejudices between specific communities.

The law will have the effect of declaring a marriage through religious conversion through __________ void. Please fill in the blanks.

Solution: Option A is not correct because the word influence has to be qualified by the word ‘undue’. Option B is not correct because force isn’t required to be undue. Option C is correct because the author clearly mentions- “The UP ordinance prohibits any religious conversion due to coercion, force, undue influence, allurement, fraud or by…….”. Option D is not given in the list of factors and does not fit the question asked.
QUESTION: 81

What vision of equality does our Constitution commit us to? The answer has been contested repeatedly throughout the fraught legal history of Articles 15 and 16.

Article 15(1) states:

“The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.”

And, Article 16(1) states:

“There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.”

These two articles are remedial in nature, that is, they seek to remedy, through law, historical wrongs – in this case, the wrong of discrimination. How, exactly, do they propose to do this? To fix ideas, let us start by proposing two tentative definitions. A colour-blind vision of equality is one that treats all classifications based on certain prohibited bases as inherently suspect, and in need of a compelling justification. This theory argues that the historical wrong in question was sorting people by the colour of their skin, their sex, or their caste, and treating them in an inferior manner on that ground. Race, sex, caste etc. are simply irrelevant to our worth as persons – hence, the term “colour-blind”.

At the heart of the colour-blind theory is not simply a distaste of classifications, but the idea that citizens must be treated as individuals, and not as members of groups. Thus, one of the concerns that is standardly expressed by supporters of the colour-blind theory is that reservations and affirmative action – that classifies on the basis of groups – will serve only to perpetuate a society in which people are characterized and defined by their affiliation to and membership of stipulated social groups.

Against the colour-blind theory of equality stands the group-subordination theory. The group-subordination theory holds that insofar as our society has been historically rife with discriminatory forms of injustice, such injustice has been meted out to groups qua groups – to women, to “lower-castes”, (at different stages and at different places) to Hindus or to Muslims. Insofar as individuals have suffered, they have suffered by virtue of their membership of these groups – as women, as Dalits, and so on. Thus, genuine, substantive equality can be achieved only by ensuring that historically subordinated groups are no longer subordinated.

Thus, it is not enough for a Constitution to simply declare equality – if, because of a history of past discrimination and continuing non-legal present discrimination, minority groups are placed at a significant disadvantage qua minority groups, the government is permitted to take positive action to remedy that situation. One such action – the most famous and the most controversial – is affirmative action, i.e., Reservation.

Q. The Delhi Government is planning to bring in a new scheme that seeks to provide the women of the State with free bus transit facility, to ensure their safety at the odd hours. The scheme is motivated by the results of a government survey, which revealed that substantial number of the women in state do not have financial autonomy and struggle for their daily expenditure in their male-dominated households. Mrs. X questions this scheme in court as violative of right to equality. Which of the following school of ideology is Mrs. X most likely to belong from?

Solution: The scheme aims to remedy the financial suppression that the women has received at the hands of males in matters of financial independence and since the matter is rooted in the deep gender bias that prevails, the Group-subordination theory comes into play.
QUESTION: 82

What vision of equality does our Constitution commit us to? The answer has been contested repeatedly throughout the fraught legal history of Articles 15 and 16.

Article 15(1) states:

“The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.”

And, Article 16(1) states:

“There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.”

These two articles are remedial in nature, that is, they seek to remedy, through law, historical wrongs – in this case, the wrong of discrimination. How, exactly, do they propose to do this? To fix ideas, let us start by proposing two tentative definitions. A colour-blind vision of equality is one that treats all classifications based on certain prohibited bases as inherently suspect, and in need of a compelling justification. This theory argues that the historical wrong in question was sorting people by the colour of their skin, their sex, or their caste, and treating them in an inferior manner on that ground. Race, sex, caste etc. are simply irrelevant to our worth as persons – hence, the term “colour-blind”.

At the heart of the colour-blind theory is not simply a distaste of classifications, but the idea that citizens must be treated as individuals, and not as members of groups. Thus, one of the concerns that is standardly expressed by supporters of the colour-blind theory is that reservations and affirmative action – that classifies on the basis of groups – will serve only to perpetuate a society in which people are characterized and defined by their affiliation to and membership of stipulated social groups.

Against the colour-blind theory of equality stands the group-subordination theory. The group-subordination theory holds that insofar as our society has been historically rife with discriminatory forms of injustice, such injustice has been meted out to groups qua groups – to women, to “lower-castes”, (at different stages and at different places) to Hindus or to Muslims. Insofar as individuals have suffered, they have suffered by virtue of their membership of these groups – as women, as Dalits, and so on. Thus, genuine, substantive equality can be achieved only by ensuring that historically subordinated groups are no longer subordinated.

Thus, it is not enough for a Constitution to simply declare equality – if, because of a history of past discrimination and continuing non-legal present discrimination, minority groups are placed at a significant disadvantage qua minority groups, the government is permitted to take positive action to remedy that situation. One such action – the most famous and the most controversial – is affirmative action, i.e., Reservation.

Q. If the reliance on the arguments forwarded by the Group-subordination theorists is considered, can the Government bring in a law to provide all the people of SC/ST communities with a free annual foreign trip?

Solution: The Group-subordination theory is based on the premise that historical suppression by a mere reason of belonging to a certain group of people needs to be remedied by affirmative action. Since, the free annual trips, as an affirmative action does not logically help in alleviating the disadvantaged, this law cannot be brought.
QUESTION: 83

What vision of equality does our Constitution commit us to? The answer has been contested repeatedly throughout the fraught legal history of Articles 15 and 16.

Article 15(1) states:

“The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.”

And, Article 16(1) states:

“There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.”

These two articles are remedial in nature, that is, they seek to remedy, through law, historical wrongs – in this case, the wrong of discrimination. How, exactly, do they propose to do this? To fix ideas, let us start by proposing two tentative definitions. A colour-blind vision of equality is one that treats all classifications based on certain prohibited bases as inherently suspect, and in need of a compelling justification. This theory argues that the historical wrong in question was sorting people by the colour of their skin, their sex, or their caste, and treating them in an inferior manner on that ground. Race, sex, caste etc. are simply irrelevant to our worth as persons – hence, the term “colour-blind”.

At the heart of the colour-blind theory is not simply a distaste of classifications, but the idea that citizens must be treated as individuals, and not as members of groups. Thus, one of the concerns that is standardly expressed by supporters of the colour-blind theory is that reservations and affirmative action – that classifies on the basis of groups – will serve only to perpetuate a society in which people are characterized and defined by their affiliation to and membership of stipulated social groups.

Against the colour-blind theory of equality stands the group-subordination theory. The group-subordination theory holds that insofar as our society has been historically rife with discriminatory forms of injustice, such injustice has been meted out to groups qua groups – to women, to “lower-castes”, (at different stages and at different places) to Hindus or to Muslims. Insofar as individuals have suffered, they have suffered by virtue of their membership of these groups – as women, as Dalits, and so on. Thus, genuine, substantive equality can be achieved only by ensuring that historically subordinated groups are no longer subordinated.

Thus, it is not enough for a Constitution to simply declare equality – if, because of a history of past discrimination and continuing non-legal present discrimination, minority groups are placed at a significant disadvantage qua minority groups, the government is permitted to take positive action to remedy that situation. One such action – the most famous and the most controversial – is affirmative action, i.e., Reservation.

Q. Mr. Z, a huge proponent of group-subordination theory and a landlord in an area with high population of young-student, allows only Females students to occupy his residential PG hostels, owing to his “personal reasons”. Would this differentiation based on gender be a violation of Article 15(1)?

Solution: Fundamental Rights can only be claimed against either the State or the institutions performing Public Functions. Since, Mr. Z is neither, Right to equality cannot be claimed from a private person.
QUESTION: 84

What vision of equality does our Constitution commit us to? The answer has been contested repeatedly throughout the fraught legal history of Articles 15 and 16.

Article 15(1) states:

“The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.”

And, Article 16(1) states:

“There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.”

These two articles are remedial in nature, that is, they seek to remedy, through law, historical wrongs – in this case, the wrong of discrimination. How, exactly, do they propose to do this? To fix ideas, let us start by proposing two tentative definitions. A colour-blind vision of equality is one that treats all classifications based on certain prohibited bases as inherently suspect, and in need of a compelling justification. This theory argues that the historical wrong in question was sorting people by the colour of their skin, their sex, or their caste, and treating them in an inferior manner on that ground. Race, sex, caste etc. are simply irrelevant to our worth as persons – hence, the term “colour-blind”.

At the heart of the colour-blind theory is not simply a distaste of classifications, but the idea that citizens must be treated as individuals, and not as members of groups. Thus, one of the concerns that is standardly expressed by supporters of the colour-blind theory is that reservations and affirmative action – that classifies on the basis of groups – will serve only to perpetuate a society in which people are characterized and defined by their affiliation to and membership of stipulated social groups.

Against the colour-blind theory of equality stands the group-subordination theory. The group-subordination theory holds that insofar as our society has been historically rife with discriminatory forms of injustice, such injustice has been meted out to groups qua groups – to women, to “lower-castes”, (at different stages and at different places) to Hindus or to Muslims. Insofar as individuals have suffered, they have suffered by virtue of their membership of these groups – as women, as Dalits, and so on. Thus, genuine, substantive equality can be achieved only by ensuring that historically subordinated groups are no longer subordinated.

Thus, it is not enough for a Constitution to simply declare equality – if, because of a history of past discrimination and continuing non-legal present discrimination, minority groups are placed at a significant disadvantage qua minority groups, the government is permitted to take positive action to remedy that situation. One such action – the most famous and the most controversial – is affirmative action, i.e., Reservation.

Q. The author of the passage is least likely to agree with which of the following statements?

Solution: The author says that declaring equality for all is not enough, there have to be affirmative actions taken to undo the past discrimination.
QUESTION: 85

What vision of equality does our Constitution commit us to? The answer has been contested repeatedly throughout the fraught legal history of Articles 15 and 16.

Article 15(1) states:

“The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.”

And, Article 16(1) states:

“There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.”

These two articles are remedial in nature, that is, they seek to remedy, through law, historical wrongs – in this case, the wrong of discrimination. How, exactly, do they propose to do this? To fix ideas, let us start by proposing two tentative definitions. A colour-blind vision of equality is one that treats all classifications based on certain prohibited bases as inherently suspect, and in need of a compelling justification. This theory argues that the historical wrong in question was sorting people by the colour of their skin, their sex, or their caste, and treating them in an inferior manner on that ground. Race, sex, caste etc. are simply irrelevant to our worth as persons – hence, the term “colour-blind”.

At the heart of the colour-blind theory is not simply a distaste of classifications, but the idea that citizens must be treated as individuals, and not as members of groups. Thus, one of the concerns that is standardly expressed by supporters of the colour-blind theory is that reservations and affirmative action – that classifies on the basis of groups – will serve only to perpetuate a society in which people are characterized and defined by their affiliation to and membership of stipulated social groups.

Against the colour-blind theory of equality stands the group-subordination theory. The group-subordination theory holds that insofar as our society has been historically rife with discriminatory forms of injustice, such injustice has been meted out to groups qua groups – to women, to “lower-castes”, (at different stages and at different places) to Hindus or to Muslims. Insofar as individuals have suffered, they have suffered by virtue of their membership of these groups – as women, as Dalits, and so on. Thus, genuine, substantive equality can be achieved only by ensuring that historically subordinated groups are no longer subordinated.

Thus, it is not enough for a Constitution to simply declare equality – if, because of a history of past discrimination and continuing non-legal present discrimination, minority groups are placed at a significant disadvantage qua minority groups, the government is permitted to take positive action to remedy that situation. One such action – the most famous and the most controversial – is affirmative action, i.e., Reservation.

Q. With which of the following statements, a colour-blind theorist is least likely to disagree with?

Solution: Except all the other options, only this option seems to be stemming, not from historical differences, but from contemporary merits. Hence, a colour-blind theorist is likely to disagree with all except this one.
QUESTION: 86

The Supreme Court has laid down broad principles from various precedents in relation to Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure for quashing of First Information Reports(FIR).

The Gujarat HC had dismissed an application under Section 482 on two grounds:

1. The Appellants were absconding and warrants had been issued against them.

2. The Appellants had criminal antecedents.

The High Court stated it was not in the interest of society at large to accept the settlement and quash the FIR, as the charges are of a serious nature and the activities of the appellants render them a potential threat to society.

SC summarized the following broad principles in relation to quashing FIRs.

Section 482 preserves the inherent powers of the HC to prevent an abuse of the process of any court or to secure the ends of justice. The provision does not confer new powers. It only recognises and preserves powers inherent in the HC. In forming an opinion whether a criminal proceeding or complaint should be quashed under Section 482, the HC must evaluate whether the ends of justice would justify the exercise of the inherent power.

The decision as to whether a complaint or FIR should be quashed on the ground that the offender and victim have settled the dispute, revolves ultimately on the facts and circumstances of each case and no exhaustive elaboration of principles can be formulated. In the exercise of the power under Section 482 and while dealing with a plea that the dispute has been settled, the HC must have due regard to the nature and gravity of the offence. Heinous and serious offences involving mental depravity or offences such as murder, rape and dacoity cannot appropriately be quashed though the victim or the family of the victim have settled the dispute. Such offences are, truly speaking, not private in nature but have a serious impact upon society. The decision to continue with the trial in such cases is founded on the overriding element of public interest in punishing persons for serious offences.

Criminal cases involving offences which arise from commercial, financial, mercantile, partnership or similar transactions with an essentially civil flavor may in appropriate situations fall for quashing where parties have settled the dispute. However, economic offences involving the financial and economic well-being of the state have implications which lie beyond the domain of a mere dispute between private disputants. The HC would be justified in declining to quash where the offender is involved in an activity akin to a financial or economic fraud or misdemeanour. The Apex Court dismissed the appeal holding that the High Court was justified in declining to entertain the Application for quashing FIR in the exercise of its inherent jurisdiction.

Q. X was arrested on grounds of committing robbery. His advocate pleaded for quashing of the FIR on pretext of the robbed sum being petty. Y, whose house was robbed under gun-point, had a long ongoing rivalry with X as well. In light of the passage, determine whether the magistrate can pass an order to quash the FIR?

Solution: The author suggests that offences which are heinous and serious in nature involving mental depravity or offences such as murder, rape and dacoity cannot appropriately be quashed though the victim or the family of the victim have settled the dispute.
QUESTION: 87

The Supreme Court has laid down broad principles from various precedents in relation to Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure for quashing of First Information Reports(FIR).

The Gujarat HC had dismissed an application under Section 482 on two grounds:

1. The Appellants were absconding and warrants had been issued against them.

2. The Appellants had criminal antecedents.

The High Court stated it was not in the interest of society at large to accept the settlement and quash the FIR, as the charges are of a serious nature and the activities of the appellants render them a potential threat to society.

SC summarized the following broad principles in relation to quashing FIRs.

Section 482 preserves the inherent powers of the HC to prevent an abuse of the process of any court or to secure the ends of justice. The provision does not confer new powers. It only recognises and preserves powers inherent in the HC. In forming an opinion whether a criminal proceeding or complaint should be quashed under Section 482, the HC must evaluate whether the ends of justice would justify the exercise of the inherent power.

The decision as to whether a complaint or FIR should be quashed on the ground that the offender and victim have settled the dispute, revolves ultimately on the facts and circumstances of each case and no exhaustive elaboration of principles can be formulated. In the exercise of the power under Section 482 and while dealing with a plea that the dispute has been settled, the HC must have due regard to the nature and gravity of the offence. Heinous and serious offences involving mental depravity or offences such as murder, rape and dacoity cannot appropriately be quashed though the victim or the family of the victim have settled the dispute. Such offences are, truly speaking, not private in nature but have a serious impact upon society. The decision to continue with the trial in such cases is founded on the overriding element of public interest in punishing persons for serious offences.

Criminal cases involving offences which arise from commercial, financial, mercantile, partnership or similar transactions with an essentially civil flavor may in appropriate situations fall for quashing where parties have settled the dispute. However, economic offences involving the financial and economic well-being of the state have implications which lie beyond the domain of a mere dispute between private disputants. The HC would be justified in declining to quash where the offender is involved in an activity akin to a financial or economic fraud or misdemeanour. The Apex Court dismissed the appeal holding that the High Court was justified in declining to entertain the Application for quashing FIR in the exercise of its inherent jurisdiction.

Q. FIR in which of the following is more likely to be quashed?

1. A group of people wearing Joker masks and committing robbery and killing in the bank.

2. Lootings done in the train.

3. Quarrel in the market area where in the heat of the moment an individual was shot dead.

Solution: All the crimes are grave and could have an adverse effect on the society. Moreover, there could not be a settlement accepted in such cases due to them being extremely grave in nature.
QUESTION: 88

The Supreme Court has laid down broad principles from various precedents in relation to Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure for quashing of First Information Reports(FIR).

The Gujarat HC had dismissed an application under Section 482 on two grounds:

1. The Appellants were absconding and warrants had been issued against them.

2. The Appellants had criminal antecedents.

The High Court stated it was not in the interest of society at large to accept the settlement and quash the FIR, as the charges are of a serious nature and the activities of the appellants render them a potential threat to society.

SC summarized the following broad principles in relation to quashing FIRs.

Section 482 preserves the inherent powers of the HC to prevent an abuse of the process of any court or to secure the ends of justice. The provision does not confer new powers. It only recognises and preserves powers inherent in the HC. In forming an opinion whether a criminal proceeding or complaint should be quashed under Section 482, the HC must evaluate whether the ends of justice would justify the exercise of the inherent power.

The decision as to whether a complaint or FIR should be quashed on the ground that the offender and victim have settled the dispute, revolves ultimately on the facts and circumstances of each case and no exhaustive elaboration of principles can be formulated. In the exercise of the power under Section 482 and while dealing with a plea that the dispute has been settled, the HC must have due regard to the nature and gravity of the offence. Heinous and serious offences involving mental depravity or offences such as murder, rape and dacoity cannot appropriately be quashed though the victim or the family of the victim have settled the dispute. Such offences are, truly speaking, not private in nature but have a serious impact upon society. The decision to continue with the trial in such cases is founded on the overriding element of public interest in punishing persons for serious offences.

Criminal cases involving offences which arise from commercial, financial, mercantile, partnership or similar transactions with an essentially civil flavor may in appropriate situations fall for quashing where parties have settled the dispute. However, economic offences involving the financial and economic well-being of the state have implications which lie beyond the domain of a mere dispute between private disputants. The HC would be justified in declining to quash where the offender is involved in an activity akin to a financial or economic fraud or misdemeanour. The Apex Court dismissed the appeal holding that the High Court was justified in declining to entertain the Application for quashing FIR in the exercise of its inherent jurisdiction.

Q. X was accused of embezzling money from his partnership firm, despite there being a profit-sharing agreement between the partners. He then absconded. An FIR was registered by the remaining partners in the company against X. Considering the ruling of the Supreme Court can the FIR be quashed?

Solution: Criminal cases involving offences which arise from commercial, financial, mercantile, partnership or similar transactions with an essentially civil flavour may in appropriate situations fall for quashing where parties have settled the dispute; Economic offences involving the financial and economic well-being of the state have implications which lie beyond the domain of a mere dispute between private disputants. The High Court would be justified in declining to quash where the offender is involved in an activity akin to a financial or economic fraud or misdemeanour.
QUESTION: 89

The Supreme Court has laid down broad principles from various precedents in relation to Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure for quashing of First Information Reports(FIR).

The Gujarat HC had dismissed an application under Section 482 on two grounds:

1. The Appellants were absconding and warrants had been issued against them.

2. The Appellants had criminal antecedents.

The High Court stated it was not in the interest of society at large to accept the settlement and quash the FIR, as the charges are of a serious nature and the activities of the appellants render them a potential threat to society.

SC summarized the following broad principles in relation to quashing FIRs.

Section 482 preserves the inherent powers of the HC to prevent an abuse of the process of any court or to secure the ends of justice. The provision does not confer new powers. It only recognises and preserves powers inherent in the HC. In forming an opinion whether a criminal proceeding or complaint should be quashed under Section 482, the HC must evaluate whether the ends of justice would justify the exercise of the inherent power.

The decision as to whether a complaint or FIR should be quashed on the ground that the offender and victim have settled the dispute, revolves ultimately on the facts and circumstances of each case and no exhaustive elaboration of principles can be formulated. In the exercise of the power under Section 482 and while dealing with a plea that the dispute has been settled, the HC must have due regard to the nature and gravity of the offence. Heinous and serious offences involving mental depravity or offences such as murder, rape and dacoity cannot appropriately be quashed though the victim or the family of the victim have settled the dispute. Such offences are, truly speaking, not private in nature but have a serious impact upon society. The decision to continue with the trial in such cases is founded on the overriding element of public interest in punishing persons for serious offences.

Criminal cases involving offences which arise from commercial, financial, mercantile, partnership or similar transactions with an essentially civil flavor may in appropriate situations fall for quashing where parties have settled the dispute. However, economic offences involving the financial and economic well-being of the state have implications which lie beyond the domain of a mere dispute between private disputants. The HC would be justified in declining to quash where the offender is involved in an activity akin to a financial or economic fraud or misdemeanour. The Apex Court dismissed the appeal holding that the High Court was justified in declining to entertain the Application for quashing FIR in the exercise of its inherent jurisdiction.

Q. Which of the following could be ascertained about the view of author in the given passage?

Solution: The author has merely laid down the explanation and reasoning of the law on quashing of FIR under section 482 of CrPC. There is nothing in the passage which indicates towards author support or disagreement towards the judgments of either the Gujarat High Court and Supreme Court.
QUESTION: 90

The Supreme Court has laid down broad principles from various precedents in relation to Section 482 of the Code of Criminal Procedure for quashing of First Information Reports(FIR).

The Gujarat HC had dismissed an application under Section 482 on two grounds:

1. The Appellants were absconding and warrants had been issued against them.

2. The Appellants had criminal antecedents.

The High Court stated it was not in the interest of society at large to accept the settlement and quash the FIR, as the charges are of a serious nature and the activities of the appellants render them a potential threat to society.

SC summarized the following broad principles in relation to quashing FIRs.

Section 482 preserves the inherent powers of the HC to prevent an abuse of the process of any court or to secure the ends of justice. The provision does not confer new powers. It only recognises and preserves powers inherent in the HC. In forming an opinion whether a criminal proceeding or complaint should be quashed under Section 482, the HC must evaluate whether the ends of justice would justify the exercise of the inherent power.

The decision as to whether a complaint or FIR should be quashed on the ground that the offender and victim have settled the dispute, revolves ultimately on the facts and circumstances of each case and no exhaustive elaboration of principles can be formulated. In the exercise of the power under Section 482 and while dealing with a plea that the dispute has been settled, the HC must have due regard to the nature and gravity of the offence. Heinous and serious offences involving mental depravity or offences such as murder, rape and dacoity cannot appropriately be quashed though the victim or the family of the victim have settled the dispute. Such offences are, truly speaking, not private in nature but have a serious impact upon society. The decision to continue with the trial in such cases is founded on the overriding element of public interest in punishing persons for serious offences.

Criminal cases involving offences which arise from commercial, financial, mercantile, partnership or similar transactions with an essentially civil flavor may in appropriate situations fall for quashing where parties have settled the dispute. However, economic offences involving the financial and economic well-being of the state have implications which lie beyond the domain of a mere dispute between private disputants. The HC would be justified in declining to quash where the offender is involved in an activity akin to a financial or economic fraud or misdemeanour. The Apex Court dismissed the appeal holding that the High Court was justified in declining to entertain the Application for quashing FIR in the exercise of its inherent jurisdiction.

Q. Which of the following is/are the consideration(s) kept in mind while adjudicating over the quashing of an FIR?

Solution: The passage suggest that in forming an opinion whether a criminal proceeding or complaint should be quashed under Section 482, the HC must evaluate whether the ends of justice would justify the exercise of the inherent power. The decision as to whether a complaint or FIR should be quashed on the ground that the offender and victim have settled the dispute, revolves ultimately on the facts and circumstances of each case and no exhaustive elaboration of principles can be formulated. In the exercise of the power under Section 482 and while dealing with a plea that the dispute has been settled, the HC must have due regard to the nature and gravity of the offence.
QUESTION: 91

The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated on April 22, 2020. The Ordinance amends the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897. The Act provides for the prevention of the spread of dangerous epidemic diseases. Key features of the Ordinance include: Definitions: The Ordinance defines healthcare service personnel as a person who is at risk of contracting the epidemic disease while carrying out duties related to the epidemic. They include: (i) public and clinical healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, (ii) any person empowered under the Act to take measures to prevent the outbreak of the disease, and (iii) other persons designated as such by the state government. An ‘act of violence’ includes any of the following acts committed against a healthcare service personnel: (i) harassment impacting living or working conditions, (ii) harm, injury, hurt, or danger to life, (iii) obstruction in discharge of his duties, and (iv) loss or damage to the property or documents of the healthcare service personnel. Property is defined to include a: (i) clinical establishment, (ii) quarantine facility, (iii) mobile medical unit, and (iv) other property in which a healthcare service personnel has direct interest, in relation to the epidemic. Powers of the central government: The Act specifies that the central government may regulate: (i) the inspection of any ship or vessel leaving or arriving at any port, and (ii) the detention of any person intending to travel from the port, during an outbreak. Protection for healthcare personnel and damage to property: The Ordinance specifies that no person can: (i) commit or abet the commission of an act of violence against a healthcare service personnel, or (ii) abet or cause damage or loss to any property during an epidemic. These offences are cognizable and non-bailable. Compensation: Compensation will be determined by the Court. In the case of damage or loss of property, the compensation payable to the victim will be twice the amount of the fair market value of the damaged or lost property, as determined by the Court. If the convicted person fails to pay the compensation, the amount will be recovered as an arrear of land revenue under the Revenue Recovery Act, 1890. Investigation: Cases registered under the Ordinance will be investigated by a police officer not below the rank of Inspector. The investigation must be completed within 30 days from the date of registration of the First Information Report. Trial: The inquiry or trial should be concluded within one year. If it is not concluded within this time period, the Judge must record the reasons for the delay and extend the time period. However, the time period may not be extended for more than six months at a time. When prosecuting a person for causing grievous harm to a healthcare service personnel, the Court will presume that person is guilty of the offence, unless the contrary is proved.

Q. Ami runs a NGO during the outbreak of CONID - 39. She decides to provide masks to all the people who do not have access to masks. She goes to distribute the masks in a locality where she is attacked by 16 individuals. Can the 16 individuals be prosecuted under the epidemic diseases act?

Solution: Currently she does not fall in the criteria of a health worker and the 16 people can be held accountable under the new law only if she is designated as a health worker by the government.
QUESTION: 92

The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated on April 22, 2020. The Ordinance amends the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897. The Act provides for the prevention of the spread of dangerous epidemic diseases. Key features of the Ordinance include: Definitions: The Ordinance defines healthcare service personnel as a person who is at risk of contracting the epidemic disease while carrying out duties related to the epidemic. They include: (i) public and clinical healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, (ii) any person empowered under the Act to take measures to prevent the outbreak of the disease, and (iii) other persons designated as such by the state government. An ‘act of violence’ includes any of the following acts committed against a healthcare service personnel: (i) harassment impacting living or working conditions, (ii) harm, injury, hurt, or danger to life, (iii) obstruction in discharge of his duties, and (iv) loss or damage to the property or documents of the healthcare service personnel. Property is defined to include a: (i) clinical establishment, (ii) quarantine facility, (iii) mobile medical unit, and (iv) other property in which a healthcare service personnel has direct interest, in relation to the epidemic. Powers of the central government: The Act specifies that the central government may regulate: (i) the inspection of any ship or vessel leaving or arriving at any port, and (ii) the detention of any person intending to travel from the port, during an outbreak. Protection for healthcare personnel and damage to property: The Ordinance specifies that no person can: (i) commit or abet the commission of an act of violence against a healthcare service personnel, or (ii) abet or cause damage or loss to any property during an epidemic. These offences are cognizable and non-bailable. Compensation: Compensation will be determined by the Court. In the case of damage or loss of property, the compensation payable to the victim will be twice the amount of the fair market value of the damaged or lost property, as determined by the Court. If the convicted person fails to pay the compensation, the amount will be recovered as an arrear of land revenue under the Revenue Recovery Act, 1890. Investigation: Cases registered under the Ordinance will be investigated by a police officer not below the rank of Inspector. The investigation must be completed within 30 days from the date of registration of the First Information Report. Trial: The inquiry or trial should be concluded within one year. If it is not concluded within this time period, the Judge must record the reasons for the delay and extend the time period. However, the time period may not be extended for more than six months at a time. When prosecuting a person for causing grievous harm to a healthcare service personnel, the Court will presume that person is guilty of the offence, unless the contrary is proved.

Q. Ami is a doctor and has been working with the state government in treating patients affected by the CONID-39 virus. She has written down the treatment details of all her patients in a file. Her sister does not like her going to the hospital everyday and in anger burns the file. Can she be prosecuted under the epidemic diseases act?

Solution: Any property of a health worker which has a direct impact on the work related to the pandemic can be considered as an act of violence.
QUESTION: 93

The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated on April 22, 2020. The Ordinance amends the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897. The Act provides for the prevention of the spread of dangerous epidemic diseases. Key features of the Ordinance include: Definitions: The Ordinance defines healthcare service personnel as a person who is at risk of contracting the epidemic disease while carrying out duties related to the epidemic. They include: (i) public and clinical healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, (ii) any person empowered under the Act to take measures to prevent the outbreak of the disease, and (iii) other persons designated as such by the state government. An ‘act of violence’ includes any of the following acts committed against a healthcare service personnel: (i) harassment impacting living or working conditions, (ii) harm, injury, hurt, or danger to life, (iii) obstruction in discharge of his duties, and (iv) loss or damage to the property or documents of the healthcare service personnel. Property is defined to include a: (i) clinical establishment, (ii) quarantine facility, (iii) mobile medical unit, and (iv) other property in which a healthcare service personnel has direct interest, in relation to the epidemic. Powers of the central government: The Act specifies that the central government may regulate: (i) the inspection of any ship or vessel leaving or arriving at any port, and (ii) the detention of any person intending to travel from the port, during an outbreak. Protection for healthcare personnel and damage to property: The Ordinance specifies that no person can: (i) commit or abet the commission of an act of violence against a healthcare service personnel, or (ii) abet or cause damage or loss to any property during an epidemic. These offences are cognizable and non-bailable. Compensation: Compensation will be determined by the Court. In the case of damage or loss of property, the compensation payable to the victim will be twice the amount of the fair market value of the damaged or lost property, as determined by the Court. If the convicted person fails to pay the compensation, the amount will be recovered as an arrear of land revenue under the Revenue Recovery Act, 1890. Investigation: Cases registered under the Ordinance will be investigated by a police officer not below the rank of Inspector. The investigation must be completed within 30 days from the date of registration of the First Information Report. Trial: The inquiry or trial should be concluded within one year. If it is not concluded within this time period, the Judge must record the reasons for the delay and extend the time period. However, the time period may not be extended for more than six months at a time. When prosecuting a person for causing grievous harm to a healthcare service personnel, the Court will presume that person is guilty of the offence, unless the contrary is proved.

Q. Manish is a doctor working in the government hospital and is treating patients affected by the pandemic. Garv sees that Manish is a doctor and he goes and breaks the windows of his car and does not allow Manish to go to work. The Inspector carries out the investigation and orders Garv to pay Manish 20000 Rs for the damages caused by him. The market value of the window is 10,000 Rs. Is Garv liable to pay these charges?

Solution: Not liable to pay the compensation as the compensation is to be decided by the court and not by the inspector.
QUESTION: 94

The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated on April 22, 2020. The Ordinance amends the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897. The Act provides for the prevention of the spread of dangerous epidemic diseases. Key features of the Ordinance include: Definitions: The Ordinance defines healthcare service personnel as a person who is at risk of contracting the epidemic disease while carrying out duties related to the epidemic. They include: (i) public and clinical healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, (ii) any person empowered under the Act to take measures to prevent the outbreak of the disease, and (iii) other persons designated as such by the state government. An ‘act of violence’ includes any of the following acts committed against a healthcare service personnel: (i) harassment impacting living or working conditions, (ii) harm, injury, hurt, or danger to life, (iii) obstruction in discharge of his duties, and (iv) loss or damage to the property or documents of the healthcare service personnel. Property is defined to include a: (i) clinical establishment, (ii) quarantine facility, (iii) mobile medical unit, and (iv) other property in which a healthcare service personnel has direct interest, in relation to the epidemic. Powers of the central government: The Act specifies that the central government may regulate: (i) the inspection of any ship or vessel leaving or arriving at any port, and (ii) the detention of any person intending to travel from the port, during an outbreak. Protection for healthcare personnel and damage to property: The Ordinance specifies that no person can: (i) commit or abet the commission of an act of violence against a healthcare service personnel, or (ii) abet or cause damage or loss to any property during an epidemic. These offences are cognizable and non-bailable. Compensation: Compensation will be determined by the Court. In the case of damage or loss of property, the compensation payable to the victim will be twice the amount of the fair market value of the damaged or lost property, as determined by the Court. If the convicted person fails to pay the compensation, the amount will be recovered as an arrear of land revenue under the Revenue Recovery Act, 1890. Investigation: Cases registered under the Ordinance will be investigated by a police officer not below the rank of Inspector. The investigation must be completed within 30 days from the date of registration of the First Information Report. Trial: The inquiry or trial should be concluded within one year. If it is not concluded within this time period, the Judge must record the reasons for the delay and extend the time period. However, the time period may not be extended for more than six months at a time. When prosecuting a person for causing grievous harm to a healthcare service personnel, the Court will presume that person is guilty of the offence, unless the contrary is proved.

Q. Rajeev has to urgently travel to Bangladesh to meet his uncle who was suffering from a heart attack. The government detained him under the epidemic diseases act. What's the legality of the detention?

Solution: He can be detained if he travels by means that are restricted by the government. If Rajeev uses any other means not restricted by the government then he cannot be detained.
QUESTION: 95

The Epidemic Diseases (Amendment) Ordinance, 2020 was promulgated on April 22, 2020. The Ordinance amends the Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897. The Act provides for the prevention of the spread of dangerous epidemic diseases. Key features of the Ordinance include: Definitions: The Ordinance defines healthcare service personnel as a person who is at risk of contracting the epidemic disease while carrying out duties related to the epidemic. They include: (i) public and clinical healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, (ii) any person empowered under the Act to take measures to prevent the outbreak of the disease, and (iii) other persons designated as such by the state government. An ‘act of violence’ includes any of the following acts committed against a healthcare service personnel: (i) harassment impacting living or working conditions, (ii) harm, injury, hurt, or danger to life, (iii) obstruction in discharge of his duties, and (iv) loss or damage to the property or documents of the healthcare service personnel. Property is defined to include a: (i) clinical establishment, (ii) quarantine facility, (iii) mobile medical unit, and (iv) other property in which a healthcare service personnel has direct interest, in relation to the epidemic. Powers of the central government: The Act specifies that the central government may regulate: (i) the inspection of any ship or vessel leaving or arriving at any port, and (ii) the detention of any person intending to travel from the port, during an outbreak. Protection for healthcare personnel and damage to property: The Ordinance specifies that no person can: (i) commit or abet the commission of an act of violence against a healthcare service personnel, or (ii) abet or cause damage or loss to any property during an epidemic. These offences are cognizable and non-bailable. Compensation: Compensation will be determined by the Court. In the case of damage or loss of property, the compensation payable to the victim will be twice the amount of the fair market value of the damaged or lost property, as determined by the Court. If the convicted person fails to pay the compensation, the amount will be recovered as an arrear of land revenue under the Revenue Recovery Act, 1890. Investigation: Cases registered under the Ordinance will be investigated by a police officer not below the rank of Inspector. The investigation must be completed within 30 days from the date of registration of the First Information Report. Trial: The inquiry or trial should be concluded within one year. If it is not concluded within this time period, the Judge must record the reasons for the delay and extend the time period. However, the time period may not be extended for more than six months at a time. When prosecuting a person for causing grievous harm to a healthcare service personnel, the Court will presume that person is guilty of the offence, unless the contrary is proved.

Q. Garvita a nurse working in a testing center with a government license. She was stopped from going to her work by her neighbors as they felt that she might spread the virus to them. They locked her in a room and did not allow her to come out. Pradham, a sub inspector was in the vicinity and did the investigation of the case on which the court held that the neighbors could be prosecuted under the new ordinance. As a lawyer what's your view on the prosecution?

Solution: No, the neighbors cannot be prosecuted as the investigation was carried out by a sub inspector and not an inspector.
QUESTION: 96

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a

seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. Instigating a person to cause death and all the results of instigation amounts to murder. A man was chasing his wife with a stick intending to hit her and threatening to kill her. She in a hurry jumped out of a window and died as a result. Can the man be held liable for the death of the woman?

Solution: The man has necessitated the woman to act in this manner, and his threatening has caused her to jump from the window. Therefore, he should be held liable for her murder due to instigation. Therefore only sound choice is option (c).
QUESTION: 97

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a

seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. Unexplained/unreasonable/inordinate delay in disposal of mercy petition is one of the circumstances for commutation of death sentence to life imprisonment. Shreya, wife of Shreyash, filed the present Curative Petition, wherein she prayed for setting aside the death sentence imposed upon Shreyash by commuting the same to imprisonment for life on the ground of delay of 8 years in disposal of mercy petition. Will Shreya’s challenge succeed?

Solution: There was an unexplained delay of 8 years (which is a long time). Option (b) and (c) are out of scope of the line of questioning. Therefore, option (d) is the most appropriate answer.
QUESTION: 98

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. A curative petition is lodged on a grave error of law to undo a blatant error of law or its application. Hemant was convicted of murder. He was convicted by Sessions court. He appealed to the High Court but all evidence was against him so he lost in High Court. He appealed in Supreme Court but lost again due to lack of evidence. Now he wished to lodge a curative petition because he thinks the Supreme Court did not think properly on his matter. If Hemant challenges this decision, based only on the information set out in the given passage and in this question, will he succeed?

Solution: Hemant cannot file a curative petition as there is no mistake of law as the facts clearly state that he lost due to lack of evidence. All the other options are out of scope. Thus, option (d) is the right answer.
QUESTION: 99

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a

seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. All citizens shall have the right of freedom to practice any profession. A restriction which destroys the very right to freedom guaranteed under the constitution shall be considered an unreasonable restriction. Death trials have always been considered to be dehumanising as it often causes grave mental harassment to the accused. Parliament in order to prevent such harassment passed a law banning lawyers to be part of Death trials. If lawyers challenge this decision, based only on the information set out in the given passage and in this question, are the restrictions justified?

Solution: This restriction is patently illegal as it violates the right of freedom to practice law and is unreasonable. In this case the parliament can impose restriction on death penalty as a punishment.
QUESTION: 100

It is strange that the government wants the Supreme Court to frame a rule imposing a

seven-day limit on the time that convicts have to file a mercy petition after a death warrant is issued. And that courts, governments and prison authorities should all be mandated to issue death warrants within seven days of the rejection of mercy petitions and to carry out the sentence within seven days thereafter. On the need for a time limit for filing curative petitions, the government is right in believing that the absence of such a stipulation gives scope for convicts in the same case to take turns to file such petitions. However, there is no sign that the apex court delays disposal of curative petitions. If and when one is filed, it results in no more than a few days' delay. In a country that unfortunately retains the death penalty, there is no excuse for delaying the disposal of any petition, either in court, or before constitutional functionaries. Nor is there any need to expedite executions by revisiting sound guidelines. As the death penalty is limited to the ""rarest of rare"" cases, nothing is lost if those facing execution are allowed to exhaust all possible remedies.

Q. No man shall be deemed as a criminal until and unless proved beyond reasonable doubt. Gogi, a famous fashion designer was found murdered and the circumstantial evidence strongly pointed out towards Sonu. A vicious propaganda was launched against her, by certain media houses deeming him to be a murderer and a psychopath. Judgment delivered holding her guilty. If Sonu files a curative petition challenging the judgment being influenced by these acts of the media houses, will she succeed?

Solution: This restriction is patently illegal as it violates the right of freedom to practice law and is unreasonable. In this case the parliament can impose restriction on death penalty as a punishment.
QUESTION: 101

Bailment and Pledge are two special contracts that are often confused. Every pledge is a bailment but every bailment is not pledge. Bailment means a delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose. Whereas Pledge means delivery of goods as security for the payment of debt or performance of a promise. Therefore, Bailment & Pledge are two different contracts. Pledge is a special kind of bailment.

A bailment is a special contract defined under section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. It is derived from a French word i.e. “bailer” which means “to deliver”. The etymological meaning of bailment is “handing over” or “change of possession of goods”. By bailment, we mean delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose on the contract that they shall reimburse the goods on the fulfilment of the purpose or dispose of them as per the direction of the bailor. The person who delivers the goods is known as bailor. And the person to whom the goods are given is known as Bailee. And the property bailed is known as Bailed Property.

The Bailment is divided into two categories: Gratuitous Bailment: It is the duty of the bailor to disclose all the defects in the goods that he is aware of to the Bailee that can interfere with the use of goods or can expose him to extraordinary risks. And failure to do the same will make bailor liable for damages. Non – Gratuitous Bailment (Bailment for Reward): This duty particularly deals with the goods given on hire. As per this provision, when the goods are bailed for hire, then in such a situation even if the bailor is aware of the defect in the goods or not will be held liable for the injury that has been caused due to the existence of such defect.

Pledge is a kind of bailment. Pledge is also known as Pawn. It is defined under section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1892. By pledge, we mean bailment of goods as a security for the repayment of debt or loan advanced or performance of an obligation or promise. The person who pledges the goods as security is known as Pledger or Pawnor and the person in whose favour the goods are pledged is known as Pledgee or Pawnee. The main difference between pledge and bailment lies in the use of goods, i.e. the use of goods is prohibited in pledge, whereas in the case of bailment the party to whom the goods are being handed over can use them. As held in the case of Lallan Prasad v Rahmat Ali “A pawnor is one who being liable to an engagement gives to the person to whom he is liable a thing to be held as security for payment of his debt or the fulfilment of his liability and the person to whom its delivered shall be called pawnee”.

In the case of Bank of India v. Grains & Gunny Agencies- the court held that if the goods are lost or destroyed due to the negligence of servant of Bailee, then in such case as well Bailee shall be liable.

Q. Consider the following scenarios and decide which one applies.

I. Rithwik gave his clothes to the laundry for cleaning.

II. Mark took a loan from a bank against a security of gold.

Solution: Giving clothes to the laundry for the purpose of cleaning is Bailment and taking loan against security is called Pledge.
QUESTION: 102

Bailment and Pledge are two special contracts that are often confused. Every pledge is a bailment but every bailment is not pledge. Bailment means a delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose. Whereas Pledge means delivery of goods as security for the payment of debt or performance of a promise. Therefore, Bailment & Pledge are two different contracts. Pledge is a special kind of bailment.

A bailment is a special contract defined under section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. It is derived from a French word i.e. “bailer” which means “to deliver”. The etymological meaning of bailment is “handing over” or “change of possession of goods”. By bailment, we mean delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose on the contract that they shall reimburse the goods on the fulfilment of the purpose or dispose of them as per the direction of the bailor. The person who delivers the goods is known as bailor. And the person to whom the goods are given is known as Bailee. And the property bailed is known as Bailed Property.

The Bailment is divided into two categories: Gratuitous Bailment: It is the duty of the bailor to disclose all the defects in the goods that he is aware of to the Bailee that can interfere with the use of goods or can expose him to extraordinary risks. And failure to do the same will make bailor liable for damages. Non – Gratuitous Bailment (Bailment for Reward): This duty particularly deals with the goods given on hire. As per this provision, when the goods are bailed for hire, then in such a situation even if the bailor is aware of the defect in the goods or not will be held liable for the injury that has been caused due to the existence of such defect.

Pledge is a kind of bailment. Pledge is also known as Pawn. It is defined under section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1892. By pledge, we mean bailment of goods as a security for the repayment of debt or loan advanced or performance of an obligation or promise. The person who pledges the goods as security is known as Pledger or Pawnor and the person in whose favour the goods are pledged is known as Pledgee or Pawnee. The main difference between pledge and bailment lies in the use of goods, i.e. the use of goods is prohibited in pledge, whereas in the case of bailment the party to whom the goods are being handed over can use them. As held in the case of Lallan Prasad v Rahmat Ali “A pawnor is one who being liable to an engagement gives to the person to whom he is liable a thing to be held as security for payment of his debt or the fulfilment of his liability and the person to whom its delivered shall be called pawnee”.

In the case of Bank of India v. Grains & Gunny Agencies- the court held that if the goods are lost or destroyed due to the negligence of servant of Bailee, then in such case as well Bailee shall be liable.

Q. In relation to the above given passage which of the following statements is correct?

Solution: The main difference between pledge and bailment lies in the use of goods, i.e. the use of goods is prohibited in pledge, whereas in the case of bailment the party to whom the goods are being handed over can use them.
QUESTION: 103

Bailment and Pledge are two special contracts that are often confused. Every pledge is a bailment but every bailment is not pledge. Bailment means a delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose. Whereas Pledge means delivery of goods as security for the payment of debt or performance of a promise. Therefore, Bailment & Pledge are two different contracts. Pledge is a special kind of bailment.

A bailment is a special contract defined under section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. It is derived from a French word i.e. “bailer” which means “to deliver”. The etymological meaning of bailment is “handing over” or “change of possession of goods”. By bailment, we mean delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose on the contract that they shall reimburse the goods on the fulfilment of the purpose or dispose of them as per the direction of the bailor. The person who delivers the goods is known as bailor. And the person to whom the goods are given is known as Bailee. And the property bailed is known as Bailed Property.

The Bailment is divided into two categories: Gratuitous Bailment: It is the duty of the bailor to disclose all the defects in the goods that he is aware of to the Bailee that can interfere with the use of goods or can expose him to extraordinary risks. And failure to do the same will make bailor liable for damages. Non – Gratuitous Bailment (Bailment for Reward): This duty particularly deals with the goods given on hire. As per this provision, when the goods are bailed for hire, then in such a situation even if the bailor is aware of the defect in the goods or not will be held liable for the injury that has been caused due to the existence of such defect.

Pledge is a kind of bailment. Pledge is also known as Pawn. It is defined under section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1892. By pledge, we mean bailment of goods as a security for the repayment of debt or loan advanced or performance of an obligation or promise. The person who pledges the goods as security is known as Pledger or Pawnor and the person in whose favour the goods are pledged is known as Pledgee or Pawnee. The main difference between pledge and bailment lies in the use of goods, i.e. the use of goods is prohibited in pledge, whereas in the case of bailment the party to whom the goods are being handed over can use them. As held in the case of Lallan Prasad v Rahmat Ali “A pawnor is one who being liable to an engagement gives to the person to whom he is liable a thing to be held as security for payment of his debt or the fulfilment of his liability and the person to whom its delivered shall be called pawnee”.

In the case of Bank of India v. Grains & Gunny Agencies- the court held that if the goods are lost or destroyed due to the negligence of servant of Bailee, then in such case as well Bailee shall be liable.

Q. Mr A gives his watch for repair in Mr B’s shop. In this case who is called as bailor and bailee? And what is bailed property?

Solution:
QUESTION: 104

Bailment and Pledge are two special contracts that are often confused. Every pledge is a bailment but every bailment is not pledge. Bailment means a delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose. Whereas Pledge means delivery of goods as security for the payment of debt or performance of a promise. Therefore, Bailment & Pledge are two different contracts. Pledge is a special kind of bailment.

A bailment is a special contract defined under section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. It is derived from a French word i.e. “bailer” which means “to deliver”. The etymological meaning of bailment is “handing over” or “change of possession of goods”. By bailment, we mean delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose on the contract that they shall reimburse the goods on the fulfilment of the purpose or dispose of them as per the direction of the bailor. The person who delivers the goods is known as bailor. And the person to whom the goods are given is known as Bailee. And the property bailed is known as Bailed Property.

The Bailment is divided into two categories: Gratuitous Bailment: It is the duty of the bailor to disclose all the defects in the goods that he is aware of to the Bailee that can interfere with the use of goods or can expose him to extraordinary risks. And failure to do the same will make bailor liable for damages. Non – Gratuitous Bailment (Bailment for Reward): This duty particularly deals with the goods given on hire. As per this provision, when the goods are bailed for hire, then in such a situation even if the bailor is aware of the defect in the goods or not will be held liable for the injury that has been caused due to the existence of such defect.

Pledge is a kind of bailment. Pledge is also known as Pawn. It is defined under section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1892. By pledge, we mean bailment of goods as a security for the repayment of debt or loan advanced or performance of an obligation or promise. The person who pledges the goods as security is known as Pledger or Pawnor and the person in whose favour the goods are pledged is known as Pledgee or Pawnee. The main difference between pledge and bailment lies in the use of goods, i.e. the use of goods is prohibited in pledge, whereas in the case of bailment the party to whom the goods are being handed over can use them. As held in the case of Lallan Prasad v Rahmat Ali “A pawnor is one who being liable to an engagement gives to the person to whom he is liable a thing to be held as security for payment of his debt or the fulfilment of his liability and the person to whom its delivered shall be called pawnee”.

In the case of Bank of India v. Grains & Gunny Agencies- the court held that if the goods are lost or destroyed due to the negligence of servant of Bailee, then in such case as well Bailee shall be liable.

Q. Harry gave his bike to Danny for use to travel to college. Danny used it for racing purpose. Decide the liability of Danny?

Solution: Bailment means a delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose. Now Danny will be liable for unauthorized use of the bike.
QUESTION: 105

Bailment and Pledge are two special contracts that are often confused. Every pledge is a bailment but every bailment is not pledge. Bailment means a delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose. Whereas Pledge means delivery of goods as security for the payment of debt or performance of a promise. Therefore, Bailment & Pledge are two different contracts. Pledge is a special kind of bailment.

A bailment is a special contract defined under section 148 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. It is derived from a French word i.e. “bailer” which means “to deliver”. The etymological meaning of bailment is “handing over” or “change of possession of goods”. By bailment, we mean delivery of goods from one person to another for a special purpose on the contract that they shall reimburse the goods on the fulfilment of the purpose or dispose of them as per the direction of the bailor. The person who delivers the goods is known as bailor. And the person to whom the goods are given is known as Bailee. And the property bailed is known as Bailed Property.

The Bailment is divided into two categories: Gratuitous Bailment: It is the duty of the bailor to disclose all the defects in the goods that he is aware of to the Bailee that can interfere with the use of goods or can expose him to extraordinary risks. And failure to do the same will make bailor liable for damages. Non – Gratuitous Bailment (Bailment for Reward): This duty particularly deals with the goods given on hire. As per this provision, when the goods are bailed for hire, then in such a situation even if the bailor is aware of the defect in the goods or not will be held liable for the injury that has been caused due to the existence of such defect.

Pledge is a kind of bailment. Pledge is also known as Pawn. It is defined under section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1892. By pledge, we mean bailment of goods as a security for the repayment of debt or loan advanced or performance of an obligation or promise. The person who pledges the goods as security is known as Pledger or Pawnor and the person in whose favour the goods are pledged is known as Pledgee or Pawnee. The main difference between pledge and bailment lies in the use of goods, i.e. the use of goods is prohibited in pledge, whereas in the case of bailment the party to whom the goods are being handed over can use them. As held in the case of Lallan Prasad v Rahmat Ali “A pawnor is one who being liable to an engagement gives to the person to whom he is liable a thing to be held as security for payment of his debt or the fulfilment of his liability and the person to whom its delivered shall be called pawnee”.

In the case of Bank of India v. Grains & Gunny Agencies- the court held that if the goods are lost or destroyed due to the negligence of servant of Bailee, then in such case as well Bailee shall be liable.

Q. Mr. Ayer gave his carriage to Mr. Auden for hire for a few days. But there was a defect in the carriage of which Mr. Ayer was not aware of. Subsequently, Mr. Auden suffered injuries due to the defect in the carriage. Decide whether Mr. Ayer will be liable to pay damages?

Solution: The given scenario attracts Non – Gratuitous Bailment, hence Mr. Ayer is liable to pay damages to Mr. Auden even if he is not aware of the defect.
QUESTION: 106

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has mandated a minimum ring duration of 30 seconds for outgoing mobile calls before they are disconnected, and 60 seconds for such calls to landlines, a view that was backed by the older operators Bharti Airtel and Vodafone Idea but opposed by Reliance Jio, which wanted a shorter span of 15-to-20 seconds.

TRAI has mandated the terminating network to disconnect the incoming call after the minimum ring span and simultaneously inform the originating network. But in the event, the originating network does not receive the message, it can disconnect the call from its end after 90 seconds.

The call ring duration issue is at the heart of the interconnect usage charges (IUC) spat between the older carriers and Jio. Bharti Airtel had alleged earlier that Jio had shortened the call ringing time to manipulate the IUC regime. A shortened ring time span meant more missed calls, and therefore greater return calls to the Jio network, enabling the Mukesh Ambani-led telco to cut its net interconnect payouts to the incumbents.

IUC is paid by the call originating telco to the destination carrier for carrying its voice traffic. Airtel and Voda Idea are net revenue gainers under the present IUC system, while Jio is a net payer. Jio, on its part, had dismissed the allegations, saying 15-20 seconds call alert span is a globally followed norm. It had further contended that it was the incumbent operators that were gaming the IUC regime by charging their 2G/3G customers high voice tariffs as these customers were unable to move to the more efficient 4G operator owing to not having a compatible device.

The incumbents had earlier told Trai that Jio’s decision to cut ringing time to 20 seconds -- or just 4-5 rings -- had hugely inconvenienced customers and urged TRAI to set the minimum ring time for answering a call to 30 seconds. Jio had, subsequently, increased the ring duration for outgoing calls before they are disconnected to 25 seconds from 20 seconds. It though had said that a longer ring time duration “would unnecessarily engage scarce radio spectrum resources when such calls are unlikely to be answered”.

In its discussion paper on how long a phone ought to ring before a disconnection, Trai had also sought views on whether mobile users should be given the option to customise ringing duration to improve customer convenience, and possible ways to do so. In this context, TRAI said feedback from stakeholders suggested new technologies such as AI and machine learning (ML), though potentially useful for customising call ringing spans, are not immediately available in networks currently deployed. It added that Trai may “review the regulation as and when such capabilities become available”.

Q. As per the TRAI regulation, if one makes a call from an AIRTEL network to a land line, what is the minimum duration the phone will ring before the call is disconnected?

Solution:
QUESTION: 107

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has mandated a minimum ring duration of 30 seconds for outgoing mobile calls before they are disconnected, and 60 seconds for such calls to landlines, a view that was backed by the older operators Bharti Airtel and Vodafone Idea but opposed by Reliance Jio, which wanted a shorter span of 15-to-20 seconds.

TRAI has mandated the terminating network to disconnect the incoming call after the minimum ring span and simultaneously inform the originating network. But in the event, the originating network does not receive the message, it can disconnect the call from its end after 90 seconds.

The call ring duration issue is at the heart of the interconnect usage charges (IUC) spat between the older carriers and Jio. Bharti Airtel had alleged earlier that Jio had shortened the call ringing time to manipulate the IUC regime. A shortened ring time span meant more missed calls, and therefore greater return calls to the Jio network, enabling the Mukesh Ambani-led telco to cut its net interconnect payouts to the incumbents.

IUC is paid by the call originating telco to the destination carrier for carrying its voice traffic. Airtel and Voda Idea are net revenue gainers under the present IUC system, while Jio is a net payer. Jio, on its part, had dismissed the allegations, saying 15-20 seconds call alert span is a globally followed norm. It had further contended that it was the incumbent operators that were gaming the IUC regime by charging their 2G/3G customers high voice tariffs as these customers were unable to move to the more efficient 4G operator owing to not having a compatible device.

The incumbents had earlier told Trai that Jio’s decision to cut ringing time to 20 seconds -- or just 4-5 rings -- had hugely inconvenienced customers and urged TRAI to set the minimum ring time for answering a call to 30 seconds. Jio had, subsequently, increased the ring duration for outgoing calls before they are disconnected to 25 seconds from 20 seconds. It though had said that a longer ring time duration “would unnecessarily engage scarce radio spectrum resources when such calls are unlikely to be answered”.

In its discussion paper on how long a phone ought to ring before a disconnection, Trai had also sought views on whether mobile users should be given the option to customise ringing duration to improve customer convenience, and possible ways to do so. In this context, TRAI said feedback from stakeholders suggested new technologies such as AI and machine learning (ML), though potentially useful for customising call ringing spans, are not immediately available in networks currently deployed. It added that Trai may “review the regulation as and when such capabilities become available”.

Q. Based on the information given in the passage, which of the following statements is true?

I. JIO incurs higher charges when a call is made to other networks, so they are in favour of reduced ring span time so that the call from JIO to other network players gets disconnected and a return call ensues from the other player.

II. JIO users are charged more than the other players because they operate on the 4G network.

III. The global standard for a call ring duration is 30 seconds.

Solution:
QUESTION: 108

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has mandated a minimum ring duration of 30 seconds for outgoing mobile calls before they are disconnected, and 60 seconds for such calls to landlines, a view that was backed by the older operators Bharti Airtel and Vodafone Idea but opposed by Reliance Jio, which wanted a shorter span of 15-to-20 seconds.

TRAI has mandated the terminating network to disconnect the incoming call after the minimum ring span and simultaneously inform the originating network. But in the event, the originating network does not receive the message, it can disconnect the call from its end after 90 seconds.

The call ring duration issue is at the heart of the interconnect usage charges (IUC) spat between the older carriers and Jio. Bharti Airtel had alleged earlier that Jio had shortened the call ringing time to manipulate the IUC regime. A shortened ring time span meant more missed calls, and therefore greater return calls to the Jio network, enabling the Mukesh Ambani-led telco to cut its net interconnect payouts to the incumbents.

IUC is paid by the call originating telco to the destination carrier for carrying its voice traffic. Airtel and Voda Idea are net revenue gainers under the present IUC system, while Jio is a net payer. Jio, on its part, had dismissed the allegations, saying 15-20 seconds call alert span is a globally followed norm. It had further contended that it was the incumbent operators that were gaming the IUC regime by charging their 2G/3G customers high voice tariffs as these customers were unable to move to the more efficient 4G operator owing to not having a compatible device.

The incumbents had earlier told Trai that Jio’s decision to cut ringing time to 20 seconds -- or just 4-5 rings -- had hugely inconvenienced customers and urged TRAI to set the minimum ring time for answering a call to 30 seconds. Jio had, subsequently, increased the ring duration for outgoing calls before they are disconnected to 25 seconds from 20 seconds. It though had said that a longer ring time duration “would unnecessarily engage scarce radio spectrum resources when such calls are unlikely to be answered”.

In its discussion paper on how long a phone ought to ring before a disconnection, Trai had also sought views on whether mobile users should be given the option to customise ringing duration to improve customer convenience, and possible ways to do so. In this context, TRAI said feedback from stakeholders suggested new technologies such as AI and machine learning (ML), though potentially useful for customising call ringing spans, are not immediately available in networks currently deployed. It added that Trai may “review the regulation as and when such capabilities become available”.

Q. What was the justification that JIO gave for having a shorter duration of call ring span time?

Solution:
QUESTION: 109

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) has mandated a minimum ring duration of 30 seconds for outgoing mobile calls before they are disconnected, and 60 seconds for such calls to landlines, a view that was backed by the older operators Bharti Airtel and Vodafone Idea but opposed by Reliance Jio, which wanted a shorter span of 15-to-20 seconds.

TRAI has mandated the terminating network to disconnect the incoming call after the minimum ring span and simultaneously inform the originating network. But in the event, the originating network does not receive the message, it can disconnect the call from its end after 90 seconds.

The call ring duration issue is at the heart of the interconnect usage charges (IUC) spat between the older carriers and Jio. Bharti Airtel had alleged earlier that Jio had shortened the call ringing time to manipulate the IUC regime. A shortened ring time span meant more missed calls, and therefore greater return calls to the Jio network, enabling the Mukesh Ambani-led telco to cut its net interconnect payouts to the incumbents.

IUC is paid by the call originating telco to the destination carrier for carrying its voice traffic. Airtel and Voda Idea are net revenue gainers under the present IUC system, while Jio is a net payer. Jio, on its part, had dismissed the allegations, saying 15-20 seconds call alert span is a globally followed norm. It had further contended that it was the incumbent operators that were gaming the IUC regime by charging their 2G/3G customers high voice tariffs as these customers were unable to move to the more efficient 4G operator owing to not having a compatible device.

The incumbents had earlier told Trai that Jio’s decision to cut ringing time to 20 seconds -- or just 4-5 rings -- had hugely inconvenienced customers and urged TRAI to set the minimum ring time for answering a call to 30 seconds. Jio had, subsequently, increased the ring duration for outgoing calls before they are disconnected to 25 seconds from 20 seconds. It though had said that a longer ring time duration “would unnecessarily engage scarce radio spectrum resources when such calls are unlikely to be answered”.

In its discussion paper on how long a phone ought to ring before a disconnection, Trai had also sought views on whether mobile users should be given the option to customise ringing duration to improve customer convenience, and possible ways to do so. In this context, TRAI said feedback from stakeholders suggested new technologies such as AI and machine learning (ML), though potentially useful for customising call ringing spans, are not immediately available in networks currently deployed. It added that Trai may “review the regulation as and when such capabilities become available”.

Q. In case advanced Artificial Intelligence and Machine Learnings are implemented in the existing networks, which of the following is the best solution?

Solution:
QUESTION: 110

Remoteness of damage is an interesting principle. Once the damage is caused by a wrong, there have to be liabilities. The question is how much liability can be fixed, and what factor determines it. The principle of Remoteness of Damages is relevant to such cases. An event constituting a wrong can constitute a single consequence or may constitute a set of consequences i.e. series of acts/wrongs. The damage may be proximate or might be remote, or too remote. A few elaborations of cases would perhaps make it more clear.

In Haynes v. Harwood - the defendant’s servants negligently left a horse van unattended in a crowded street. The throwing of stones at the horses by a child, made them bolt and a policeman was injured in an attempt to stop them with a view to rescuing the woman and children on the road. One of the defences pleaded by the defendant was remoteness of consequences i.e. the mischief of the child was the proximate cause and the negligence of the servants was a remote cause. The rules on the remoteness of damage in the contract are found in the Court of Exchequer’s judgment in Hadley v Baxendale, as interpreted in later cases. In Hadley v Baxendale, the plaintiff’s mill had come to a standstill due to their crankshaft breakage. The defendant carrier failed to deliver the broken crankshaft to the manufacturer within the specified time. There had been a delay in restarting the mill. The plaintiff sued to recover the profits they would have made if the mill had been started without delay. The court rejected the claim on the ground that the mill’s profits must be stopped by an unreasonable delay in the carrier’s delivery of the broken shaft to the third person.

Certainly, the question of where to draw the line on recoverability of consequential losses cannot be answered by a mathematically precise formula. Judges have used their discretion from time to time, and in that process, two formulas have been highlighted:

1. The test of reasonable foresight

2. The test of directness

The Test of Reasonable Foresight - If the consequences of a wrongful act could be foreseen by a reasonable man, then they are not too remote. If on the other hand, a reasonable man could not have foreseen the consequences, then they are too remote. And, an individual shall be liable only for the consequences which are not too remote i.e. which could be foreseen.

The Test of Directness- according to the test of directness, a person is liable for all the direct consequences of his wrongful act, whether he could foresee them or not; because consequences which directly follow a wrongful act are not too remote.

Q. Suri was 6 feet 4 inches tall, working in the factory of Mandeep. The factory had a very low ceiling. Suri was aware of this problem and took as much precaution as possible, however, one fateful day, he banged his head on the fan and got severely hurt. Due to getting hurt on the head, he started suffering from depression and anxiety. One day while his treatment was still going on, in a fit of anxiety and depression, Suri hung himself and committed suicide. Suri 's kin holds Mandeep liable.

Can Mandeep be held responsible for Suri getting hurt on the head?

Solution: Mandeep can be held liable as the ceiling in his factory was very low and it is reasonably foreseeable that anyone could get hurt, which is the direct consequence, of the ceiling being low.
QUESTION: 111

Remoteness of damage is an interesting principle. Once the damage is caused by a wrong, there have to be liabilities. The question is how much liability can be fixed, and what factor determines it. The principle of Remoteness of Damages is relevant to such cases. An event constituting a wrong can constitute a single consequence or may constitute a set of consequences i.e. series of acts/wrongs. The damage may be proximate or might be remote, or too remote. A few elaborations of cases would perhaps make it more clear.

In Haynes v. Harwood - the defendant’s servants negligently left a horse van unattended in a crowded street. The throwing of stones at the horses by a child, made them bolt and a policeman was injured in an attempt to stop them with a view to rescuing the woman and children on the road. One of the defences pleaded by the defendant was remoteness of consequences i.e. the mischief of the child was the proximate cause and the negligence of the servants was a remote cause. The rules on the remoteness of damage in the contract are found in the Court of Exchequer’s judgment in Hadley v Baxendale, as interpreted in later cases. In Hadley v Baxendale, the plaintiff’s mill had come to a standstill due to their crankshaft breakage. The defendant carrier failed to deliver the broken crankshaft to the manufacturer within the specified time. There had been a delay in restarting the mill. The plaintiff sued to recover the profits they would have made if the mill had been started without delay. The court rejected the claim on the ground that the mill’s profits must be stopped by an unreasonable delay in the carrier’s delivery of the broken shaft to the third person.

Certainly, the question of where to draw the line on recoverability of consequential losses cannot be answered by a mathematically precise formula. Judges have used their discretion from time to time, and in that process, two formulas have been highlighted:

1. The test of reasonable foresight

2. The test of directness

The Test of Reasonable Foresight - If the consequences of a wrongful act could be foreseen by a reasonable man, then they are not too remote. If on the other hand, a reasonable man could not have foreseen the consequences, then they are too remote. And, an individual shall be liable only for the consequences which are not too remote i.e. which could be foreseen.

The Test of Directness- according to the test of directness, a person is liable for all the direct consequences of his wrongful act, whether he could foresee them or not; because consequences which directly follow a wrongful act are not too remote.

Q. In the situation given in the previous question, can Mandeep be held liable for Suri committing suicide?

Solution: Suri had got hurt on the head because of the low ceiling. He was getting treated for anxiety and depression. His treatment was still going on when he committed suicide. Committing suicide can be a direct and a forseeable act of a person suffering from damage on the head. Hence, Mandeep can be held liable for Suri committing suicide as well.
QUESTION: 112

Mob lynching is a term used to describe the acts of targeted violence by a large group of people. The violence is tantamount to offences against human body or property- both public as well as private. The mob believes that they are punishing t