Chapter - 3: Salient Features Of The Constitution (Gist)


30 Questions MCQ Test | Chapter - 3: Salient Features Of The Constitution (Gist)


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This mock test of Chapter - 3: Salient Features Of The Constitution (Gist) for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC Chapter - 3: Salient Features Of The Constitution (Gist) (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Chapter - 3: Salient Features Of The Constitution (Gist) quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this Chapter - 3: Salient Features Of The Constitution (Gist) exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Chapter - 3: Salient Features Of The Constitution (Gist) extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

 Which of the following features are common between the Constitution of India and the USA?
1. Single Citizenship
2. Three lists in the Constitution
3. Fundamental Rights
4. Federal system with strong centre
5. Judicial Review
6. Impeachment of the President
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:


QUESTION: 2

The 3rd Schedule of the Indian Constitution does not contain the provisions related to:

Solution:

Article 159 contains the provisions for oath or affirmation by Governors of States. Third Schedule contains the Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for the following:

  • The Union ministers
  • The candidates for election to the Parliament
  • The members of Parliament
  • The judges of the Supreme Court
  • The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
  • The state ministers
  • The candidates for election to the state legislature
  • The members of the state legislature
  • The judges of the High Courts
QUESTION: 3

With respect to the 4th Schedule of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Article 80 provides that the allocation of seats in the Council of States to be filled by representatives of the States and of the Union territories shall be in accordance with the provisions in that behalf contained in the fourth Schedule.
2. Article 4 provides for the consequential changes in First, Second and Fourth schedule necessary to provide effects to the provisions of law and as the Parliament may deem necessary.
Select the correct answer from codes given below:

Solution:

Fourth Schedule (Article 4 and 80) provides for the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories. Article 4 maintains that laws made under Articles 2 and 3 provide for the amendment of the First and the Fourth Schedules and supplemental, incidental and consequential matters.

QUESTION: 4

With reference to the Directive Principle of State Policy, consider the following statements:
1. DPSPs are contained in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
2. The idea of DPSPs was borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.
3. They impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application.
4. They aim to establish political democracy in the country.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

DPSPs are contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution in Article 36-51. The idea of DPSPs was borrowed from the constitution of Ireland. They impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application. They aim to establish social and economic democracy in the country.

QUESTION: 5

Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Constitution is solely based on the philosophy and ideals of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The Constitution emphasizes fundamental principles of governance but disregards the matters pertaining to legislation of political convention.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Indian constitution was criticised on the grounds of “Un-Gandhian” as the critics believed it did not reflect the philosophy and ideals of Mahatma Gandhi. However, the Indian Constitution does contain both- the detailed fundamental principles of governance as well as the ordinary legislation or established political conventions.

QUESTION: 6

Which of the following statement is not true with respect to the Indian Parliamentary form of Government?

Solution:

Indian Parliamentary form of Government:

  • It is based on the principle of cooperation and coordination between the legislative and executive

  • The legislature is responsible to the Parliament.

  • It is a sovereign body with an elected head

  • Article 368 lays down the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution,etc.

QUESTION: 7

Article 330 of Indian Constitution embodies:

Solution:

(i) Article 335 deals with Claims of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to services and posts.

(ii) Article 161 deals with Power of governor to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.

(iii) Article 330 deals with reservation of seats for scheduled caste and scheduled tribes in the House of People.

(iv) Article 213 deals with Power of governor to promulgate ordinances during recess of the state legislature.

QUESTION: 8

Consider the following the statements:
1. Article 30 embodies rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
2. The 9th Schedule was incorporated under the provisions of the Constitution through 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Solution:

Article 30 deals with the rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions while the Ninth Schedule incorporates Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.

QUESTION: 9

The provision for the Election to Upper House of Parliament under the Indian Constitution has been inspired from:

Solution:


QUESTION: 10

With regards to Co-operative societies, consider the following statements:
1. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 gave constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies.
2. It is a fundamental right under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution.
3. The strengthening of co-operative societies can be found in the state legislatures.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19). It empowers the Parliament in respect of multi-state cooperative societies and the state legislatures in respect of other co-operative societies to make the appropriate law.

QUESTION: 11

The Sixth Schedule extends to the provisions of tribal areas in states of:

Solution:

Sixth Schedule contains the provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

QUESTION: 12

Universal Adult Franchise provisions for every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age with a Right to Vote. Consider the following the statements in this regard:
1. It upholds the principle of equality in Indian democracy.
2. It is a fundamental right of all citizens.
3. The voting age was reduced to 18 years through 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
4. It protects the interest of weaker sections.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

Voting is not a fundamental right, but is a legal right granted to citizens . The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988. upholds the principle of equality, enables minorities to protect their interests and opens up new hopes and vistas for weaker sections.

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Constitution is quasi-federal in spirit and empowers the states to secede from the federation.
2. Article 352 enables the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution.
3. Part XVIII contains the emergency provisions to meet any extraordinary situation effectively.
4. Article 365 deals with the failure to comply with directions of t he Centre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

India is a ‘Union of States’ which implies that Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states and no state has the right to secede from the federation. Article 352 deals with National emergency on the ground of war or external aggression or armed rebellion. During an emergency, the Central Government becomes all-powerful and the states go into the total control of the centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution.

QUESTION: 14

Which of the following rights is embodied in the Article 27 of Indian Constitution?

Solution:

The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. Article 27 provides that No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion.

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following Statements:
1. Fundamental Rights are the absolutism of legislatures and executives.
2. Fundamental Rights explores social democracy.
3. Fundamental Rights are enforceable by the courts for their violation.
4. Supreme Courts issues writs in the matters of restoration of Fundamental Rights.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the idea of political democracy. They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. They are justiciable in nature, that is, they are enforceable by the courts for their violation.

QUESTION: 16

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution defy the secular character of the State?

Solution:

The Constitution of India abolished the old system of communal representation which was reservation of seats in the legislatures on the basis of religion. However, it provides for the temporary reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to ensure adequate representation to them.

QUESTION: 17

Match List I (Schedules of Indian Constitution) with List II (Subject Matter) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:
   

Solution:

QUESTION: 18

Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of a federal form of government?

Solution:

(i) Federal features include:

  • Two Government
  • Division of Powers
  • Written Constitution
  • Supremacy of Constitution
  • Rigidity of Constitution
  • Independent Judiciary
  • Bicameralism

(ii) Unitary or non-federal features include:

  • Strong Center
  • Single Constitution
  • Single Citizenship
  • Flexibility of Constitution
  • Integrated Judiciary
  • Appointment of state governors by the Center
  • All-India Services
  • Emergency Provisions
QUESTION: 19

Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution have been borrowed from the Constitution of the USA?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Idea of Residuary Powers
3. Power of Judicial Review
4. Independence of Judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:


QUESTION: 20

Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution?
1. Rule of Law
2. Law-making Procedure
3. Independence of Judiciary
4. Parliamentary System
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:


QUESTION: 21

Dr B.R. Ambedkar proudly acclaimed that the Constitution of India has been framed after ‘ransacking all the known Constitutions of the World’. In this context, consider the following pairs:

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Solution:


QUESTION: 22

Consider the following statements regarding the Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976:
1. It is termed as the Mini Constitution.
2. It added terms socialist, secular and justice to the Preamble of the Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

Solution:

42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is also termed as the Mini Constitution. It added three words Socialist, Secular and Integrity in the Preamble of Indian Constitution. It also provided for Fundamental Duties. 

QUESTION: 23

Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany?

Solution:


QUESTION: 24

Which of the following provisions under the Constitution of India make it a ‘Welfare State’?

Solution:

Directive Principle of State Policy is a novel feature of Indian Constitution. Enumerated in the Part IV of the Constitution, these principles promote the ideals of socio-economic democracy and impose a moral obligation on the state authorities to establish a welfare state.
Preamble contains the summary or essence of the Constitution. It does not have any obligatory provisions.
Fundamental Rights promote ideal of political democracy.
Article 1 of the Indian Constitution is related to Name and the territory of the Union.

QUESTION: 25

Which of the following article of the Constitution of India, empowers the Parliament to amend the provisions under the Constitution?

Solution:

QUESTION: 26

The concept of the Fundamental Duties is borrowed from:

Solution:


QUESTION: 27

Which of the following is/are the unitary feature/s of Indian Constitution?
1. Emergency Provisions
2. Veto on state bills
3. Parliaments Authority over state list
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

(i) Federal features include:

  • Two Government
  • Division of Powers
  • Written Constitution
  • Supremacy of Constitution
  • Rigidity of Constitution
  • Independent Judiciary
  • Bicameralism

(ii) Unitary or non-federal features include:

  • Strong Center
  • Single Constitution
  • Single Citizenship
  • Flexibility of Constitution
  • Integrated Judiciary
  • Appointment of state governors by the Center
  • All-India Services
  • Emergency Provisions
QUESTION: 28

Consider the following statements regarding 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011:
1. It made right to form co-operative societies a Fundamental Right.
2. It included a new DPSP on promotion of co-operative societies.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Solution:

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 provisioned for:

  • It made the right to form co-operative societies a Fundamental Right under Article 19.
  • It included new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co -operative societies under Article 43-B.
  • It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled as ‘The Co-operative Societies’ under Article 243-ZH to 243-ZT.
QUESTION: 29

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State?
1. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws.
2. Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment.
3. The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Solution:

The Constitution of India has provisioned for its Secular character i.e. the country does not have any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. These provisions include:

  • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, added the term ‘Secular’ to the preamble of the Constitution which secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
  • The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of t he laws.
  • The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion.
  • Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment.
  • All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion.
  • No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion.
  • All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
  • The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.
QUESTION: 30

With regard to Universal adult franchise, consider the following statements:
1. It enhances the self-respect and prestige of the common people and opens up new hopes and vistas for weaker sections.
2. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act provided for Universal adult franchise.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Universal Adult Franchise under the Indian Constitution provides a right to vote to every citizen of India who is not less than 18 years of age without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth and so on.
It makes democracy broad-based, enhances the self-respect and prestige of the common people, upholds the principle of equality, enables minorities to protect their interests and opens up new hopes and vistas for weaker sections.
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 has reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years.