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Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - CAT MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test 3 Months Preparation for CAT - Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 for CAT 2024 is part of 3 Months Preparation for CAT preparation. The Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 questions and answers have been prepared according to the CAT exam syllabus.The Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 MCQs are made for CAT 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 below.
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Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 1

10 people are sitting around a circular table, each facing the table. They are numbered 1 to 10 and are sitting in the following manner. 

They sit in the same arrangement for some time, till there is a transition. In a transition, one person moves out of the table, and a different person moves in, although not in the same seat. It happens in the following manner. In the first transition, a particular person(say A) moves out of the table, the person sitting diametrically opposite to A(say B) replaces him(A), and a new person(say C) enters the position where B sat initially. Every new person coming into the table is numbered in a successive way. So, the first person joining the table when one person leaves will be numbered 11, the next person joining the table will be numbered 12 and so on. In the second transition, the person to the immediate right of the person who joined last(say X), moves away. The person diametrically opposite to him(say Y) replaces him, and a new person(say Z) replaces Y. And this goes on. For example, suppose, in the first transition, 1 moves out of the table and 6 replaces him. A new person numbered 11 enters the position where 6 sat initially. In the second transition, the person to the immediate right of 11, that is 5, moves out of the table and 10 replaces him, and a new person 12 enters the position where 10 sat initially and it continues.
Based on the above information, answer the questions that follow.

Q. The person numbered 1 moves out of the table in the first transition. Which of the following persons remain on the table after the 15th transition?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 1

Initially, the arrangement is as follows.

Now, in the first transition, 1 moves out, 6 replaces 1 and 11 replaces 6. 

Now in the second transition, 5 moves out, 10 replaces 5, and 12 replaces 10.

Now, in the third transition, 9 moves out, 4 replaces 9, and 13 replaces 4.

In the fourth transition, 3 moves out, 8 replaces 3, and 14 replaces 8.

In the fifth transition, 7 moves out, 2 replaces 7 and 15 replaces 2.

In the sixth transition, 6 moves out, 11 replaces 6 and 16 replaces 11.

In the sixth transition, 6 moves out, 11 replaces 6 and 16 replaces 11.
So if we observe now, in the sixth transition, a person again moves out of seat A. This is similar to that of 1st transition, so we can assume a set of 5 transitions because, after each set of 5 transitions, the pattern repeats itself.
Now we need to see who is seating where initially and after the 5th transition so that we can use that information to deduce who is sitting where after each 5n transition.

So, after 5 transitions, 6, who sits at F replaces 1, hence after 10 transitions, 11 who sits at F replaces 6.
After 5 transitions, 15, who is the 5th person to enter the table replaces 1, hence after 10 transitions, 20 who is the 5th person to enter in the second 5 rounds replaces 15.
After 5 transitions, 8, who sits at H replaces 1, hence after 10 transitions, 14 who sits at H replaces 8.
After 5 transitions, 13, who is the 3rd person to enter the table replaces 4, hence after 10 transitions, 18 who is the 3rd person to enter in the second 5 rounds replaces 13.
Similarly, we can calculate for the remaining people, as to who would be seating where after the 10 transitions, and we get this.

In a similar way, we can calculate, who would be sitting where after the 15th transition.

Hence, out of the given options, 17 remain.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 2

10 people are sitting around a circular table, each facing the table. They are numbered 1 to 10 and are sitting in the following manner. 

They sit in the same arrangement for some time, till there is a transition. In a transition, one person moves out of the table, and a different person moves in, although not in the same seat. It happens in the following manner. In the first transition, a particular person(say A) moves out of the table, the person sitting diametrically opposite to A(say B) replaces him(A), and a new person(say C) enters the position where B sat initially. Every new person coming into the table is numbered in a successive way. So, the first person joining the table when one person leaves will be numbered 11, the next person joining the table will be numbered 12 and so on. In the second transition, the person to the immediate right of the person who joined last(say X), moves away. The person diametrically opposite to him(say Y) replaces him, and a new person(say Z) replaces Y. And this goes on. For example, suppose, in the first transition, 1 moves out of the table and 6 replaces him. A new person numbered 11 enters the position where 6 sat initially. In the second transition, the person to the immediate right of 11, that is 5, moves out of the table and 10 replaces him, and a new person 12 enters the position where 10 sat initially and it continues.
Based on the above information, answer the questions that follow.

Q. The person numbered 1 moves out of the table in the first transition. Which of the following represents all the people who remain seated after the 6th transition?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 2

Initially, the arrangement is as follows.

Now, in the first transition, 1 moves out, 6 replaces 1 and 11 replaces 6. 

Now in the second transition, 5 moves out, 10 replaces 5, and 12 replaces 10.

Now, in the third transition, 9 moves out, 4 replaces 9, and 13 replaces 4.

In the fourth transition, 3 moves out, 8 replaces 3, and 14 replaces 8.

In the fifth transition, 7 moves out, 2 replaces 7 and 15 replaces 2.

In the sixth transition, 6 moves out, 11 replaces 6 and 16 replaces 11.

So, after the 6th transition, 2, 4, 8, 10, 11, 12,13, 14, 15 and 16 remain seated.

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*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 3

Given below is a chart showing the average of a batsman, which gets updated after every match that he plays in a tournament. Before the start of the tournament, wherein he played 10 matches, he averaged 58 in 20 innings. He got out in each one of them. The batsman played the tournament with an intent to remain not out in as many innings he can. In this tournament, the highest he could score was 115. 

Consider, average of a batsman= Total runs scored in his career/Total time he was out
NOTE: Averages shown in the graph above are in multiples of 0.5

Q. What was the total career runs for the batsman just after the finish of the tournament?


Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 3

It is clear that a batsman can score a minimum of 0 runs in an innings. When he remains not out, his average remains the same (with 0 runs) and does not decrease. Therefore, if a batsman is not out in an innings, his average after the innings will not drop in any case.
Using this, we can infer that the batsman must have been out in 2nd, 5th and 8th match. In the rest of the matches, he can either be out or not out, both.
It is given that before the start of the tournament, the batsman averaged 58 in 20 innings. So, his total runs= 58 x 20 = 1160

After match 1
CASE 1- He is out. Total times, batsman was out = 20+1= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match x Total number of times he was out= 61.5 × 21= 1291.5, which is not possible (He cannot score runs in decimal).
CASE 2- He was not out in that innings. Total times, the batsman was out = 20
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out=61.5 x 20 = 1230, which is possible. Therefore, Case 2 is true and he scored (1230-1160)= 70 not out in the first match.
Match 2- As discussed earlier, the batsman cannot remain not out when the average drops. He must have been out in this match. 
Total times, the batsman was out = 20+1= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 59×21= 1239.
So, he scored a total of 1239- 1230= 9 runs in this match.
Match 3- 
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 21+1= 22.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 62 x 22 = 1364.
Runs scored if he was out= 1364- 1239= 125, which is not possible because his highest score in the tournament was that of 115.
CASE 2- The batsman remained not out. Total number of times he was out= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out=62 x 21 = 1302.
Runs scored in this match= 1302- 1239= 63 not out. 
Match 4-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 21+1= 22.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 63.5 ×22= 1397.
Runs scored in this match= 1397-1302=95.
CASE 2- The batsman remained not out. Total number of times he was out= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 63.5 ×21= 1333.5, which is not possible.
Hence, case 1 is true and he scored 95 in this match before getting out.
Match 5- It is clear that the batsman was out in this match as there is a drop of average after this match. So, total number of times the batsman was out after this match= 22+1= 23.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 62 ×23= 1426.
Runs scored in this match= 1426-1397=29.
Match 6-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 23+1= 24.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×24= 1608.
Runs scored in this match= 1608-1426= 182, which is not possible because his highest score was 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 23 
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×23= 1541.
Runs scored in this match= 1541-1426= 115, which is possible. So, case 2 is true and he scored 115 not out in this match.
Match 7-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 23+1= 24.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67.5 ×24= 1620.
Runs scored in this match= 1620-1541= 79, which is possible.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 23
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67.5 ×23= 1552.5, which is not possible as runs cannot be in decimals.
So, in match 7, the batsman scored 79 before getting out.
Match 8- As discussed earlier, he was out in this match as there is a drop in average. Total number of times he was out= 24+1= 25.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 65 ×25= 1625.
Runs scored in this match= 1625-1620= 5.
Match 9- 
CASE 1-  The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 25+1= 26.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×26= 1742.
Runs scored in this match= 1742-1625= 117, which is not possible as his highest score is of 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 25
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×25= 1675.
Runs scored in this match= 1675-1625= 50.
So, he scored 50 not out in the 9th match of the tournament.
Match 10-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 25+1= 26.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 68.5 ×26= 1781.
Runs scored in this match= 1781-1675= 106, which is possible as his highest score is 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 25
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 68.5 ×25= 1712.5, which is not possible as the runs cannot be in decimal.
.'. In the last match, the batsman scored a total of 106 runs before getting out.
The final scorecard of the batsman in the tournament will look like:

* Shows that the batsman was not out.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 4

10 people are sitting around a circular table, each facing the table. They are numbered 1 to 10 and are sitting in the following manner. 

They sit in the same arrangement for some time, till there is a transition. In a transition, one person moves out of the table, and a different person moves in, although not in the same seat. It happens in the following manner. In the first transition, a particular person(say A) moves out of the table, the person sitting diametrically opposite to A(say B) replaces him(A), and a new person(say C) enters the position where B sat initially. Every new person coming into the table is numbered in a successive way. So, the first person joining the table when one person leaves will be numbered 11, the next person joining the table will be numbered 12 and so on. In the second transition, the person to the immediate right of the person who joined last(say X), moves away. The person diametrically opposite to him(say Y) replaces him, and a new person(say Z) replaces Y. And this goes on. For example, suppose, in the first transition, 1 moves out of the table and 6 replaces him. A new person numbered 11 enters the position where 6 sat initially. In the second transition, the person to the immediate right of 11, that is 5, moves out of the table and 10 replaces him, and a new person 12 enters the position where 10 sat initially and it continues.
Based on the above information, answer the questions that follow.

Q. The person numbered 4 moves out of the table in the first transition. Let Xn be the initial position of the person numbered n, and let Ym be the position of the person numbered m after the 5th transition. Which of the following pairs represent the same position?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 4

Initially, the arrangement is as follows.

Now, in the first transition, 1 moves out, 6 replaces 1 and 11 replaces 6. 

Now in the second transition, 5 moves out, 10 replaces 5, and 12 replaces 10.

Now, in the third transition, 9 moves out, 4 replaces 9, and 13 replaces 4.

In the fourth transition, 3 moves out, 8 replaces 3, and 14 replaces 8.

In the fifth transition, 7 moves out, 2 replaces 7 and 15 replaces 2.


But in this question, we have been given that 4 moves out in the first transition.
Now we can take 2 approaches. First, we can repeat what we did when 1 moved out in the first transition to the case when 4 moved out in the first transition, and follow similar steps to find out who sits where after the fifth transition. 
The second and better approach is that since we have already worked out who sits where after the fifth transition (when 1 moves out first), we can simply apply the final results, adjusting them in a way that 4 is the first one to move. This approach follows the logic that irrespective of the person, the one who is sitting on A moves out first, so we can adjust in a way that 4 sits on A in the initial arrangement.

Now, in the first table, we see that 6 who was sitting on F is replacing 1, who was sitting on A. SImilarly, in table 2, 9 who is sitting on F will replace 4 who is sitting on A.
In the first table, 15(the person joining in the fifth transition) is replacing the one sitting at B. Similarly in table 2, 15 will be replacing 5.
In the first table, we see that 8 who was sitting on H is replacing 3, who was sitting on C. SImilarly, in table 2, 1 who is sitting on H will replace 6 who is sitting on C.
In the first table, 13(the person joining in th 3rd transition) is replacing the one sitting on D. Similarly in table 2, 13 will be replacing 7.
We can continue in a similar fashion to find out the positions of all people after the 5th transition.

Hence the initial position of 2 and the final position of 7 are the same.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 5

10 people are sitting around a circular table, each facing the table. They are numbered 1 to 10 and are sitting in the following manner. 

They sit in the same arrangement for some time, till there is a transition. In a transition, one person moves out of the table, and a different person moves in, although not in the same seat. It happens in the following manner. In the first transition, a particular person(say A) moves out of the table, the person sitting diametrically opposite to A(say B) replaces him(A), and a new person(say C) enters the position where B sat initially. Every new person coming into the table is numbered in a successive way. So, the first person joining the table when one person leaves will be numbered 11, the next person joining the table will be numbered 12 and so on. In the second transition, the person to the immediate right of the person who joined last(say X), moves away. The person diametrically opposite to him(say Y) replaces him, and a new person(say Z) replaces Y. And this goes on. For example, suppose, in the first transition, 1 moves out of the table and 6 replaces him. A new person numbered 11 enters the position where 6 sat initially. In the second transition, the person to the immediate right of 11, that is 5, moves out of the table and 10 replaces him, and a new person 12 enters the position where 10 sat initially and it continues.
Based on the above information, answer the questions that follow.

Q. The person numbered 1 moves out of the table in the first transition. Which of the following persons move out of the table in the 4th transition?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 5

Initially, the arrangement is as follows.

Now, in the first transition, 1 moves out, 6 replaces 1 and 11 replaces 6. 

Now in the second transition, 5 moves out, 10 replaces 5, and 12 replaces 10.

Now, in the third transition, 9 moves out, 4 replaces 9, and 13 replaces 4.

In the fourth transition, 3 moves out, 8 replaces 3, and 14 replaces 8.

Hence, 3 moves out of the table in the 4th transition.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 6

Given below is a chart showing the average of a batsman, which gets updated after every match that he plays in a tournament. Before the start of the tournament, wherein he played 10 matches, he averaged 58 in 20 innings. He got out in each one of them. The batsman played the tournament with an intent to remain not out in as many innings he can. In this tournament, the highest he could score was 115. 

Consider, average of a batsman= Total runs scored in his career/Total time he was out
NOTE: Averages shown in the graph above are in multiples of 0.5

Q. What was the highest score of the batsman in the innings where he got out?


Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 6

It is clear that a batsman can score a minimum of 0 runs in an innings. When he remains not out, his average remains the same (with 0 runs) and does not decrease. Therefore, if a batsman is not out in an innings, his average after the innings will not drop in any case.
Using this, we can infer that the batsman must have been out in 2nd, 5th and 8th match. In the rest of the matches, he can either be out or not out, both.
It is given that before the start of the tournament, the batsman averaged 58 in 20 innings. So, his total runs= 58 x 20 = 1160

After match 1
CASE 1- He is out. Total times, batsman was out = 20+1= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match x Total number of times he was out= 61.5 × 21= 1291.5, which is not possible (He cannot score runs in decimal).
CASE 2- He was not out in that innings. Total times, the batsman was out = 20
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out=61.5 x 20 = 1230, which is possible. Therefore, Case 2 is true and he scored (1230-1160)= 70 not out in the first match.
Match 2- As discussed earlier, the batsman cannot remain not out when the average drops. He must have been out in this match. 
Total times, the batsman was out = 20+1= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 59×21= 1239.
So, he scored a total of 1239- 1230= 9 runs in this match.
Match 3- 
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 21+1= 22.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 62 x 22 = 1364.
Runs scored if he was out= 1364- 1239= 125, which is not possible because his highest score in the tournament was that of 115.
CASE 2- The batsman remained not out. Total number of times he was out= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out=62 x 21 = 1302.
Runs scored in this match= 1302- 1239= 63 not out. 
Match 4-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 21+1= 22.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 63.5 ×22= 1397.
Runs scored in this match= 1397-1302=95.
CASE 2- The batsman remained not out. Total number of times he was out= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 63.5 ×21= 1333.5, which is not possible.
Hence, case 1 is true and he scored 95 in this match before getting out.
Match 5- It is clear that the batsman was out in this match as there is a drop of average after this match. So, total number of times the batsman was out after this match= 22+1= 23.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 62 ×23= 1426.
Runs scored in this match= 1426-1397=29.
Match 6-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 23+1= 24.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×24= 1608.
Runs scored in this match= 1608-1426= 182, which is not possible because his highest score was 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 23 
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×23= 1541.
Runs scored in this match= 1541-1426= 115, which is possible. So, case 2 is true and he scored 115 not out in this match.
Match 7-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 23+1= 24.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67.5 ×24= 1620.
Runs scored in this match= 1620-1541= 79, which is possible.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 23
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67.5 ×23= 1552.5, which is not possible as runs cannot be in decimals.
So, in match 7, the batsman scored 79 before getting out.
Match 8- As discussed earlier, he was out in this match as there is a drop in average. Total number of times he was out= 24+1= 25.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 65 ×25= 1625.
Runs scored in this match= 1625-1620= 5.
Match 9- 
CASE 1-  The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 25+1= 26.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×26= 1742.
Runs scored in this match= 1742-1625= 117, which is not possible as his highest score is of 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 25
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×25= 1675.
Runs scored in this match= 1675-1625= 50.
So, he scored 50 not out in the 9th match of the tournament.
Match 10-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 25+1= 26.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 68.5 ×26= 1781.
Runs scored in this match= 1781-1675= 106, which is possible as his highest score is 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 25
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 68.5 ×25= 1712.5, which is not possible as the runs cannot be in decimal.
.'. In the last match, the batsman scored a total of 106 runs before getting out.
The final scorecard of the batsman in the tournament will look like:

* Shows that the batsman was not out.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 7

Given below is a chart showing the average of a batsman, which gets updated after every match that he plays in a tournament. Before the start of the tournament, wherein he played 10 matches, he averaged 58 in 20 innings. He got out in each one of them. The batsman played the tournament with an intent to remain not out in as many innings he can. In this tournament, the highest he could score was 115. 

Consider, average of a batsman= Total runs scored in his career/Total time he was out
NOTE: Averages shown in the graph above are in multiples of 0.5

Q. What was the batsman's total career runs after the finish of the 6th match in the tournament?


Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 7

It is clear that a batsman can score a minimum of 0 runs in an innings. When he remains not out, his average remains the same (with 0 runs) and does not decrease. Therefore, if a batsman is not out in an innings, his average after the innings will not drop in any case.
Using this, we can infer that the batsman must have been out in 2nd, 5th and 8th match. In the rest of the matches, he can either be out or not out, both.
It is given that before the start of the tournament, the batsman averaged 58 in 20 innings. So, his total runs= 58 x 20 = 1160

After match 1
CASE 1- He is out. Total times, batsman was out = 20+1= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match x Total number of times he was out= 61.5 × 21= 1291.5, which is not possible (He cannot score runs in decimal).
CASE 2- He was not out in that innings. Total times, the batsman was out = 20
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out=61.5 x 20 = 1230, which is possible. Therefore, Case 2 is true and he scored (1230-1160)= 70 not out in the first match.
Match 2- As discussed earlier, the batsman cannot remain not out when the average drops. He must have been out in this match. 
Total times, the batsman was out = 20+1= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 59×21= 1239.
So, he scored a total of 1239- 1230= 9 runs in this match.
Match 3- 
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 21+1= 22.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 62 x 22 = 1364.
Runs scored if he was out= 1364- 1239= 125, which is not possible because his highest score in the tournament was that of 115.
CASE 2- The batsman remained not out. Total number of times he was out= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out=62 x 21 = 1302.
Runs scored in this match= 1302- 1239= 63 not out. 
Match 4-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 21+1= 22.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 63.5 ×22= 1397.
Runs scored in this match= 1397-1302=95.
CASE 2- The batsman remained not out. Total number of times he was out= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 63.5 ×21= 1333.5, which is not possible.
Hence, case 1 is true and he scored 95 in this match before getting out.
Match 5- It is clear that the batsman was out in this match as there is a drop of average after this match. So, total number of times the batsman was out after this match= 22+1= 23.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 62 ×23= 1426.
Runs scored in this match= 1426-1397=29.
Match 6-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 23+1= 24.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×24= 1608.
Runs scored in this match= 1608-1426= 182, which is not possible because his highest score was 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 23 
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×23= 1541.
Runs scored in this match= 1541-1426= 115, which is possible. So, case 2 is true and he scored 115 not out in this match.
Match 7-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 23+1= 24.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67.5 ×24= 1620.
Runs scored in this match= 1620-1541= 79, which is possible.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 23
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67.5 ×23= 1552.5, which is not possible as runs cannot be in decimals.
So, in match 7, the batsman scored 79 before getting out.
Match 8- As discussed earlier, he was out in this match as there is a drop in average. Total number of times he was out= 24+1= 25.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 65 ×25= 1625.
Runs scored in this match= 1625-1620= 5.
Match 9- 
CASE 1-  The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 25+1= 26.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×26= 1742.
Runs scored in this match= 1742-1625= 117, which is not possible as his highest score is of 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 25
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×25= 1675.
Runs scored in this match= 1675-1625= 50.
So, he scored 50 not out in the 9th match of the tournament.
Match 10-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 25+1= 26.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 68.5 ×26= 1781.
Runs scored in this match= 1781-1675= 106, which is possible as his highest score is 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 25
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 68.5 ×25= 1712.5, which is not possible as the runs cannot be in decimal.
.'. In the last match, the batsman scored a total of 106 runs before getting out.
The final scorecard of the batsman in the tournament will look like:

* Shows that the batsman was not out.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 8

Given below is a chart showing the average of a batsman, which gets updated after every match that he plays in a tournament. Before the start of the tournament, wherein he played 10 matches, he averaged 58 in 20 innings. He got out in each one of them. The batsman played the tournament with an intent to remain not out in as many innings he can. In this tournament, the highest he could score was 115. 

Consider, average of a batsman= Total runs scored in his career/Total time he was out
NOTE: Averages shown in the graph above are in multiples of 0.5

Q. How many times was the batsman out in this tournament?


Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 8

It is clear that a batsman can score a minimum of 0 runs in an innings. When he remains not out, his average remains the same (with 0 runs) and does not decrease. Therefore, if a batsman is not out in an innings, his average after the innings will not drop in any case.
Using this, we can infer that the batsman must have been out in 2nd, 5th and 8th match. In the rest of the matches, he can either be out or not out, both.
It is given that before the start of the tournament, the batsman averaged 58 in 20 innings. So, his total runs= 58 x 20 = 1160

After match 1
CASE 1- He is out. Total times, batsman was out = 20+1= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match x Total number of times he was out= 61.5 × 21= 1291.5, which is not possible (He cannot score runs in decimal).
CASE 2- He was not out in that innings. Total times, the batsman was out = 20
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out=61.5 x 20 = 1230, which is possible. Therefore, Case 2 is true and he scored (1230-1160)= 70 not out in the first match.
Match 2- As discussed earlier, the batsman cannot remain not out when the average drops. He must have been out in this match. 
Total times, the batsman was out = 20+1= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 59×21= 1239.
So, he scored a total of 1239- 1230= 9 runs in this match.
Match 3- 
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 21+1= 22.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 62 x 22 = 1364.
Runs scored if he was out= 1364- 1239= 125, which is not possible because his highest score in the tournament was that of 115.
CASE 2- The batsman remained not out. Total number of times he was out= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out=62 x 21 = 1302.
Runs scored in this match= 1302- 1239= 63 not out. 
Match 4-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 21+1= 22.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 63.5 ×22= 1397.
Runs scored in this match= 1397-1302=95.
CASE 2- The batsman remained not out. Total number of times he was out= 21.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 63.5 ×21= 1333.5, which is not possible.
Hence, case 1 is true and he scored 95 in this match before getting out.
Match 5- It is clear that the batsman was out in this match as there is a drop of average after this match. So, total number of times the batsman was out after this match= 22+1= 23.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 62 ×23= 1426.
Runs scored in this match= 1426-1397=29.
Match 6-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 23+1= 24.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×24= 1608.
Runs scored in this match= 1608-1426= 182, which is not possible because his highest score was 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 23 
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×23= 1541.
Runs scored in this match= 1541-1426= 115, which is possible. So, case 2 is true and he scored 115 not out in this match.
Match 7-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 23+1= 24.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67.5 ×24= 1620.
Runs scored in this match= 1620-1541= 79, which is possible.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 23
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67.5 ×23= 1552.5, which is not possible as runs cannot be in decimals.
So, in match 7, the batsman scored 79 before getting out.
Match 8- As discussed earlier, he was out in this match as there is a drop in average. Total number of times he was out= 24+1= 25.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 65 ×25= 1625.
Runs scored in this match= 1625-1620= 5.
Match 9- 
CASE 1-  The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 25+1= 26.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×26= 1742.
Runs scored in this match= 1742-1625= 117, which is not possible as his highest score is of 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 25
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 67 ×25= 1675.
Runs scored in this match= 1675-1625= 50.
So, he scored 50 not out in the 9th match of the tournament.
Match 10-
CASE 1- The batsman was out. Total number of times he was out= 25+1= 26.
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 68.5 ×26= 1781.
Runs scored in this match= 1781-1675= 106, which is possible as his highest score is 115.
CASE 2- The batsman was not out. Total number of times he was out= 25
Total runs after this match= Average after this match ×Total number of times he was out= 68.5 ×25= 1712.5, which is not possible as the runs cannot be in decimal.
.'. In the last match, the batsman scored a total of 106 runs before getting out.
The final scorecard of the batsman in the tournament will look like:

* Shows that the batsman was not out.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 9

2 friends Virat and Sourav are playing a game that involves a dice. In each round, Virat rolls the dice twice, and then Sourav rolls the dice twice. If the sum of the numbers that Virat gets exceeds the sum of numbers that Sourav gets, Virat wins the round, else Sourav wins the round. In case the sum is the same, Sourav is given the advantage and he wins the round. The game ends when any one of them wins three consecutive rounds, and he is declared the winner. Based on the information given, answer the questions that follow.

Q. In a particular game, Sourav and Virat decide that either of them can start the first round, but whoever starts the first round has to start all subsequent rounds. Following is the sequence of numbers that come up starting from the first roll of dice in round 1. It is known that the game ends after the 12th throw of the dice (with the last roll of 2) as shown in the pattern.
3 6 5 4 2 5 A 1 B C 1 2
By varying the values of A, B and C, what is the total number of ways Sourav and Virat can throw the dice in the above pattern?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 9

Since the total number of rolls = 12, the number of rounds in the game = 12/4 = 3
This implies that in all 3 rounds, the same player wins, in order to complete the game in round 3.
Let us suppose Virat starts the first round.
Now, in the first round, Virat's sum = 3 + 6 = 9, and Sourav's sum = 5 + 4 = 9.
In case the sum is the same, Sourav wins. Hence in Round 2 and Round 3 also, Sourav wins.
For Sourav to win in Round 2, he must roll a minimum sum of 7 so that he can match the sum of Virat and win the round. Hence, A can only be 6.
For Sourav to win the third round as well, Virat cannot exceed the sum of Sourav.
Sourav's sum = 1 + 2 = 3.
Hence, Virat can roll (1,1), (1,2) or (2,1). Hence B and C can together take 3 different ordered pairs as values.
Hence, the required count = 1 x 3 = 3
Let us suppose Sourav starts the first round.
Now, in the first round, Sourav's sum = 3 + 6 = 9, and Virat's sum = 5 + 4 = 9.
In case the sum is the same, Sourav wins. Hence in Round 2 and Round 3 also, Sourav wins.
Sourav rolls a sum of 2 + 5 = 7 in the second round. So Virat has to roll a sum less than or equal to 7. So, A can take 1 to 6. Hence, 6 values.
In round 3, Virat rolls a sum of 3. Sourav has to throw a minimum of a total of 3. So he can roll anything except (1,1). Hence number of possibilities = 36 - 1 = 35.
Hence, the required count = 35 x 6 = 210.
Hence, total count = 210 + 3 = 213.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 10

A cunning rice merchant uses a faulty weighing machine to cheat. While buying the rice from the whole seller he uses a faulty machine which shows the quantity 20% less than actually on the scale. While selling the rice, he uses another faulty scale which shows 10% extra weight than that on the scale. He marks up the price of rice by 20% on the rate he bought from the wholesaler. Sherlock found out about this scam and asked the rice seller to give approximately a d% discount on the current marked price so that the rice seller doesn't make a profit or a loss. What is the value of [d]?
[X] represents the largest integer less than or equal to X.


Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 10

Let the rate at which the whole seller sells the rice be Rs x per kg.
But the cunning merchant uses the faulty scale to trick the wholesaler. When the wholeseller puts in 1kg of rice, the machine will show 0.8kg of rice. Thus merchant will get 1 kg of rice for the price of 0.8x0.8x and thus Actual selling price for the wholeseller = Actual cost-price for the merchant = Rs0.8x = 4x/5 per kg.
The rate at which he sells the rice = Rs 1.2x per kg.
When the merchant puts 1 kg of rice on the weighing machine, the machine will show 1.1 kg.
As per the rate the customer has to pay 1.2x x 1.1 = 1.32x  for 1 kg of rice. 
Actual selling price for the merchant= Rs 1.32x per kg
Let Sherlock by y kgs of rice.
Cost price to the merchant = 0.8xy
Actual selling price for the merchant = 1.32 xy
Discount = d
In order to be no-profit no loss

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 11

An absent-minded shopkeeper interchanged the markup of m% and discount d% of a product. So, instead of making a profit of 8%, he made a loss of 12% on the product. What is the value of d2 + m2?


Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 11

Let the cost price be x
When markup percent is m% and discount given is d% then (1+m%)(1−d%)x=1.08x
Upon expanding we get 

When markup percent is d% and discount given is m% then
(1+d%)(1−m%)x = 0.88x
Upon expanding we get

Adding (I) and (II) we get,

Substracting  (I) and (II) we get,

or m-d =10
Squaring both sides, m2 + d2 - 2md = 100
m2 + d2 - 400 = 100
m2 + d2 = 500

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 12

Let N be a natural number < 1500 exist such that when N divided by 7 has the same remainder when N3  is divided by 7. How many such values of N are there?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 12

We have to find values of N such that N and Nboth have the same remainder when divided by 7
Thus (N mod 7) =(N3 mod 7)
It can be written as 
(N mod 7) = (N x N x N) mod7 = (Nmod7) x (Nmod7) x (Nmod7).
Thus it can be implied that
(N mod 7) = (N mod 7)3
When N = 1 then (Nmod7) = (Nmod7)3 = 1 so N =1 is a solution
When N = 2 then (Nmod7) = 2 and (Nmod7)3 = 1 so N ≠ 2

When N = 7 then the remainder is 0. Thus N has to be of form 7k, 7k+1 and 7k+6 to meet the required criteria
N< 1500 of from 7k = 7,14, .... 1498 which is 214 terms
N<1500 of from 7k+1 = 1, 8,15, .... 1499 which is again 215 terms
N<1500 of from 7k+6 = 6,15, .... 1497 which is again 214 terms
Total terms = 214+215+214 = 643.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 13

Among all the possible permutation of the word " VENKATESHAN" What is the probability that a word is chosen such that both the "A"s are before both the "E"s?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 13

There are a total of 11 alphabets in VENKATESHAN which when arranged in ascending order are A, A, E, E, H K, N, N, S, T and V.
Total possible permutation are =  
Now we need to find the cases where all the "A"s are before "E"s. There are total of 2 A and 2 E. If we pick places for A and E, they can be placed in one way. 4 places can be picked in 11C4 ways.
Remaining 7 alphabets can be arranged in 7!/2! ways.
The number of ways possible  = 
Probability = 
Probability = 

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 14

How many 4-digit numbers exist which is divisible by 3 or 8?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 14

The divisibility rule of 3 states that the sum of digits has to be divisible by 3 in order to be divisible by 3.
Such numbers are 1002,1005,1008.....9999 : 3000 numbers.
The divisibility rules of 8 imply that the last 3 digits have to be divisible by 8: Thus "dcba" has to be divisible by 8. Such number are : 1000,1008,..9992 : 1125.
We have included the number which are divisible by 24 twice. Thus we have to remove those extra numbers.
Such number are : 1008,1032,...9984: 375 numbers.
The numbers of 4-digit number  which are divisible by 3 or 8: 3000+1125-375 = 3750.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 15

Siddhart is a pen-seller. He sells a pen such that the profit earned by selling 10 pens is equal to the cost price of 1 pen. The discount he gave on the marked price of the pen is 3 times the profit he earned by selling the pen. What approximate discount % should he offer the customer if he wishes to have a profit of 20%

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 15

Let the profit be P and cost price be C.P
Then 10 P = C.P ....(I)
Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit = 10 P +P = 11P
Discount given  = 3P.
Marked price = Selling Price + Discount = 11P+3P = 14P.
Let the discount given to ensure profit of 20% be d%.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 16

AB and CD are 2 parallel chords of a circle which has a radius of 10 units. Parallel chords are 14 units apart such that one of the chords has a length of 12 units. What is the length of non-parallel side of trapezium ABCD

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 16

Since the radius of the circle is 10 and the chords are 14 units apart, both of them have to be on the opposite side of the centre, let CD = 12. It can be shown as

E and F are the midpoint of respective chords.
From the properties of the circle, we know that OF is the perpendicular bisector of DC. Thus DF = 6 and OD =10(radius). It gives OF = 8 (from Pythagoras theorem)
Since it is given that EF = 14, it implies that EO = 14-OF =14-8 = 6
EOB is also a right-triangle such that EO = 6 and OB = 10. This gives EB = 8 or AB = 16.
Since they are symmetrical the trapezium will look like this

From pythogoras we find that AD2 = 142 + 22 = 196 + 4 = 200
AD = 10√2

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 17

A rectangle ABCD exists such that AB = 6 units and BC = 12 units. E and F trisect the diagonal AC in 3 equal parts. G is centroid of the triangle formed by DEF. What is the area of DGBC?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 17

Let us draw a rectangle on the coordinate axis. With (0,0) be one of the edge A. B can be (6,0), C(6,12) and D(0,12).  E and F divide the AC in 3 equal part. E has to be (2,4) and F (4,8)
G is  centroid of DEF, Coordinates of G will be 

Upon finding G the required diagram looks like this

Area DGBC = Area GBC + Area DCG
Area DGBC = 
Area DGBC = 24+12 = 36 sq units

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 18

What is the ratio of the shaded region to non-shaded region in the following diagram

ABC is an equilateral triangle and D, E and F are the midpoint of the sides.

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 18

Since ABC is an equilateral triangle and DEF is the midpoint. Thus they will divide the ABC in 4 equilateral triangle of side half of that of ABC
Let side of ABC = 2a units. Then the side of the smaller triangle is a unit.
Shaded region = Area of 3 small circles + Area DEF - Area of 1 small circle
Shaded region = Area of 2 small circles + Area DEF 
Circles are an incircle of equilateral triangle of side "a"
Radius of this incircle 
Area of 1 small circle = 
Area of 2 small circle 
Area of triangle DEF = 
Shaded area = 
Unshaded area = Total area - Shaded area
Unshaded area =  - Shaded area
Unshaded area = 
Unshaded area = 
Ratio = 

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 19

A number N is given by = 25 x 38 x 42 x 53 x 6 x 72
If a certain factor of N is not divisible by 9, the probability that the factor is an odd number is m/n where 'n' is a natural number less than 20. Find the value of m+n. 


Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 19
  • Let us start by writing the N in empirical form which is 25 x 38 x 24 x 53 x 2 x 3 x 72
  • Which equals 210 x 39 x 53 x 72
  • Let A = number of factors not divisible by 9
  • B = Number of Factors which are odd
  • We have to find 
  • (A∩B) = Number of factors not divisible by 9 and are odd. It implies it does not have 2 as a factor and the highest power of 3 can be  1. Such type of factors are = (1+1)(3+1)(2+1) = 24
  • A = Number of factors that are not divisible by 9. Thus the maximum power of 3 they can have is 1. Such number are = (10+1)(1+1)(3+1)(2+1) = 264
  • Probability = 24/264 = 1/11
  • m+n = 12.
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 20

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. 

With our climate-impacted world now highly prone to fires, extreme storms and sea-level rise, nuclear energy is touted as a possible replacement for the burning of fossil fuels for energy - the leading cause of climate change. Nuclear power can demonstrably reduce carbon dioxide emissions. Yet scientific evidence and recent catastrophes call into question whether nuclear power could function safely in our warming world. Wild weather, fires, rising sea levels, earthquakes and warming water temperatures all increase the risk of nuclear accidents, while the lack of safe, long-term storage for radioactive waste remains a persistent danger.

The Santa Susana Field Laboratory property has had a long history of contaminated soil and groundwater. Indeed, a 2006 advisory panel compiled a report suggesting that workers at the lab, as well as residents living nearby, had unusually high exposure to radiation and industrial chemicals that are linked to an increased incidence of some cancers. Discovery of the pollution prompted California’s DTSC in 2010 to order cleanup of the site by its current owner - Boeing - with assistance from the US Department of Energy and NASA. But the required cleanup has been hampered by Boeing’s legal fight to perform a less rigorous cleaning.

Like the Santa Susana Field Lab, Chernobyl remains largely unremediated since its meltdown in 1986. With each passing year, dead plant material accumulates and temperatures rise, making it especially prone to fires in the era of climate change. Radiation releases from contaminated soils and forests can be carried thousands of kilometres away to human population centres, according to experts.

Kate Brown, a historian at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology and the author of Manual for Survival: A Chernobyl Guide to the Future (2019), and Tim Mousseau, an evolutionary biologist at the University of South Carolina, also have grave concerns about forest fires. ‘Records show that there have been fires in the Chernobyl zone that raised the radiation levels by seven to 10 times since 1990,’ Brown says. Further north, melting glaciers contain ‘radioactive fallout from global nuclear testing and nuclear accidents at levels 10 times higher than elsewhere’. As ice melts, radioactive runoff flows into the ocean, is absorbed into the atmosphere, and falls as acid rain. ‘With fires and melting ice, we are basically paying back a debt of radioactive debris incurred during the frenzied production of nuclear byproducts during the 20th century,’ Brown concludes. 

Flooding is another symptom of our warming world that could lead to nuclear disaster. Many nuclear plants are built on coastlines where seawater is easily used as a coolant. Sea-level rise, shoreline erosion, coastal storms and heat waves - all potentially catastrophic phenomena associated with climate change - are expected to get more frequent as the Earth continues to warm, threatening greater damage to coastal nuclear power plants. ‘Mere absence of greenhouse gas emissions is not sufficient to assess nuclear power as a mitigation for climate change,’ conclude Natalie Kopytko and John Perkins in their paper ‘Climate Change, Nuclear Power, and the Adaptation-Mitigation Dilemma’ (2011) in Energy Policy.

Proponents of nuclear power say that the reactors’ relative reliability and capacity make this a much clearer choice than other non-fossil-fuel sources of energy, such as wind and solar, which are sometimes brought offline by fluctuations in natural resource availability. Yet no one denies that older nuclear plants, with an aged infrastructure often surpassing expected lifetimes, are extremely inefficient and run a higher risk of disaster.

Q. Why does the author give the examples of the Santa Susana Lab and Chernobyl?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 20

Through the passage, the author argues against nuclear power generation as an alternative to fossil fuels especially in the context of climate change. The author then gives these two examples to highlight how much damage they did to people and the planet and continue to do so. These two examples are extreme examples of how nuclear power generation can go terribly wrong. Thus, the primary reason to introduce these examples is to highlight the impact of nuclear disasters on the planet and people. Hence, option D.

Though the author does say that with climate change, the nuclear fallout of these disasters is likely to get worse, these examples are not introduced for that purpose. By highlighting the negative impact of these disasters, the author is trying to make the larger point against nuclear power. Hence, we can eliminate option B.

Though option A is the purpose behind the whole passage, it is not the reason why these two examples are introduced. Hence, we can eliminate option A. For the same reason we can eliminate option C.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 21

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. 

With our climate-impacted world now highly prone to fires, extreme storms and sea-level rise, nuclear energy is touted as a possible replacement for the burning of fossil fuels for energy - the leading cause of climate change. Nuclear power can demonstrably reduce carbon dioxide emissions. Yet scientific evidence and recent catastrophes call into question whether nuclear power could function safely in our warming world. Wild weather, fires, rising sea levels, earthquakes and warming water temperatures all increase the risk of nuclear accidents, while the lack of safe, long-term storage for radioactive waste remains a persistent danger.

The Santa Susana Field Laboratory property has had a long history of contaminated soil and groundwater. Indeed, a 2006 advisory panel compiled a report suggesting that workers at the lab, as well as residents living nearby, had unusually high exposure to radiation and industrial chemicals that are linked to an increased incidence of some cancers. Discovery of the pollution prompted California’s DTSC in 2010 to order cleanup of the site by its current owner - Boeing - with assistance from the US Department of Energy and NASA. But the required cleanup has been hampered by Boeing’s legal fight to perform a less rigorous cleaning.

Like the Santa Susana Field Lab, Chernobyl remains largely unremediated since its meltdown in 1986. With each passing year, dead plant material accumulates and temperatures rise, making it especially prone to fires in the era of climate change. Radiation releases from contaminated soils and forests can be carried thousands of kilometres away to human population centres, according to experts.

Kate Brown, a historian at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology and the author of Manual for Survival: A Chernobyl Guide to the Future (2019), and Tim Mousseau, an evolutionary biologist at the University of South Carolina, also have grave concerns about forest fires. ‘Records show that there have been fires in the Chernobyl zone that raised the radiation levels by seven to 10 times since 1990,’ Brown says. Further north, melting glaciers contain ‘radioactive fallout from global nuclear testing and nuclear accidents at levels 10 times higher than elsewhere’. As ice melts, radioactive runoff flows into the ocean, is absorbed into the atmosphere, and falls as acid rain. ‘With fires and melting ice, we are basically paying back a debt of radioactive debris incurred during the frenzied production of nuclear byproducts during the 20th century,’ Brown concludes. 

Flooding is another symptom of our warming world that could lead to nuclear disaster. Many nuclear plants are built on coastlines where seawater is easily used as a coolant. Sea-level rise, shoreline erosion, coastal storms and heat waves - all potentially catastrophic phenomena associated with climate change - are expected to get more frequent as the Earth continues to warm, threatening greater damage to coastal nuclear power plants. ‘Mere absence of greenhouse gas emissions is not sufficient to assess nuclear power as a mitigation for climate change,’ conclude Natalie Kopytko and John Perkins in their paper ‘Climate Change, Nuclear Power, and the Adaptation-Mitigation Dilemma’ (2011) in Energy Policy.

Proponents of nuclear power say that the reactors’ relative reliability and capacity make this a much clearer choice than other non-fossil-fuel sources of energy, such as wind and solar, which are sometimes brought offline by fluctuations in natural resource availability. Yet no one denies that older nuclear plants, with an aged infrastructure often surpassing expected lifetimes, are extremely inefficient and run a higher risk of disaster.

Q. What is the author's opinion on nuclear energy?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 21

Through the passage, the author argues against nuclear power. Hence, options B and C which are not negative can be eliminated. Both options A and D are close. But option A misses the primary motivation behind the author's recommendation. The author feels that with climate change, the number of nuclear disasters is likely to increase and thus nuclear power should be avoided. Hence, option D.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 22

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. 

With our climate-impacted world now highly prone to fires, extreme storms and sea-level rise, nuclear energy is touted as a possible replacement for the burning of fossil fuels for energy - the leading cause of climate change. Nuclear power can demonstrably reduce carbon dioxide emissions. Yet scientific evidence and recent catastrophes call into question whether nuclear power could function safely in our warming world. Wild weather, fires, rising sea levels, earthquakes and warming water temperatures all increase the risk of nuclear accidents, while the lack of safe, long-term storage for radioactive waste remains a persistent danger.

The Santa Susana Field Laboratory property has had a long history of contaminated soil and groundwater. Indeed, a 2006 advisory panel compiled a report suggesting that workers at the lab, as well as residents living nearby, had unusually high exposure to radiation and industrial chemicals that are linked to an increased incidence of some cancers. Discovery of the pollution prompted California’s DTSC in 2010 to order cleanup of the site by its current owner - Boeing - with assistance from the US Department of Energy and NASA. But the required cleanup has been hampered by Boeing’s legal fight to perform a less rigorous cleaning.

Like the Santa Susana Field Lab, Chernobyl remains largely unremediated since its meltdown in 1986. With each passing year, dead plant material accumulates and temperatures rise, making it especially prone to fires in the era of climate change. Radiation releases from contaminated soils and forests can be carried thousands of kilometres away to human population centres, according to experts.

Kate Brown, a historian at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology and the author of Manual for Survival: A Chernobyl Guide to the Future (2019), and Tim Mousseau, an evolutionary biologist at the University of South Carolina, also have grave concerns about forest fires. ‘Records show that there have been fires in the Chernobyl zone that raised the radiation levels by seven to 10 times since 1990,’ Brown says. Further north, melting glaciers contain ‘radioactive fallout from global nuclear testing and nuclear accidents at levels 10 times higher than elsewhere’. As ice melts, radioactive runoff flows into the ocean, is absorbed into the atmosphere, and falls as acid rain. ‘With fires and melting ice, we are basically paying back a debt of radioactive debris incurred during the frenzied production of nuclear byproducts during the 20th century,’ Brown concludes. 

Flooding is another symptom of our warming world that could lead to nuclear disaster. Many nuclear plants are built on coastlines where seawater is easily used as a coolant. Sea-level rise, shoreline erosion, coastal storms and heat waves - all potentially catastrophic phenomena associated with climate change - are expected to get more frequent as the Earth continues to warm, threatening greater damage to coastal nuclear power plants. ‘Mere absence of greenhouse gas emissions is not sufficient to assess nuclear power as a mitigation for climate change,’ conclude Natalie Kopytko and John Perkins in their paper ‘Climate Change, Nuclear Power, and the Adaptation-Mitigation Dilemma’ (2011) in Energy Policy.

Proponents of nuclear power say that the reactors’ relative reliability and capacity make this a much clearer choice than other non-fossil-fuel sources of energy, such as wind and solar, which are sometimes brought offline by fluctuations in natural resource availability. Yet no one denies that older nuclear plants, with an aged infrastructure often surpassing expected lifetimes, are extremely inefficient and run a higher risk of disaster.

Q. What is the main point of the last paragraph?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 22

Through the last paragraph, the author is trying to counter the argument in favour of nuclear energy. The author says that though they have the advantage of reliability and capability, as the plants age they become inefficient and risky. Hence, option A is the right answer. 
Options B, C and D miss out the point of how aging of plants makes them a worse bet. Hence, option A.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 23

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow. 

With our climate-impacted world now highly prone to fires, extreme storms and sea-level rise, nuclear energy is touted as a possible replacement for the burning of fossil fuels for energy - the leading cause of climate change. Nuclear power can demonstrably reduce carbon dioxide emissions. Yet scientific evidence and recent catastrophes call into question whether nuclear power could function safely in our warming world. Wild weather, fires, rising sea levels, earthquakes and warming water temperatures all increase the risk of nuclear accidents, while the lack of safe, long-term storage for radioactive waste remains a persistent danger.

The Santa Susana Field Laboratory property has had a long history of contaminated soil and groundwater. Indeed, a 2006 advisory panel compiled a report suggesting that workers at the lab, as well as residents living nearby, had unusually high exposure to radiation and industrial chemicals that are linked to an increased incidence of some cancers. Discovery of the pollution prompted California’s DTSC in 2010 to order cleanup of the site by its current owner - Boeing - with assistance from the US Department of Energy and NASA. But the required cleanup has been hampered by Boeing’s legal fight to perform a less rigorous cleaning.

Like the Santa Susana Field Lab, Chernobyl remains largely unremediated since its meltdown in 1986. With each passing year, dead plant material accumulates and temperatures rise, making it especially prone to fires in the era of climate change. Radiation releases from contaminated soils and forests can be carried thousands of kilometres away to human population centres, according to experts.

Kate Brown, a historian at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology and the author of Manual for Survival: A Chernobyl Guide to the Future (2019), and Tim Mousseau, an evolutionary biologist at the University of South Carolina, also have grave concerns about forest fires. ‘Records show that there have been fires in the Chernobyl zone that raised the radiation levels by seven to 10 times since 1990,’ Brown says. Further north, melting glaciers contain ‘radioactive fallout from global nuclear testing and nuclear accidents at levels 10 times higher than elsewhere’. As ice melts, radioactive runoff flows into the ocean, is absorbed into the atmosphere, and falls as acid rain. ‘With fires and melting ice, we are basically paying back a debt of radioactive debris incurred during the frenzied production of nuclear byproducts during the 20th century,’ Brown concludes. 

Flooding is another symptom of our warming world that could lead to nuclear disaster. Many nuclear plants are built on coastlines where seawater is easily used as a coolant. Sea-level rise, shoreline erosion, coastal storms and heat waves - all potentially catastrophic phenomena associated with climate change - are expected to get more frequent as the Earth continues to warm, threatening greater damage to coastal nuclear power plants. ‘Mere absence of greenhouse gas emissions is not sufficient to assess nuclear power as a mitigation for climate change,’ conclude Natalie Kopytko and John Perkins in their paper ‘Climate Change, Nuclear Power, and the Adaptation-Mitigation Dilemma’ (2011) in Energy Policy.

Proponents of nuclear power say that the reactors’ relative reliability and capacity make this a much clearer choice than other non-fossil-fuel sources of energy, such as wind and solar, which are sometimes brought offline by fluctuations in natural resource availability. Yet no one denies that older nuclear plants, with an aged infrastructure often surpassing expected lifetimes, are extremely inefficient and run a higher risk of disaster.
Heidi Hutner & Erica Cirino
This article was originally published at Aeon and has been republished under Creative Commons.

Q. What was the conclusion based on the research by the MIT ?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 23

The MIT research showed conclusively that the frequent forest fires, surface runoffs and flooding spread radiation. The research concluded that we are still paying for the nuclear by-products that were made in the 20th century. Only option C captures this point and hence is the right answer.
Option D, though true, is not the main conclusion of the study.
Option A contains a distortion. The study does not mention that only areas with radiation will experience acid rain. Hence, we can eliminate option A.
Option B is an exaggeration and hence can be eliminated.
Thus option C is the correct answer. 

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 24

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Country music has often been misrepresented to the world. Early on, it was deemed ‘hillbilly music’ by the very recording industry producing it, stereotypically linking it to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can see this image echoed on the front page of Variety in 1926, where the music critic Abel Green first defines the audience: ‘The “hill-billy” is a North Carolina or Tennessee and adjacent mountaineer type of illiterate white whose creed and allegiance are to the Bible … and the phonograph.’ Then the music got its lashing when Green described it as ‘the sing-song, nasal-twanging vocalising of a Vernon Dalhart or a Carson Robison … reciting the banal lyrics of a Prisoner’s Song or The Death of Floyd Collins …’

These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.

One early example of this is from Blind Alfred Reed, who crafted How Can a Poor Man Stand Such Times and Live? (1929). The song takes on the unjust practices of groups in power, such as in the lines: ‘preachers preach for gold and not for souls’ and ‘Officers kill without a cause.’ It presents the entirety of the working class as being victimised at the very dawn of the Great Depression. But Reed also wrote the religious song There’ll Be No Distinction There (1929), which illustrated an egalitarian afterlife in the lines: ‘We’ll all sit together in the same kind of pews, / The whites and the coloured folks, the gentiles and the Jews.’ But Reed was not alone in expressing sympathy for the working class or in calling out for a more equitable society: others from this early era - such as Uncle Dave Macon, Fiddlin’ John Carson and Henry Whitter - expressed similar sentiments, just as Johnny Cash, Steve Earle and John Rich have done in later decades.

Country music has also spoken out on women’s issues, such as in Loretta Lynn’s hit The Pill (1975). The song celebrates freedom from pregnancy, with the narrator noting how her husband has always been carefree and unfaithful while she was tied down with ‘a couple [babies] in my arms’ and another one on the way. Lynn’s message here is clear - she despises this kind of unequitable relationship, as she bluntly states in her autobiography Coal Miner’s Daughter (1976): ‘Well, shoot, I don’t believe in double standards, where men can get away with things that women can’t.’ In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare. Lynn rejoices both in the song and in her own overall personal belief that the contraceptive pill will allow women greater control of their own lives.

Q. Which of the following adds the least depth to the author’s argument?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 24

The author begins the passage by explaining how country music has been termed “hill-billy”. He then goes on to explain what it means. The second paragraph speaks of the negative perceptions that country music has and the author states that this image is not true. The author explains how country music has been more progressive right from the beginning. The remaining paragraphs cite examples of issues that country music has dealt with. It is clear from the passage that the main argument of the author is to show that country music is progressive and not conservative. 
Option A is incorrect since it contributes to the author’s argument that country music is progressive.
Option B is a possible answer. Cultural ambassadors have not been discussed in the passage, although them exhibiting a varied history of America would still be beneficial for country music.
Option C is correct. Furthering "Christian" music would bolster Country Music's conservative credentials and not its progressive ones. 
Option D is incorrect since it tackles social issues which have been discussed in the passage.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 25

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Country music has often been misrepresented to the world. Early on, it was deemed ‘hillbilly music’ by the very recording industry producing it, stereotypically linking it to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can see this image echoed on the front page of Variety in 1926, where the music critic Abel Green first defines the audience: ‘The “hill-billy” is a North Carolina or Tennessee and adjacent mountaineer type of illiterate white whose creed and allegiance are to the Bible … and the phonograph.’ Then the music got its lashing when Green described it as ‘the sing-song, nasal-twanging vocalising of a Vernon Dalhart or a Carson Robison … reciting the banal lyrics of a Prisoner’s Song or The Death of Floyd Collins …’

These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.

One early example of this is from Blind Alfred Reed, who crafted How Can a Poor Man Stand Such Times and Live? (1929). The song takes on the unjust practices of groups in power, such as in the lines: ‘preachers preach for gold and not for souls’ and ‘Officers kill without a cause.’ It presents the entirety of the working class as being victimised at the very dawn of the Great Depression. But Reed also wrote the religious song There’ll Be No Distinction There (1929), which illustrated an egalitarian afterlife in the lines: ‘We’ll all sit together in the same kind of pews, / The whites and the coloured folks, the gentiles and the Jews.’ But Reed was not alone in expressing sympathy for the working class or in calling out for a more equitable society: others from this early era - such as Uncle Dave Macon, Fiddlin’ John Carson and Henry Whitter - expressed similar sentiments, just as Johnny Cash, Steve Earle and John Rich have done in later decades.

Country music has also spoken out on women’s issues, such as in Loretta Lynn’s hit The Pill (1975). The song celebrates freedom from pregnancy, with the narrator noting how her husband has always been carefree and unfaithful while she was tied down with ‘a couple [babies] in my arms’ and another one on the way. Lynn’s message here is clear - she despises this kind of unequitable relationship, as she bluntly states in her autobiography Coal Miner’s Daughter (1976): ‘Well, shoot, I don’t believe in double standards, where men can get away with things that women can’t.’ In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare. Lynn rejoices both in the song and in her own overall personal belief that the contraceptive pill will allow women greater control of their own lives.

Q. The passage makes all the following claims EXCEPT:

  1. “Hill-billy” was considered a derogatory word.
  2. Country music was more progressive than it was perceived to be.
  3. The audience of country music was diverse.
Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 25

The claim in statement 1 is made in the first paragraph. “Hill billy” has been stereotypically linked to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can further infer this from Abel Green’s description.
The claim in statement 2 is the main argument of the passage. We can infer it from the second paragraph.
Statement 3 can be inferred from the lines “These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.”
So, Option D is correct.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 26

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Country music has often been misrepresented to the world. Early on, it was deemed ‘hillbilly music’ by the very recording industry producing it, stereotypically linking it to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can see this image echoed on the front page of Variety in 1926, where the music critic Abel Green first defines the audience: ‘The “hill-billy” is a North Carolina or Tennessee and adjacent mountaineer type of illiterate white whose creed and allegiance are to the Bible … and the phonograph.’ Then the music got its lashing when Green described it as ‘the sing-song, nasal-twanging vocalising of a Vernon Dalhart or a Carson Robison … reciting the banal lyrics of a Prisoner’s Song or The Death of Floyd Collins …’

These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.

One early example of this is from Blind Alfred Reed, who crafted How Can a Poor Man Stand Such Times and Live? (1929). The song takes on the unjust practices of groups in power, such as in the lines: ‘preachers preach for gold and not for souls’ and ‘Officers kill without a cause.’ It presents the entirety of the working class as being victimised at the very dawn of the Great Depression. But Reed also wrote the religious song There’ll Be No Distinction There (1929), which illustrated an egalitarian afterlife in the lines: ‘We’ll all sit together in the same kind of pews, / The whites and the coloured folks, the gentiles and the Jews.’ But Reed was not alone in expressing sympathy for the working class or in calling out for a more equitable society: others from this early era - such as Uncle Dave Macon, Fiddlin’ John Carson and Henry Whitter - expressed similar sentiments, just as Johnny Cash, Steve Earle and John Rich have done in later decades.

Country music has also spoken out on women’s issues, such as in Loretta Lynn’s hit The Pill (1975). The song celebrates freedom from pregnancy, with the narrator noting how her husband has always been carefree and unfaithful while she was tied down with ‘a couple [babies] in my arms’ and another one on the way. Lynn’s message here is clear - she despises this kind of unequitable relationship, as she bluntly states in her autobiography Coal Miner’s Daughter (1976): ‘Well, shoot, I don’t believe in double standards, where men can get away with things that women can’t.’ In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare. Lynn rejoices both in the song and in her own overall personal belief that the contraceptive pill will allow women greater control of their own lives.

Q. What is the author is trying to do by citing the example of Loretta Lynn?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 26

Through the passage, the author argues that country music has always had a progressive voice. To support this assertion, the author first gives the example of Blind Alfred Reed who spoke of racial equality and equitable society. Then he gives the example of Loretta Lynn's progressive stand on women's reproductive rights. Thus, through this paragraph, the author is trying to highlight the progressive voices in country music's history to show that country music always had a progressive voice. Thus, option A is closest to the answer.

Option B is incorrect because the author has not claimed that country music facilitated the human rights movement.

Option C is incorrect. Although the author does say that “The Pill” stands out that is not the main point. We must see why the author believes it stands out. Read the lines “In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare.” Through this example, the author is trying to make a larger point.

Option D is true but only captures a part of what Loretta Lynn’s song indicates. Option A is more accurate.

Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 27

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Country music has often been misrepresented to the world. Early on, it was deemed ‘hillbilly music’ by the very recording industry producing it, stereotypically linking it to a supposedly degenerate and backwards culture. We can see this image echoed on the front page of Variety in 1926, where the music critic Abel Green first defines the audience: ‘The “hill-billy” is a North Carolina or Tennessee and adjacent mountaineer type of illiterate white whose creed and allegiance are to the Bible … and the phonograph.’ Then the music got its lashing when Green described it as ‘the sing-song, nasal-twanging vocalising of a Vernon Dalhart or a Carson Robison … reciting the banal lyrics of a Prisoner’s Song or The Death of Floyd Collins …’

These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.

One early example of this is from Blind Alfred Reed, who crafted How Can a Poor Man Stand Such Times and Live? (1929). The song takes on the unjust practices of groups in power, such as in the lines: ‘preachers preach for gold and not for souls’ and ‘Officers kill without a cause.’ It presents the entirety of the working class as being victimised at the very dawn of the Great Depression. But Reed also wrote the religious song There’ll Be No Distinction There (1929), which illustrated an egalitarian afterlife in the lines: ‘We’ll all sit together in the same kind of pews, / The whites and the coloured folks, the gentiles and the Jews.’ But Reed was not alone in expressing sympathy for the working class or in calling out for a more equitable society: others from this early era - such as Uncle Dave Macon, Fiddlin’ John Carson and Henry Whitter - expressed similar sentiments, just as Johnny Cash, Steve Earle and John Rich have done in later decades.

Country music has also spoken out on women’s issues, such as in Loretta Lynn’s hit The Pill (1975). The song celebrates freedom from pregnancy, with the narrator noting how her husband has always been carefree and unfaithful while she was tied down with ‘a couple [babies] in my arms’ and another one on the way. Lynn’s message here is clear - she despises this kind of unequitable relationship, as she bluntly states in her autobiography Coal Miner’s Daughter (1976): ‘Well, shoot, I don’t believe in double standards, where men can get away with things that women can’t.’ In the country-music market, this song stands out as an unabashed and rather radical call for sexual liberation and biological control, challenging the man’s past sexual prerogative and presenting a situation where the woman may also enjoy a variety of sexual liaisons without the social/economic restrictions that come with pregnancy, childbirth and childcare. Lynn rejoices both in the song and in her own overall personal belief that the contraceptive pill will allow women greater control of their own lives.

Q. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 27

The author says that “These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature. But this image is a lie. For, right from the start, country music spoke up with a progressive voice.” However, from these lines we cannot infer that the entire audience was literate and liberal. Hence, option A is incorrect.

Similarly “every song” need not have been progressive. Option B is gross generalization of country music.

Option C is incorrect because it is a generalization as well. 

Option D is correct, we can infer this from the lines “These kinds of negative projections of the people who have made country music, and have listened to it, linger even unto today. The stereotype is that they all harbour conservative political and social beliefs, setting them as sexist, racist, jingoistic and fundamentalist Christian by nature.”

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 28

Four sentences are given below. These sentences, when rearranged in proper order, form a logical and meaningful paragraph. Rearrange the sentences and enter the correct order as the answer.

  1. Wherever the rhythm was most delicate, wherever the emotion was most ecstatic, her art was the most beautiful, and yet, although she sometimes spoke to a little tune, it was never singing, as we sing to-day, never anything but speech.
  2. I have always known that there was something I disliked about singing, and I naturally dislike print and paper, but now at last I understand why, for I have found something better.
  3. A friend, who was here a few minutes ago, has sat with a beautiful stringed instrument upon her knee, her fingers passing over the strings, and has spoken to me some verses from Shelley’s Skylark and Sir Ector’s lamentation over the dead Launcelot out of the Morte d’Arthur and some of my own poems.
  4. I have just heard a poem spoken with so delicate a sense of its rhythm, with so perfect a respect for its meaning, that if I were a wise man and could persuade a few people to learn the art I would never open a book of verses again.

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 28

After reading all the sentences, we know that the paragraph is about the author's dislike for singing and his new found love for spoken poetry. Statement 2 is the opening sentence as it mentions the author's dislike for singing. The author also mentions how discovering spoken poetry changed his understanding of why he disliked singing. Statements 4,3 and 1 together describe the author's experience of the poem recited with the help of a stringed instrument.
Hence, the order is 2-4-3-1.
Hence, 2431 is the correct answer.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 29

Five sentences are given below. Four of which when arranged in a proper order, form a logical and meaningful paragraph. Identify the sentence that does not belong to the paragraph and enter its number as your answer.

  1. With the modern tendency toward specialization, the natural outgrowth of necessity, there is no inherent reason why the bones of a building should not be devised by one man and its fleshly clothing by another, so long as they understand one another, and are in ideal agreement, but there is in general all too little understanding, and a confusion of ideas and aims.
  2. Preoccupied as he is with the building's strength, safety, economy; solving new and staggeringly difficult problems with address and daring, he has scant sympathy with such inconsequent matters as the stylistic purity of a façade, or the profile of a moulding.
  3. To the designer, on the other hand, the engineer appears in the light of a subordinate to be used for the promotion of his own ends, or an evil to be endured as an interference with those ends.
  4. In the field of domestic architecture these dramatic contrasts are less evident, less sharply marked.
  5. To the average structural engineer the architectural designer is a mere milliner in stone, informed in those prevailing architectural fashions of which he himself knows little and cares less.

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 29

The correct order is 1523. 4 is the odd one out. The passage begins by saying that a building could possibly be built and styled by two different people as long as they worked in harmony. Sentence 5 goes on to explain why this is not so since the average engineer does not value the average designer. Sentence 2 explains what the priorities of the engineer are, while sentence 5 states what a designer feels. Option 4 is the odd one out since it speaks of contrasts in domestic architecture which is unrelated to the remaining lines.

*Answer can only contain numeric values
Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 30

Five sentences are given below labelled as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Of these, four sentences, when arranged properly, make a meaningful and coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out.

  1. Even where the advancer of the art was also a psychologist, the pedagogics and the psychology ran side by side, and the former was not derived in any sense from the latter.
  2. To know psychology, therefore, is absolutely no guarantee that we shall be good teachers.
  3. The art of teaching grew up in the schoolroom, out of inventiveness and sympathetic concrete observation.
  4. That ingenuity in meeting and pursuing the pupil, that tact for the concrete situation, though they are the alpha and omega of the teacher's art, are things to which psychology cannot help us in the least.
  5. The two were congruent, but neither was subordinate.

Detailed Solution for Diagnostic Test: CAT - 2 - Question 30

All the five sentences talk about the relation between psychology and teaching. But the structure of sentence 4 indicates that the topic of "ingenuity" and "tact" has already been discussed in the preceding lines. Since, there is no mention of "ingenuity" and "tact" in any other sentences, sentence 4 cannot be a continuation of any of the sentences given. The other 4 sentences can be arranged in the sequence 3-1-5-2.

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