Environment Full Test - 1


30 Questions MCQ Test UPSC Civil Services Revision & Mock Tests | Environment Full Test - 1


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This mock test of Environment Full Test - 1 for UPSC helps you for every UPSC entrance exam. This contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions for UPSC Environment Full Test - 1 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this Environment Full Test - 1 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. UPSC students definitely take this Environment Full Test - 1 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other Environment Full Test - 1 extra questions, long questions & short questions for UPSC on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Hawksbill turtle - critically endangered.
• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Amur Tiger endangered.
IUCN status
• The hawksbill is one of the smaller sea turtles. Head is narrow and has 2 pairs of prefrontal scales (scales in front of its eyes). They are typically found in and around coastal reefs, rocky areas, estuaries and lagoons.
• Dugong is a herbivorous marine animal. It eats sea grass and aquatic plants found in shallow oceans (At depths sea grass and aquatic plants don’t grow due to absence of sunlight).It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Siberian (or Amur) tigers are the world’s largest cats. They live primarily in eastern Russia’s birch forests, though some exist in China and North Korea. Though their northern climate is far harsher than those of other tigers, these animals have some advantages. Northern forests offer the lowest human density of any tiger habitat, and the most complete ecosystem. The vast woodlands also allow tigers far more room to roam, as Russia’s timber industry is currently less extensive than that of many other countries.

QUESTION: 2

Which among the following pair is incorrectly matched?  

Solution:

Genetic engineering approaches
Phytoremediation

• Phytoremediation is the use of plants to remove contaminants from soil and water.
Types
• Phytoextraction / phytoaccumulationis the process by which plants accumulate contaminants into the roots and aboveground shoots or leaves.
• Phytotransformation or phytodegradation refers to the uptake of organic contaminants from soil, sediments, or water and their transformation to a more stable, less toxic, less mobile form.
• Phytostabilization is a technique in which plants reduce the mobility and migration of contaminated soil. Leachable constituents are adsorbed and bound into the plant structure so that they form an unstable mass of plant from which the contaminants will not re-enter the environment.
• Phytodegradation or rhizodegradationis the breakdown of contaminants through the activity existing in the rhizosphere. This activity is due to the presence of proteins and enzymes produced by the plants or by soil organisms such as bacteria, yeast, and fungi.
• Rhizofiltration is a water remediation technique that involves the uptake of contaminants by plant roots. Rhizofiltration is used to reduce contamination in natural wetlands and estuary areas.

QUESTION: 3

Consider the following statements about Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve:
1. Its area falls in the Malabar rainforests and is one of the noted hotspot in the Western Ghats.
2. It includes the Indian eco-regions of moist deciduous forests.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

• Both statements are correct
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve
• TheAgasthyamala Biosphere Reserve has recently been included in UNESCO’s List of World Biosphere Reserve Network.
• The area falls in the Malabar rainforests and is one of the noted hotspot in the Western Ghats. It covers about 3500 sqkms and is part of different districts of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.Agastya Mala, the peak after which the reserve is named, rises up to almost 1868 metres above sea level, in Thiruvananthapuram. There are many endemic and endangered species of flora and fauna in the reserve including endangered NilgiriTahr.  It includes the Indian eco regions of moist deciduous forests, montane rainforests and Shola forests and grasslands. There are three wildlife sanctuaries within the reserve - Shendurney, Peppara, and Neyyar.

QUESTION: 4

Which of the following activities are permitted in a Coastal Regulated Zone (CRZ)?
1. Sand and Rock mining
2. Creation of Storm Water Drains
3. Atomic Energy projects
4. Land filling
5. Conveying systems and pipelines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Statement 1 and 4 are incorrect: Dumping of city or town waste for the purposes of land filling, discarding ash or any other waste from thermal power stations and mining of sand, rocks, and other substrata materials constitute the non-permissive activities. 
The salient features of the draft CRZ Notification, 2018 and changes with respect to CRZ Notification, 2011, are as under:-
• The High Tide Line (HTL) has been demarcated by the National Centre for Sustainable Coastal Management (NCSCM) and shall be reckoned as a universal standard for the HTL for all regulatory purposes under the CRZ Notification, 2018.
• Hazard line mapping has also been carried out by Survey of India.  The Hazard Line has, however, been delinked from the CRZ regulatory regime and shall be used only as a tool for Disaster Management and planning of adaptive and mitigation measures.
• CRZ limits on land along the tidal influenced water bodies has been proposed to be reduced from 100 meters or the width of the creek, whichever is less, to 50 meters or the width of the creek, whichever is less.
•  A No Development Zone (NDZ) of 20 meters has been proposed to be stipulated for all Islands close to the main land coast and for all Backwater Islands in the main land.  
•  For CRZ-III areas, two separate categories have been proposed viz.:
•  CRZ-III A – Densely populated rural areas with a population density of 2161 per square kilometer as per 2011 Census.  Such areas shall have an NDZ of 50 meters from the HTL as against 200 meters from the HTL stipulated in the CRZ Notification, 2011.
• CRZ-III B – Rural areas with population density of below 2161 per square kilometer as per 2011 Census. Such areas shall continue to have an NDZ of 200 meters from the HTL.
•  The procedure for CRZ clearances has been simplified and delegations have been made at various levels for recommending/according CRZ clearances to the projects/activities. Only such projects/activities, which are located in the CRZ-I & IV areas, shall be dealt with for CRZ clearance by the MoEFCC.  For all other project activities located in CRZ-II/III areas, CRZ clearance shall be considered at the level of the CZMA.
•  As per CRZ, 2011 Notification, for CRZII areas, Floor Space Index (FSI) or the Floor Area Ratio (FAR) had been frozen at 1991 Development Control Regulation (DCR) levels.  In the Draft CRZ, 2018 Notification, it has been proposed to de-freeze the same and permit FSI for construction projects, as prevailing on the date of the new Notification.
•  Temporary tourism facilities such as shacks, toilet blocks, change rooms, drinking water facilities etc. have been proposed in beaches. Such temporary tourism facilities are also proposed to be permissible in the No Development Zone (NDZ) of the CRZ-III areas.
•  Wherever there is a National or State Level Highway passing through the NDZ in CRZ-III areas, temporary tourism facilities have been proposed to be taken up on the seaward site of the roads.  On the landward side of such roads in the NDZ, Resorts/Hotels and other tourism facilities have also been proposed to be permitted subject to the extant regulations of the concerned State.
•  Regulated limestone mining is proposed to be permitted, subject to strict Environmental safeguards, in areas adequately above the height of HTL, based on recommendations of reputed National Institutes in the Mining field.
• The prohibitive activities along Coastal Regulation Zones are setting up new industries and expanding existing ones, except projects of the Department of Atomic Energy, setting up and expanding units for the disposal of waste and effluents. However, exceptions include storm water drains, and facilities required for discharging treated effluents. Though prohibitive, these activities are permitted under certain safeguards.

QUESTION: 5

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Biological Diversity Act, 2002?
1. This act was brought to realize the objectives of Bonn Convention.
2. It aims at fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
3. This act establishes two-tier structure at National & State level only to regulate access to the biological resources.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was brought to realize the objective of Convention on Biological Diversity.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The act establishes three tier structures at national, state and local level. 
Biological Diversity Act, 2002:
• The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 is an Act of the Parliament of India for preservation of biological diversity in India, and provides mechanism for equitablesharing of benefits arising out of the use of traditional biological resources and knowledge. The Act was enacted to meet the obligations under Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), to which India is a party.
• The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is a statutory autonomous body, headquartered in Chennai, under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India established in 2003 to implement the provisions under the Act. State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) has been created in 28 States along with 31,574 Biological management committees (for each local body) across India.
•  Functions include:
1. Regulation of acts prohibited under the Act
2. Advise the Government on conservation of biodiversity
3. Advise the Government on selection of biological heritage sites
4. Take appropriate steps to oppose grant of intellectual property rights in foreign countries, arising from the use of biological resources or associated traditional knowledge
• Objectives are:
1. Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
2. Biological diversity conservation.
3. Sustainable use of its components.
• Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was brought to realize the objective of Convention on Biological Diversity.
• The act establishes three tier structures at national, state and local level. 

QUESTION: 6

Identify an incorrect pair regarding the types of solid wastes and their sources:

Solution:

Types of solid waste
•  Municipal solid waste
1. Municipal solid waste consists of household waste, construction and demolition debris, sanitation residue, and waste from streets.
2. With rising urbanization and change in lifestyle and food habits, the amount of municipal solid waste has been increasing rapidly and its composition changing.
3. In 1947 cities and towns in India generated an estimated 6 million tonnes of solid waste, in 1997 it was about 48 million tonnes. More than 25% of the municipal solid waste is not collected at all.
4. 70% of the Indian cities lack adequate capacity to transport it and there are no sanitary landfills to dispose of the waste. The existing landfills are neither well equipped and are not lined properly to protect against contamination of soil and groundwater.
5. Over the last few years, the consumer market has grown rapidly leading to products being packed in cans, aluminium foils, plastics, and other such non-biodegradable items that cause incalculable harm to the environment.
• Hazardous waste
1. Industrial and hospital waste is considered hazardous as they contain toxic substances. Hazardous wastes could be highly toxic to humans, animals, and plants and are corrosive, highly inflammable, or explosive.
2. India generates around 7 million tonnes of hazardous wastes every year, most of which is concentrated in four states: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu.
3. Household wastes that can be categorized as hazardous waste include old batteries, shoe polish, paint tins, old medicines, and medicine bottles.
4. In the industrial sector, the major generators of hazardous waste are the metal, chemical, paper, pesticide, dye, refining, and rubber goods industries.
5. Direct exposure to chemicals in hazardous waste such as mercury and cyanide can be fatal.
• Hospital waste
1. Hospital waste is generated during the diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals or in research activities or in the production or testing of biologicals.
2. These chemicals include formaldehyde and phenols, which are used as disinfectants, and mercury, which is used in thermometers or equipment that measure blood pressure.
3. It may include wastes like soiled waste, disposables, anatomical waste, cultures, discarded medicines, chemical wastes, disposable syringes, swabs, bandages, body fluids, human excreta, etc.
4. These are highly infectious and can be a serious threat to human health if not managed in a scientific and discriminate manner.
5. Surveys carried out by various agencies show that the health care establishments in India are not giving due attention to their waste management.
6. After the notification of the Bio-medical Waste (Handling and Management) Rules, 1998, these establishments are slowly streamlining the process of waste segregation, collection, treatment, and disposal.

QUESTION: 7

Which of the following is/are protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
1. Kashmir Stag
2. Black Buck
3. Nilgiri Tahr
4. Nilgai 
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Statement 4 is incorrect: Nilgai is not protective under schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
• The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted for protection of plants and animal species. The Act has various schedules of protected plant and animal species; hunting or harvesting these species is largely outlawed.
• It extends to the whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir which has its own wildlife act.
• It has Six Schedules which give varying degrees of protection. Schedule I and Schedule II provide absolute protection - offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties.
• Commonly known important Schedule I animals: 
1. Black Buck
2. Indian Elephant
3. Indian Lion
4. Indian Wild Ass
5. Indian Wolf
6. Kashmir Stag
7. Leopard or Panther
8. Musk Deer
9. Nilgiri Langur
10. Nilgiri Tahr
11. Pygmy Hog
12. Rhinoceros
•  Species listed in Schedule III and Schedule IV are also protected, but the penalties are much lower.
• Schedule V includes the animals which may be hunted. The specified endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from cultivation and planting.
• Common known Schedule III animals are:
1. Barking deer
2. Chital
3. Nilgai
4. Sambar
5. Wild pig
6. Sponges

QUESTION: 8

Which of the following is/are correct regarding the radioactive wastes?
1. Effects of radioactive pollutants depend upon half-life of the matter, energy releasing capacity and rate of diffusion.
2. Radioactive waste produces only two types of radiation i.e. alpha and beta rays.
3. Alpha rays are the strongest rays and can be blocked only through thick concrete.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Ionizing radiation takes a few forms: Alpha, beta, and neutron particles, and gamma and X-rays.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Radioactive waste produces three types of radiation i.e. alpha, beta and gamma rays. Gamma rays are the strongest rays and can be blocked only through thick concrete.
Radioactive Wastes
• Radioactive wastes are the wastes emanating from a nuclear power plant or medical laboratory. They contain the radioactive materials that are hazardous to most forms of life and the environment. The wastes decay over the course of time, so they would be confined to a safe place until the time they lose their radioactivity and no longer pose a threat to the environment. The time specified earlier depends on the type of waste and radioactive isotopes. Effects of radioactive pollutants depend upon halflife of the matter, energy releasing capacity and rate of diffusion. Lower the half-life, higher will be the rate of radiation. Energy releasing capacity and rate of diffusion directly increases rate of radiation.
• All types are caused by unstable atoms, which have either an excess of energy or mass (or both). In order to reach a stable state, they must release that extra energy or mass in the form of radiation. Herein, gamma rays are the strongest rays and can be blocked only through thick concrete. Alpha rays are very weak and can be easily blocked by a piece of paper.
• Most radioactive waste comes from nuclear electricity production and military activities. However, it is also generated in hospitals from the use of radioactive material to diagnose and treat the sick and sterilize medical products, in universities in conducting vital research in biology, chemistry and engineering, and in agriculture, where nuclear applications have helped produce crops that are more drought and disease resistant, as well as crops with shorter growing periods or increased yield – a practice that has been especially beneficial for some developing countries.

QUESTION: 9

Several factors determine the degree of diversity in an ecosystem. Consider the following statements in this regard:
1. An ecosystem dominated by one single species supports lesser biodiversity.
2. Higher the variety of niches in an ecosystem, greater is the diversity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

• Both statements are correct
Factors determining the degree of diversity in an ecosystem
• The level of diversity in an ecosystem is determined by several factors:
1. Habitat Stress: Diversity is low in areas under any stress like harsh climate or pollution.
2. Geographical Isolation: Diversity is less in isolated regions like islands. If a species in an island disappears due to random events, it cannot be easily replaced. Organisms from the mainland have difficulties in reaching and colonizing the island.
3. Dominance by one species: The dominant species consume a disproportionate share of resources which does not allow many species to evolve and flourish.
4. Availability of ecological niches: A complex community offers a greater variety of niches than a simple community and promotes greater diversity.
5. Edge Effect: There is always a greater diversity in ecotones or transition areas between ecosystems.
6. Geological History: Old and stable ecosystems like rain forests that have not experienced many changes have high diversity. An ecosystem like Arctic has undergone many changes and this does not allow many species to establish themselves.

QUESTION: 10

Which of the following statements with respect to Thermal Pollution is incorrect?

Solution:

Thermal Pollution
• Thermal pollution is defined as the addition of excess of undesirable heat to water thereby making it harmful to man, animal or aquatic life. Thermal pollution may also cause significant departures from normal activities of aquatic communities. Sources of Thermal Pollution: Nuclear power plants, Coal fired plants, Industrial effluents, Domestic sewage, and Hydro-electric power.
• Thermal pollution can be controlled by passing the heated water through a cooling pond or a cooling tower after it leaves the condenser.
• A common cause of thermal pollution is the use of water as a coolant by power plants and industrial manufacturers. When water used as a coolant is returned to the natural environment at a higher temperature, the sudden change in temperature decreases oxygen supply and affects ecosystem composition. Thermal pollution may also increase the metabolic rate of aquatic animals, as enzyme activity, resulting in these organisms consuming more food in a shorter time than if their environment were not changed.
• The warm temperature decreases the levels of DO (Dissolved Oxygen) in water and thus harms the aquatic ecosystem. The warm water holds relatively less oxygen than cold water. The decrease in DO can create suffocation for plants and animals such as fish, amphibians and copepods, which may give rise to anaerobic conditions. 

QUESTION: 11

With reference to World Heritage Sites, consider the following statements:
1. The World Heritage Convention defines the kind of natural or cultural sites to be included in World Heritage List.
2. It is obligatory for state parties to submit regular reports regarding the status of conservation of their World Heritage Properties.
3. Khangchendzonga National Park is the first mixed Heritage site in India.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

• All statements are correct
World Heritage Sites
• The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) seek to encourage the identification, protection and preservation of cultural and natural heritage around the world considered to be of outstanding value to humanity. This is embodied in a treaty called the Convention concerning the Protection of World Cultural and Natural Heritage or the World Heritage Convention; adopted by UNESCO in 1972.
• The Convention defines the kind of natural or cultural sites which can be considered for inscription on the World Heritage List.
• The Convention sets out the duties of States Parties in identifying potential sites and their role in protecting and preserving them.
• The Convention stipulates the obligation of States Parties to report regularly to the World Heritage Committee on the state of conservation of their World Heritage properties.
• The World Heritage Committee meets once a year, and consists of representatives from 21 of the States Parties to the Convention elected by their General Assembly. The Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States Parties. It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List.
• The World Heritage Fund provides about US $ 4 million annually to support activities requested by state parties in need of international assistance. It includes compulsory and voluntary contributions from state parties as well as private donations.
World Heritage Sites in India
• India has 38 world heritage sites that include 30 Cultural properties, 7 Natural properties and 1 mixed site (Khangchendzonga National Park).

QUESTION: 12

Consider the following statements regarding impacts of plastic on marine ecosystem?
1. It impacts the health of the marine food web and the fisheries resources.
2. It interferes with the plankton species i.e., phytoplankton and zooplankton.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

• Both statements are correct
Impact of Plastic on Marine Ecosystem
• Plastics contaminate the marine environment; the increased use of plastics has lead to negative environmental impacts.
• Plastics pollution can interfere with the plankton species (phytoplankton – primary producer zooplankton primary consumers) and that form the foundation of the food web, and other organisms adversely affecting the delicate balance in the marine ecosystem.
Plastics as a Waste Material- in Marine Environment
• Plastic waste is well known to result primarily from fishing-related activities, and from non-point source influx from beaches.
• There are two clear differences between the fate of plastics debris in the ocean environment as opposed to on land environments.
1. The rate of UV-induced photo-oxidative degradation of plastics floating or submerged at sea is very much slower than that exposed to the same solar radiation on land.
2. Unlike on land there is no easy means of retrieval, sorting and recycling of plastic waste that enters into the ocean environment.
• These two factors generally result in extended lifetimes for plastics at sea.
Impact of Micro-particles
• Challenging the Antarctic krill and other zooplankton with plastic beads that are about 20 microns or so in size has demonstrated that these micro-particulates are readily ingested by these organisms. They appear to ingest the particles unselectively, and the ingestion rates depend on the concentration of particles in the environment.
• Plastics are bio-inert and are not expected to be toxic to the animal in the conventional sense. While physical obstruction or indirect interference with physiology is always possible (as with sea birds showing satiation on ingesting plastics) the material will pass through the animal virtually unchanged.
• Plastics exposed to sea water tend to concentrate toxic and non-toxic organic compounds present in the sea water at low concentrations. These, including PCBs, DDT, and nonylphenols, have very high partition coefficients and are very efficiently concentrated in the plastic material.
• Plastic-related distress to over 250 species has been documented worldwide. The focus has very much been on larger species in surface waters or beaches, despite the fact that 99 percent of marine species live in the benthos. The impact of negatively buoyant plastic waste (such as nylon net fragments) on benthic species has remained virtually unaddressed.

QUESTION: 13

Consider the following protected areas:
1. Bandipur
2. Jim Corbett
3. Manas
4. Ranthambore
Which of the above are declared tiger reserves?

Solution:

• All statements are correct
Project Tiger
• Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India in the year 1973 to save the endangered species of tiger in the country.
• Starting from nine (9) reserves in 1973-74 the number is grown up to fifty (50). A total area of 71027.10 km2 is covered by these project tiger areas. All the mentioned protected areas are Tiger Reserves.
• Tiger reserves are the ideal places to conserve the tiger population in their natural habitats.  

QUESTION: 14

“Noise pollution is an unpleasant noise created by people or machines that can be annoying, distracting, intrusive, and/or physically painful”. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. World Health Organization recommends that the sound level indoors should be less than 80 dB.
2. It impacts breathing amplitude, blood pressure, heart-beat rate, pulse rate, and blood cholesterol.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: World Health Organization recommends that the sound level indoors should be less than 30 dB.
Noise pollution
• Noise pollution is an unpleasant noise created by people or machines that can be annoying, distracting, intrusive, and/or physically painful.
• Noise pollution comes from sources such as “road traffic, jet planes, garbage trucks, construction equipment, manufacturing processes, leaf blowers, and boom boxes.”
• Sound is measured in decibels (dB). An increase of about 10 dB is approximately double the increase in loudness.
• A person’s hearing can be damaged if exposed to noise levels over 75 dB over a prolonged period of time. The World Health Organization recommends that the sound level indoors should be less than 30 dB.
Impacts of noise
• Annoyance: It creates annoyance to the receptors due to sound level fluctuations. The a-periodic sound due to its irregular occurrences causes displeasure to hearing and causes annoyance.
• Physiological effects: The physiological features like breathing amplitude, blood pressure, heart-beat rate, pulse rate, blood cholesterol are affected.
• Loss of hearing: Long exposure to high sound levels cause loss of hearing. This is mostly unnoticed but has an adverse impact on hearing function.
• Human performance: The working performance of workers/humans will be affected as it distracts the concentration.

QUESTION: 15

Consider the following pairs regarding provisions for animals listed in different schedules of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Solution:

• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Schedule 5  - Vermin (Can be hunted)
Schedules of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
• Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972 consists of 6 schedule lists, which give varying degrees of protection. Poaching, smuggling and illegal trade of animals listed Schedule 1 to schedule 4 are prohibited.
Schedule 1 and part II of Schedule 2
• Animals listed in schedule 1 and parts II of schedule 2 have absolute protection - offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties.
• Examples of animals listed in schedule 1 are lion tailed macaque, rhinoceros, great indian bustard, narcondamhornbill, nicobarmegapode, black buck, etc.
• Examples of animals listed in schedule 2 are rhesus macaque, dhole, Bengal porcupine, king cobra, flying squirrel, himalayan brown bear, etc.
Schedule 3 and schedule 4
• Animals listed in schedule 3 and schedules 4 are also protected, but the penalties are lower compared to schedule 1 and part 2 of schedule 2.
• Examples of animals listed in schedule 3 are hyaena, hogdeer, nilgai, goral, sponges, barking deer, etc.
• Examples of animals listed in schedule 4 are mangooses, vultures, etc. 
Schedule 5
• Animals listed in schedule 5 are called “vermin” which can be hunted.
• Mice, rat, common crow and flying fox (fruit eating bats) are the list of animals in schedule 5 [i.e. vermin].
Schedule 6
• Cultivation, Collection, extraction, trade, etc. of Plants and its derivatives listed in schedule 6 are prohibited.
• Red Vanda, blue Vanda, kuth, pitcher plant, bed domes cycad and ladies slipper orchid are the list of plants listed in schedule 6

QUESTION: 16

Which of the following are the examples of Destructive Fishing Practices?
1. Bottom trawls
2. Cyanide fishing
3. Dynamite fishing
4. Ghost fishing
5. By catch
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• All statements are correct
Destructive Fishing Practices
• Bottom Trawling is an industrial method which uses enormous nets weighed down with heavy ballast which are dragged along the sea floor, raking up or crushing everything in their way, from fish to ancient coral.
• Cyanide fishing: In this technique, fishers squirt sodium cyanide into the water to stun fish without killing them, making them easy to catch.
• Dynamite fishing: In this technique, dynamite or other explosives are set off under water. The dead fish floating to the surface are then simply scooped up.  The explosives completely destroy the underwater environment, leaving it as rubble. Dynamite fishing has contributed to massive destruction of coral reefs.
• Bycatch refers to all the forms of marine life caught unintentionally while catching other fish. This destroys the young members of the school also.
• Ghost fishing occurs when fishing gear is lost or abandoned at sea. The gear can continue to catch fish, dolphins, whales, turtles, and other creatures as it drifts through the water and after it becomes snagged on the seabed.  

QUESTION: 17

Consider the following statements with reference to criteria for being an endangered species :
1. Reduction in more than 75% population over the last 10 years.
2. Probability of extinction in wild is at least 30% in 20 years.
3. Population size is estimated to number fewer than 250 mature individuals.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Solution:

• Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: Population size is estimated to number fewer than 50 mature individuals
IUCN Classification of Conservation Priority
• IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is one of the most well-known objective assessment systems for classifying the status of plants, animals, and other organisms threatened with extinction. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) unveiled this assessment system in 1994. It contains explicit criteria and categories to classify the conservation status of individual species on the basis of their probability of extinction.
• EXTINCT (EX): A taxon is Extinct when there is no reasonable doubt that the last individual has died. A taxon is presumed extinct when exhaustive surveys in known and/or expected habitat, at appropriate times (diurnal, seasonal, annual), and throughout its historic range have failed to record an individual. Surveys should be over a time frame appropriate to the taxon’s life cycle and life form.
• EXTINCT IN THE WILD (EW): A taxon is Extinct in the Wild when it is known only to survive in cultivation, in captivity or as a naturalized population (or populations) well outside the past range. A taxon is presumed Extinct in the wild when exhaustive surveys in known and/or expected habitat, at appropriate times (diurnal, seasonal, annual), and throughout its historic range have failed to record an individual. Surveys should be over a time frame appropriate to the taxon’s life cycle and life form.
• CRITICALLY ENDANGERED (CR): A 
taxon is Critically Endangered  when it is considered to be facing an extremely high rate of extinction in the wild and when the best available evidence indicates that it meets any of the following criteria –
1. Population size reduction of ≥ 90% over the last 10 years or three generations, whichever is the longer, where the causes of the reduction are clearly reversible, understood and ceased.
2. Probability of extinction in wild is at least 50% in 10 years
3. Population size is estimated to number fewer than 50 mature individuals
• ENDANGERED (EN): A taxon is Endangered when it is considered to be facing an extremely high rate of extinction in the wild and when the best available evidence indicates that it meets any of the following criteria –
1. Population size reduction of ≥ 70% over the last 10 years or three generations, whichever is the longer, where the causes of the reduction are clearly reversible, understood and ceased.
2. Probability of extinction in wild is at least 20% in 20 years
3. Population size is estimated to number fewer than 250 mature individuals
• VULNERABLE (VU): A taxon is Vulnerable when it is considered to be facing a high risk of extinction in the wild and when the best available evidence indicates that it meets any of the following criteria –
1. Population size reduction of ≥ 70% over the last 10 years or three generations, whichever is the longer, where the causes of the reduction are clearly reversible, understood and ceased.
2. Probability of extinction in wild is at least 20% in 20 years
3. Population size is estimated to number fewer than 250 mature individuals
• NEAR THREATENED (NT): A taxon is Near Threatened when it has been evaluated against the criteria but does not qualify for Critically Endangered, Endangered or Vulnerable now, but is close to qualifying for or is likely to qualify for a threatened category in the near future.
• LEAST CONCERN (LC): A taxon is Least Concern when it has been evaluated against the criteria and does not qualify for Critically Endangered, Endangered, Vulnerable or Near Threatened. Widespread and abundant taxa are included in this category.
• DATA DEFICIENT (DD): A taxon is Data Deficient when there is inadequate information to make a direct, or indirect, assessment of its risk of extinction based on its distribution and/or population status. A taxon in this category may be well studied, and its biology well known, but appropriate data on abundance and/or distribution are lacking. Data Deficient is therefore not a category of threat. Listing of taxa in this category indicates that more information is required and acknowledges the possibility that future research will show that threatened classification is appropriate. It is important to make positive use of whatever data are available. In many cases great care should be exercised in choosing between DD and a threatened status. If the range of a taxon is suspected to be relatively circumscribed, and a considerable period of time has elapsed since the last record of the taxon, threatened status may well be justified.
• NOT EVALUATED (NE): A taxon is Not Evaluated when it is has not yet been evaluated against the criteria.

QUESTION: 18

Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the concept of Dead zones in the oceans?
1. It is caused due to excessive nutrient pollution from human activities that deplete the oxygen required to support the marine ecosystem.
2. These occur near inhabited coastlines, where aquatic life is most concentrated.
3. It also includes the vast middle portions of the oceans, which naturally have little life. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Statement 3 is incorrect: The vast middle portions of the oceans, which naturally have little life, are not considered “dead zones”.
Dead Zones
• Dead zones are hypoxic (low-oxygen) areas in the world’s oceans and large lakes, caused by “excessive nutrient pollution from human activities coupled with other factors that deplete the oxygen required to support most marine life in bottom and nearbottom water. In the 1970s oceanographers began noting increased instances of dead zones. There are many physical, chemical, and biological factors that combine to create dead zones, but nutrient pollution is the primary cause of those zones created by humans. Excess nutrients that run off land or are piped as wastewater into rivers and coasts can stimulate an overgrowth of algae, which then sinks and decomposes in the water. The decomposition process consumes oxygen and depletes the supply available to healthy marine life.
• Less oxygen dissolved in the water is often referred to as a “dead zone” because most marine life either dies, or, if they are mobile such as fish, leave the area. Habitats that would normally be teeming with life become, essentially, biological deserts.
• These occur near inhabited coastlines, where aquatic life is most concentrated due to availability of food and nutritional requirement. Dead zones occur in many areas of the country, particularly along the East Coast, the Gulf of Mexico, and the Great Lakes, but there is no part of the country or the world that is immune. The second largest dead zone in the world is located in the U.S., in the northern Gulf of Mexico. 

QUESTION: 19

Consider the following statements with respect to the Project Elephant: 
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 1992.
2. The Project is being implemented in all the States of India.
3. The first elephant reserve was the Singhbhum elephant Reserve of Jharkhand.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Solution:

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Project is not implemented in all the States.
Project Elephant
• Project Elephant is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 1992 to assist the States having free ranging populations of wild elephants to survive in their natural habitat.
• Its objectives are:
1. to assist states having populations of wild elephants and to ensure long term survival of identified viable populations of elephants in their natural habitats.
2. addressing man-animal conflict.
3. Developing scientific and planned management measures for conservation of elephants.
4. Protecting the elephants from poachers, preventing illegal ivory trade and other unnatural causes of death
5. The Project is being implemented in Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Uttaranchal, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. Small support is also being given to Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh.
6. States are being given financial as well as technical assistance in achieving the objectives of the Project.
• There are around 32 elephant Reserves in India notified by the state governments. The first elephant reserve was the Singhbhum elephant Reserve of Jharkhand.

QUESTION: 20

Eutrophication can be most appropriately defined as  

Solution:

Eutrophication
• Eutrophication or hypertrophication, is when a body of water becomes overly enriched with minerals and nutrients that induce excessive growth of plants and algae. This process may result in oxygen depletion of the water body.
• The main effects caused by eutrophication can be summarized as:
• Abundance of particulate substances (phytoplankton, zooplankton, bacteria, fungi and debris) that determine the turbidity and colouration of the water;
• Abundance of inorganic chemicals such as ammonia, nitrites, hydrogen sulphide etc. that in the drinking water treatment plants induce the formation of harmful substances such as nitrosamines suspected of mutagenicity;
• Abundance of organic substances that give the water disagreeable odours or tastes, barely masked by chlorination in the case of drinking water. These substances, moreover, form complex chemical compounds that prevent normal purification processes and are deposited on the walls of the water purifier inlet tubes, accelerating corrosion and limiting the flow rate;
• The water acquires disagreeable odours or tastes (of earth, of rotten fish, of cloves, of watermelon, etc.) due to the presence of particular algae;
• Disappearance or significant reduction of quality fish with very negative effects on fishing (instead of quality species such as trout undesirable ones such as carp become established) and ocean acidification;
• Possible affirmation of toxic algae with potential damage to the population and animals drinking the affected water;
• Prohibition of touristic use of the lake and bathing, due to both the foul odour on the shores caused by the presence of certain algae, as well as the turbidity and anything but clean and attractive appearance of the water; bathing is dangerous because certain algae cause skin irritation;
• Reduction of oxygen concentration, especially in the deeper layers of the lake at the end of summer and in autumn.

QUESTION: 21

With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zone’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It acts as a buffer for further protection around Protected Areas (PAs) such as National Parks and Wildlife sanctuaries.
2. It is notified under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
3. The purpose of the declaration of ecosensitive zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Statement 3 is incorrect: Prohibited activies are Commercial Mining, Setting of Saw Mill, Setting of industries causing pollution, establishment of major hydroelectric projects etc
Eco-Sensitive zone
• Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) or Ecologically Fragile Areas (EFAs) are areas notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
• The purpose of declaring ESZs is to create some kind of “shock absorbers” to the protected areas such as National Parks and Wildlife sanctuaries by regulating and managing the activities around such areas. They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas involving lesser protection. Thus prohibition of all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture is not the prime objective of ecosensitive zones.
• ESZ is notified under Section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 by the Union Ministry of Environment and Forest.
• ESZ Guidelines classify activities under three categories:
1. Prohibited: Commercial Mining, Setting of Saw Mill, Setting of industries causing pollution, establishment of major hydroelectric projects etc
2. Regulated: Felling of Trees, Establishment of hotels and resorts, erection of electrical cables, drastic change of agricultural systems etc
3. Permitted: Ongoing agriculture and horticulture practices by local communities, rain water harvesting, organic farming etc
• Sanjay Gandhi National Park in Mumbai has been notified as Eco-sensitive zone.
• Stakeholders’ valuation: It is important to take on board perceptions of the civil society and local bodies, especially the zilla, taluk and gram panchayats, to decide on areas that they consider to be ecologically and environmentally sensitive. Of course, these perceptions will depend on the proposed management regime.

QUESTION: 22

Solid wastes are discarded materials such as garbage and sludge. In light of this statement, which of the following are the effects of solid waste?

Solution:

Effects of Solid Waste
•  The land gets littered by plastic bag garbage and becomes ugly and unhygienic.
1. Conventional plastics have been associated with reproductive problems in both humans and wildlife.
2. Dioxin (highly carcinogenic and toxic) by-product of the manufacturing process is one of the chemicals believed to be passed on through breast milk to the nursing infant.
3. Burning of plastics, especially PVC releases this dioxin and also furan into the atmosphere. Thus, conventional plastics, right from their manufacture to their disposal are a major problem to the environment.
4. Plastic bags can also contaminate foodstuffs due to leaching of toxic dyes and the transfer of pathogens.
5. Careless disposal of plastic bags chokes drains, blocks the porosity of the soil and causes problems for groundwater recharge.
6. Plastic disturbs the soil microbe activity. The terrestrial and aquatic animals misunderstand plastic garbage as food items, swallow them and die.
7. Plastic bags deteriorate soil fertility as it forms part of manure and remains in the soil for years.
8. These bags finding their way into the city drainage system results in blockage causing inconvenience, difficult in maintenance, create an unhygienic environment resulting in health hazards and spreading of water-borne diseases.
9. Designing eco-friendly, biodegradable plastics are the need of the hour.

QUESTION: 23

Match the following:

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:


Reports and Organizations
• The World Database on Protected Areas (WDPA) is the most comprehensive global database on terrestrial and marine protected areas. It is a joint project between the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), managed by UNEP World Conservation Monitoring Centre (UNEP-WCMC).
• The Protected Planet Report, published by IUCNassesses how protected areas contribute to achieving the Aichi Biodiversity Targets and relevant targets of the Sustainable Development Goals, and highlights current research and case studies as examples of the role protected areas play in conserving biodiversity and cultural heritage.
• Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is the flagship publication of the Convention on Biological Diversity. It is a periodic report that summarizes the latest data on the status and trends of biodiversity and draws conclusions relevant to the further implementation of the Convention.
• The fourth edition of the Global Biodiversity Outlook was officially launched on the opening day of the Twelfth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity (COP 12) in Pyeongchang, Korea. 

QUESTION: 24

Fly Ash coming from thermal power plants contains which of the following gases?
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Aluminum oxide
3. Silicon dioxide
4. Calcium oxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Fly Ash coming from thermal power plants does not contain carbon monoxide.
Fly Ash
• Fly ash is one of the residues generated by coal combustion, and is composed of the fine particles that are driven out of the boiler with the flue gases.
• Depending upon the source and makeup of the coal being burned, the components of fly ash vary considerably, but all fly ash includes substantial amounts of silicon dioxide (SiO2) (both amorphous and crystalline), aluminum oxide (Al2O3) and calcium oxide (CaO), the main mineral compounds in coalbearing rock strata.
• Fly ash is a fine powder which is a byproduct of burning pulverized coal in electric generation power plants. Fly ash is a pozzolan, a substance containing aluminous and siliceous material that forms cement in the presence of water. When mixed with lime and water it forms a compound similar to Portland cement. Fly ash can be used as prime material in blocks, paving or bricks; however, one of the most important applications is PCC pavement. PCC pavements use a large amount of concrete and substituting fly ash provides significant economic benefits.
• Major concerns about using fly ash concrete include:
• Slower strength gain.
• Seasonal limitation.
• Increase in air-entraining admixtures.
• An increase of salt scaling produced by higher fly ash.
• Fly Ash coming from thermal power plants does not contain carbon monoxide.

QUESTION: 25

Which of the following role is/are played by Wildlife Corridor in Biodiversity preservation?
1. It allows an exchange of individuals between populations, which may help prevent the negative effects of inbreeding and reduced genetic diversity. 
2. It may facilitate the re-establishment of populations that have been reduced or eliminated due to random events such as fires or disease.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

Wildlife corridor
• A wildlife corridor is a link of wildlife habitat, generally native vegetation, which joins two or more larger areas of similar wildlife habitat. Corridors are critical for the maintenance of ecological processes including allowing for the movement of animals and the continuation of viable populations.
• By providing landscape connections between larger areas of habitat, corridors enable migration, colonisation and interbreeding of plants and animals. This allows an exchange of individuals between populations, which may help prevent the negative effects of inbreeding and reduced genetic diversity (via genetic drift) that often occur within isolated populations.
• Corridors may also help facilitate the reestablishment of populations that have been reduced or eliminated due to random events (such as fires or disease) as it provides the link between two ecological regions.

QUESTION: 26

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Atmospheric Ozone?
1. It is always beneficial for human beings on earth.
2. Refrigeration process leads to destruction of ozone molecules.
3. Halogen compounds are responsible for ozone depletion.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The ozone layer is one of the layers in the earth’s atmosphere, contained mostly within in the stratosphere’s layer, at a distance of between 15 and 30 km from the surface of the earth. Ozone is both beneficial and harmful for human beings on earth. Harmful when present in troposphere as being a poisonous gas and beneficial when present in stratosphere by protecting from UV rays.
Ozone
• Ozone is a molecule, with a strong smell and it is blue in color. In 10 million air molecules, only 3 are ozone, making it much less common than other molecules such as oxygen, which make up about 2 million of every 10 million air molecules. Despite the relatively small percentage of ozone molecules in the earth’s atmosphere, it is extremely important for life on earth. Ozone molecules absorb the UVB ultraviolet light that does so much damage on the planet. Ozone helps to protect people, animals, plants, and marine life from the sun’s harmful rays. The ozone layer has been damaged by substances known as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which were used in a variety of products such as insulating foam, solvents, and refrigerants.
• The Montreal Protocol, enacted in 1989, was put in place to try to protect the ozone layer by phasing out substances that deplete the ozone layer worldwide.
• Refrigeration by humans on earth is releasing Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS) like CFCs thus destroying ozone molecules.
• ODS are generally halogen compounds like CFCs, HCFCs which contain elements like chlorine and fluorine and are responsible for ozone depletion. 

QUESTION: 27

It is one of the highest ecosystems in the world. It includes a range of ecolines, varying from sub-tropic to Arctic, as well as natural forests in different biomes. Recently it has been included in the UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).
Identify the National Park mentioned in the above passage?

Solution:

Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
• The Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve has become the 11th Biosphere Reserve from India that has been included in the UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR).  
• The decision to include Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve in WNBR was taken at the 30th Session of International Coordinating Council (ICC) of Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme of UNESCO held at Palembang, Indonesia, from July 23-27, 2018.  
• India has 18 Biosphere Reserves and with the inclusion of Khangchendzonga, the number of internationally designated WNBR has become 11, with 7 Biosphere Reserves being domestic Biosphere Reserves.
• Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve in Sikkim is one of the highest ecosystems in the world, reaching elevations of 1, 220 metres above sealevel.  It includes a range of ecolines , varying from sub-tropic to Arctic, as well as natural forests in different biomes, that support an immensely rich diversity of forest types and habitats. 
• The core area of the Biosphere Reserve is a major transboundary Wildlife Protected Area.
• The southern and central landscape, which makes up 86% of the core area, is situated in the Greater Himalayas.  The northern part of the area accounts for 14% is characterized by trans-Himalayan features.  Buffer zones are being developed to promote eco-tourism activities.  Plantation and soil conservation work is also being carried out.
• The core zone – Khangchendzonga National Park was designated a World Heritage Site in 2016 under the ‘mixed’ category.  Many of the mountains, peaks, lakes, caves, rocks, Stupas (shrines) and hot springs function as pilgrimage sites. Over 118 species of the large number of medicinal plants found in Dzongu Valley in north Sikkim are of ethno-medical utility. The transition zone is targeted for eco-development activities, afforestation, plantation of medicinal herbs and soil conservation measures.

QUESTION: 28

Consider the following statements with respect to Fly Ash:
1. Fly Ash is referred to as a residue which rises with gases into the atmosphere and tends to travel far in the air.
2. Fly Ash can be used in cement making and pavement construction. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Solution:

Fly-Ash
• Fly ash is one of the residues generated by coal combustion, and is composed of the fine particles that are driven out of the boiler with the flue gases rises with gases into the atmosphere and tends to travel far in the air.
• Depending upon the source and makeup of the coal being burned, the components of fly ash vary considerably, but all fly ash includes substantial amounts of silicon dioxide (SiO2) (both amorphous and crystalline), aluminum oxide (Al2O3) and calcium oxide (CaO), the main mineral compounds in coalbearing rock strata.
• Fly ash is a fine powder which is a byproduct of burning pulverized coal in electric generation power plants. Fly ash is a pozzolan, a substance containing aluminous and siliceous material that forms cement in the presence of water. When mixed with lime and water it forms a compound similar to Portland cement. Fly ash can be used as prime material in blocks, paving or bricks; however, one of the most important applications is Plain Cement Concrete (PCC pavement). PCC pavements use a large amount of concrete and substituting fly ash provides significant economic benefits. 1. Major concerns about using fly ash concrete include:
2. Slower strength gain.
3. Seasonal limitation.
4. Increase in air-entraining admixtures.
5. An increase of salt scaling produced by higher fly ash.

QUESTION: 29

Which of the following statements is/are correct about ex-situ conservation?
1. Ex-situ conservation helps in commercial improvement of a species through breeding activities and supply of genetically improved reproductive material.
2. Ex-situ conservation ensures the ongoing process of evolution and adaptation within their habitats.
3. Captive breeding of animals with possible reintroduction into the wild is an example of ex-situ conservation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Solution:

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Ex situ conservation literally means, “Off-site conservation”.
Ex-situ Conservation
• Ex situ conservation literally means, “Offsite conservation”. It is the process of protecting an endangered species, variety or breed, of plant or animal outside its natural habitat; for example, by removing part of the population from a threatened habitat and placing it in a new location, which may be a wild area or within the care of humans. Zoological parks, botanical gardens, wildlife safari parks and seed banks.
• In recent years ex situ conservation has advanced beyond keeping threatened species. Now gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using cryopreservation techniques, eggs can be fertilized in vitro, and plants can be propagated using tissue culture methods.
• Ex-situ techniques are implemented in welldefined situations:
1. To safeguard populations or individuals that are in danger of physical destruction when protection in situ is not possible;
2. To safeguard populations which are in danger of genetic deterioration;
3. To ensure a readily available, continuous supply of reproductive material, either creating a production source or through storage;
4. To allow commercial improvement of a species through breeding activities and supply of genetically improved reproductive material. 
• Captive breeding of animals with possible reintroduction into the wild is an example of ex-situ conservation.

QUESTION: 30

The National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) is undertaken in India to:
1. Ascertain the compliance of National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS).
2. Identify non-attainment cities.
3. Determine status and trends of ambient air quality.
4. Understand the natural process of cleaning in the atmosphere.
5. Undertake preventive and corrective measures by enforcing penalties.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Solution:

• Statement 5 is incorrect: To undertake preventive and corrective measures, not penalties.
National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP)
• In India, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been executing a nationwide programme of ambient air quality monitoring known as National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP). Under this programme, Central Government provides funds through CPCB for National Air Monitoring Programme to various State pollution control boards (SPCBs) and Pollution Control Committees (PCCs).
• There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.  
• The proposed AQI will consider eight pollutants namely particulate matter 2.5 and 10, nitrogen and sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide, ozone, ammonia and lead, for which short-term (up to 24-hourly averaging period) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed.
• As per CPCB, the objectives of the N.A.M.P. are:
• to determine status and trends of ambient air quality and compliance of National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS); 
1. to ascertain whether the prescribed ambient air quality standards are violated;
2. to Identify Non-attainment Cities;
3. to obtain the knowledge and understanding necessary for developing preventive and corrective measures and 
4. to understand the natural cleansing process undergoing in the environment through pollution dilution, dispersion, wind based movement, dry deposition, precipitation and chemical transformation of pollutants generated.
• To undertake preventive and corrective measures, not penalties.

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