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GMAT Mock Test - 1


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GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

Of the following, which is least? 

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 1

Since the numerator of aU of the fractions in the answer choices is 0.03, the least of the fractions will, be the fraction with the greatest denominator. The greatest denominator is 7.1, and so the least of the fractions is 0.03/7.1

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

The maximum recommended pulse rate R, when exercising, for a person who is x years of age is given by the equation R = 176 - 0.8x. What is the age, in years, of a person whose maximum recommended pulse rate when exercising is 140?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 2

Substitute 140 for R in the given equation and solve for x.
140 = 176 - 0.8x
-36 = -0.8x
-36/-0.8 = x
45 = x

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

If the average (arithmetic mean) of 5 numbers j, j + 5, 2j - 1, 4j -2, and 5j- 1 is 8, what is the value of j?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 3

Arthmetic means = sum of total numbers /numbers
(j + j + 5 + 2j-1 + 4j - 2 + 5j - 1)/5 = 8
(13j + 5 - 4)/5 = 8
(13j + 1) = 40
13j = 40 – 1 = 39
j = 39/13 = 3 ans.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

Guadalupe owns 2 rectangular tracts of land. One is 300 m by 500 m and the other is 250 m by 630 m. The combined area of these 2 tracts is how many square meters?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 4

The area of a rectangle can be found by multiplying the length and width of the rectangle. Therefore, the combined area, in square meters, of the 2 rectangular tracts of land is (300)(500) + (250)(630) = 150,000 + 157,500 = 307,500.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

There are five sales agents in a certain real estate office. One month Andy sold twice as many properties as Ellen, Bob sold 3 more than Ellen, Cary sold twice as many as Bob, and Dora sold as many as Bob and Ellen together. Who sold the most properties that month?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 5

We can create the following equations:

A = 2E
B = E + 3
C = 2B
D = B + E
Let’s substitute B = E + 3 in the last two equations:
C = 2(E + 3) = 2E + 6
D = (E + 3) + E = 2E + 3
Now, we have everything expressed in terms of E; thus it just remains to compare the quantities 2E, E + 3, 2E + 6, 2E + 3 and E. Since E is the number of properties sold by Ellen, it is a positive integer. Thus, the greatest expression among the five possibilities is 2E + 6, which belongs to Cary.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

In a field day at a school, each child who competed in n events and scored a total of ρ points was given an overall score of (ρ/n) + n. Andrew competed in 1 event and scored 9 points. Jason competed in 3 events and scored 5, 6, and 7 points, respectively. What was the ratio of Andrew's overall score to Jason's overall score?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 6

Andrew participated in 1 event and scored 9 points, so his overall score was 9/1 + 1 = 10. Jason participated in 3 events and scored 5 + 6 + 7 = 18 points, so his overall score was 18/3 + 3 = 9. The ratio of Andrew’s overall score to Jason’s overall score was 10/9.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

A certain work plan for September requires that a work team, working every day, produce an average of 200 items per day. For the first half of the month, the team produced an average of 150 items per day. How many items per day must the team average during the second half of the month ifitis to attain the average daily production rate required by the work plan?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 7

The work plan requires that the team produce an average of 200 items per day in September. Because the team has only produced an average of 150 items per day in the first half of September, it has a shortfall of 200 - 150 = 50 items per day for the first half of the month. The team must make up for this shortfall in tire second half of the month, which has an equal number of days as the first half of the month. The team must therefore produce in the second half of the month an average amount per day that is 50 items greater than the required average of 200 items per day for the entire month. This amount for the second half of September is 250 items per day.
The correct answer is B.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

A souvenir vendor purchased 1,000 shirts for a special event at a price of $5 each. The vendor sold 600 of the shirts on the day of the event for $12 each and 300 of the shirts in the week following the event for $4 each. The vendor was unable to sell the remaining shirts. What was the vendor's gross profit on the sale of these shirts?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 8

The vendor’s gross profit on the sale of the shirts is equal to the total revenue from the shirts that were sold minus the total cost for all of the shirts. The total cost for all of the shirts is equal to the number of shirts the vendor purchased multiplied by the price paid by the vendor for each shirt: 1,000 x $5 = $5,000. The total revenue from the shirts that were sold is equal to the total revenue from the 600 shirts sold for $12 each plus the total revenue from the 300 shirts that were sold for $4 each: 600 x $12 + 300 x $4 - $7,200 + $1,200 - $8,400. The gross profit is therefore $8,400 - $5,000 = $3,400.
The correct answer is E.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

If x > y and y > z, which of the following represents the greatest number?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 9

From x > y and y > z, it follows that x > z.
These inequalities imply the following about the differences that are given in the answer choices:
Since the expressions in A and B represent positive numbers and the expressions in C, D, and E represent negative numbers, the latter can be eliminated because every negative number is less than every positive number. To determine which of x - z and x - y is greater, consider die placement of points widi coordinates x, y, and x on the number line,

The distance between x and z (that is, x  - z) is the sum of the distance between x andy (that is, x - y) and the distance between y and z (that is, y - z).
Therefore (x- z) > (x y),which means that x-z represents the greater of the numbers represented by (x - z) and (x - y). Thus, x-z represents the greatest of the numbers represented by&e answer choices.
Alternatively,
y > z given
-y < -z multiply both sides by -1
x - y < x - z add x to both sides
Thus, x - z represents the greater of the numbers represented by (x - z) and (x - y). Therefore, x - z represents the greatest of the numbers represented by the answer choices.
The correct answer is A.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

To order certain plants from a catalog, it costs $3.00 per plant, plus a 5 percent sales tax, plus $6.95 for shipping and handling regardless of the number of plants ordered. If Company C ordered these plants from the catalog at the total cost of $69.95, how many plants did Company C order?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 10

Let number of plants ordered be: n

3n + 0.05(3n) + 6.95 = 69.95

1.05 (3n) = 69.95 - 6.95 = 63

n = 63 / (3 x 1.05) = 20

Therefore the company ordered 20 plants.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

The value of Maureen's investment portfolio has decreased by 5.8 percent since herinitial investment in the portfolio. If her initial investment was $16,800, what is the current value of the portfolio?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 11

Maureen’s initial investment was $16,800, and it has decreased by 5.8%. Its current value is therefore (100% - 5.8%) = 94.2% of $16,800, which is equal to 0.942 x $16,800. To make the multiplication simpler, this can be expressed as $(942 X 16.8). Thus multiplying, we obtain the result of $15,825.60.
The correct answer is C.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

The value of Maureen's investment portfolio hasdecreased by 5.8 percent since herinitial investment in the portfolio. If her initial investment was $16,800, what is the current value of the portfolio?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 12

Maureen’s initial investment was $16,800, and it has decreased by 5.8%. Its current value is therefore (100% - 5.8%) = 94.2% of $16,800, which is equal to 0.942 x $16,800. To make the multiplication simpler, this can be expressed as $(942 x 16.8). Thus multiplying, we obtain the result of $15,825.60.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

Company C produces toy trucks at a cost of $5.00 each for the first 100 trucks and $3.50 for each additional truck. If 500 toy trucks were produced by Company C and sold for $10.00 each, what was Company C's gross profit?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 13

The company’s gross profit on the 500 toy trucks is the company’s revenue from selling the trucks minus the company’s cost of producing the trucks. The revenue is (500)($10.00) = $5,000.The cost for the first 100 trucks is (100)($5.00) = $500, and the cost for the other 400 trucks is (400)($3.50) = $1,400 for a total cost of $500 + $1,400 = $1,900. Thus, the company's gross profit is $5,000 - $1,900 = $3,100.
The correct answer is C.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

A group of store managers must assemble 280 displays for an upcoming sale. If they assemble 25 percent of the displays during the first hour and 40 percent of the remaining displays during the second hour, how many of the displays will not have been assembled by the end of the second hour?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 14

If, during the first hour, 25 percent of the total displays were assembled, then 280(0.25) = 70 displays were assembled, leaving 280 - 70 = 210 displays remaining to be assembled. Since 40 percent of the remaining displays were assembled during the second hour, 0.40(210) = 84 displays were assembled during the second hour. Thus, 70 + 84 = 154 displays were assembled during the first two hours and 280 - 154 = 126 displays had not been assembled by the end of the second hour.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

The annual profit or loss for the three divisions of Company T for the years 1991 through 1995 are summarized in the table shown, where losses are enclosed in parentheses. For which division and which three consecutive years shown was the division’s profit or loss for the three-year period closest to $0 ?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 15

For completeness, the table shows all 9 of the profit or loss amounts, in millions of dollars, for each of the 3 divisions and the 3 three-year periods.

The correct answer is E. 

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

How many members of the staff of Advanced Computer Technology Consulting are women from outside the United States?

  1. one-fourth of the staff at Advanced Computer Technology Consulting are men
  2. 20% of the staff, or 20 individuals, are men from the U.S.; there are twice as many women from the U.S. as men from the U.S.
Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 16

Note that this question asks for a specific number, not a ratio. Consequently, keep in mind that knowing y percent of the total staff is composed of women from outside the United States is not sufficient.

Evaluate Statement (1) alone.

  • If 25% of the staff are men, 75% must be women.
  • There is not enough information to determine the number of women from outside the United States. Statement (1) alone is NOT SUFFICIENT.

Evaluate Statement (2) alone

  • Since 20 men from the U.S. represent 20% of the staff, the total staff is 100. We also know that there are 20 men from the U.S. and 2(20)=40 women from the U.S. for a total of 20+40=60 employees from the U.S. Consequently, 100-60=40 employees must be from outside the U.S.
  • Since we cannot determine the breakdown of the 40 employees from outside the U.S., it is impossible to determine the number of women from outside the U.S.; Statement (2) alone is NOT SUFFICIENT.

Evaluate Statements (1) and (2) together.

  • Fill in as much information as possible from Statements (1) and (2). We now know that there are a total .25(x) =. 25(100) = 25 men and .75(x) = .75(100) = 75 women.
  • 35 members of the staff of Advanced Computer Technology Consulting are women from outside the United States.

Since Statement (1) alone is NOT SUFFICIENT and Statement (2) alone is NOT SUFFICIENT, but Statements (1) and (2), when taken together, are SUFFICIENT, answer C is correct.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

In a certain class, a teacher distributed a few candies and a few bars among the students such that each student got an equal number of candies and an equal number of bars and no candies or bars remained undistributed. How many students were there in the class?

(1) The teacher distributed 180 candies and 40 bars.
(2) The total number of items received by each student was less than 20.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 17

Given: Each student gets an equal number of candies and an equal number of few bars

Do not assume! Number of candies = Number of bars

To find out: The number of students in the class

Statement 1:

We know that each student received an equal number of candies and an equal number of bars.

Thus, the GCD of the number of candies and the number of bars is the largest possible number of students in the class.

180 = 22 × 32 × 5

40 = 2× 5

The terms common to both: 2 5 = 20
⇒ GCD of 40 and 180 = 20

Thus, the number of students could be 20 or a factor of 20 (that is, 1, 2, 4, 5, 10):

Scenario #1

Number of students = 20 (Maximum possible number of students):

Number of candies received by each student: 180 / 20 = 9
Number of bars received by each student: 4 / 20 = 2

Scenario #2

Number of students = 10

Number of candies received by each student: 180 / 10 = 18
Number of bars received by each student: 40 / 10 = 4

Scenario #3

Number of students = 5

Number of candies received by each student: 180 / 5 = 36
Number of bars received by each student: 40 / 5 = 8

There are three more possible cases for the number of students, i.e. 4 or 2 or 1. Of these, the possibility of the number of students being 1 can be rejected because the question explicitly mentions students in the plural.

So, the number of students can be 20, 10, 5, 4, or 2.

Thus, there is no unique answer. – Insufficient

Statement 2:

There is no information about the number of candies and the number of bars distributed. – Insufficient

Statement 1 & 2 together:

Combining both statements, we find that since the total number of items received by each student is less than 20, the only possible scenario is Scenario #1, where:
i. the number of students is 20.
ii. Total number of items received by each student: 9 + 2 = 11< 20.
The total number of items received by each student in other scenarios is more than 20. – Therefore, we’ve arrived at a unique answer: the number of students is 20. Sufficient

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

If no bulk purchase discount applies, what is the price of 13 oranges and 12 apples?

(1) The price of 39 oranges and 36 apples is $111.
(2) The price of 3 oranges and 2 apples is $7.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 18

Statement 1:

We are given that the combined price of 39 oranges and 36 apples is $111.

Looking at the numbers (13,12) in the question statement and (39,36) in Statement (1), it must click that 39 is 3 times of 13, and 36 is also 3 times of 12. Thus, we have:

The combined price of 39 (= 13 × 3) oranges and 36 ( = 12 × 3) apples is $111.

Thus, the combined price of 13 oranges and 12 apples is $111 / 3. - Sufficient

Note: Since in Data Sufficiency questions, you only have to assess whether a statement can lead you to a unique answer or not, do not waste time in calculating the exact answer. This is why the value $1113 has not been further simplified. There is simply no need to do so.

Statement 2:

We are given that the combined price of 3 oranges and 2 apples is $7.

Getting a cue from dealing with Statement (1), we see that 12 is 6 times of 2, but 13 is not 6 times of 3. So, by multiplying the information "the combined price of 3 oranges and 2 apples is $7" by 6, we cannot reach "the combined price of 13 oranges and 12 apples…"

We would rather get:

6 × (Combined price of 3 oranges and 2 apples is $7)
= Combined price of 18 oranges and 12 apples is $42, which is not asked for. - Insufficient

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

What is the price of an orange?

(1) The price of 3 oranges and 2 apples is $7.
(2) The price of an orange and the price of an apple are both integers.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 19

Statement 1:

We are given that the combined price of 3 oranges and 2 apples is $7:

3(Price of 1 orange)+2(Price of 1 apple)=7
This is a linear equation with two variables. From it alone, we cannot get the unique value of the price of an orange.

Let's take two cases.

1. Say the price of an apple = $1, then the price of an orange is 

2. Say the price of an apple = $2, then the price of an orange is 

No unique value of the price of an orange. Insufficient!

Statement 2:

Merely knowing that the price of an orange and the price of an apple are integers is not sufficient.

Statement 1 & 2 together:

Say the price of an orange = x and the price of an apple = y;

Thus, from Statement 1, we get,

3x + 2y = 7
From Statement 2, we know that the price of an orange and the price of an apple are integers, thus they must be positive. That is,

x ≥ 1
y ≥ 1
Let's assume a few possible integer values of the price of an apple (y) and see whether it results in a unique positive integer value of the price of an orange (x).

We get only one valid value of x, i.e. the price of an orange = $1, a unique value.

So, our analysis has yielded a unique value of x (=1). Sufficient!

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

A trader purchased three products - Product X, Product Y, and Product Z - for a sum of $500,000. Did the trader pay more than $200,000 for Product Z?

(1) The sum the trader paid for Product X and Product Y combined was 3 times the sum the trader paid for Product X.
(2) The trader paid more to purchase Product Z than to purchase Product Y.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 20

We are given that the amount spent on buying Product X, Product Y, and Product Z is $500,000.

Say the amounts spent on buying Product X, Product Y, and Product Z are x,y, and z, respectively.

⇒ x + y + z = 500,000 (Equation 1)

We have to determine whether z>200,000.

Statement 1:

We are given that the sum the trader paid for Product X and Product Y combined was 3 times the sum the trader paid for Product X.

⇒ x + y = 3x
y = 2x (Equation 2)

Substituting equation (2) in equation (1):

⇒ x + 2x + z = 500,000
⇒ 3x + z = 500,000
We have an unknown x. So, we cannot determine whether z > 200,000. Insufficient!

Statement 2:

We are given that the trader paid more to purchase Product Z than to purchase Product Y.

⇒ z > y (Inequality 3)

With the help of equation (1): x + y + z = 500,000 and inequality (3): z > y, we cannot determine whether z > 200,000. Insufficient!

Statement 1 & 2 together:

Let's put down the two equations (1) and (2) and the inequality (3).

x + y + z = 500,000 (Equation 1)

y = 2x (Equation 2)

z > y (Inequality 3)

Since equation (3) has only z and y variables, let's eliminate variable x from equation (1) and (2).

From equation (2), we have x = y/2. By plugging in the value x in equation (1), we get:

y/2 + y + z = 500,000
y + 2y + 2z = 1,000,000
3y + 2z = 1,000,000 (Equation 4)

Substituting (5) in (3):

5z > 1,000,000 
z > 200,000
So, the answer is 'Yes'. The two statements together are sufficient!

Alternate approach:

Alternate way of solving further after Equation (4): 3y + 2z = 1,000,000
Let's assume that y = z, and see what are their values. Say y = z = p
Thus, 3p+2p = 1,000,000
⇒5p = 1,000,000
⇒p = 200,000
Thus, y = z = 200,000;

However, this goes against the fact given in inequality (3): z > y.

Thus, y < 200,000 & z > 200,000. The answer is 'Yes'. Sufficient!

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

A teacher distributed pens, pencils, and erasers among the students of his class, such that all students got an equal number of pens, an equal number of pencils, and an equal number of erasers. If no pens, pencils, or erasers remained with the teacher, how many students were in the class?

(1) Each student got pens, pencils, and erasers in the ratio 3:4:5, respectively.
(2) The teacher distributed a total of 27 pens, 36 pencils, and 45 erasers.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 21

We are given that a teacher gave an equal number of pens, an equal number of pencils, and an equal number of erasers to each student of this class.

You must NOT assume:

(Number of pens per student) = (Numbers of pencils per student) = (Number of erasers per student)

The number of pens that a student - say Student A - got may be different from the number of pencils and from the number of erasers he got; however, every student in the class got as many pens as Student A gets (and likewise, as many pencils and erasers as Student A gets).

Let the total number of students in the class be n, and each student got x number of pens, y number of pencils, and z number of erasers. We have to find out n.

Statement 1:

Each student got pens, pencils, and erasers in the ratio 3:4:5, respectively.

Thus, we have:

x : y : z = 3 : 4 : 5
⇒ x = 3k, y = 4k, z = 5k,where k is a constant of proportionality.
However, we have no information on n. - Insufficient

Statement 2:

We know that the teacher distributed a total of 27 pens, 36 pencils, and 45 erasers.

Thus, nx = 27,ny = 36,nz = 45
We have no information about x, y, z.

Hence, we cannot determine the value of n. - Insufficient

Statement 1 & 2 together:

Substituting the values of x, or y, or z from Statement 1 in the information from Statement 2, we have:

nx = 27 = 3k
n = 9k
Since k is unknown, we cannot determine n.

The valid values of k can be 1, 3, and 9, rendering the values of n = 9, 3, and 1. (k cannot be greater than 9 because n, the number of students, cannot be a fraction. And, k cannot be a fraction, for example, 1/2 etc., because we know that x = 3k, y = 4k, & z = 5k. Since x, y, & z denote the number of items, they cannot be fractions. For x, y, & z to have integer values, k must be an integer.)

No unique value of n. - Insufficient

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

If neither x nor y is equal to 0, is 3x − 2y = 0?

(1) 27x3 − 8y3 = 0
(2) 9x2 − 4y2 = 0

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 22

We have to find out whether 3x − 2y = 0.

Alternatively, we can write 3x − 2y = 0 as x = 2 / 3y.

Thus, we have to determine whether x = 2 / 3y.

Statement 1:

We are given that 27x3 − 8y3 = 0.

⇒ 27x3 = 8y3
⇒ x3 = 8 / 27y3
⇒ x = 2 / 3y; taking the cube root of both the sides. (Remember that the real number x3 has only one real cube root.)

The answer is Yes. - Sufficient!

Statement 2:

We are given that 9x2 − 4y2 = 0
⇒ 9x2 = 4y2
⇒ x2 = 4 / 9y2
⇒ x = ±2 / 3y; taking the square root of both the sides. (Remember that the positive number x2 has two square roots, one positive and the other negative.)

If x = 2 / 3y, the answer is Yes; however, if x = −2 / 3y, the answer is No.

No unique value of x. - Insufficient!

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Did David solve more questions than Steve in a 2-hour test?

(1) Thrice the number of questions that David solved in the test was greater than 6 less than thrice the number of questions that Steve solved in the test.
(2) Twice the number of questions that David solved in the test was greater than 4 less than twice the number of questions that Steve solved in the test.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 23

Statement 1:

We are given that Thrice the number of questions that David solved in the test was greater than 6 less than thrice the number of questions that Steve solved in the test.

⇒ 3x > 3y − 6
⇒ x > y − 2
We cannot determine whether x > y, since x is greater than a quantity y, which is reduced by a certain amount, 2.

Let us take an example.

Say y = 10, thus x > 10−2 ⇒ x > 8.

If x = 9, then x ≯ y and the answer is No. However, if x = 11, then x > y and the answer is Yes. No unique answer. Insufficient!

Statement 2:

We are given that Twice the number of questions that David solved in the test was greater than 4 less than twice the number of questions that Steve solved in the test.

⇒ 2x > 2y − 4
⇒ x > y − 2
This is the same inequality that we got in Statement 1. Insufficient!

Statement 1 & 2:

Since each statement renders the same inequality, even combining both the statements cannot help. Insufficient!

Conclusion:

Each statement renders that same inequality, thus combining both the statements will not help.

You may have deduced a wrong conclusion with the inequality x > y − 2.

We see that x is greater than a number y minus 2; thus, x may or may not be greater than y.

Had the situation been x > y + 2, then it's for certain that x > y; since x is greater than a number (y + 2), then x must be greater than a relatively smaller number y.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

Each of the 25 books on bookshelf X is thinner than each of the 25 books on bookshelf Y. Is the median thickness of the 50 books less than 20-millimeters?

(1) The thinnest book on bookshelf X is 2 millimeters thick.
(2) The thinnest book on bookshelf Y is 20 millimeters thick.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 24

We are given that each of the 25 books on bookshelf X is thinner than each of the 25 books on bookshelf Y.

⇒ (Thickness of the thickest book on bookshelf X) < (Thickness of the thinnest book on bookshelf Y)
You must not assume that the thickness of each of the 25 books on bookshelf X is the same; they all may be of different thickness; they all may be of the same thickness or a few of them may be of the same thickness. The same goes for the books on bookshelf Y.

We are asked to determine whether the median thickness of the 50 books is less than 20 millimeters.

You must know that to find out the median of a dataset, the elements of the dataset must be arranged in an ascending or in a descending order.

Let's assume that that all the 50 books are arranged as per the ascending order of their thickness. All 25 books of bookshelf X would be on the left-hand side, arranged as per the increasing order of the thickness of books, and all 25 books of bookshelf Y would be on the right-hand side, arranged as per the increasing order of the thickness of books. Thus, in this ordered arrangement of the 50 books, the thickest book of bookshelf X (25th book in order) would be immediately left of the thinnest book of bookshelf Y (26th in order).

You must know that:

(Median value of a dataset) = (Value of the middlemost element)
When the number of elements in the dataset is even, the median is equal to the average of the values of the two middlemost elements.

Thus:

(the median thickness of 50 books)=(Average of the thickness of 25th book and the thickness of 26th book in the ordered arrangement)
We know that the 26th book is the 1st book on bookshelf Y.

So, to get the value of median thickness of 50 books, we must know that value of the thickness of the thickest book of bookshelf X and of the thinnest book of bookshelf Y.

Note: In the above analysis, we arranged the books on the two shelves in ascending order of their thickness. If you chose to arrange them in descending order of thickness instead, that is fine too. The analysis remains the same.

Statement 1:

The thickness of the thinnest book on shelf X = 2 millimeters

This information is of no use to us as we want the thickness of the 25th and the 26th book to calculate the median. - Insufficient

Statement 2:

(Thickness of the thinnest book on shelf Y) = (Thickness of the 26th book in ascending order of thickness) = 20-millimeters
Though we do not know the thickness of the 25th book, we can make a deduction about the median. The question does not ask the value of the median; it asks whether the median thickness of the 50 books is less than 20 millimeters. This is a "Yes/No" type of question.

Since (the thickness of 26th book) = 20 millimeters, and we're given that even the thickest book on bookshelf X is thinner than the thinnest book on bookshelf Y, we can write: (the thickness of 25th book) < 20 millimeters.

Say (the thickness of 25th book)=19.99 millimeters. Thus, Median
=19.99 + 20 / 2 < 20 millimeters. The answer is Yes. - Sufficient

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

A box has at least one ball of each of the colors red, green, and blue and no balls of any other color. If one ball is drawn randomly from the box, is the probability that the drawn ball is red same as the probability that the drawn ball is blue but NOT the same as the probability that the drawn ball is green?

(1) There are 5 balls in the box.
(2) The number of green balls is greater than the number of blue balls.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 25

We are given that the box has balls of three different colors - red, blue and green, and the number of balls of each color is at least one in count. Thus, the minimum number of balls in the box = 3.

Let's understand what the question asks.

When one ball is drawn,

Is "(Probability of drawing a red ball) = (Probability of drawing a blue ball) ≠ (Probability of drawing a green ball)"

Say, the probability of drawing a red ball = p(r); the probability of drawing a blue ball = p(b); and the probability of drawing a green ball = p(g).

The question asks,

Is p(r) = p(b) ≠ p(g)?

So, the question boils down to:

"Does the box has the number of red color balls equal to the number of blue color balls but NOT equal to the number of green color balls?"

Statement 1:

There are 5 balls in the box.

Let's distribute them in three color balls such that we have at least one ball of each color.

Scenario 1: Red color: 1 ball; Blue color: 1 ball; and Green color: 3 balls.

We have the number of red color balls equal to the number of blue color balls, and NOT equal to the number of green color balls; the answer is Yes.

Scenario 2: Red color: 2 ball; Blue color: 1 ball; and Green color: 2 balls.

We have the number of red color balls NOT equal to the number of blue color balls, but equal to the number of green color balls; the answer is No.

No unique answer. Insufficient.

Note: Other scenarios are possible too but we do not need to consider them all because from just two scenarios, we can already see that Statement 1 is not sufficient for a unique answer.

Statement 2:

Only with this information, we can decide that the probability that the drawn ball is green is NOT equal to the probability that the drawn ball is blue; however, we have no clue about the number of red balls; number of red balls may or may not be equal to number of blue balls. Insufficient.

Statement 1 & 2:

Both the scenarios discussed in Statement 1 are applicable here too. Insufficient.

Had Statement 2 been, "The number of green color balls is greater than the number of blue balls and greater than the number of red balls," Scenario 2 would not have been applicable here, thus the answer would then be C.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

For all integers n, the function f is defined by f(n) = (a)6/n, where a is a constant. What is the value of f(1)?

(1) f(2) = 64
(2) f(3) = 16

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 26

We are given that f(n) = (a)6/n, where a is a constant.

We have to find out the value of f(1).

Statement 1:

Given that f(2) = 64
Thus, f(2) = (a)6/2 = a3 = 64
⇒ a = (64)1/3 = 4
Thus, f(1) = (a)6/1 = a6 = 46. - Sufficient

Statement 2:

Given that f(3) = 16
Thus, f(3) = (a)6/3 = a2 = 16
⇒ a = (16)1/2 = ±4
Thus, f(1) = (a)6/1 = a6 = (±4)6 = 46. - Sufficient

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

If t and x are integers, what is the value of x?

(1) x2 / t2 = 4 / 9
(2) x > 0 and t > 0

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 27

In all of my classes and tutoring sessions, I emphasize how important it is to “spot the con” and to critically analyze your decision-making process when working through GMAT problems. This frequently missed question is a wonderful example of what happens when you don’t remain critical. In statement (1), you are given a piece of information that the test writers purposefully want you to determine is insufficient. You look at statement (1), glance at statement (2), and immediately realize that x and t could be positive or negative in statement (1) alone, making it insufficient. People feel good about themselves for identifying this fact and quickly pick (C), since adding statement (2) seems to guarantee that x and t are positive 2 and positive 3, respectively. 

Anytime the test writers can create a scenario in which you have a dopamine response and feel good about finding a trap, you are likely to stop being critical. The positive/negative issues present in this question are a shiny penny—so many people pick (C) because they only focus on the positive/negative ambiguity in statement (1), and statement (2) guarantees they are positive. However, when taken together, all that statements (1) and (2) tell you is that the ratio of x:t must be 2:3 and x and t must be positive. This still leaves an infinite number of possibilities for the two values: 2 and 3, 4 and 6, 6 and 9, 8 and 12, etc. Since the value for x cannot be determined, the correct answer is (E).

If both statements together still result in an infinite number of possibilities for the value of x, why do a majority of high-performing students still pick (C), thinking x must be 2? Because they don’t understand the con and they let their guard down! Just because you find one “con” in a question (in this example, the positive/negative issue), does not mean there aren’t others still present! 

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

The cost of a certain phone call was $0.75 for the first 3 minutes and $0.20 for each additional minute after the first 3 minutes. Did the phone call last longer than 15 minutes?

(1) The cost of the phone call was less than $4.16
(2) The cost of the phone call was greater than $3.35

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 28

This problem highlights how important it is to read carefully and to look for potential interpretation errors in GMAT math questions. It also shows how it is often easier to manipulate the question stems to match the statements in data sufficiency questions than to change the statements to match the questions (what you naturally want to do). Here is the incredibly well-made “con” in this question:
 A majority of high performing students do not properly interpret how to determine the cost—the instructions say $0.75 for the first 3 minutes NOT $0.75 per minute for the first three minutes. However, most people carelessly calculate the charge as if it were per minute. If you do that improper interpretation, then the question stem seems to be asking this in terms of cost: a 15-minute call would be 3 x ($0.75) + 12 ($0.20) or $2.25 + $2.40 = $4.65, so the question would be “Did the phone call cost more than $4.65?” Statement (1) would give you a definitive “No” to the question (cost would always be less than $4.65) and thus be sufficient. Statement (2) would allow for the cost to be both below and above $4.65, so the “Maybe” answer would make it insufficient. With the improper interpretation, you seem to have done everything correct when picking (A). But the correct answer is (B)!
The proper interpretation:
 The first three minutes in total cost $0.75 and each minute after the first three costs $0.20 per minute. A 15-minute call would cost $0.75 + 12 ($0.20) or $3.15. So, after changing the question to ask about cost (in order to match the statements) it becomes: Did the call cost more than $3.15?
 Now you see that statement (1) gives a maybe answer since it allows for both a yes and a no answer to the question. Statement (2), however, guarantees that the cost will always be greater than $3.15, so it is sufficient, yielding the correct answer of (B).

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

What is the value of X, if X and Y are two distinct integers and their product is 30?

(1) X is an odd integer
(2) X > Y

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 29

From the question, we know that both X and Y are distinct integers and their product is 30.
30 can be obtained as a product of two distinct integers in the following ways.

Values that satisfy X × Y = 30

Evaluate Statement (1) ALONE: X is an odd integer
From this statement, we know that the value of X is odd.
Therefore, X can be one of the following values: 1, -1, 3, -3, 5, -5.
So, using information in statement 1 we will not be able to deduce a UNIQUE value for X.

Statement 1 ALONE is NOT sufficient.
Eliminate choices A and D. Choices narrow down to B, C, or E.

Evaluate Statement (2) ALONE: X > Y
From this statement, we know that the value of X > Y.
From the combinations listed in the table above, X can take more than one value. Here are two possibilities: X could be 10 and Y could be 3. Or X could be 30 and Y could be 1.
Hence, using information in statement 2, we will not be able to find a UNIQUE value for X.

Statement 2 ALONE is NOT sufficient.
Eliminate choice B. Choices narrow down to C or E.

Evaluate Statements (1) & (2) Together: X is an odd integer and X > Y
Values of X and Y that satisfy both the conditions are

More than one value exists for X. Because we are not able to deduce a UNIQUE value for X using information provided in the two statements together, the given data is NOT sufficient.

Statements TOGETHER are NOT SUFFICIENT. Choice E is the answer.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

What is the standard deviation (SD) of the four numbers p, q, r, and s?

(1) The sum of p, q, r, and s is 24.
(2) The sum of the squares of p, q, r, and s is 224.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 30

Standard deviation = √Mean of squares of the numbers−square of mean of the numbers

Evaluating Statement (1) ALONE: The sum of p, q, r, and s is 24.
From the information in statement 1 we can find the mean of the four numbers to be 6 and the square of the mean of the numbers to be 36.
We need additional information to find the SD.
This statement does not provide any information about the mean of the squares of the numbers.

Statement 1 alone is NOT sufficient.
Eliminate choices A and D. Choices narrow down to B, C, or E.

Evaluating Statement (2) ALONE: The sum of the squares of p, q, r, and s is 224.
Hence, the mean of the squares of the numbers is 56.
However, this statement does not provide any information about the square of the mean of the numbers.

Statement 2 alone is NOT sufficient.
Eliminate choice B. Choices narrow down to C and E.

Evaluating the statements together.
From statement 1 we know that the square of the means is 36.
From statement 2 we know that the mean of the squares is 56.
Using the formula,
Standard deviation = √Mean of squares of the numbers−square of mean of the numbers,
we can find the SD of the 4 numbers.

Statements together are sufficient. Choice C is the answer.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 31

How is Bill related to Betty?

(1) Cindy, the wife of Bill's only brother Chris does not have any siblings.
(2) Betty is Cindy's brother in law's wife.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 31

Evaluate Statement (1) ALONE
Statement 1: Cindy, the wife of Bill's only brother Chris does not have any siblings.

We know that Cindy has no siblings and she is the wife of Bill's only brother Chris. So, this statement has helped us establish the relation between Cindy and Bill. However, this statement does not provide any information about Betty and is hence not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement 1 ALONE is NOT sufficient.
Eliminate choices A and D. Choices narrow down to B, C, or E.

Evaluate Statement (2) ALONE
Statement 2: Betty is Cindy's brother in law's wife.

We know that Betty is Cindy's brother in law's wife. This statement establishes a relation between Cindy and Betty. This does not answer the question of how Bill is related to either Cindy or Betty.

Statement 2 ALONE is not sufficient. Eliminate choice B.

Evaluate the statements together
Statement 1: Cindy, the wife of Bill's only brother Chris does not have any siblings.

Statement 2: Betty is Cindy's brother in law's wife.
We combine the two statements, we know that Bill and Cindy are related to each other through Chris, who is the only brother of Bill and that Cindy is Betty's brother in law's wife.
Cindy does not have any siblings and hence her brother in law has to necessarily be her husband's sibling. As Chris is the only brother of Bill, Cindy's brother in law has to be Bill and Betty is his wife.

Statements TOGETHER are sufficient.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 32

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Marketing executives in television work with a relatively stable advertising medium. In many ways, the television ads aired today are similar to those aired two decades ago. Most television ads still feature actors, still run 30 or 60 seconds, and still show a product. However, the differing dynamics of the Internet pose unique challenges to advertisers, forcing them to adapt their practices and techniques on a regular basis.

In the early days of Internet marketing, online advertisers employed banner and pop-up ads to attract customers. These techniques reached large audiences, generated many sales leads, and came at a low cost. However, a small number of Internet users began to consider these advertising techniques intrusive and annoying. Yet because marketing strategies relying heavily on banners and pop-ups produced results, companies invested growing amounts of money into purchasing these ad types in hopes of capturing market share in the burgeoning online economy. As consumers became more sophisticated, frustration with these online advertising techniques grew. Independent programmers began to develop tools that blocked banner and pop-up ads. The popularity of these tools exploded when the search engine Google, at the time an increasingly popular website fighting to solidify its place on the Internet with giants Microsoft and Yahoo, offered free software enabling users to block pop-up ads. The backlash against banner ads grew as new web browsers provided users the ability to block image-based ads such as banner ads. Although banner and pop-up ads still exist, they are far less prominent than during the early days of the Internet.

A major development in online marketing came with the introduction of pay-per-click ads. Unlike banner or pop-up ads, which originally required companies to pay every time a website visitor saw an ad, pay-per-click ads allowed companies to pay only when an interested potential customer clicked on an ad. More importantly, however, these ads circumvented the pop-up and banner blockers. As a result of these advantages and the incredible growth in the use of search engines, which provide excellent venues for pay-per-click advertising, companies began turning to pay-per-click marketing in droves. However, as with the banner and pop-up ads that preceded them, pay-per-click ads came with their drawbacks. When companies began pouring billions of dollars into this emerging medium, online advertising specialists started to notice the presence of what would later be called click fraud: representatives of a company with no interest in the product advertised by a competitor click on the competitor's ads simply to increase the marketing cost of the competitor. Click fraud grew so rapidly that marketers sought to diversify their online positions away from pay-per-click marketing through new mediums.

Although pay-per-click advertising remains a common and effective advertising tool, marketers adapted yet again to the changing dynamics of the Internet by adopting new techniques such as pay-per-performance advertising, search engine optimization, and affiliate marketing. As the pace of the Internet's evolution increases, it seems all the more likely that advertising successfully on the Internet will require a strategy that shuns constancy and embraces change.

Q. The author implies what about the future of pay-per-performance advertising?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 32

The central theme of the passage is that the Internet is evolving rapidly and current advertising mediums will eventually be replaced (albeit not completely) by new mediums. Just after mentioning pay-per-performance advertising, the author concludes by saying "As the pace of the Internet’s evolution increases, it seems all the more likely that advertising successfully on the Internet will require a strategy that shuns constancy and embraces change."

A. There is no mention of click-fraud applying to pay-per-performance advertising. Since click-fraud does not apply to all online advertising methods and no description of pay-per-performance advertising is given, it is not possible to infer that click-fraud applies to pay-per-performance advertising.
B. The passage never asserts that Internet ad strategies become "extinct." Rather it asserts that they dwindle in popularity as Internet users adapt and the ad strategies become less effective.
C. Developing software to block ads referred to the problem with pop-up and banner advertisements. The article never implied that this problem existed with all Internet advertising strategies.
D. Since the main point of the article is that the Internet evolves and online advertising strategies change, it is reasonable to conclude that pay-per-performance advertising will have a similar fate as the other advertising strategies mentioned in the passage: declining popularity over time.
E. Nothing in the passage supports the idea that an online advertising strategy will remain popular indefinitely even as the Internet evolves rapidly—this contradicts the main point of the passage.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 33

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Marketing executives in television work with a relatively stable advertising medium. In many ways, the television ads aired today are similar to those aired two decades ago. Most television ads still feature actors, still run 30 or 60 seconds, and still show a product. However, the differing dynamics of the Internet pose unique challenges to advertisers, forcing them to adapt their practices and techniques on a regular basis.

In the early days of Internet marketing, online advertisers employed banner and pop-up ads to attract customers. These techniques reached large audiences, generated many sales leads, and came at a low cost. However, a small number of Internet users began to consider these advertising techniques intrusive and annoying. Yet because marketing strategies relying heavily on banners and pop-ups produced results, companies invested growing amounts of money into purchasing these ad types in hopes of capturing market share in the burgeoning online economy. As consumers became more sophisticated, frustration with these online advertising techniques grew. Independent programmers began to develop tools that blocked banner and pop-up ads. The popularity of these tools exploded when the search engine Google, at the time an increasingly popular website fighting to solidify its place on the Internet with giants Microsoft and Yahoo, offered free software enabling users to block pop-up ads. The backlash against banner ads grew as new web browsers provided users the ability to block image-based ads such as banner ads. Although banner and pop-up ads still exist, they are far less prominent than during the early days of the Internet.

A major development in online marketing came with the introduction of pay-per-click ads. Unlike banner or pop-up ads, which originally required companies to pay every time a website visitor saw an ad, pay-per-click ads allowed companies to pay only when an interested potential customer clicked on an ad. More importantly, however, these ads circumvented the pop-up and banner blockers. As a result of these advantages and the incredible growth in the use of search engines, which provide excellent venues for pay-per-click advertising, companies began turning to pay-per-click marketing in droves. However, as with the banner and pop-up ads that preceded them, pay-per-click ads came with their drawbacks. When companies began pouring billions of dollars into this emerging medium, online advertising specialists started to notice the presence of what would later be called click fraud: representatives of a company with no interest in the product advertised by a competitor click on the competitor's ads simply to increase the marketing cost of the competitor. Click fraud grew so rapidly that marketers sought to diversify their online positions away from pay-per-click marketing through new mediums.

Although pay-per-click advertising remains a common and effective advertising tool, marketers adapted yet again to the changing dynamics of the Internet by adopting new techniques such as pay-per-performance advertising, search engine optimization, and affiliate marketing. As the pace of the Internet's evolution increases, it seems all the more likely that advertising successfully on the Internet will require a strategy that shuns constancy and embraces change.

Q. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the current status of pop-up ads?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 33

The crucial sentence in the passage is: "Although banner and pop-up ads still exist, they are far less prominent than during the early days of the Internet."

A. There is no support for this in the passage. It is implicitly contradicted by the words "far less prominent."
B. This answer reflects the statement in the passage.
C. Pay-per-click advertising is a target of "click fraud," not banner ads, which suffered from blocking programs.
D. The passage states that pop-ups "still exist."
E. The passage states that pay-per-click advertising—not pop-ups—is more popular due to search engines.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 34

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Marketing executives in television work with a relatively stable advertising medium. In many ways, the television ads aired today are similar to those aired two decades ago. Most television ads still feature actors, still run 30 or 60 seconds, and still show a product. However, the differing dynamics of the Internet pose unique challenges to advertisers, forcing them to adapt their practices and techniques on a regular basis.

In the early days of Internet marketing, online advertisers employed banner and pop-up ads to attract customers. These techniques reached large audiences, generated many sales leads, and came at a low cost. However, a small number of Internet users began to consider these advertising techniques intrusive and annoying. Yet because marketing strategies relying heavily on banners and pop-ups produced results, companies invested growing amounts of money into purchasing these ad types in hopes of capturing market share in the burgeoning online economy. As consumers became more sophisticated, frustration with these online advertising techniques grew. Independent programmers began to develop tools that blocked banner and pop-up ads. The popularity of these tools exploded when the search engine Google, at the time an increasingly popular website fighting to solidify its place on the Internet with giants Microsoft and Yahoo, offered free software enabling users to block pop-up ads. The backlash against banner ads grew as new web browsers provided users the ability to block image-based ads such as banner ads. Although banner and pop-up ads still exist, they are far less prominent than during the early days of the Internet.

A major development in online marketing came with the introduction of pay-per-click ads. Unlike banner or pop-up ads, which originally required companies to pay every time a website visitor saw an ad, pay-per-click ads allowed companies to pay only when an interested potential customer clicked on an ad. More importantly, however, these ads circumvented the pop-up and banner blockers. As a result of these advantages and the incredible growth in the use of search engines, which provide excellent venues for pay-per-click advertising, companies began turning to pay-per-click marketing in droves. However, as with the banner and pop-up ads that preceded them, pay-per-click ads came with their drawbacks. When companies began pouring billions of dollars into this emerging medium, online advertising specialists started to notice the presence of what would later be called click fraud: representatives of a company with no interest in the product advertised by a competitor click on the competitor's ads simply to increase the marketing cost of the competitor. Click fraud grew so rapidly that marketers sought to diversify their online positions away from pay-per-click marketing through new mediums.

Although pay-per-click advertising remains a common and effective advertising tool, marketers adapted yet again to the changing dynamics of the Internet by adopting new techniques such as pay-per-performance advertising, search engine optimization, and affiliate marketing. As the pace of the Internet's evolution increases, it seems all the more likely that advertising successfully on the Internet will require a strategy that shuns constancy and embraces change.

Q. According to the passage, the largest point at which the television and Internet differ as an advertising medium is:

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 34

The key sentences are at the beginning, where television and the Internet are compared: "In many ways, the television ads aired today are similar to those aired two decades ago. Most television ads still feature actors, still run 30 or 60 seconds, and still show a product. However, the differing dynamics of the Internet pose unique challenges to advertisers, forcing them to adapt their practices and techniques on a regular basis."

A. There is no mention of the type of individual.
B. Although there is a difference in whether the medium is interactive, this is never mentioned in the text.
C. This key difference is an important theme in the passage and is mentioned in the beginning.
D. The article never mentions cost.
E. There is no mention of drawbacks to television advertising.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 35

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Marketing executives in television work with a relatively stable advertising medium. In many ways, the television ads aired today are similar to those aired two decades ago. Most television ads still feature actors, still run 30 or 60 seconds, and still show a product. However, the differing dynamics of the Internet pose unique challenges to advertisers, forcing them to adapt their practices and techniques on a regular basis.

In the early days of Internet marketing, online advertisers employed banner and pop-up ads to attract customers. These techniques reached large audiences, generated many sales leads, and came at a low cost. However, a small number of Internet users began to consider these advertising techniques intrusive and annoying. Yet because marketing strategies relying heavily on banners and pop-ups produced results, companies invested growing amounts of money into purchasing these ad types in hopes of capturing market share in the burgeoning online economy. As consumers became more sophisticated, frustration with these online advertising techniques grew. Independent programmers began to develop tools that blocked banner and pop-up ads. The popularity of these tools exploded when the search engine Google, at the time an increasingly popular website fighting to solidify its place on the Internet with giants Microsoft and Yahoo, offered free software enabling users to block pop-up ads. The backlash against banner ads grew as new web browsers provided users the ability to block image-based ads such as banner ads. Although banner and pop-up ads still exist, they are far less prominent than during the early days of the Internet.

A major development in online marketing came with the introduction of pay-per-click ads. Unlike banner or pop-up ads, which originally required companies to pay every time a website visitor saw an ad, pay-per-click ads allowed companies to pay only when an interested potential customer clicked on an ad. More importantly, however, these ads circumvented the pop-up and banner blockers. As a result of these advantages and the incredible growth in the use of search engines, which provide excellent venues for pay-per-click advertising, companies began turning to pay-per-click marketing in droves. However, as with the banner and pop-up ads that preceded them, pay-per-click ads came with their drawbacks. When companies began pouring billions of dollars into this emerging medium, online advertising specialists started to notice the presence of what would later be called click fraud: representatives of a company with no interest in the product advertised by a competitor click on the competitor's ads simply to increase the marketing cost of the competitor. Click fraud grew so rapidly that marketers sought to diversify their online positions away from pay-per-click marketing through new mediums.

Although pay-per-click advertising remains a common and effective advertising tool, marketers adapted yet again to the changing dynamics of the Internet by adopting new techniques such as pay-per-performance advertising, search engine optimization, and affiliate marketing. As the pace of the Internet's evolution increases, it seems all the more likely that advertising successfully on the Internet will require a strategy that shuns constancy and embraces change.

Q. Which of the following words best describes the author’s tone in the passage?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 35

From the very beginning, the author is analyzing a situation and making a case for the rapid evolution of Internet marketing.

A. The author neither criticizes nor praises the evolution of the Internet.
B. The author seeks to analyze the evolution of the Internet and Internet marketing.
C. The author intimates that online marketers may be frustrated. However, the author does not show frustration.
D. Although the author compares the D. Internet and the television as advertising venues, there is no mention of one means being superior—the two different mediums are simply different.
E. There is no mention of surprise in the article on the part of the author—although the author implies that some online marketers experienced surprise at some of the developments in Internet advertising.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 36

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Marketing executives in television work with a relatively stable advertising medium. In many ways, the television ads aired today are similar to those aired two decades ago. Most television ads still feature actors, still run 30 or 60 seconds, and still show a product. However, the differing dynamics of the Internet pose unique challenges to advertisers, forcing them to adapt their practices and techniques on a regular basis.

In the early days of Internet marketing, online advertisers employed banner and pop-up ads to attract customers. These techniques reached large audiences, generated many sales leads, and came at a low cost. However, a small number of Internet users began to consider these advertising techniques intrusive and annoying. Yet because marketing strategies relying heavily on banners and pop-ups produced results, companies invested growing amounts of money into purchasing these ad types in hopes of capturing market share in the burgeoning online economy. As consumers became more sophisticated, frustration with these online advertising techniques grew. Independent programmers began to develop tools that blocked banner and pop-up ads. The popularity of these tools exploded when the search engine Google, at the time an increasingly popular website fighting to solidify its place on the Internet with giants Microsoft and Yahoo, offered free software enabling users to block pop-up ads. The backlash against banner ads grew as new web browsers provided users the ability to block image-based ads such as banner ads. Although banner and pop-up ads still exist, they are far less prominent than during the early days of the Internet.

A major development in online marketing came with the introduction of pay-per-click ads. Unlike banner or pop-up ads, which originally required companies to pay every time a website visitor saw an ad, pay-per-click ads allowed companies to pay only when an interested potential customer clicked on an ad. More importantly, however, these ads circumvented the pop-up and banner blockers. As a result of these advantages and the incredible growth in the use of search engines, which provide excellent venues for pay-per-click advertising, companies began turning to pay-per-click marketing in droves. However, as with the banner and pop-up ads that preceded them, pay-per-click ads came with their drawbacks. When companies began pouring billions of dollars into this emerging medium, online advertising specialists started to notice the presence of what would later be called click fraud: representatives of a company with no interest in the product advertised by a competitor click on the competitor's ads simply to increase the marketing cost of the competitor. Click fraud grew so rapidly that marketers sought to diversify their online positions away from pay-per-click marketing through new mediums.

Although pay-per-click advertising remains a common and effective advertising tool, marketers adapted yet again to the changing dynamics of the Internet by adopting new techniques such as pay-per-performance advertising, search engine optimization, and affiliate marketing. As the pace of the Internet's evolution increases, it seems all the more likely that advertising successfully on the Internet will require a strategy that shuns constancy and embraces change.

Q. Which of the following most accurately states the main idea of the passage?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 36

A main idea runs throughout the entire passage. Consequently, an idea that appears in one paragraph only to disappear in another is not the main idea. In this passage, the first paragraph introduces the main theme and the remaining paragraphs develop it by providing examples. In many ways, the last sentence of the first paragraph serves as a thesis statement indicating the main thrust of the article ("the differing dynamics of the Internet pose unique challenges to advertisers, forcing them to adapt their practices and techniques on a regular basis.")

A. While the passage does make these statements about pay-per-click advertising, the passage only discusses pay-per-click advertising in one paragraph. This answer represents an example that the author uses to further the main point of the passage. But, it is not the main point itself.
B. Although the changing of Internet marketing strategies is a constant theme, nowhere does the article focus as its main point on the efforts of independent programmers. Instead, the passage focuses on the efforts of advertisers to adapt to changes. Moreover, this answer fails to make sense of the introduction and conclusion.
C. Although this statement is true, it is far too broad. The central theme of the passage (given in the sentence "forcing them to adapt their practices and techniques on a regular basis") is not reflected in this answer, which omits any reference to marketing and advertising strategies.
D. This statement encapsulates the author’s point in each paragraph: the evolution of the Internet is forcing advertisers to change their strategies rapidly. The phrase "unlike the television" ties into the introductory point.
E. The article does not discuss at great length the speed at which the Internet is evolving. It simply notes that the Internet is evolving. Moreover, this answer omits any reference to advertising, which plays a central role in the piece.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 37

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called 
“the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth .”
Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that 
caffeine affects behavior by countering the activity in 
(5) the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called 
adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing 
in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by 
inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals 
that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next.
(10) Like many other agents that affect neuron firing,
adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on 
neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes 
of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and 
A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc-
(15)  turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types 
of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching 
there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than 
they otherwise would.For many years, caffeine’s effects have been attri-
(20)  buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodi-
esterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical 
called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert 
their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentra-
tions in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at 
(25)  the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about 
by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater 
amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behav-
ioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the 
caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production 
(30)  of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than 
those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other com-
pounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not 
stimulants.
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre-
(35)  venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the 
stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with 
their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in 
the brains of mice. “In general,” they reported, “the 
ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors 
(40) correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in 
the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the 
receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomo-
tion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine 
and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most 
(45) effective compounds in both regards.
There were some apparent exceptions to the general 
correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding
and stimulation. One of these was a compound called 
3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very 
(50) well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder 
et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to 
their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has 
mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with 
psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally 
(55) known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this 
 property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low  
 concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.

Q. The author quotes Snyder et al in lines 38-43 most probably in order to 

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 37

This question asks you to identify the function of a quotation in the third paragraph of the passage. The third paragraph provides evidence for Snyder et al’s hypothesis by discussing experiments they conducted on mice. The quotation in lines 74-84 “summarizes” the findings of these experiments. Snyder et al found that a number of caffeine derivatives are able to bind to specific receptors in the brains of mice just as adenosine does, and that the derivatives that are most successful at stimulating locomotion are also the most successful in competing with adenosine in binding at the receptors. This finding is “major” in that it supports their hypothesis that the simulative effects of caffeine are a result of its ability to compete with adenosine.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 38

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called 
“the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth .”
Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that 
caffeine affects behavior by countering the activity in 
(5) the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called 
adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing 
in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by 
inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals 
that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next.
(10) Like many other agents that affect neuron firing,
adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on 
neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes 
of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and 
A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc-
(15)  turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types 
of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching 
there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than 
they otherwise would.For many years, caffeine’s effects have been attri-
(20)  buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodi-
esterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical 
called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert 
their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentra-
tions in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at 
(25)  the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about 
by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater 
amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behav-
ioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the 
caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production 
(30)  of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than 
those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other com-
pounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not 
stimulants.
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre-
(35)  venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the 
stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with 
their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in 
the brains of mice. “In general,” they reported, “the 
ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors 
(40) correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in 
the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the 
receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomo-
tion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine 
and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most 
(45) effective compounds in both regards.
There were some apparent exceptions to the general 
correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding
and stimulation. One of these was a compound called 
3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very 
(50) well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder 
et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to 
their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has 
mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with 
psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally 
(55) known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this 
 property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low  
 concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.

Q. According to Snyder et al, all of the following compounds can bind to specific receptors in the brain EXCEPT

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 38

E is the best answer. This question asks you to identify which compound, according to Snyder et al, does NOT bind to specific receptors in the brain. Phosphodiesterase, identified as an “enzyme that breaks down the chemical called cyclic AMP”(lines 40-42), is the only compound that is not identified as one that binds to specific receptors in the brain.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 39

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called 
“the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth .”
Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that 
caffeine affects behavior by countering the activity in 
(5) the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called 
adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing 
in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by 
inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals 
that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next.
(10) Like many other agents that affect neuron firing,
adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on 
neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes 
of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and 
A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc-
(15)  turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types 
of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching 
there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than 
they otherwise would.For many years, caffeine’s effects have been attri-
(20)  buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodi-
esterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical 
called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert 
their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentra-
tions in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at 
(25)  the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about 
by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater 
amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behav-
ioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the 
caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production 
(30)  of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than 
those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other com-
pounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not 
stimulants.
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre-
(35)  venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the 
stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with 
their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in 
the brains of mice. “In general,” they reported, “the 
ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors 
(40) correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in 
the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the 
receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomo-
tion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine 
and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most 
(45) effective compounds in both regards.
There were some apparent exceptions to the general 
correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding
and stimulation. One of these was a compound called 
3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very 
(50) well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder 
et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to 
their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has 
mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with 
psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally 
(55) known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this 
 property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low  
 concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.

Q. According so Snyder et al, caffeine differs from   adenosine in that caffeine

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 39

D is the best answer.
Lines 11-23 state that adenosine “depresses neuron firing” by binding to specific receptors on neuronal membranes, which in turn inhibits the release of neurotransmitters. Lines 27-35 describe Snyder et al’s hypothesis about caffeine. They propose that caffeine binds to specific receptors on neuronal membranes, which prevents adenosine from binding to those receptors and “allows the neurons to fire more readily that they otherwise would”. Therefore, according to Snyder et al, caffeine differs from adenosine in that caffeine permits neurotransmitter release when it is bound to adenosine receptors, whereas adenosine inhibits neruotransmitter release.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 40

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called 
“the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth .”
Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that 
caffeine affects behavior by countering the activity in 
(5) the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called 
adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing 
in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by 
inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals 
that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next.
(10) Like many other agents that affect neuron firing,
adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on 
neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes 
of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and 
A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc-
(15)  turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types 
of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching 
there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than 
they otherwise would.For many years, caffeine’s effects have been attri-
(20)  buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodi-
esterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical 
called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert 
their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentra-
tions in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at 
(25)  the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about 
by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater 
amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behav-
ioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the 
caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production 
(30)  of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than 
those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other com-
pounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not 
stimulants.
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre-
(35)  venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the 
stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with 
their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in 
the brains of mice. “In general,” they reported, “the 
ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors 
(40) correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in 
the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the 
receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomo-
tion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine 
and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most 
(45) effective compounds in both regards.
There were some apparent exceptions to the general 
correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding
and stimulation. One of these was a compound called 
3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very 
(50) well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder 
et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to 
their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has 
mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with 
psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally 
(55) known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this 
 property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low  
 concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.

Q. The primary purpose of the passage is to 

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 40

D is the best answer. This question requires you to identify the primary concern of the passage as a whole. The first paragraph presents a recent hypothesis about how caffeine affects behavior. The second paragraph describes an earlier and widely accepted hypothesis about how caffeine affects behavior, and then presents evidence that is not consistent with that hypothesis. The third and fourth paragraphs return to the newer hypothesis introduced in the first paragraph and provide “evidence and arguments” that support this alternative hypothesis.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 41

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has been called 
“the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth .”
Synder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that 
caffeine affects behavior by countering the activity in 
(5) the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical called 
adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing 
in many areas of the brain. It apparently does this by 
inhibiting the release of neurotransmitters, chemicals 
that carry nerve impulses from one neuron to the next.
(10) Like many other agents that affect neuron firing,
adenosine must first bind to specific receptors on 
neuronal membranes. There are at least two classes 
of these receptors, which have been designated A1 and 
A2. Snyder et al propose that caffeine, which is struc-
(15)  turally similar to adenosine, is able to bind to both types 
of receptors, which prevents adenosine from attaching 
there and allows the neurons to fire more readily than 
they otherwise would.For many years, caffeine’s effects have been attri-
(20)  buted to its inhibition of the production of phosphodi-
esterase, an enzyme that breaks down the chemical 
called cyclic AMP.A number of neurotransmitters exert 
their effects by first increasing cyclic AMP concentra-
tions in target neurons. Therefore, prolonged periods at 
(25)  the elevated concentrations, as might be brought about 
by a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, could lead to a greater 
amount of neuron firing and, consequently, to behav-
ioral stimulation. But Snyder et al point out that the 
caffeine concentrations needed to inhibit the production 
(30)  of phosphodiesterase in the brain are much higher than 
those that produce stimulation. Moreover, other com-
pounds that block phosphodiesterase’s activity are not 
stimulants.
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by pre-
(35)  venting adenosine binding, Snyder et al compared the 
stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with 
their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in 
the brains of mice. “In general,” they reported, “the 
ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors 
(40) correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in 
the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the 
receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomo-
tion.” Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine 
and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most 
(45) effective compounds in both regards.
There were some apparent exceptions to the general 
correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding
and stimulation. One of these was a compound called 
3-isobuty1-1-methylxanthine(IBMX), which bound very 
(50) well but actually depressed mouse locomotion. Snyder 
et al suggest that this is not a major stumbling block to 
their hypothesis. The problem is that the compound has 
mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with 
psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally 
(55) known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this 
 property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low  
 concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.

Q. Snyder et al suggest that caffeine’s ability to bind to A1 and A2 receptors can be at least partially attributed to which of the following?
(a) The chemical relationship between caffeine and phosphodiesterase 
(b) The structural relationship between caffeine and adenosine 
(c) The structural similarity between caffeine and neurotransmitters 
(d) The ability of caffeine to stimulate behavior 
(e) The natural occurrence of caffeine and adenosine in the brain

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 41

B is the best answer.
This question asks you to identify information that is suggested rather than directly stated in the passage. To answer it, first look for the location in the passage of the information specified in the question. The A1 and A2 receptors are mentioned in lines 23-26. Lines 27-35 go on to describe Snyder et al’s hypothesis about the effects of caffeine on behavior. They propose that caffeine, “which is structurally similar to adenosine,” is able to bind to A1 and A2 receptors in the brain, the same receptors that adenosine normally binds to. Thus, the passage suggests that the structural relationship between caffeine and adenosine may be partially responsible for caffeine’s ability to bind to A1 and A2 receptors.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 42

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Archaeology as a profession faces two major prob-
lems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry
sums are available for excavating and even less is avail-
able for publishing the results and preserving the sites 
(5)  once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless
objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal 
excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being 
sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that 
(10) would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and 
reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose 
that scientific archeological expeditions and govern-
mental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open 
market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for 
(15) the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites 
and the publication of results. At the same time, they 
would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, 
thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal 
activities.
(20) You might object that professionals excavate to 
acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient arti-
facts are part of our global cultural heritage, which 
should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the 
highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique
(25) artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
everything that comes our of the ground has scientific 
value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be 
correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scien-
tific value. Practically, you are wrong.
(30) I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient 
lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In 
one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently 
uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in
a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions 
(35) known as/melekh handles have been found in abun-
dance---more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large 
enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discov-
ered in the future. There is not enough money even to 
(40) catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found 
again and become as inaccessible as if they had never 
been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer,
sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the 
pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to 
(45) sale, each could be photographed and the list of the 
purchasers could be maintained on the computer A
purchaser could even be required to agree to return the 
piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging 
(50) would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market.
But the demand for the clandestine product would be 
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked 
pot when another was available whose provenance was 
known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the 
professional archaeologist who excavated it?

Q. The author anticipates which of the following initial objections to the adoption of his proposal?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 42

C is the best answer. The author begins the third paragraph by saying “you might object…” in order to anticipate possible objections to the adoption of his proposal. In the next sentence the author asserts that “ancient artifacts…should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder” 9lines 29-33), acknowledging an opponent’s fear that individuals might be allowed to purchase objects that ought to be displayed in public institutions. This objection is paraphrased in this choice.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 43

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Archaeology as a profession faces two major prob-
lems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry
sums are available for excavating and even less is avail-
able for publishing the results and preserving the sites 
(5)  once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless
objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal 
excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being 
sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that 
(10) would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and 
reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose 
that scientific archeological expeditions and govern-
mental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open 
market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for 
(15) the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites 
and the publication of results. At the same time, they 
would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, 
thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal 
activities.
(20) You might object that professionals excavate to 
acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient arti-
facts are part of our global cultural heritage, which 
should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the 
highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique
(25) artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
everything that comes our of the ground has scientific 
value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be 
correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scien-
tific value. Practically, you are wrong.
(30) I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient 
lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In 
one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently 
uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in
a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions 
(35) known as/melekh handles have been found in abun-
dance---more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large 
enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discov-
ered in the future. There is not enough money even to 
(40) catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found 
again and become as inaccessible as if they had never 
been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer,
sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the 
pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to 
(45) sale, each could be photographed and the list of the 
purchasers could be maintained on the computer A
purchaser could even be required to agree to return the 
piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging 
(50) would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market.
But the demand for the clandestine product would be 
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked 
pot when another was available whose provenance was 
known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the 
professional archaeologist who excavated it?

Q. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus (lines 31-34) to emphasize which of the following points?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 43

C is the best answer. In lines 38-41, the author refutes the assertion that every object excavated has potential scientific value and therefore should not be sold.
In lines 42-44, the author defines those objects that do not have scientific value: “the thousands of pottery vessels…that are essentially duplicates of one another.” The Cyprus excavation appears in the next sentence as an example of one location in which such duplicate artifacts have been found in large quantities.
The reference to “2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs” highlights the profusion and uniformity of the Cyprus finds. Thus, the excavation is mentioned in order to emphasize the ready availability of objects that lack unique value and therefore could be sold.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 44

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Archaeology as a profession faces two major prob-
lems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry
sums are available for excavating and even less is avail-
able for publishing the results and preserving the sites 
(5)  once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless
objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal 
excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being 
sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that 
(10) would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and 
reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose 
that scientific archeological expeditions and govern-
mental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open 
market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for 
(15) the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites 
and the publication of results. At the same time, they 
would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, 
thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal 
activities.
(20) You might object that professionals excavate to 
acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient arti-
facts are part of our global cultural heritage, which 
should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the 
highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique
(25) artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
everything that comes our of the ground has scientific 
value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be 
correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scien-
tific value. Practically, you are wrong.
(30) I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient 
lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In 
one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently 
uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in
a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions 
(35) known as/melekh handles have been found in abun-
dance---more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large 
enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discov-
ered in the future. There is not enough money even to 
(40) catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found 
again and become as inaccessible as if they had never 
been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer,
sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the 
pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to 
(45) sale, each could be photographed and the list of the 
purchasers could be maintained on the computer A
purchaser could even be required to agree to return the 
piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging 
(50) would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market.
But the demand for the clandestine product would be 
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked 
pot when another was available whose provenance was 
known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the 
professional archaeologist who excavated it?

Q. The author implies that all of the following statements about duplicate artifacts are true EXCEPT:

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 44

E is the best answer. The question requires you to identify the answer choice that CANNOT be inferred from the passage. Nothing in the passage implies that duplicate artifacts exceed museum objects in quality.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 45

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Archaeology as a profession faces two major prob-
lems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry
sums are available for excavating and even less is avail-
able for publishing the results and preserving the sites 
(5)  once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless
objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal 
excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being 
sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that 
(10) would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and 
reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose 
that scientific archeological expeditions and govern-
mental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open 
market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for 
(15) the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites 
and the publication of results. At the same time, they 
would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, 
thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal 
activities.
(20) You might object that professionals excavate to 
acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient arti-
facts are part of our global cultural heritage, which 
should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the 
highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique
(25) artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
everything that comes our of the ground has scientific 
value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be 
correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scien-
tific value. Practically, you are wrong.
(30) I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient 
lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In 
one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently 
uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in
a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions 
(35) known as/melekh handles have been found in abun-
dance---more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large 
enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discov-
ered in the future. There is not enough money even to 
(40) catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found 
again and become as inaccessible as if they had never 
been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer,
sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the 
pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to 
(45) sale, each could be photographed and the list of the 
purchasers could be maintained on the computer A
purchaser could even be required to agree to return the 
piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging 
(50) would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market.
But the demand for the clandestine product would be 
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked 
pot when another was available whose provenance was 
known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the 
professional archaeologist who excavated it?

Q. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose 
(a) an alternative to museum display of artifacts 
(b) a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the archaeological profession 
(c) a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value from those that have no such value 
(d) the governmental regulation of archaeological sites 
(e) a new system for cataloguing duplicate artifacts

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 45

The first paragraph identifies two major problems faced by the archaeological profession: inadequate funding and illegal digging. Lines 12-15 indicate that the author is going to suggest how to remedy both problems, thereby benefiting the archaeological profession. The author proceeds to propose allowing the sale of excavated artifacts (lines 16-19) and to explain how this would solve both problems (lines 19-26). The author then supports the proposal by countering possible objections to it, and in the last paragraph explains how the proposal would curb illegal digging (lines 74-80). Thus, the way information is organized in the passage indicates that the author’s purpose is to suggest that allowing the sale of excavated artifacts would provide funds for the archaeological profession and curb illegal digging.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 46

Directions: Read the Passage carefully and answer the question as follow.

Archaeology as a profession faces two major prob-
lems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry
sums are available for excavating and even less is avail-
able for publishing the results and preserving the sites 
(5)  once excavated. Yet archaeologists deal with priceless
objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal 
excavation, resulting in museum-quality pieces being 
sold to the highest bidder.
I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that 
(10) would at one stroke provide funds for archaeology and 
reduce the amount of illegal digging. I would propose 
that scientific archeological expeditions and govern-
mental authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open 
market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for 
(15) the excavation and preservation of archaeological sites 
and the publication of results. At the same time, they 
would break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, 
thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal 
activities.
(20) You might object that professionals excavate to 
acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient arti-
facts are part of our global cultural heritage, which 
should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the 
highest bidder. I agree. Sell nothing that has unique
(25) artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply,
everything that comes our of the ground has scientific 
value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be 
correct in claiming that every artifact has potential scien-
tific value. Practically, you are wrong.
(30) I refer to the thousands of pottery vessels and ancient 
lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In 
one small excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently 
uncovered 2,000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in
a single courtyard, Even precious royal seal impressions 
(35) known as/melekh handles have been found in abun-
dance---more than 4,000 examples so far.
The basements of museums are simply not large 
enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discov-
ered in the future. There is not enough money even to 
(40) catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found 
again and become as inaccessible as if they had never 
been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer,
sold artifacts could be more accessible than are the 
pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to 
(45) sale, each could be photographed and the list of the 
purchasers could be maintained on the computer A
purchaser could even be required to agree to return the 
piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes.
It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal digging 
(50) would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market.
But the demand for the clandestine product would be 
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked 
pot when another was available whose provenance was 
known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the 
professional archaeologist who excavated it?

Q. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation is based on which of the following assumptions?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 46

A is the best answer. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excation appears in lines 74-75, in which the author predicts that such official sale would reduce demand for “the clandestine product.” The rhetorical question that follows (lines 76-80) indicates that the author finds it unlikely that any purchaser would prefer objects of unknown provenance to objects of known origin, or, to rephrase, the author assumes that most people would prefer to purchase objects of authenticated provenance, as this choice states.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 47

Samuel is obviously a bad fisherman. During the past season, in which he and the five members of his team spent four months on a boat together off Dutch Harbor, AK, he caught fewer fish than any of his teammates.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument above?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 47

The conclusion to the argument is that "Samuel is obviously a bad fisherman" while the premise is Samuel's poor fishing performance relative to the peers on his fishing boat this past season.

The argument is flawed as the conclusion does not follow from the premise. The line of reasoning fails to take into consideration other possibilities for Samuel's performance this past season: perhaps Samuel fished with different bait. Similarly, just because Samuel caught fewer fish in one season than five other individuals does not mean that he is a bad fisherman. It simply means that he caught fewer fish than five individuals in one season. This season could have been an exception in Samuel's career or his teammates could be far above average.

A. The same logical flaws are at play in this answer (except in reverse). Using one season and a comparison to the fishermen on one boat does not provide a wide enough basis to make a judgment about a fishermen's ability relative to all other fishermen. Comparing this past season with another season still does not help to explain Samuel's poor performance this season (whereas knowing that Samuel used experimental bait this season would provide a justification for why Samuel caught few fish yet was still not a terrible fisherman).
B. Samuel's performance as a pilot does not relate to his ability as a fisherman. This answer is off topic.
C. On first glance, this looks like a good answer. However, it does not consider whether Samuel's teammates were sick during the same period. Perhaps one of Samuel's teammates was sick for two weeks.
D. This answer highlights something that made Samuel's fishing performance uniquely different than his teammates. Moreover, Samuel did not make the choice to fish with alternative bait--his captain ordered him to do it. If Samuel made the choice to fish with alternative bait, it would be his poor fishing judgment that would be at fault. Similarly, the answer makes clear that no other fisherman on Samuel's boat faced the same predicament.
E. If anything, this answer strengthens the argument.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 48

Virtually all health experts agree that second-hand smoke poses a serious health risk. After the publication of yet another research paper explicating the link between exposure to second-hand smoke and a shorter life span, some members of the State House of Representatives proposed a ban on smoking in most public places in an attempt to promote quality of life and length of lifespan.

Q. Which of the following, if true, provides the most support for the actions of the State Representatives?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 48

The State Representatives' argument for banning smoking is based upon scientific research and the presence of a correlation between second-hand smoke and life expectancy. However, it could be strengthened if data existed to show that other regions that enacted tough anti-smoking reform experienced longer life spans. In other words, although we know there is a relationship between second-hand smoke and life expectancy, we do not know that enacting tough anti-smoking reform will influence second-hand smoke levels and thereby influence life expectancy.

A. The legislators' argument is about protecting people from second-hand smoke, not about taking one action versus another (i.e., the legislators are not comparing sources of toxin, but rather attempting to prevent one source from entering the air).
B. The question at hand does not pertain to the percent of the population that smokes but the ability of the law to extend life expectancy. This answer fails to make a connection between the proposed law and extending life expectancy.
C. Although the percent of the state population that smokes will affect the extent of the impact made by the law, it does not support the merits of the law in and of itself. In other words, the argument is not based upon the number or percent of the population that smokes (and by corollary the number and percent of the population affected by second-hand smoke). Rather, the argument is based upon a connection between removing second-hand smoke inhalation via legislation and lengthening life span. This answer provides no direct evidence to strengthen the link between removing second-hand smoke via legislation and lengthening lifespan.
D. The evidence that passing a similar law reduced cancer rates supports the legislators' case that banning smoking in many places will promote "length of lifespan" (i.e., with people dying of cancer less, they live longer).
E. The number of smokers in a nearby state does not influence whether banning second-hand smoke in the state in question will affect life expectancy. The large number of smokers up-stream will hurt air quality and length of life downstream (weakling the legislators' argument if it effected it at all). Fundamentally, this answer is wrong because it fails to strengthen the connection between removing second-hand smoke via legislation and lengthening life-expectancy.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 49

Wine Company Representative: The corks of red wine bottles pose a threat to the environment because they are treated with chemicals that are especially toxic in landfills. However, the new cork that our company developed, which will be adopted by the entire red wine industry, represents a solution. Since the new cork is natural and not treated with chemicals, when the industry completes its transition to the new cork, there will no longer be any threat to landfills from red wine corks.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument above?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 49

The conclusion to the argument is that "when the industry completes its transition to the new cork, there will no longer be any threat to landfills from red wine corks." The conclusion omits an important fact: even after manufacturers stop making the old wine corks, there will still be thousands of old bottles in circulation. Individuals who purchased red wine bottles years ago will consume them and discard the old corks in landfills, thereby continuing to pollute landfills. Consequently, we cannot conclude that "there will no longer be any threat to landfills from red wine corks."

To further see that this is the conclusion, consider the points of the argument and which points support a conclusion versus which point is a conclusion supported by other points. The points of the argument are:
(1) red wine corks pose a threat to the environment
(2) a solution has been found
(3) when the industry adopts the solution, the threat will be gone

Notice that it makes no sense to say that since (3) is true, therefore (1) must be true, as would be the case if (3) were a premise and (1) were a conclusion. Instead, it makes sense to say that since (1) and (2) are true, therefore we conclude (3). Now the task at hand is to see how even though (3) is the conclusion, it is not an extremely sound conclusion.

A.. The timing of the industry's transition is irrelevant due to the qualifier in the conclusion: "when the industry completes its transition to the new cork."
B. This statement properly identifies a weakness in the conclusion.
C. The time taken to produce a cork does not impact matters of pollution.
D. At first glance, this answer has some appeal. However, the conclusion relates to pollution in a landfill--not fumes omitted into the air during production.
E. The cost to produce the new cork is not pertinent in a consideration of landfill pollution.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 50

Political Commentator: In order for a democracy to flourish, it is essential that political and journalistic freedom of expression exist. Even if commentators voice ideas that do not support the current government, a society is strengthened by the variety of views expressed. Yet, our government continues to exercise a stranglehold on certain forms of speech. It is essential that the government loosen its control on the media. Despite the potential short-term instability this may cause the country, it will strengthen the long-term health of the country.

Q. hich of the following expresses the conclusion of the argument?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 50

The conclusion of the commentator's argument is: "It is essential that the government loosen its control on the media."

To see this, consider the points that the author makes:
(1) political and journalistic freedom are essential for democracy
(2) society is strengthened by many views being expressed
(3) our government stifles free speech
(4) government must loosen speech controls
(5) loosening control of the media leads to long-term strength

Notice that the logical progression of the argument is as follows:
(2) -> (1) -> (3) -> (5) -> (4)

To see the relationship between premises and conclusion, notice how awkward the argument would become if a point such as 1, 2, or 3 were to be the conclusion.
It makes no sense to say: since "government must loosen speech controls," therefore "political and journalistic freedom are essential for democracy."
Rather, it makes sense the other way around:
Since "political and journalistic freedom are essential for democracy," therefore "government must loosen speech controls."

Some test-takers believe that the conclusion is the last sentence of the paragraph. However, this is incorrect since, in this argument, the last sentence serves as a premise to the conclusion. To see this, try to allow the second to last sentence to serve as a premise to the last sentence and it should be clear that this is not the way the sentences are functioning in the argument.

A. Although this statement is true, it is a premise not a conclusion. It is because the government is exercising too much control that "it is essential that the government loosen its control on the media."
B. This is a paraphrase of the conclusion. Every other sentence or major idea in the argument serves as a premise to this statement, which is the conclusion or main point of the author's argument.
C. This mirrors the first sentence of the paragraph. However, it functions as a premise not as a conclusion. It is because democracy requires a free press that "it is essential that the government loosen its control on the media."
D. Although this is similar to the last sentence of the paragraph, it is not the conclusion. The line of reasoning in the paragraph is:
democracy --> long term health --> government must open press
The reasoning is NOT:
government must open press --> democracy --> long term health (it makes no sense to say that since the government must open the press, therefore we will have long term health)
Moreover, the last sentence deals with the health of the country, not the strength of the government.
E. Although this is true, it is not the main thrust of the argument. The author is not trying to make this point. Instead, he is granting that this is true and then trying to argue that the government needs to open the press.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 51

Automation, the trademark of a modern economy, is essential to maximizing a country's economic production while minimizing its costs. Health care executives want to increase revenues while reducing costs. Consequently, they propose significantly greater automation of health care. Yet, this should be rejected. Radical automation of health care would cause patients to lose trust in the system as the health care they would receive would lack the in-person care that studies show patients desire.

Q. Which of the following expresses the main point of the argument?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 51

When a question asks about the "main point," it is asking for the conclusion (i.e., thesis) of an argument. In answering this question, it is essential to separate the conclusion from the premises that support and lead up to the conclusion.

The argument can be broken up sentence-by-sentence and dissected, enabling us to ascertain the role that each sentence plays in the overall argument.

Breakdown by Argument
There are five major points:
(1) automation maximizes profit
(2) health care executives want to maximize profit
(2b) as a result of 2, health care executives propose automation
(3) 2b should be rejected
(3b) reasoning for 2b being rejected is decline in quality of care

Every point leads to and supports point 3, which is the conclusion of the argument.

Breakdown by Sentence
"Automation, the trademark of a modern economy, is essential to maximizing a country's economic production while minimizing its costs." This is a premise since it is used later to make a point (i.e., reject automation in health care). It is simply stated as a fact and does not draw on other premises.

"Health care executives want to increase profits while reducing costs." This is a premise since it is used later to make a point. It is simply stated as a fact and does not draw on other premises.

"Consequently, they propose significantly greater automation of health care." Some students falsely assume that this is the main point. Although this statement does draw on the two aforementioned premises, it is not the conclusion because it is not the argument that the author is trying to make (as we shall see).

"Yet, this should be rejected." This is the argument that the author is making and it is the main point. To see this, notice that all the statements before (and after) build on this statement.

"Radical automation of health care would cause patients to lose trust in the system as the health care they would receive would lack the in-person care that studies show patients desire." This is a premise since it is evidence that the author is using to support the conclusion that automation should be rejected.

A. This is the main point or argument of the statement. The author indicates, "Yet, this should be rejected," where this refers to "significantly greater automation of health care."
B. The author argues against automation since it will "lack the in-person care that studies show patients desire." The argument is against automation, not for in-person care. In other words, "patients desire customized in-person care" is used as a premise to support the rejection of automation.
C. Although this is a possible inference that can be made by piecing together the premises, it is not the argument that is being advocated.
D. The statement says nothing about executives becoming too greedy. Automation "should be rejected" because it "would cause patients to lose trust in the system."
E. The statement says nothing about automation becoming inevitable. The author argues not for inevitability of automation of health care but rejection of excessive automation of health care.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 52

For years, a considerable number of students on West County High School's track team complained about shin splints (medial tibial syndrome). However, during the most recent season, the number of students who complained about shin splints dropped significantly. School officials assert that this reduction in complaints occurred entirely as a result of the school's decision to build a new running track that provided a softer running surface, which absorbed much of the shock on the knees and shins that occurs when running and causes shin splints.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most severely weakens the school officials' explanation for the decrease in complaints about shin splints?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 52

The school authorities argue that the new track "entirely" caused the reduction in "complaints" about shin splints. There are two important points about this argument.

(1) The argument of the school administrators is based upon a reduction in the number of complaints about shin splints, which is not the same as a reduction in the number of actual instances. It is entirely possible that students complain about shin splints and yet actually have other problems.

(2) The argument of the school administrators established a causal relationship (i.e., the new track caused the reduction). This is a much more assertive and broad claim than simply noticing that the two are correlated (i.e., occurred together).

A. The argument made by West County High School officials is based upon the fact that "the number of students who complained about shin splints dropped significantly." This answer would weaken an argument that dealt with the number of diagnosed instances of shin splints. However, the school administrators make their argument only because of a reduction in the number of "claims."
B. This answer significantly strengthens the argument of the high school administrators by noting that other schools experienced a link between a new track and a decrease in claims about shin splints.
C. This answer calls into question the school's assertion that the new track was "entirely" responsible for the reduction in claims of shin splints. The answer does this through providing an alternative and viable (but not necessarily competing) explanation of the reduction in claims of shin splints.
D. The original argument pertains to complaints about shin splints in particular (not the number of students who "complained of pain while running"). This answer confuses complaints in general with complaints about shin splints in particular.
E. This answer strengthens the school officials' claim instead of weakening it as it provides more evidence that the new track helped decrease complaints of shin splints.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 53

Authors writing detective stories frequently include a brilliant detective and an incompetent investigator who embark on separate paths in an attempt to solve a crime. The separate accounts frequently consist of the incompetent investigator becoming distracted by the criminals' well-planned attempts and the competent detective solving the case after a violent confrontation. Many literary analysts believe authors often choose this storyline in an attempt to provide readers additional complexity and challenge in solving the investigation.

Q. Which of the following most logically follows from the statements above?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 53

This question asks you to take the statements and draw a conclusion. One major trap in this type of question is an answer that is logical, but not supported by the statements in the stimulus.

A. The stimulus does not define what constitutes a well written story nor does it speak about what is a poorly written story. Consequently, it is difficult to make a statement like this that will logically follow from the stimulus.
B. Although this statement is probably true, it does not follow from the stimulus. Instead, the stimulus states that authors use an incompetent investigator to add complexity to the storyline (thereby making the reader's attempts to solve the case more challenging) not to show that investigations are complex.
C. While the stimulus states that stories "frequently" include an incompetent investigator who does not solve the case correctly, we cannot conclude an incompetent investigator "never" solves a case correctly.
D. This statement is quite similar to the final sentence of the stimulus and it logically follows from the stimulus. The statement that authors write in the way they do "to provide readers additional complexity and challenge in solving the investigation" provides the basis to conclude that authors write "to make predicting the correct outcome of the investigation more difficult."
E. Although this statement is probably true, there is no evidence of it in the stimulus. Instead, the stimulus indicates that the complexity is added not for its resemblance to real life but for its ability to increase the challenge posed to readers seeking to solve the case correctly.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 54

Eating beets significantly lowers the risk of cancer, according to an article in a nutritional magazine. The article refers to a study that found that people who consumed one or more beets per day were half as likely to be diagnosed with the disease as people who did not.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument in the magazine article?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 54

The article draws a conclusion on the basis of the findings of a single study. However, the link between eating beets and cancer prevention cannot be verified without ruling out other variables. If the participants who ate beets were also similar in another way that distinguished them from the group that did not, it would become impossible to prove that beets - and not the other factor - were responsible for reducing the risk of cancer on the basis of this study alone.

A. The effectiveness of flax seed oil in reducing the risk of cancer has no bearing on the effectiveness of beets in doing so. This answer is off topic.
B. This answer strengthens, rather than weakens, the argument. If the subjects ate only beets and no other vegetables, there is more evidence for the fact that beets – and no other vegetable – were responsible for reducing the risk of cancer.
C. The study would be more convincing if it had been conducted in more than one city. However, this fact alone does not do the most to weaken the argument.
D. This other experiment is about the role of beets in the recovery rates of cancer patients, rather than in the risk of diagnosis. Therefore, it does not weaken the conclusion of the article, which focuses on cancer prevention, not recovery.
E. Because study participants who ate beets were also more likely to exercise regularly than those who did not eat beets, it is impossible to determine whether beets or regular exercise were more influential in preventing cancer. This is the correct answer.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 55

Years ago, some in the government's intelligence community feared the work of telecommunications researchers at then-emerging private security firms. The government experts concluded that these private firms posed the biggest risk to successful government espionage. As the private security firms began publicly releasing and advertising encryption algorithms and other security products, these government experts saw support for their conclusion when an encryption algorithm that government experts could not break began appearing in countless emails.

Q. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the conclusion of the government experts referred to above?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 55

The government experts concluded that "private firms posed the biggest risk to successful government espionage" and they supported this conclusion by assuming that the unbreakable encryption algorithm in emails came from the private security firms, which had just begun selling encryption algorithms. In order to weaken the conclusion of the government experts, you need to find evidence supporting the belief that the unbreakable algorithm did not come from the private security firms but from another source (such as free open-source developers).

A. This answer strengthens the conclusion of the government experts by bolstering the claim that the products developed by the private security firms were very difficult to break—and this was the fear of some government experts.
B. This answer does not state that the "other members of the private sector and academia" broke the encryption algorithm and we cannot assume this. If this were true, the algorithm would not be as strong as the government experts suspected and it would almost certainly not be "encryption algorithm that government experts could not break."
C. This answer undermines the government experts' conclusion that the private security firms posed "the biggest risk" as ex-government code breakers admitted that a public-sector open-source freely-available product posed the most difficulty in breaking.
D. This answer is not relevant since a foreign government's ability to infiltrate an espionage operation is not related to the conclusion that the difficulty experienced in breaking email encryption occurred because of products released by private telecommunications companies. Further, this answer provides no basis to conclude or even assume that the private security firms were not the source of the unbreakable algorithm.
E. The publication of information about the strength and benefit of the privately-developed encryption algorithms would not disprove that private security firms were behind the difficult to break email encryption algorithm experienced by the government.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 56

As a result of implementing an experimental farming system that combined aggressive new fertilization, deep irrigation, and speculative pesticides, the yield on crops at a farm in central California grew consistently and considerably over the past six years. However, yields this year unexpectedly plummeted, causing the farm's owners considerable financial difficulties.

Q. Which of the following statements, if true, best explains the unexpected drop in yield?

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 56

The yield at a central Californian farm dropped significantly after 6 years of consistent growth. Clearly, something of importance to the yield changed. Some possibilities include: (1) a storm decimated the crop (although this level of storm could have only hit this year, as the crops grew "consistently and considerably over the past six years") (2) the farmer stopped using the technique (3) over a period of six years, the technique overused natural soil nutrients and drained important chemicals that the farm crops needed to grow.

A. The original argument pertains to a decline in the yield of the farm, not a decline in the buyers. The farm's yield has no relationship with the number of buyers as yield simply refers to the ratio of seeds planted to crops available for harvest.
B. Although this confirms that the drop the farm in central California experienced is not unique, it does not explain the drop in yield.
C. Since a drought occurred 9 years ago prior to the experimental system and during the experimental system (3 years ago) without any affect on yields, it is not logical to conclude that the drought caused the decline in yields this year. In other words, since the yield grew "consistently" even during the drought 3 years ago and 6 years ago, it is illogical to conclude that the drought caused the decline in yield this year.
D. The circumstances between the two experimental systems are too different to allow comparisons and a logical deduction that the errors of the Iowa system explain the errors of the central California system. Specifically: (1) the length of time before declines in yields occurred differed considerably (2) the crops the farm produced differed (3) the geographic region of the farm (and climate) differed considerably.
E. The sustained (6 years, "consistently") and significant ("considerably") expansion in productivity ("yield") led to exhaustion of nutrients, meaning crops could not attain the chemical compounds they needed to grow. This answer explains why the crop yield dropped after so many years and why it dropped after years of growth.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 57

World War II, which resulted in the death of over 70 million individuals, proved to be the deadliest conflict in human history, claiming nearly twice as many lives than would be killed in World War I.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 57

There are two main problems with the original sentence.

(1) The original sentence contains an improper idiom. The idiom as many x than is not idiomatically correct and should be replaced by the idiomatically correct phrase as many x as.

(2) would be killed in World War I is illogical as it is in the future tense, implying that World War I occurred after World War II. The phrase could be made significantly more concise using as many lives as World War I. The words would be killed in or were killed in are not necessary and should be omitted.

A. The idiom as many ... than is incorrect; the use of the future tense causes the sentence to illogically imply that World War I occurred after World War II
B. The use of the future tense causes the sentence to illogically imply that World War I occurred after World War II
C. The idiom as many ... than is incorrect; those who were killed in is awkward and unnecessary
D.The idiom as many ... than is incorrect
E. The correct idiom is used (as many ... as); the sentence correctly implies that World War II occurred after World War I; the unnecessary phrase were killed in is omitted
 

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 58

With the advent of YouTube, Facebook, and Flickr, many savvy political consultants undertook revolutionary micro-targeting and get-out-the-vote techniques that enabled political candidates with cash-strapped budgets to be able to reach numerous likely voters and succeed in raising large numbers of money from enthusiastic and committed supporters in a short period of time.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 58

(1) The sentence must be constructed such that corresponding consequences of an action are parallel. Specifically, the sentence should read enabled political candidates with cash-strapped budgets to x and y where x and y are parallel.

(2) The phrase to be able to z is redundant and should be replaced by to z

(3) The phrase numbers of money should be amounts of money since number is only used when the object in question can be counted and money cannot be counted (i.e., you do not say 1 money, 2 money, 3 money). Note: By comparison, dollars can be counted (i.e., you would say 1 dollar, 2 dollars, 3 dollars) and as a result, we would say: the number of dollars.

A. the phrase to be able to reach is redundant and can be shortened as follows: to reach; large numbers of money is not grammatically correct since money itself cannot be counted and, as a result, amount should be used instead
B. the phrase to reach...and be successful is not parallel
C. this sentence is set up such that succeeding modifies reaching voters instead of being a separate action on its own
D. the phrase is parallel (i.e., to reach...[to] succeed); to be able to reach is replaced by the shorter to reach
E. the phrase to be able to reach is redundant and should be replaced by to reach

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 59

After years of working on Wall Street, an apartment in lower Manhattan still felt like his home for famed investment banker John E. Callan, even though he also owned a house in Rye and in East Hampton.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 59

A modifying phrase needs to be placed by the word it modifies. However, as the sentence is originally written, after years of working on Wall Street illogically modifies an apartment. It was not the apartment that worked for years on Wall Street but famed investment banker John E. Callan who worked for years on Wall Street. The sentence can be corrected in two ways:
(1) After years of working on Wall Street, famed investment banker John E. Callan
(2) OR: After years of working on Wall Street, John E. Callan

A. an apartment in lower Manhattan is illogically modified by the phrase after years of working on Wall Street
B. famed investment banker John E. Callan is logically modified by the phrase after years of working on Wall Street
C. an apartment in lower Manhattan is illogically modified by the phrase after years of working on Wall Street
D. the phrase he too is not grammatically correct since it implies that there is another person who also owned a house in Rye and in East Hampton; the word too should be removed
E. the phrase even despite his owning of is not idiomatically correct and should be replaced by even though he also owned

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 60

Considered to be one of the brightest upcoming legal scholars, Douglas Kysar has written countless articles on environmental law and policy; his writings, which include a book with renowned law professor Daniel Esty, is cited more often than most other young legal scholars.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 60

There are two major problems with this sentence.

(1) The subject (his writings, which is plural) does not agree with the verb (is, which is singular). Since the words his writings are located outside the underlined portion, the verb is must be changed to are.

(2) The idiom more often than is intended to compare the writings of Douglas Kysar with the writings of other young legal scholars. However, the original sentence compares Kysar's writings with other young legal scholars. It does not make sense to compare writings to people. The correct comparison should compare the writings of Kysar to those of most other young legal scholars, where the pronoun those clearly refers to legal writings--not young professors.

A. The subject (his writings, which is plural) does not agree with the verb (is, which is singular); the writings of Douglas Kysar are illogically compared to other young legal scholars
B. The writings of Douglas Kysar are illogically compared to other young legal scholars
C. The subject (his writings, which is plural) does not agree with the verb (is, which is singular)
D. The subject (his writings, which is plural) correctly agrees with the verb (are, which is plural); the writings of Douglas Kysar are correctly compared to those [referring to writings] of most other young legal scholars
E. The writings of Douglas Kysar are illogically compared to other young legal scholars; the are is awkward

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 61

Unlike the team of lawyers working for the petitioner, whose argument rested on a questionable interpretation of a bill that only recently passed Congress, the government's argument centered on what many legal experts consider a main-stream interpretation of the Bill of Rights.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 61

There are two main issues being tested in this sentence.

(1) When using like or unlike, you must compare like parts (e.g., compare arguments with arguments). The original sentence improperly compares the team of lawyers with the government's argument.

(2) The expression , which modifies the term that is immediately before it. For example, the phrase the argument from the petitioner, which rested on a questionable interpretation of a bill that only recently passed Congress is incorrect since it was not the petitioner that rested on a questionable interpretation, but rather the argument that rested on a questionable interpretation.

A. the sentence illogically and improperly compares unlike parts (i.e., it compares the team of lawyers with the government's argument)
B. the phrase the argument from the petitioner, which rested on a questionable interpretation of a bill that only recently passed Congress is incorrect since it was not the petitioner that rested on a questionable interpretation, but rather the argument that rested on a questionable interpretation
C. the sentence properly compares like parts (i.e., it compares the petitioner's argument with the government's argument); , which rested on... properly and logically modifies the phrase it follows
D. the phrase whose case rested on is illogical since whose (which should modify a person) is actually modifying an argument
E. the original sentence, which reads a bill that only recently passed Congress, is perniciously changed to a new sentence, which reads a bill that recently only passed Congress; the difference in meaning between a bill that recently only passed Congress (meaning it did not become law) and a bill that only recently passed Congress (meaning it passed Congress a short time ago) is significant

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 62

As the Federal government's deficit grows, analysts project that the extra cost to the Treasury Department in higher interest rates is well over 50 basis points per year.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 62

There are three issues in this sentence.

(1) The sentence is not concise.

(2) The sentence unnecessarily uses passive voice and should use active voice.

(3) The sentence unnecessarily inserts space between the subject and verb, which makes understanding the sentence more difficult.

A. the sentence could be made more direct by saying X will cost Treasury Y instead of saying the extra cost to Treasury in X is Y
B. the phrase is going to be well over is wordy as going and to be convey the same idea
C. the phrase well over an extra 50 basis points per year awkwardly modifies the higher interest rates and breaks the flow of the sentence
D. the sentence is concise and uses active voice
E. the sentence unnecessarily uses passive voice

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 63

After a storied investment bank recently fired its CEO and hired an outspoken and flamboyant replacement, members of the news media centered their stories on the replacement's claims that, based upon his past work at a private equity firm, he can return the investment bank to profitability.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 63

The verb claims should be followed by one of two patterns: (1) that followed by a subordinate clause (2) claims followed by an infinitive (set apart by commas).

A. claims is correctly followed by that and a subordinate clause set apart by commas
B. the phrase claims of the ability, ..., of returning is neither grammatical nor idiomatic
C. the phrase claims of being able to return, ..., the investment is neither grammatical nor idiomatic
D. the phrase to be...able to return should not be split up as it creates an awkward construction; to be able to return can be made concise by removing to be able
E. the phrase returning the investment bank back is redundant as the words returning and back convey the same idea; the phrase he is capable of can be shortened to the phrase he can

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 64

Although most large public relations firms can afford to run information technology centers in-house, some niche firms are discovering that the cost associated with maintaining an information technology staff and from continuously improving hardware and software are larger than they initially estimated.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 64

There are two major problems with this sentence.

(1) The subject (cost, which is singular) and verb (are, which is plural) do not agree. Since multiple costs are being discussed and the verb, which appears outside the underlined part of the sentence, is plural, the subject needs to be plural as well.

(2) Two parallel parts of the sentence are not parallel. associated with...and from is not a parallel phrase. Since from occurs outside the underlined part of the sentence, associated with should be replaced by arising from. With this change, the sentence will be parallel: costs arising from x...and from y.

A. The subject (cost, which is singular) does not agree with the verb (are, which is plural); the phrase associated with ... from is not parallel
B. The costs associated from is awkward and not idiomatically correct
C. The phrase associated with ... from is not parallel
D. The subject (cost, which is singular) does not agree with the verb (are, which is plural)
E. The subject (costs, which is plural) correctly agrees with the verb (are, which is plural); the phrase arising from maintaining ... and from continuously upgrading is parallel

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 65

Written in Austria in 1762, the composer of Symphony No. 5 was a brilliant musician, Franz Joseph Haydn, who many later called the "Father of the Symphony" for his contribution to classical music while court musician for the Esterhazy family.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 65

A modifying phrase needs to be placed by the word it modifies. However, in the original sentence, the modifying phrase written in Austria in 1762 incorrectly modifies the composer. It makes no sense that the composer was written in Austria. Instead, Symphony No. 5 was Written in Austria in 1762.

The subject pronoun who needs to be replaced by the object pronoun whom since Haydn is not the subject of the sentence. Rather, many [individuals] later called is the subject and they are calling Haydn, who is the object, an important musician.

A. Written in Austria in 1762 illogically modifies a composer, not a composition; the subject pronoun who is used instead of the object pronoun whom
B. The pronoun who illogically refers back to Symphony No. 5
C. The subject pronoun who is used instead of the object pronoun whom
D. Written in Austria in 1762 illogically modifies a composer, not a composition
E. Written in Austria in 1762 correctly modifies a composition (Symphony No. 5, not its composer); the object pronoun whom is correctly used instead of the subject pronoun who

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 66

Just as listening to Franklin D. Roosevelt's famous fireside chats helps students of history understand the 1930s, an era marked by incredible domestic economic distress and unparalleled foreign conflict, so Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address helps students grasp the immense strife and challenge America faced in the post-Civil War era.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 66

This sentence is built around the comparative idiom just as x, so y. As with any other comparative idiom, the two parts being compared (i.e., x and y) must be grammatically parallel.

In the original sentence, x (listening to Franklin D. Roosevelt's famous fireside chats) is not parallel to y (Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address). These two elements can be made parallel by changing y to reading Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address. Notice the parallelism with the new paragraph structure:
listening to Franklin D. Roosevelt's famous fireside chats
reading Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address

The sentence could be made more parallel by re-writing the immense strife and challenge America faced in the post-Civil War era to match the format of the non-underlined portion (the 1930s, an era...). In other words, for these two sections to be parallel, the time period should come first followed by a description of that time period. Notice the parallelism with the new paragraph structure:
the 1930s, an era marked by incredible domestic economic distress
the post-Civil War era, a time of immense domestic challenge and strife.

A. The idiom just as x, so y does not compare parallel elements; the description of the 1930s is not parallel to the description of post-Civil War America
B. The idiom just as x, so y is broken as the word so is omitted; parallel elements are not compared in that listening to Franklin D. Roosevelt's famous fireside chats is compared to Abraham Lincoln's famous Second Inaugural Address;
C. The idiom just as x, so y is broken as the word so is omitted
D. The idiom just as x, so y is properly maintained; parallel elements are compared in both x (listening...) and y (reading...) and in the description of the 1930s (domestic economic distress) and the post-Civil War era (domestic challenge and strife)
E. The description of the 1930s is not parallel to the description of post-Civil War America

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 67

After a storied investment bank recently fired its CEO and hired an outspoken and flamboyant replacement, members of the news media centered their stories on the replacement's claims that, based upon his past work at a private equity firm, he can return the investment bank to profitability.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 67

The verb claims should be followed by one of two patterns: (1) that followed by a subordinate clause (2) claims followed by an infinitive (set apart by commas).

A. claims is correctly followed by that and a subordinate clause set apart by commas
B. the phrase claims of the ability, ..., of returning is neither grammatical nor idiomatic
C. the phrase claims of being able to return, ..., the investment is neither grammatical nor idiomatic
D. the phrase to be...able to return should not be split up as it creates an awkward construction; to be able to return can be made concise by removing to be able
E. the phrase returning the investment bank back is redundant as the words returning and back convey the same idea; the phrase he is capable of can be shortened to the phrase he can

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 68

Directions: Each multi-source reasoning question is based on a series of information contained in text, charts, or tables. For each practice you should examine the relevant information and select the best answer of the choices given.
 

Article - 1

News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article - 2

Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”

Article - 3
Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q. Politicians usually do not agree with one another on issues of global warming and fossil fuel consumption.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 68

The answer is No. The statement in question is not necessarily true, as we do not know what politicians “usually’ do, and therefore this is not a valid conclusion just based on the information provided.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 69

Directions: Each multi-source reasoning question is based on a series of information contained in text, charts, or tables. For each practice you should examine the relevant information and select the best answer of the choices given.
 

Article - 1
News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article - 2
Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”

Article - 3
Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q. An increase in worldwide demand for crude oil has made the oil companies' safety standards fall.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 69

Question 2 Explanation: The answer is No. In article 3, we are told that “environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem.” However, if some oil companies are not following the safest procedures, we cannot infer that safety standards have fallen among oil companies due to the increase in worldwide demand. Perhaps those oil companies are choosing not to follow the safest procedures for other reasons.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 70

Directions: Each multi-source reasoning question is based on a series of information contained in text, charts, or tables. For each practice you should examine the relevant information and select the best answer of the choices given.
 

Article - 1
News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article - 2
Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”

Article - 3
Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q. Dr. Goodman would likely support a public referendum on whether to require the oil companies to have better safety and ecological regulations.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 70

The answer is No. In Article 2, Dr. Goodman is shown to have little faith in the public as the solution to the global warming issue, since the public has continually shot down measures it considered “costly.” Dr. Goodman is primarily interested in seeing a reduction in fossil fuel usage. However, we cannot infer based on the information in the article alone that she would also be interested or not interested in requiring oil companies to have better safety and ecological regulations.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 71

Directions: Each multi-source reasoning question is based on a series of information contained in text, charts, or tables. For each practice you should examine the relevant information and select the best answer of the choices given.
 

Article - 1
News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article - 2
Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”

Article - 3
Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q. The actions of the oil companies have led some voters to reject measures they consider costly.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 71

The answer is No. We cannot infer any direct links between the actions of the oil companies and the votes cast by the public.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 72

Directions: Each multi-source reasoning question is based on a series of information contained in text, charts, or tables. For each practice you should examine the relevant information and select the best answer of the choices given.
 

Article - 1
News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article - 2
Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”

Article - 3
Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q. An increase in demand for a product could incentivize companies to cut corners.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 72

The answer is No. In article 3, we are told that an increase in demand for crude oil “has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem.” We cannot infer a cause/effect relationship between two things just because they happened at about the same time. At about the same time that demand for crude oil increased, companies began to cut corners. Although it is likely that the two are related, we cannot infer causality based on mere correlation.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 73

Directions: Each multi-source reasoning question is based on a series of information contained in text, charts, or tables. For each practice you should examine the relevant information and select the best answer of the choices given.
 

Article - 1
News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article - 2
Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”

Article - 3
Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q. Politicians are unlikely to press the public to vote for unpopular measures.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 73

The answer is Yes. Article 2 states that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 74

Directions: Each multi-source reasoning question is based on a series of information contained in text, charts, or tables. For each practice you should examine the relevant information and select the best answer of the choices given.
 

Article - 1
News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article - 2
Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”

Article - 3
Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q. An increase in supply would help reduce the impact the oil companies are having on the Gulf’s environment.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 74

The answer is No. The increased demand is implied to have caused the companies to drill more in the Gulf, but there is nothing in the articles to indicate that more supply would mean the companies would have better safety and environmental regulations.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 75

Directions: Each multi-source reasoning question is based on a series of information contained in text, charts, or tables. For each practice you should examine the relevant information and select the best answer of the choices given.
 

Article - 1
News article in an environmental publication.

July 19 – If current trends continue, fossil fuels will be exhausted by 2052. Industry and transportation and the inability of governments to put stricter emissions regulations in place means that there will be a greater demand for alternative energy sources. Additionally, recent concerns about the high-cost of implementing new systems such as public transportation in industrialized areas has led many voters to actually strike down propositions to subsidize alternative fuel research.
 

Article - 2
Interview with a well-known scientist.

August 3 – Dr. Lisa Goodman, one of the team of architects behind several new battery-operated commercial vehicles, has criticized the government’s unwillingness to aggressively lobby voters to pass measures to reduce fossil fuel usage. She suggests that without a significant reduction in per-person fossil fuel consumption, the rate of global warming could soon increase threefold.

“I know that voters continue to reject costly measures to reduce widespread fossil fuel consumption such as large-scale public transportation projects, and that politicians are naturally going to avoid stumping for unpopular policies. However, if something isn’t done soon, by 2055, a barrel of gasoline may become a luxury that only the rich can afford.”

Article - 3
Article from a weekly news magazine.

August 29 – The price of crude oil has jumped by 500% over the last decade as a decrease in supply has met with an increased demand. This demand has encouraged many new oil wells to launch in the Gulf of Mexico, and some American environmental groups have expressed concern that certain oil companies are not following the safest procedures, emphasizing that the companies are more concerned with the speed of extraction than the well-being of the ecosystem. Some scientists in the Gulf have called for an increase in safety regulations for oil companies drilling off the coast, but the companies warn that this may dramatically increase the cost of crude oil, at a time when many Americans are already struggling to pay the increased price.

Consider each of the following statements. Does the information in the three articles support the inference as stated?

Q. If the change in oil price continues trending in the exact same way, by 2055, the price of oil will be 2000% higher than where it is now.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 75

The answer is Yes. The article states that in the past decade, the price rose 500%. There are approximately four decades until 2055, so the price can be expected to increase 4 x 500% = 2000% from where it is now, if current trends continue.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 76

Directions: Carefully review each of the graphs and then choose the best answer from the choices below.


The above pie charts give the percentages of the rural economy in a Central American country for the years 2000 and 2010.

Q. The change in the overall earnings for non-farming jobs plus small businesses between 2000 and 2010

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 76

The correct answer choice is the fourth one - cannot be determined. Don’t be tricked into just adding up the percentages. The charts give the relative portions of the rural economy made up by these 4 items, but nowhere are we told absolute amounts - what was the overall size of the economy in 2000 and in 2010? This is necessary to then calculate the overall earnings in these particular areas in 2000 versus in 2010. Since we don’t know in which year the overall economy was larger, or if they were the same, we cannot make this comparison.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 77

Directions: Carefully review each of the graphs and then choose the best answer from the choices below.


The above pie charts give the percentages of the rural economy in a Central American country for the years 2000 and 2010.

Q. The smallest proportional change in percent between 2000 and 2010 in any segment of the rural economy was in

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 77

The charts give %s of the rural economy. This question asks about percent change in those percentages. The % of the economy taken up by small businesses nearly doubled in these 10 years, for a percent change of nearly 100%. The % of the economy taken up by remittances increased by nearly 6x in these 10 years, for a percent change of around 467%.

So we can quickly eliminate those two. But agriculture and non-farming jobs both decreased by proportionally similar amounts. Which experienced the smaller percent change? Non-farming jobs decreased by 6/24, or 25%. Agriculture decreased by 20/60, or 1/3, or 33%.

Put in these terms, clearly non-farming jobs experienced a smaller % change than non-farming jobs, since 25% is less than 33%. Select the second option: non-farming jobs.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 78

Directions: Carefully review each of the graphs and then choose the best answer from the choices below.

Q. Assuming the trend in the graph stays the same over the range of workers per supervisor values, if the company were to employ 20 workers per supervisor they would likely be __________ productive than if the company were to employ 160 workers per supervisor.

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 78

Taking a close look at our curve, we can see that it’s not exactly a bell-curve (with equal rates of decline on either side of the peak) - the rise on the left hand side of the curve is slower than the decline on the right-hand side of the curve. The peak takes place around 100 workers per supervisor, yet 40 workers per supervisor (60 away from the peak value) are just about equally productive as 140 workers per supervisor (40 away from the peak value). If we were to extend a line on the left side of the graph, we will find that at about 30 workers per supervisor, per worker daily production is zero. If we were to extend the trend on the right side of the graph, we will find that at about 155 workers per supervisor,per worker daily production is zero. This suggests that at 160 workers per supervisor, per worker daily production will be negative. Therefore, the company will likely be more productive at 30 workers per supervisor than at 160 workers per supervisor. Choose (B).

Note that extrapolating beyond the range of the data is generally not a good idea and could lead to some nonsensical conclusions. However, since you were asked to assume that the trend stays the same over the range of workers per supervisor values, we can infer that the company will be more productive at 30 workers per supervisor than at 160 workers per supervisor.

GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 79

Directions: Carefully review each of the graphs and then choose the best answer from the choices below.

Q. If it wanted to increase productivity, a company currently employing 115 workers per supervisor should consider

Detailed Solution for GMAT Mock Test - 1 - Question 79

At 115 workers per supervisor, we are on the sloping down side of the curve, suggesting that we need to have slightly fewer workers per supervisor. The question asks about which option would increase productivity (not necessarily maximize it, just increase it), and since only one option can be right, it must be that three of the options will not increase productivity and only one will.

First option - Adding more workers will mean moving to the right on the curve - more workers per supervisor - which clearly has lower productivity.

Second option - halving the number of supervisors would mean doubling the number of workers per supervisor, to 230, and as per the trend of the graph, this would presumably have lower productivity.

Third option - doubling the number of supervisors would mean that the ratio of workers to supervisor would be halved, to around 57.5 workers per supervisor, which has a lower productivity rate than 115 workers per supervisor.

Fourth option - with 25% fewer workers, the company would have around 87 workers per supervisor. Looking at the curve, although the difference is not huge, this is clearly a more productive ratio than 115 workers per supervisor. Select this final option.

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