IIFT Reading Comprehension MCQ - 2


16 Questions MCQ Test IIFT Mock Test Series | IIFT Reading Comprehension MCQ - 2


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This mock test of IIFT Reading Comprehension MCQ - 2 for CAT helps you for every CAT entrance exam. This contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions for CAT IIFT Reading Comprehension MCQ - 2 (mcq) to study with solutions a complete question bank. The solved questions answers in this IIFT Reading Comprehension MCQ - 2 quiz give you a good mix of easy questions and tough questions. CAT students definitely take this IIFT Reading Comprehension MCQ - 2 exercise for a better result in the exam. You can find other IIFT Reading Comprehension MCQ - 2 extra questions, long questions & short questions for CAT on EduRev as well by searching above.
QUESTION: 1

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Batsmen have been getting hit in the head in cricket for years.
But the impact to Phillip Hughes was very different.
According to Australian team doctor Peter Brukner, the condition that caused Hughes’ death is “incredibly rare” happening only once before with a cricket ball. Brukner added that there were only 100 reported cases of the vertebral artery dissection Hughes suffered. “This was a freakish accident because it was an injury to the neck that caused a haemorrhage in the brain,” Brukner said. “The condition is incredibly rare. It’s called vertebral artery dissection leading to subarachnoid haemorrhage, if you look in the literature there are only about 100 cases ever reported.”.
Doctor Tony Grabs of St Vincent’s Hospital described the injury as “catastrophic”. There had been some suggestion that the horrific accident could have been avoided if the 25-year-old had been wearing a more modem helmet, but there was more to it than that. After all, cricket helmets only became common for players in the late 1970s and many a player had been struck before then. An arterial dissection is a tear in the lining of an artery. When that tear happens in a major artery in the head and neck (also known as the carotid or vertebral arteries) it can close off blood flow to the brain. It is a rare but increasingly recognised cause of stroke in patients younger than 45 years and can be caused either spontaneously or as the result of a blunt trauma to the neck.
This is the key element to the incident, described by former Test stars as “freakish”, “unbelievable” and something that “just doesn’t happen in cricket”. Hughes was turning his head at the moment the ball struck him, hitting him flush on the high side of his neck, narrowly missing the bottom of the rear of the helmet. Sports doctor Dr Peter Larkins says that the precise area Hughes was hit is particularly vulnerable. “The brain comes right down to the upper part of your neck, so when you get a fracture with bleeding underneath it can cause enormous pressure to build up in the spinal canal and go up into the brain,” Larkins said. “The danger to Phil Hughes would be a combination of bleeding into the upper part of the spinal cord from the fracture.”.
Hughes was not wearing the very latest version of the Masuri helmet, which provides slightly more coverage of the back of the head. Would it have saved Hughes? It is possible but unlikely — and largely irrelevant. The area Hughes was hit in is very difficult to protect because batsmen need to be able to move their head and there is no helmet available that completely covers the back of the head.

Batsmen need that area to be free to allow for movement of the head — including to duck and weave. Masuri managing director Sam Miller told the UK’s Sky Sports News: “We’ve looked at the footage, we’ve looked at the images, and everything’s quite pixelated at the moment. “We can see the impact site was in a relatively unprotected area of the head — whether or not our new helmet... would have provided added protection for Phil, we don’t know.”. “There is slightly better coverage but we’re talking centimetres as to where that ball hit and as to whether that would have made a difference. “The key point there is you need a certain amount of free space there so guys can move.” Dr. Edouard Ferdinands of Sydney University, a world expert in cricket biomechanics, explained it best. “The ball is small so the actual pressure is like a bullet effect,” he said, adding that the ball was likely travelling about 85km/h at the moment of impact. “People think it’s only a ball — that’s an illusion. Where he was hit is the spot where there is some crucial brain matter.” For the cricket illiterate, a bouncer is a short-pitched delivery that — as the name suggests — bounces high and is generally targeted at a batsman’s head or neck area.
It has long been an essential part of the game and, in the opinion of a number of former Test players, it should remain that way for years to come. “If you take away that from the game it takes away that combative nature of cricket,” Australian great Matthew Hayden told Triple M. “I know that we’re not running into massive human men, but you actually just want to challenge yourself and Test cricket is called that for a reason - it tests everything.”.
Added former Australian fast bowler Stuart Clark: “As a fast bowler you’ve got to intimidate. That’s part of the game. It’s been a part of the game for a long period of time now and I hope it always will be.”  

Q.

The helmets that completely cover the back of the head are not   manufactured because:

Solution:

The passage states that “... there is no helmet available that completely covers the back of the head. Batsmen need that area to be free to allow for movement of the head ...”. This validates option 4 as the correct answer. Option 1 is incorrect because there is no information pertaining to the cost of manufacturing of such helmets in the passage.
Option 2 is not supported by the passage.
Option 3 is incorrect, as the passage states “...a bouncer is ... generally targeted at a batsman’s head or neck area. ... It has long been an essential

part of the game Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 2

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Batsmen have been getting hit in the head in cricket for years.
But the impact to Phillip Hughes was very different.
According to Australian team doctor Peter Brukner, the condition that caused Hughes’ death is “incredibly rare” happening only once before with a cricket ball. Brukner added that there were only 100 reported cases of the vertebral artery dissection Hughes suffered. “This was a freakish accident because it was an injury to the neck that caused a haemorrhage in the brain,” Brukner said. “The condition is incredibly rare. It’s called vertebral artery dissection leading to subarachnoid haemorrhage, if you look in the literature there are only about 100 cases ever reported.”.
Doctor Tony Grabs of St Vincent’s Hospital described the injury as “catastrophic”. There had been some suggestion that the horrific accident could have been avoided if the 25-year-old had been wearing a more modem helmet, but there was more to it than that. After all, cricket helmets only became common for players in the late 1970s and many a player had been struck before then. An arterial dissection is a tear in the lining of an artery. When that tear happens in a major artery in the head and neck (also known as the carotid or vertebral arteries) it can close off blood flow to the brain. It is a rare but increasingly recognised cause of stroke in patients younger than 45 years and can be caused either spontaneously or as the result of a blunt trauma to the neck.
This is the key element to the incident, described by former Test stars as “freakish”, “unbelievable” and something that “just doesn’t happen in cricket”. Hughes was turning his head at the moment the ball struck him, hitting him flush on the high side of his neck, narrowly missing the bottom of the rear of the helmet. Sports doctor Dr Peter Larkins says that the precise area Hughes was hit is particularly vulnerable. “The brain comes right down to the upper part of your neck, so when you get a fracture with bleeding underneath it can cause enormous pressure to build up in the spinal canal and go up into the brain,” Larkins said. “The danger to Phil Hughes would be a combination of bleeding into the upper part of the spinal cord from the fracture.”.
Hughes was not wearing the very latest version of the Masuri helmet, which provides slightly more coverage of the back of the head. Would it have saved Hughes? It is possible but unlikely — and largely irrelevant. The area Hughes was hit in is very difficult to protect because batsmen need to be able to move their head and there is no helmet available that completely covers the back of the head.

Batsmen need that area to be free to allow for movement of the head — including to duck and weave. Masuri managing director Sam Miller told the UK’s Sky Sports News: “We’ve looked at the footage, we’ve looked at the images, and everything’s quite pixelated at the moment. “We can see the impact site was in a relatively unprotected area of the head — whether or not our new helmet... would have provided added protection for Phil, we don’t know.”. “There is slightly better coverage but we’re talking centimetres as to where that ball hit and as to whether that would have made a difference. “The key point there is you need a certain amount of free space there so guys can move.” Dr. Edouard Ferdinands of Sydney University, a world expert in cricket biomechanics, explained it best. “The ball is small so the actual pressure is like a bullet effect,” he said, adding that the ball was likely travelling about 85km/h at the moment of impact. “People think it’s only a ball — that’s an illusion. Where he was hit is the spot where there is some crucial brain matter.” For the cricket illiterate, a bouncer is a short-pitched delivery that — as the name suggests — bounces high and is generally targeted at a batsman’s head or neck area.
It has long been an essential part of the game and, in the opinion of a number of former Test players, it should remain that way for years to come. “If you take away that from the game it takes away that combative nature of cricket,” Australian great Matthew Hayden told Triple M. “I know that we’re not running into massive human men, but you actually just want to challenge yourself and Test cricket is called that for a reason - it tests everything.”.
Added former Australian fast bowler Stuart Clark: “As a fast bowler you’ve got to intimidate. That’s part of the game. It’s been a part of the game for a long period of time now and I hope it always will be.”  

Q.

Which of these is not a way in which the horrific effect of the accident could likely have been lessened? 

Solution:

The passage states “Hughes was not wearing the very latest version of the Masuri helmet, which ... Would it have saved Hughes? It is possible but unlikely ...” and “Masuri managing director Sam Miller told ... We can see the impact site was in a relatively unprotected area of the head — whether or not our new helmet... would have provided added protection for Phil, we don’t know.”. This vindicates option 3 as correct. 

The lines of the passage “Sports doctor Dr Peter Larkins told the Herald Sun the precise area Hughes was hit is particularly vulnerable.”, “The area Marks Hughes was hit in is very difficult to protect” and “Where he was hit is the spot where there is some crucial brain matter.” make it clear that the accident would have been less horrific had he been hit on a different part of his body. Rule out option 1.

The passage states “...a bouncer is a short-pitched delivery that... bounces high and is generally targeted at a batsman’s head or neck area.”. These lines support the fact that had the ball not been a bouncer, Hughes would not have received his horrific injury.

The lines “Dr. Edouard Ferdinands of Sydney University, a world expert in cricket biomechanics,... “The ball is small so the actual pressure is like a bullet effect,” he said, adding that the ball was likely travelling about 85km/h at the moment of impact. “People think it’s only a ball — that’s an illusion.”. These lines help us eliminate option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 3

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Batsmen have been getting hit in the head in cricket for years.
But the impact to Phillip Hughes was very different.
According to Australian team doctor Peter Brukner, the condition that caused Hughes’ death is “incredibly rare” happening only once before with a cricket ball. Brukner added that there were only 100 reported cases of the vertebral artery dissection Hughes suffered. “This was a freakish accident because it was an injury to the neck that caused a haemorrhage in the brain,” Brukner said. “The condition is incredibly rare. It’s called vertebral artery dissection leading to subarachnoid haemorrhage, if you look in the literature there are only about 100 cases ever reported.”.
Doctor Tony Grabs of St Vincent’s Hospital described the injury as “catastrophic”. There had been some suggestion that the horrific accident could have been avoided if the 25-year-old had been wearing a more modem helmet, but there was more to it than that. After all, cricket helmets only became common for players in the late 1970s and many a player had been struck before then. An arterial dissection is a tear in the lining of an artery. When that tear happens in a major artery in the head and neck (also known as the carotid or vertebral arteries) it can close off blood flow to the brain. It is a rare but increasingly recognised cause of stroke in patients younger than 45 years and can be caused either spontaneously or as the result of a blunt trauma to the neck.
This is the key element to the incident, described by former Test stars as “freakish”, “unbelievable” and something that “just doesn’t happen in cricket”. Hughes was turning his head at the moment the ball struck him, hitting him flush on the high side of his neck, narrowly missing the bottom of the rear of the helmet. Sports doctor Dr Peter Larkins says that the precise area Hughes was hit is particularly vulnerable. “The brain comes right down to the upper part of your neck, so when you get a fracture with bleeding underneath it can cause enormous pressure to build up in the spinal canal and go up into the brain,” Larkins said. “The danger to Phil Hughes would be a combination of bleeding into the upper part of the spinal cord from the fracture.”.
Hughes was not wearing the very latest version of the Masuri helmet, which provides slightly more coverage of the back of the head. Would it have saved Hughes? It is possible but unlikely — and largely irrelevant. The area Hughes was hit in is very difficult to protect because batsmen need to be able to move their head and there is no helmet available that completely covers the back of the head.

Batsmen need that area to be free to allow for movement of the head — including to duck and weave. Masuri managing director Sam Miller told the UK’s Sky Sports News: “We’ve looked at the footage, we’ve looked at the images, and everything’s quite pixelated at the moment. “We can see the impact site was in a relatively unprotected area of the head — whether or not our new helmet... would have provided added protection for Phil, we don’t know.”. “There is slightly better coverage but we’re talking centimetres as to where that ball hit and as to whether that would have made a difference. “The key point there is you need a certain amount of free space there so guys can move.” Dr. Edouard Ferdinands of Sydney University, a world expert in cricket biomechanics, explained it best. “The ball is small so the actual pressure is like a bullet effect,” he said, adding that the ball was likely travelling about 85km/h at the moment of impact. “People think it’s only a ball — that’s an illusion. Where he was hit is the spot where there is some crucial brain matter.” For the cricket illiterate, a bouncer is a short-pitched delivery that — as the name suggests — bounces high and is generally targeted at a batsman’s head or neck area.
It has long been an essential part of the game and, in the opinion of a number of former Test players, it should remain that way for years to come. “If you take away that from the game it takes away that combative nature of cricket,” Australian great Matthew Hayden told Triple M. “I know that we’re not running into massive human men, but you actually just want to challenge yourself and Test cricket is called that for a reason - it tests everything.”.
Added former Australian fast bowler Stuart Clark: “As a fast bowler you’ve got to intimidate. That’s part of the game. It’s been a part of the game for a long period of time now and I hope it always will be.”  

Q.

According to the passage, which of the following does not qualify as a reason for the bouncer to persist in Test cricket?

Solution:

The passage states, “It has long been an essential part of the game and, in the opinion of a number of former Test players, it should remain that way for years to come.”. This eliminates option 1.

The lines “... former Australian fast bowler Stuart Clark: “As a fast bowler you’ve got to intimidate. That’s part of the game ...” eliminate option 3.

The lines in the passage, ““If you take away that from the game it takes away that combative nature of cricket,” Australian great Matthew Hayden ...” help rule out option 4.

Option 2 has not been stated or implied in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 4

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Batsmen have been getting hit in the head in cricket for years.
But the impact to Phillip Hughes was very different.
According to Australian team doctor Peter Brukner, the condition that caused Hughes’ death is “incredibly rare” happening only once before with a cricket ball. Brukner added that there were only 100 reported cases of the vertebral artery dissection Hughes suffered. “This was a freakish accident because it was an injury to the neck that caused a haemorrhage in the brain,” Brukner said. “The condition is incredibly rare. It’s called vertebral artery dissection leading to subarachnoid haemorrhage, if you look in the literature there are only about 100 cases ever reported.”.
Doctor Tony Grabs of St Vincent’s Hospital described the injury as “catastrophic”. There had been some suggestion that the horrific accident could have been avoided if the 25-year-old had been wearing a more modem helmet, but there was more to it than that. After all, cricket helmets only became common for players in the late 1970s and many a player had been struck before then. An arterial dissection is a tear in the lining of an artery. When that tear happens in a major artery in the head and neck (also known as the carotid or vertebral arteries) it can close off blood flow to the brain. It is a rare but increasingly recognised cause of stroke in patients younger than 45 years and can be caused either spontaneously or as the result of a blunt trauma to the neck.
This is the key element to the incident, described by former Test stars as “freakish”, “unbelievable” and something that “just doesn’t happen in cricket”. Hughes was turning his head at the moment the ball struck him, hitting him flush on the high side of his neck, narrowly missing the bottom of the rear of the helmet. Sports doctor Dr Peter Larkins says that the precise area Hughes was hit is particularly vulnerable. “The brain comes right down to the upper part of your neck, so when you get a fracture with bleeding underneath it can cause enormous pressure to build up in the spinal canal and go up into the brain,” Larkins said. “The danger to Phil Hughes would be a combination of bleeding into the upper part of the spinal cord from the fracture.”.
Hughes was not wearing the very latest version of the Masuri helmet, which provides slightly more coverage of the back of the head. Would it have saved Hughes? It is possible but unlikely — and largely irrelevant. The area Hughes was hit in is very difficult to protect because batsmen need to be able to move their head and there is no helmet available that completely covers the back of the head.

Batsmen need that area to be free to allow for movement of the head — including to duck and weave. Masuri managing director Sam Miller told the UK’s Sky Sports News: “We’ve looked at the footage, we’ve looked at the images, and everything’s quite pixelated at the moment. “We can see the impact site was in a relatively unprotected area of the head — whether or not our new helmet... would have provided added protection for Phil, we don’t know.”. “There is slightly better coverage but we’re talking centimetres as to where that ball hit and as to whether that would have made a difference. “The key point there is you need a certain amount of free space there so guys can move.” Dr. Edouard Ferdinands of Sydney University, a world expert in cricket biomechanics, explained it best. “The ball is small so the actual pressure is like a bullet effect,” he said, adding that the ball was likely travelling about 85km/h at the moment of impact. “People think it’s only a ball — that’s an illusion. Where he was hit is the spot where there is some crucial brain matter.” For the cricket illiterate, a bouncer is a short-pitched delivery that — as the name suggests — bounces high and is generally targeted at a batsman’s head or neck area.
It has long been an essential part of the game and, in the opinion of a number of former Test players, it should remain that way for years to come. “If you take away that from the game it takes away that combative nature of cricket,” Australian great Matthew Hayden told Triple M. “I know that we’re not running into massive human men, but you actually just want to challenge yourself and Test cricket is called that for a reason - it tests everything.”.
Added former Australian fast bowler Stuart Clark: “As a fast bowler you’ve got to intimidate. That’s part of the game. It’s been a part of the game for a long period of time now and I hope it always will be.”  

Q.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Solution:

The passage states, “Hughes was turning his head at the moment the ball struck him, hitting him flush on the high side of his neck, narrowly missing the bottom of the rear of the helmet.... the precise area Hughes was hit is particularly vulnerable.” and “... Where he was hit is the spot where there is some crucial brain matter.”. From these lines we can infer that had Hughes not been turning his head at that moment, the ball would not have struck him at the precise spot that caused his death.

Option 1 is correct.
The lines stating “... the condition that caused Hughes’ death is “incredibly rare” happening only once before with a cricket ball.” help eliminate option 2.

The passage states “The condition is incredibly rare. It’s called vertebral artery dissection leading to subarachnoid haemorrhage, if you look in the literature there are only about 100 cases ever reported.”. The fact that there is literature available on the condition is proof that there has been some amount of research. Eliminate option 3.

Since the passage states that “An arterial dissection ... can be caused either spontaneously or as the result of a blunt trauma to the neck.”, we cannot infer option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 5

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Batsmen have been getting hit in the head in cricket for years.
But the impact to Phillip Hughes was very different.
According to Australian team doctor Peter Brukner, the condition that caused Hughes’ death is “incredibly rare” happening only once before with a cricket ball. Brukner added that there were only 100 reported cases of the vertebral artery dissection Hughes suffered. “This was a freakish accident because it was an injury to the neck that caused a haemorrhage in the brain,” Brukner said. “The condition is incredibly rare. It’s called vertebral artery dissection leading to subarachnoid haemorrhage, if you look in the literature there are only about 100 cases ever reported.”.
Doctor Tony Grabs of St Vincent’s Hospital described the injury as “catastrophic”. There had been some suggestion that the horrific accident could have been avoided if the 25-year-old had been wearing a more modem helmet, but there was more to it than that. After all, cricket helmets only became common for players in the late 1970s and many a player had been struck before then. An arterial dissection is a tear in the lining of an artery. When that tear happens in a major artery in the head and neck (also known as the carotid or vertebral arteries) it can close off blood flow to the brain. It is a rare but increasingly recognised cause of stroke in patients younger than 45 years and can be caused either spontaneously or as the result of a blunt trauma to the neck.
This is the key element to the incident, described by former Test stars as “freakish”, “unbelievable” and something that “just doesn’t happen in cricket”. Hughes was turning his head at the moment the ball struck him, hitting him flush on the high side of his neck, narrowly missing the bottom of the rear of the helmet. Sports doctor Dr Peter Larkins says that the precise area Hughes was hit is particularly vulnerable. “The brain comes right down to the upper part of your neck, so when you get a fracture with bleeding underneath it can cause enormous pressure to build up in the spinal canal and go up into the brain,” Larkins said. “The danger to Phil Hughes would be a combination of bleeding into the upper part of the spinal cord from the fracture.”.
Hughes was not wearing the very latest version of the Masuri helmet, which provides slightly more coverage of the back of the head. Would it have saved Hughes? It is possible but unlikely — and largely irrelevant. The area Hughes was hit in is very difficult to protect because batsmen need to be able to move their head and there is no helmet available that completely covers the back of the head.

Batsmen need that area to be free to allow for movement of the head — including to duck and weave. Masuri managing director Sam Miller told the UK’s Sky Sports News: “We’ve looked at the footage, we’ve looked at the images, and everything’s quite pixelated at the moment. “We can see the impact site was in a relatively unprotected area of the head — whether or not our new helmet... would have provided added protection for Phil, we don’t know.”. “There is slightly better coverage but we’re talking centimetres as to where that ball hit and as to whether that would have made a difference. “The key point there is you need a certain amount of free space there so guys can move.” Dr. Edouard Ferdinands of Sydney University, a world expert in cricket biomechanics, explained it best. “The ball is small so the actual pressure is like a bullet effect,” he said, adding that the ball was likely travelling about 85km/h at the moment of impact. “People think it’s only a ball — that’s an illusion. Where he was hit is the spot where there is some crucial brain matter.” For the cricket illiterate, a bouncer is a short-pitched delivery that — as the name suggests — bounces high and is generally targeted at a batsman’s head or neck area.
It has long been an essential part of the game and, in the opinion of a number of former Test players, it should remain that way for years to come. “If you take away that from the game it takes away that combative nature of cricket,” Australian great Matthew Hayden told Triple M. “I know that we’re not running into massive human men, but you actually just want to challenge yourself and Test cricket is called that for a reason - it tests everything.”.
Added former Australian fast bowler Stuart Clark: “As a fast bowler you’ve got to intimidate. That’s part of the game. It’s been a part of the game for a long period of time now and I hope it always will be.”  

Q.

Which of the following is untrue as per the passage?

Solution:

The passage states that “... cricket helmets only became common for players in the late 1970s ...”, meaning that they may have existed before that, just that they were not in widespread use. It would be incorrect to say that they were “unheard o f ’ before that.

Hence, option 1 is the answer.
The passage says “People think it’s only a ball — that’s an illusion” meaning that people do not realize the danger it poses.

Option 2 is true according to the passage.
The lines saying “... the footage, we’ve looked at the images, and everything’s quite pixelated at the moment... whether or not our new helmet... would have provided added protection for Phil, we don’t know” validate option 3 as true.

The passage says “An arterial dissection is a tear ... in a major artery in the head and neck (also known as the carotid or vertebral arteries)... It is a rare but increasingly recognised cause of stroke in patients younger than 45 years ...”. From this, we know that option 4 is true.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 6

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The theory of island biogeography was experimentally tested by E.O. Wilson and his student Daniel Simberloff in the mangrove islands in the Florida Keys. Species richness on several small mangroves islands were surveyed. The islands were fumigated with methyl bromide to clear their arthropod communities. Following fumigation the immigration of species onto the islands was monitored. Within a year, the islands had been recolonised. Islands closer to the mainland recovered faster and larger islands had more species at equilibrium as predicted by the Theory of Island Biogeography. The theory proposes that the number of species found on an undisturbed island is determined by: immigration, emigration and extinction. Immigration and emigration are affected by the distance of an island from a source of colonists. Usually this source is the mainland, but it can also be other islands. Islands that are more isolated are less likely to receive immigrants than islands that are less isolated.

The rate of extinction once a species manages to colonize an island is affected by island size. Larger islands contain larger habitat areas and opportunities for more different varieties of habitat. Larger habitat size reduces the probability of extinction due to chance events. Habitat heterogeneity increases the number of 5 species that will be successful after immigration.Over time, the countervailing forces of extinction and immigration result in an equilibrium level of species richness. Within a few years of the publishing of the theory its application to the field of conservation biology had been realised and was being vigorously debated in ecological circles. The realisation that reserves and national parks formed islands inside human-altered landscapes, and that these reserves could lose species as they 'relaxed towards equilibrium' caused a great deal of concern. This is particularly true when conserving larger species which tend to have larger ranges.

In the years after the publication of Wilson and Simberloff s papers ecologists had found more examples of the species-area relationship, and conservation planning was taking the view that the one large reserve could hold more species than several smaller reserves, and that larger reserves should be the norm in reserve design. Island biogeography theory also led to the development of habitat corridors as a conservation tool to increase connectivity between habitat islands. Habitat corridors can increase the movement of species between parks and reserves and therefore increase the number of species that can be supported.

Q.

Which of the following statements about the theory of island biogeography is true?

Solution:

Option 1 has no information in the passage to support it.

Option 2 is false as the passage supports the opposite -that larger islands have more number of species at equilibrium.

Option 3 is not true as the passage also mentions islands further away from the mainland to have contributed to the theory.

Option 4 is correct since the passage states that the larger of the recolonised islands had more species at equilibrium.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

QUESTION: 7

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The theory of island biogeography was experimentally tested by E.O. Wilson and his student Daniel Simberloff in the mangrove islands in the Florida Keys. Species richness on several small mangroves islands were surveyed. The islands were fumigated with methyl bromide to clear their arthropod communities. Following fumigation the immigration of species onto the islands was monitored. Within a year, the islands had been recolonised. Islands closer to the mainland recovered faster and larger islands had more species at equilibrium as predicted by the Theory of Island Biogeography. The theory proposes that the number of species found on an undisturbed island is determined by: immigration, emigration and extinction. Immigration and emigration are affected by the distance of an island from a source of colonists. Usually this source is the mainland, but it can also be other islands. Islands that are more isolated are less likely to receive immigrants than islands that are less isolated.

The rate of extinction once a species manages to colonize an island is affected by island size. Larger islands contain larger habitat areas and opportunities for more different varieties of habitat. Larger habitat size reduces the probability of extinction due to chance events. Habitat heterogeneity increases the number of 5 species that will be successful after immigration.Over time, the countervailing forces of extinction and immigration result in an equilibrium level of species richness. Within a few years of the publishing of the theory its application to the field of conservation biology had been realised and was being vigorously debated in ecological circles. The realisation that reserves and national parks formed islands inside human-altered landscapes, and that these reserves could lose species as they 'relaxed towards equilibrium' caused a great deal of concern. This is particularly true when conserving larger species which tend to have larger ranges.

In the years after the publication of Wilson and Simberloff s papers ecologists had found more examples of the species-area relationship, and conservation planning was taking the view that the one large reserve could hold more species than several smaller reserves, and that larger reserves should be the norm in reserve design. Island biogeography theory also led to the development of habitat corridors as a conservation tool to increase connectivity between habitat islands. Habitat corridors can increase the movement of species between parks and reserves and therefore increase the number of species that can be supported.

Q.

From the following words taken from the passage, determine the word  which is the closest to being an antonym of “Colonise”.

Solution:

To “colonise” means to ‘establish a colony in; settle’. “Extinction” means ‘coming to an end or dying out’.

An “island” is ‘a tract of land completely surrounded by water’. “Emigrate” means ‘to leave one country or region to settle in another’. “Conservation” means ‘prevention of injury, decay, waste, or loss’. Therefore, the antonym of “colonise” will be “emigrate”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 8

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The theory of island biogeography was experimentally tested by E.O. Wilson and his student Daniel Simberloff in the mangrove islands in the Florida Keys. Species richness on several small mangroves islands were surveyed. The islands were fumigated with methyl bromide to clear their arthropod communities. Following fumigation the immigration of species onto the islands was monitored. Within a year, the islands had been recolonised. Islands closer to the mainland recovered faster and larger islands had more species at equilibrium as predicted by the Theory of Island Biogeography. The theory proposes that the number of species found on an undisturbed island is determined by: immigration, emigration and extinction. Immigration and emigration are affected by the distance of an island from a source of colonists. Usually this source is the mainland, but it can also be other islands. Islands that are more isolated are less likely to receive immigrants than islands that are less isolated.

The rate of extinction once a species manages to colonize an island is affected by island size. Larger islands contain larger habitat areas and opportunities for more different varieties of habitat. Larger habitat size reduces the probability of extinction due to chance events. Habitat heterogeneity increases the number of 5 species that will be successful after immigration.Over time, the countervailing forces of extinction and immigration result in an equilibrium level of species richness. Within a few years of the publishing of the theory its application to the field of conservation biology had been realised and was being vigorously debated in ecological circles. The realisation that reserves and national parks formed islands inside human-altered landscapes, and that these reserves could lose species as they 'relaxed towards equilibrium' caused a great deal of concern. This is particularly true when conserving larger species which tend to have larger ranges.

In the years after the publication of Wilson and Simberloff s papers ecologists had found more examples of the species-area relationship, and conservation planning was taking the view that the one large reserve could hold more species than several smaller reserves, and that larger reserves should be the norm in reserve design. Island biogeography theory also led to the development of habitat corridors as a conservation tool to increase connectivity between habitat islands. Habitat corridors can increase the movement of species between parks and reserves and therefore increase the number of species that can be supported.

Q.

Which of the following statements is true?

Solution:

Option 1 is opposite to what is stated in the passage.

Option 3 exaggerates what is mentioned in the passage - that the larger habitat size reduces the probability of extinction by chance.

Option 4 has no supporting data in the message.
The passage states, “Immigration and emigration are affected by the distance of an island from a source of colonists”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

QUESTION: 9

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The theory of island biogeography was experimentally tested by E.O. Wilson and his student Daniel Simberloff in the mangrove islands in the Florida Keys. Species richness on several small mangroves islands were surveyed. The islands were fumigated with methyl bromide to clear their arthropod communities. Following fumigation the immigration of species onto the islands was monitored. Within a year, the islands had been recolonised. Islands closer to the mainland recovered faster and larger islands had more species at equilibrium as predicted by the Theory of Island Biogeography. The theory proposes that the number of species found on an undisturbed island is determined by: immigration, emigration and extinction. Immigration and emigration are affected by the distance of an island from a source of colonists. Usually this source is the mainland, but it can also be other islands. Islands that are more isolated are less likely to receive immigrants than islands that are less isolated.

The rate of extinction once a species manages to colonize an island is affected by island size. Larger islands contain larger habitat areas and opportunities for more different varieties of habitat. Larger habitat size reduces the probability of extinction due to chance events. Habitat heterogeneity increases the number of 5 species that will be successful after immigration.Over time, the countervailing forces of extinction and immigration result in an equilibrium level of species richness. Within a few years of the publishing of the theory its application to the field of conservation biology had been realised and was being vigorously debated in ecological circles. The realisation that reserves and national parks formed islands inside human-altered landscapes, and that these reserves could lose species as they 'relaxed towards equilibrium' caused a great deal of concern. This is particularly true when conserving larger species which tend to have larger ranges.

In the years after the publication of Wilson and Simberloff s papers ecologists had found more examples of the species-area relationship, and conservation planning was taking the view that the one large reserve could hold more species than several smaller reserves, and that larger reserves should be the norm in reserve design. Island biogeography theory also led to the development of habitat corridors as a conservation tool to increase connectivity between habitat islands. Habitat corridors can increase the movement of species between parks and reserves and therefore increase the number of species that can be supported.

Q.

How will habitat corridors help reduce extinction?

Solution:

Option 2 is contrary to the passage. The passage mentions that habitat corridors actually link islands (parks or reserves).

Option 3 is not the objective of habitat corridors. The corridors actually increase the movement (and number) of species.

Option 4 is not borne out by the passage.
The passage states “Habitat corridors can increase the movement of species between parks and reserves and....".

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

QUESTION: 10

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The theory of island biogeography was experimentally tested by E.O. Wilson and his student Daniel Simberloff in the mangrove islands in the Florida Keys. Species richness on several small mangroves islands were surveyed. The islands were fumigated with methyl bromide to clear their arthropod communities. Following fumigation the immigration of species onto the islands was monitored. Within a year, the islands had been recolonised. Islands closer to the mainland recovered faster and larger islands had more species at equilibrium as predicted by the Theory of Island Biogeography. The theory proposes that the number of species found on an undisturbed island is determined by: immigration, emigration and extinction. Immigration and emigration are affected by the distance of an island from a source of colonists. Usually this source is the mainland, but it can also be other islands. Islands that are more isolated are less likely to receive immigrants than islands that are less isolated.

The rate of extinction once a species manages to colonize an island is affected by island size. Larger islands contain larger habitat areas and opportunities for more different varieties of habitat. Larger habitat size reduces the probability of extinction due to chance events. Habitat heterogeneity increases the number of 5 species that will be successful after immigration.Over time, the countervailing forces of extinction and immigration result in an equilibrium level of species richness. Within a few years of the publishing of the theory its application to the field of conservation biology had been realised and was being vigorously debated in ecological circles. The realisation that reserves and national parks formed islands inside human-altered landscapes, and that these reserves could lose species as they 'relaxed towards equilibrium' caused a great deal of concern. This is particularly true when conserving larger species which tend to have larger ranges.

In the years after the publication of Wilson and Simberloff s papers ecologists had found more examples of the species-area relationship, and conservation planning was taking the view that the one large reserve could hold more species than several smaller reserves, and that larger reserves should be the norm in reserve design. Island biogeography theory also led to the development of habitat corridors as a conservation tool to increase connectivity between habitat islands. Habitat corridors can increase the movement of species between parks and reserves and therefore increase the number of species that can be supported.

Q.

Which of the following statements cannot be made based on the theory of island biogeography?

Solution:

Option 1 is supported by, “Larger habitat size reduces the probability of extinction due to chance events” Option 2 is supported by, “Over time, the countervailing forces of extinction and immigration result in an equilibrium level of species richness”.

Option 4 is supported by, “Island biogeography theory also led to the development of habitat corridors as a conservation tool...”.

The passage states “...reserves and national parks formed islands inside human-altered landscapes, and that these reserves could lose species...”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 11

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.

The theory of island biogeography was experimentally tested by E.O. Wilson and his student Daniel Simberloff in the mangrove islands in the Florida Keys. Species richness on several small mangroves islands were surveyed. The islands were fumigated with methyl bromide to clear their arthropod communities. Following fumigation the immigration of species onto the islands was monitored. Within a year, the islands had been recolonised. Islands closer to the mainland recovered faster and larger islands had more species at equilibrium as predicted by the Theory of Island Biogeography. The theory proposes that the number of species found on an undisturbed island is determined by: immigration, emigration and extinction. Immigration and emigration are affected by the distance of an island from a source of colonists. Usually this source is the mainland, but it can also be other islands. Islands that are more isolated are less likely to receive immigrants than islands that are less isolated.

The rate of extinction once a species manages to colonize an island is affected by island size. Larger islands contain larger habitat areas and opportunities for more different varieties of habitat. Larger habitat size reduces the probability of extinction due to chance events. Habitat heterogeneity increases the number of 5 species that will be successful after immigration.Over time, the countervailing forces of extinction and immigration result in an equilibrium level of species richness. Within a few years of the publishing of the theory its application to the field of conservation biology had been realised and was being vigorously debated in ecological circles. The realisation that reserves and national parks formed islands inside human-altered landscapes, and that these reserves could lose species as they 'relaxed towards equilibrium' caused a great deal of concern. This is particularly true when conserving larger species which tend to have larger ranges.

In the years after the publication of Wilson and Simberloff s papers ecologists had found more examples of the species-area relationship, and conservation planning was taking the view that the one large reserve could hold more species than several smaller reserves, and that larger reserves should be the norm in reserve design. Island biogeography theory also led to the development of habitat corridors as a conservation tool to increase connectivity between habitat islands. Habitat corridors can increase the movement of species between parks and reserves and therefore increase the number of species that can be supported.

Q.

Conservation biologists are likely to disagree with which of the following statements?

Solution:

The following extract, “The realisation that reserves and national parks formed islands inside human-altered landscapes, and that these reserves could lose species as they 'relaxed towards equilibrium' caused a great deal of concern. This is particularly true when conserving larger species which tend to have larger ranges” determines option 1 as being true and agreed upon by conservation biologists.

The statement in option 2 is one which the conservation biologists would agree with.

The following extract, “The theory of island biogeography was experimentally tested by E.O.Wilson and his student Daniel Simberloff in the mangrove islands in the Florida Keys” corroborates this.

The following extract, “...conservation planning was taking the view that the one large reserve could hold more species than several smaller reserves, and that larger reserves should be the norm in reserve design” corroborates option 4 as a statement that conservation biologists would agree with.

The statement in option 3 is one which the conservation biologists are likely to disagree with. It is mentioned in the passage that “these reserves could lose species as they 'relaxed towards equilibrium' caused a great deal of concern. This is particularly true when conserving larger species which tend to have larger ranges”. The clear implication that can be made from this extract is that larger species are in danger even in reserves which affords them larger ranges. What they need in order to flourish are “corridors” between parks that can facilitate increased mobility.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 12

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
India played a key role in establishing the Non-Aligned Movement in 1961. Though India pursued close relations with both USA and USSR, it decided not to join any major power bloc and refrained from joining military alliances. After the Sino-lndian War and the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, India made considerable changes to its foreign policy. It developed a close relationship with the Soviet Union and started receiving massive military equipment and financial assistance from the USSR. This had an adverse effect on the Indo-USA relationship. The United States saw Pakistan as a counter-weight to pro-Soviet India and started giving the former military assistance. This created an atmosphere of suspicion between India and USA. The USA-India relationship suffered a considerable setback during the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan when India openly supported the Soviet Union. Relations between India and the United States came to an all-time low during the early 1970s. Despite reports of atrocities in East Pakistan, and being told, most notably in the Blood telegram, of genocidal activities being perpetrated by Pakistani forces, U.S. Secretary of State Henry Kissinger and U.S. President Richard Nixon did nothing to discourage then Pakistani President Yahya Khan and the Pakistan Army. Kissinger was particularly concerned about Soviet expansion into South Asia as a result of a treaty of friendship that had recently been signed between India and the Soviet Union, and sought to demonstrate to the People’s Republic of China the value of a tacit alliance with the United States.

During the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971, Indian Armed Forces, along with the Mukti Bahini, succeeded in liberating East Pakistan which soon declared independence. Richard Nixon, then USA President, feared that an Indian invasion of West Pakistan would mean total Soviet domination of the region, and that it would seriously undermine the global position of the United States and the regional position of America’s new tacit ally, China. In order to demonstrate to China the bona fides of the United States as an ally, and in direct violation of the USA Congress-imposed sanctions on Pakistan, Nixon sent military supplies to Pakistan, routing them through Jordan and Iran, while also encouraging China to increase its arms supplies to Pakistan. When Pakistan’s defeat in the eastern sector seemed certain, Nixon sent the USS Enterprise to the Bay of Bengal, a move deemed by the Indians as a nuclear threat.

The Enterprise arrived on station on December 11, 1971. On 6 December and 13 December, the Soviet Navy dispatched two groups of ships, armed with nuclear missiles, from Vladivostok; they trailed U.S. Task Force 74 into the Indian Ocean from 18 December 1971 until 7 January 1972. The Soviets also sent a nuclear submarine to ward off the threat posed by USS Enterprise in the Indian Ocean. Though American efforts had no effect in turning the tide of the war, the incident involving USS Enterprise is viewed as the trigger for India’s subsequent nuclear program. American policy towards the end of the war was dictated primarily by a need to restrict the escalation of war on the western sector to prevent the ‘dismemberment’ of West Pakistan. Years after the war, many American writers criticized the White House policies during the war as being badly flawed and ill-serving the interests of the United States. India carried out nuclear tests a few years later resulting in sanctions being imposed by United States, further drifting the two countries apart. In recent years, Kissinger came under fire for comments made during the Indo-Pakistan War in which he described Indians as “bastards.” Kissinger has since expressed his regret over the comments.

Q.

Which of the following is TRUE as per the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is not true from, “American efforts had no effect in turning the tide of the war”.

Option 2 is not true from, “The Soviets also sent a nuclear submarine to ward off the threat posed by USS Enterprise in the Indian Ocean”.

The following extract, “It developed a close relationship with the Soviet Union and started receiving massive military equipment and financial assistance from the USSR. This had an adverse effect on the Indo-USA relationship” determines option 4 to be not true.

The passage states, “...despite reports of atrocities in East Pakistan, and being told, most notably in the Blood telegram, of genocidal activities being perpetrated by Pakistani forces, U.S. Secretary of State Henry Kissinger and U.S. President Richard Nixon did nothing to discourage then Pakistani President Yahya Khan and the Pakistan Army”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 13

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
India played a key role in establishing the Non-Aligned Movement in 1961. Though India pursued close relations with both USA and USSR, it decided not to join any major power bloc and refrained from joining military alliances. After the Sino-lndian War and the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, India made considerable changes to its foreign policy. It developed a close relationship with the Soviet Union and started receiving massive military equipment and financial assistance from the USSR. This had an adverse effect on the Indo-USA relationship. The United States saw Pakistan as a counter-weight to pro-Soviet India and started giving the former military assistance. This created an atmosphere of suspicion between India and USA. The USA-India relationship suffered a considerable setback during the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan when India openly supported the Soviet Union. Relations between India and the United States came to an all-time low during the early 1970s. Despite reports of atrocities in East Pakistan, and being told, most notably in the Blood telegram, of genocidal activities being perpetrated by Pakistani forces, U.S. Secretary of State Henry Kissinger and U.S. President Richard Nixon did nothing to discourage then Pakistani President Yahya Khan and the Pakistan Army. Kissinger was particularly concerned about Soviet expansion into South Asia as a result of a treaty of friendship that had recently been signed between India and the Soviet Union, and sought to demonstrate to the People’s Republic of China the value of a tacit alliance with the United States.

During the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971, Indian Armed Forces, along with the Mukti Bahini, succeeded in liberating East Pakistan which soon declared independence. Richard Nixon, then USA President, feared that an Indian invasion of West Pakistan would mean total Soviet domination of the region, and that it would seriously undermine the global position of the United States and the regional position of America’s new tacit ally, China. In order to demonstrate to China the bona fides of the United States as an ally, and in direct violation of the USA Congress-imposed sanctions on Pakistan, Nixon sent military supplies to Pakistan, routing them through Jordan and Iran, while also encouraging China to increase its arms supplies to Pakistan. When Pakistan’s defeat in the eastern sector seemed certain, Nixon sent the USS Enterprise to the Bay of Bengal, a move deemed by the Indians as a nuclear threat.

The Enterprise arrived on station on December 11, 1971. On 6 December and 13 December, the Soviet Navy dispatched two groups of ships, armed with nuclear missiles, from Vladivostok; they trailed U.S. Task Force 74 into the Indian Ocean from 18 December 1971 until 7 January 1972. The Soviets also sent a nuclear submarine to ward off the threat posed by USS Enterprise in the Indian Ocean. Though American efforts had no effect in turning the tide of the war, the incident involving USS Enterprise is viewed as the trigger for India’s subsequent nuclear program. American policy towards the end of the war was dictated primarily by a need to restrict the escalation of war on the western sector to prevent the ‘dismemberment’ of West Pakistan. Years after the war, many American writers criticized the White House policies during the war as being badly flawed and ill-serving the interests of the United States. India carried out nuclear tests a few years later resulting in sanctions being imposed by United States, further drifting the two countries apart. In recent years, Kissinger came under fire for comments made during the Indo-Pakistan War in which he described Indians as “bastards.” Kissinger has since expressed his regret over the comments.

Q.

Which of the following is FALSE according to the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 is true from, “It developed a close relationship with the Soviet Union and started receiving massive military equipment and financial assistance from the

USSR.” Option 2 is true. The following extract, “...and that it would seriously undermine the global position of the United States and the regional position of America's new tacit ally, China. In order to demonstrate to China the bonafides of the United States as an ally...” corroborates it.
Option 4 is true from, “....the incident involving USS Enterprise is viewed as the trigger for India's subsequent nuclear program and India carried out nuclear tests a few years later”.

It is mentioned in the passage that the US sent military aid to Pakistan despite the sanctions- “Nixon sent military supplies to Pakistan, routing them through Jordan and Iran”.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 14

A passage is followed by questions pertaining to the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions. Choose the most appropriate answer.
India played a key role in establishing the Non-Aligned Movement in 1961. Though India pursued close relations with both USA and USSR, it decided not to join any major power bloc and refrained from joining military alliances. After the Sino-lndian War and the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, India made considerable changes to its foreign policy. It developed a close relationship with the Soviet Union and started receiving massive military equipment and financial assistance from the USSR. This had an adverse effect on the Indo-USA relationship. The United States saw Pakistan as a counter-weight to pro-Soviet India and started giving the former military assistance. This created an atmosphere of suspicion between India and USA. The USA-India relationship suffered a considerable setback during the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan when India openly supported the Soviet Union. Relations between India and the United States came to an all-time low during the early 1970s. Despite reports of atrocities in East Pakistan, and being told, most notably in the Blood telegram, of genocidal activities being perpetrated by Pakistani forces, U.S. Secretary of State Henry Kissinger and U.S. President Richard Nixon did nothing to discourage then Pakistani President Yahya Khan and the Pakistan Army. Kissinger was particularly concerned about Soviet expansion into South Asia as a result of a treaty of friendship that had recently been signed between India and the Soviet Union, and sought to demonstrate to the People’s Republic of China the value of a tacit alliance with the United States.

During the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971, Indian Armed Forces, along with the Mukti Bahini, succeeded in liberating East Pakistan which soon declared independence. Richard Nixon, then USA President, feared that an Indian invasion of West Pakistan would mean total Soviet domination of the region, and that it would seriously undermine the global position of the United States and the regional position of America’s new tacit ally, China. In order to demonstrate to China the bona fides of the United States as an ally, and in direct violation of the USA Congress-imposed sanctions on Pakistan, Nixon sent military supplies to Pakistan, routing them through Jordan and Iran, while also encouraging China to increase its arms supplies to Pakistan. When Pakistan’s defeat in the eastern sector seemed certain, Nixon sent the USS Enterprise to the Bay of Bengal, a move deemed by the Indians as a nuclear threat.

The Enterprise arrived on station on December 11, 1971. On 6 December and 13 December, the Soviet Navy dispatched two groups of ships, armed with nuclear missiles, from Vladivostok; they trailed U.S. Task Force 74 into the Indian Ocean from 18 December 1971 until 7 January 1972. The Soviets also sent a nuclear submarine to ward off the threat posed by USS Enterprise in the Indian Ocean. Though American efforts had no effect in turning the tide of the war, the incident involving USS Enterprise is viewed as the trigger for India’s subsequent nuclear program. American policy towards the end of the war was dictated primarily by a need to restrict the escalation of war on the western sector to prevent the ‘dismemberment’ of West Pakistan. Years after the war, many American writers criticized the White House policies during the war as being badly flawed and ill-serving the interests of the United States. India carried out nuclear tests a few years later resulting in sanctions being imposed by United States, further drifting the two countries apart. In recent years, Kissinger came under fire for comments made during the Indo-Pakistan War in which he described Indians as “bastards.” Kissinger has since expressed his regret over the comments.

Q.

Which of the following terms has not been mentioned in the passage?

Solution:

Option 1 has been mentioned in, “On 6 December and 13 December, the Soviet Navy dispatched two groups of ships, armed with nuclear missiles, from Vladivostok; they trailed U.S. Task Force 74 into the Indian Ocean from 18 December 1971 until 7 January 1972”.

Option 2 has been mentioned in, “During the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971, Indian Armed Forces, along with the Mukti Bahini, succeeded in liberating East Pakistan which soon declared independence”.

Option 4 has been mentioned in, “Despite reports of atrocities in East Pakistan, and being told, most notably in the Blood telegram, of genocidal activities being perpetrated by Pakistani forces...”.
The term “Cold War” has not been mentioned anywhere in the passage.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 15

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
A Lodge (often termed a Private Lodge or Constituent Lodge in Masonic constitutions) is the basic organisational unit of Freemasonry. Every new Lodge must have a Warrant or Charter issued by a Grand Lodge, authorising it to meet and work. Except for the very few “time immemorial” Lodges pre-dating the formation of a Grand Lodge, masons who meet as a Lodge without displaying this document (for example, in prisoner-of-war camps) are deemed “Clandestine” and irregular. A Lodge must hold regular meetings at a fixed place and published dates.
It will elect, initiate and promote its members and officers; it will build up and manage its property and assets, including its minutes and records; and it may own, occupy or share its premises. Like any organisation, it will have formal business to manage its meetings and proceedings, annual general meetings and committees, charity funds, correspondence and reports, membership and subscriptions, accounts and tax returns, special events and catering, and so forth. The balance of activities is individual to each Lodge, and under their common constitutions and forms of procedure, Lodges evolve very distinctive traditions. A man can only be initiated, or made a Mason, in a Lodge, of which he may often remain a subscribing member for life. A Master Mason can generally visit any Lodge meeting under any jurisdiction in Amity with his own, and as well as the formal meeting, a Lodge may well offer hospitality. A visitor should first check the regularity of that Lodge, and must be able to satisfy that Lodge of his own regularity; and he may be refused admission if adjudged likely to disrupt the harmony of the Lodge. If he wishes to visit the same Lodge repeatedly, he may be expected to join it and pay a subscription.
Most Lodges consist of Freemasons living or working within a given town or neighbourhood. Other Lodges are composed of Masons with a particular shared interest, profession or background. Shared schools, universities, military units, Masonic appointments or degrees, arts, professions and hobbies have all been the qualifications for such Lodges. In some Lodges, the foundation and name may now be only of historic interest, as over time the membership evolves beyond that envisaged by its “founding brethren”; in others, the membership remains exclusive. There are also specialist Lodges of Research, with membership drawn

from Master Masons only, with interests in Masonic Research (of history, philosophy, etc.). Lodges of Research are fully warranted but, generally, do not initiate new candidates. Lodges of Instruction in UGLE may be warranted by any ordinary Lodge for the learning and rehearsal of Masonic Ritual. Freemasons correctly meet as a Lodge, not in a Lodge, the word “Lodge” referring more to the people assembled than the place of assembly. However, in common usage, Masonic premises are often referred to as “Lodges”. Masonic buildings are also sometimes called “Temples” (“of Philosophy and the Arts”). In many countries, Masonic Centre or Hall has replaced Temple to avoid arousing prejudice and suspicion. Several different Lodges, as well as other Masonic or non-Masonic organisations, often use the same premises at different times.
According to Masonic tradition, medieval European stonemasons would meet, eat, and shelter outside working hours in a Lodge on the southern side of a building site, where the sun warms the stones during the day. The social Festive Board (or Social Board) part of the meeting is thus sometimes called the South. Early Lodges often met in a tavern or any other convenient fixed place with a private room. Every Masonic Lodge elects certain officers to execute the necessary functions of the lodge’s work. The Worshipful Master (essentially the lodge President) is always an elected officer. Most jurisdictions will also elect the Senior and Junior Wardens (Vice Presidents), the Secretary and the Treasurer. All lodges will have a Tyler, or Tiler, (who guards the door to the lodge room while the lodge is in session), sometimes elected and sometimes appointed by the Master. In addition to these elected officers, lodges will have various appointed officers- such as Deacons, Stewards, and a Chaplain (appointed to lead a non-denominational prayer at the convocation of meetings or activities- often, but not necessarily, a clergyman). The specific offices and their functions vary between jurisdictions.

Q. 

Which of the following is TRUE?

Solution:

Option 1 can be eliminated as it is said that a Mason may choose a Lodge based on area or special interests etc.

Option 2 can be eliminated as the passage is silent about the architectural aspects of lodges.

Option 4 can be eliminated. Although some of the Lodges are called Temples, there is no mention about whether the Lodges look like them structurally.

Option 3 is correct, as the passage mentions that a Lodge is not just the place but also a collection of Masons. The following extract, “Freemasons correctly meet as a Lodge, not in a Lodge, the word ‘Lodge’ referring more to the people assembled than the place of assembly. However, in common usage, Masonic premises are often referred to as ‘Lodges’”, validates option 3.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

QUESTION: 16

The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

A Lodge (often termed a Private Lodge or Constituent Lodge in Masonic constitutions) is the basic organisational unit of Freemasonry. Every new Lodge must have a Warrant or Charter issued by a Grand Lodge, authorising it to meet and work. Except for the very few “time immemorial” Lodges pre-dating the formation of a Grand Lodge, masons who meet as a Lodge without displaying this document (for example, in prisoner-of-war camps) are deemed “Clandestine” and irregular. A Lodge must hold regular meetings at a fixed place and published dates.

It will elect, initiate and promote its members and officers; it will build up and manage its property and assets, including its minutes and records; and it may own, occupy or share its premises. Like any organisation, it will have formal business to manage its meetings and proceedings, annual general meetings and committees, charity funds, correspondence and reports, membership and subscriptions, accounts and tax returns, special events and catering, and so forth. The balance of activities is individual to each Lodge, and under their common constitutions and forms of procedure, Lodges evolve very distinctive traditions. A man can only be initiated, or made a Mason, in a Lodge, of which he may often remain a subscribing member for life. A Master Mason can generally visit any Lodge meeting under any jurisdiction in Amity with his own, and as well as the formal meeting, a Lodge may well offer hospitality. A visitor should first check the regularity of that Lodge, and must be able to satisfy that Lodge of his own regularity; and he may be refused admission if adjudged likely to disrupt the harmony of the Lodge. If he wishes to visit the same Lodge repeatedly, he may be expected to join it and pay a subscription.

Most Lodges consist of Freemasons living or working within a given town or neighbourhood. Other Lodges are composed of Masons with a particular shared interest, profession or background. Shared schools, universities, military units, Masonic appointments or degrees, arts, professions and hobbies have all been the qualifications for such Lodges. In some Lodges, the foundation and name may now be only of historic interest, as over time the membership evolves beyond that envisaged by its “founding brethren”; in others, the membership remains exclusive. There are also specialist Lodges of Research, with membership drawn from Master Masons only, with interests in Masonic Research (of history, philosophy, etc.). Lodges of Research are fully warranted but, generally, do not initiate new candidates. Lodges of Instruction in UGLE may be warranted by any ordinary Lodge for the learning and rehearsal of Masonic Ritual. Freemasons correctly meet as a Lodge, not in a Lodge, the word “Lodge” referring more to the people assembled than the place of assembly. However, in common usage, Masonic premises are often referred to as “Lodges”. Masonic buildings are also sometimes called “Temples” (“of Philosophy and the Arts”). In many countries, Masonic Centre or Hall has replaced Temple to avoid arousing prejudice and suspicion. Several different Lodges, as well as other Masonic or non-Masonic organisations, often use the same premises at different times.
According to Masonic tradition, medieval European stonemasons would meet, eat, and shelter outside working hours in a Lodge on the southern side of a building site, where the sun warms the stones during the day. The social Festive Board (or Social Board) part of the meeting is thus sometimes called the South. Early Lodges often met in a tavern or any other convenient fixed place with a private room. Every Masonic Lodge elects certain officers to execute the necessary functions of the lodge’s work. The Worshipful Master (essentially the lodge President) is always an elected officer. Most jurisdictions will also elect the Senior and Junior Wardens (Vice Presidents), the Secretary and the Treasurer. All lodges will have a Tyler, or Tiler, (who guards the door to the lodge room while the lodge is in session), sometimes elected and sometimes appointed by the Master. In addition to these elected officers, lodges will have various appointed officers- such as Deacons, Stewards, and a Chaplain (appointed to lead a non-denominational prayer at the convocation of meetings or activities- often, but not necessarily, a clergyman). The specific offices and their functions vary between jurisdictions.

Q. 

Which of the following is FALSE?

Solution:

The following extract, “According to Masonic tradition, medieval European stonemasons would meet, eat, and shelter outside working hours in a Lodge” validates option 2 to be true.

The following extract, “Several different Lodges, as well as other Masonic or non-Masonic organisations, often use the same premises at different times” validates option 3 to be true.

The following extract, “Lodges evolve very distinctive traditions”, determines option 4 to be true.

The following extract,“A Lodge must hold regular meetings at a fixed place and published dates” determines option 1 to be False.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

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