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Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) UPSC Polity and MCQs & solutions


MCQ Practice Test & Solutions: Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) (25 Questions)

You can prepare effectively for UPSC Polity and Constitution (Prelims) by IAS Masters with this dedicated MCQ Practice Test (available with solutions) on the important topic of "Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1)". These 25 questions have been designed by the experts with the latest curriculum of UPSC 2026, to help you master the concept.

Test Highlights:

  • - Format: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
  • - Duration: 30 minutes
  • - Number of Questions: 25

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Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 1
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The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because

Detailed Solution: Question 1

Explanation:

The Preamble declares that it is the people of India who had enacted, adopted and given the Constitution to themselves. Thus, sovereignty lies ultimately with the people. It also declares the ideals and aspirations of the people that need to be achieved.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 2
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Which among the following Union Territory had a Judicial Commissioner’s Court?

Detailed Solution: Question 2

Before Goa, Daman and Diu became part of India, a Tribunal the Relacao was highest court in these territories. In 1963, this Tribunal the Relacao was abolished and a court of judicial commissioner was established under Goa Daman and Diu (Judicial Commissioner’s Court) Regulation 1963. The Judicial Commissioner’s Court was the highest court of appeal and revision for the Union Territory. In 1981, the parliament passed High Court of Bombay (Extension of Jurisdiction to Goa Daman and Diu) Act, 1981 act to extend the Jurisdiction of High Court at Bombay to Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu and abolish the then existing court of Judicial Commissioner.

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Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 3
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Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of Rule of law, Parliamentary system and law- making procedure?

Detailed Solution: Question 3

Explanation:

We have borrowed following features from the British Constitution:

  • Parliamentary form of government
  • The idea of single citizenship
  • The idea of the Rule of law
  • Institution of Speaker and his role
  • Lawmaking procedure
  • Procedure established by Law

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 4
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Which of the following have not been borrowed from Australian Constitution:

Detailed Solution: Question 4

Answer: b

Explanation:

Emergency provisions u/a 356 have been taken from Weimar Constitution of Germany.

 

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 5
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The chairman of the Drafting Committee was

Detailed Solution: Question 5

Answer: b

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 6
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Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance”?

Detailed Solution: Question 6

Answer: c

Explanation:
Article 355 states, “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution”.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 7
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Which of the following is not a ground to discriminate against any citizen

Detailed Solution: Question 7

Which of the following is not a ground to discriminate against any citizen


The correct answer is B: None. Discrimination on any grounds is not acceptable.
Explanation:

Discrimination is the unfair treatment or prejudice against individuals or groups based on certain characteristics. However, there are certain grounds on which discrimination is not acceptable and should not be practiced. In this case, the question is asking which of the following is NOT a ground for discrimination against any citizen. Let's analyze each option:



A: Religion

Religion should not be a ground for discrimination. Discriminating against someone based on their religious beliefs is a violation of their freedom of religion and goes against principles of equality and human rights.



B: None

This option suggests that there is no ground for discrimination against any citizen. Discrimination should not be practiced on any grounds, so this is the correct answer.



C: Caste

Caste discrimination is prevalent in some societies, particularly in South Asia. However, it is important to note that caste should not be a ground for discrimination. Discriminating against someone based on their caste is a form of social inequality and goes against principles of equality and social justice.



D: Place of birth

Discrimination based on a person's place of birth is also not acceptable. People should not be treated differently or face prejudice based on where they were born. Everyone should have equal opportunities and rights regardless of their place of birth.


In conclusion, the correct answer is B: None. Discrimination on any grounds is not acceptable, and all individuals should be treated with equality and respect.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 8
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Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

Detailed Solution: Question 8

Answer: d

Explanation: Tenth Schedule contains Anti-Defection provisions for Members of Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures (which were added by 52nd Constitution Amendment Act in 1985).

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 9
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According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

Detailed Solution: Question 9

Answer: c

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 10
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Consider the following statements:

  1. National Development Council is not an organ of the NITI Commission.
  2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
  3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of place for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 10

NDC is not an ‘organ’ of NITI commission. It is an advisory body that approves the Five year plans. Economic and social planning is under Concurrent list. Constitution provides voluntary provisions for devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 11
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The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the States are submitted to which among the following?

Detailed Solution: Question 11

Article 151. Audit Reports :-
(1) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
(2) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before the Legislature of the State.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 12
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Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

Detailed Solution: Question 12

Special Powers of the Rajya Sabha conferred by the Constitution of India:
A: To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
- The Rajya Sabha has the power to change the existing territory of a state or change the name of a state through the process of constitutional amendment.
B: To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
- The Rajya Sabha has the power to amend the election procedure of the President, such as the manner of election, qualifications, and disqualifications. It also has the authority to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement.
C: To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
- The Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List, which is otherwise within the exclusive domain of the State Legislatures. It also has the power to create one or more All India Services, which are common to both the Union and the States.
D: To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
- The Rajya Sabha has the power to determine the functions of the Election Commission, which is responsible for conducting elections in the country. It also has the authority to determine the number of Election Commissioners.
In conclusion, the special powers conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India include the ability to change the territory and name of a state, amend the election procedure of the President, pass resolutions empowering Parliament to make laws in the State List and create All India Services, and determine the functions and number of Election Commissioners.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 13
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The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

Detailed Solution: Question 13

The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the Government of India Act, 1935.
The Government of India Act, 1935, was a significant constitutional enactment that provided the framework for the governance of India. The distribution of powers between the Centre (Union Government) and the States was one of the key aspects addressed in this act.
The distribution of powers is based on the following scheme:
1. Federal Structure: The act introduced a federal structure in India, dividing powers between the Central Government and the Provincial Governments. This federal structure was later adopted in the Indian Constitution.
2. Three Lists: The act provided for three lists - the Federal List, the Provincial List, and the Concurrent List. These lists outlined the subjects on which the Centre and the States have the power to make laws.
3. Federal List: The Federal List included subjects of national importance such as defense, foreign affairs, currency, and communication. The Central Government has exclusive authority to legislate on these matters.
4. Provincial List: The Provincial List included subjects of local or regional importance such as police, public health, agriculture, and local government. The State Governments have exclusive authority to legislate on these matters.
5. Concurrent List: The Concurrent List included subjects on which both the Centre and the States can make laws. This list includes subjects like criminal law, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy and insolvency, and education. Both the Centre and the States have the power to legislate on these matters, but in case of a conflict, the Central law prevails.
6. Residuary Powers: The act also provided for residuary powers, which were vested in the Centre. These are the powers that are not explicitly mentioned in any of the lists and are therefore within the domain of the Central Government.
7. Unitary Features: Although the act introduced a federal structure, it also included certain unitary features that gave the Centre overriding powers in certain circumstances. For example, the Centre had the power to legislate on any subject in the national interest, even if it falls in the State List.
Overall, the distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the Government of India Act, 1935. The act laid the foundation for the federal structure and the division of legislative powers in the Indian Constitution.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 14
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The constituent Assembly was set up in:

Detailed Solution: Question 14

The constituent Assembly was set up in:


Answer: B. 1946


Explanation:



  • Background:


    • The Constituent Assembly of India was established to draft the Constitution of India.

    • It was formed as a result of the negotiations between the Indian National Congress and the British Cabinet Mission.


  • Formation:


    • The Constituent Assembly was set up on 9th December 1946.

    • Its members were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial legislatures.

    • The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was initially 389, but later it was reduced to 299.


  • Objective:


    • The main objective of the Constituent Assembly was to draft and adopt a constitution for independent India.

    • It aimed to establish a sovereign, democratic, and republican system of government.


  • Work and Achievements:


    • The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on 9th December 1946 and continued its work till 26th November 1949.

    • During this period, it debated and deliberated on various issues and provisions of the future constitution.

    • On 26th November 1949, the Constitution of India was finally adopted by the Constituent Assembly.

    • The Constitution came into effect on 26th January 1950, marking the birth of the Republic of India.



Thus, the Constituent Assembly was set up in 1946 to draft the Constitution of India.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 15
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The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

Detailed Solution: Question 15


The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its original jurisdiction. Let's break down the details:
Original Jurisdiction:
- The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court refers to cases that are presented to the Court for the first time.
- In this jurisdiction, the Supreme Court has the power to hear and decide on disputes directly, without the need for any other court to have previously heard the case.
- The Supreme Court can exercise its original jurisdiction in cases where there is a dispute between the Centre (Union Government) and the States of India.
- This power is derived from Article 131 of the Constitution of India, which grants the Supreme Court the authority to adjudicate disputes of this nature.
It is important to note that the other options mentioned in the question are not applicable in this context:
- Advisory jurisdiction refers to the power of the Supreme Court to provide opinions or advice on legal questions referred to it by the President of India.
- Appellate jurisdiction refers to the power of the Supreme Court to hear appeals from lower courts.
- Writ jurisdiction refers to the power of the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
Hence, the correct answer is C: original jurisdiction.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 16
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Which of the following is / are the function / functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
  2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below

Detailed Solution: Question 16

Function of the Cabinet Secretariat:
The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for providing administrative and secretarial support to the Cabinet and its committees. The functions of the Cabinet Secretariat include:

  1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings: The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for preparing the agenda for Cabinet meetings. This involves identifying the key issues and topics that need to be discussed and deciding the order in which they will be addressed.

  2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees: The Cabinet Secretariat provides secretarial assistance to the various Cabinet committees. This includes organizing meetings, preparing minutes, and ensuring that the decisions taken by the committees are implemented effectively.

  3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries: The Cabinet Secretariat plays a role in the allocation of financial resources to the various ministries. This involves coordinating with the Ministry of Finance and other relevant departments to ensure that the budgetary allocations are in line with the government's priorities.


Correct Answer: The correct answer is option C: 1 and 2 only.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 17
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Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both? 

Detailed Solution: Question 17

Authority to initiate the process for determining forest rights:
The authority responsible for initiating the process of determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 is the Gram Sabha.
Explanation:
The Gram Sabha, which is the village assembly consisting of all adult members of a village, is given the authority to initiate the process for determining forest rights. The Gram Sabha plays a crucial role in the recognition and vesting of forest rights by conducting meetings, consultations, and discussions with the concerned individuals or communities.
The key points to remember are:
1. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, aims to recognize and vest the forest rights of tribal and other traditional forest-dwelling communities.
2. The Act recognizes individual as well as community forest rights.
3. The Gram Sabha, being the lowest level of self-government at the village level, is empowered to initiate the process for determining these forest rights.
4. The Gram Sabha conducts meetings and consultations to gather information and evidence regarding the nature and extent of forest rights claimed by individuals or communities.
5. The Gram Sabha then submits its recommendations and findings to the Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC) or District Level Committee (DLC), which ultimately makes the final decision on the recognition and vesting of forest rights.
Therefore, option D - Gram Sabha, is the correct answer.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 18
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‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in          

Detailed Solution: Question 18


The objective of "Economic Justice" in the Indian Constitution is provided in the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Explanation:
- The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lays down the guiding principles and objectives of the Constitution. It includes the idea of securing economic justice among other goals.
- The Directive Principles of State Policy are mentioned in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. These principles provide guidelines for the government to establish social and economic democracy in the country. They aim to achieve economic justice by ensuring fair distribution of wealth, resources, and opportunities.
Therefore, the correct answer is B: the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 19
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In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

  1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
  2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy the confidence of Lok Sabha.
  3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 19

Features of parliamentary government include Nominal and real executives. President is head of the state and PM is head of the government. Art. 74 provides for council of ministers headed by PM who is head of government. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect. Thus Answer A is right.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 20
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Consider the following statements

  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the Legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Choose the correct code:

Detailed Solution: Question 20

An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. The Bill must then be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.

If the amendment seeks to make any change in any of the provisions mentioned in the provision to article 368, it must be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States. Each usually has the long title "An Act further to amend the Constitution of India".

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 21
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Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

  1. Directive Principles of State Policy
  2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
  3. Fifth Schedule
  4. Sixth Schedule
  5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Detailed Solution: Question 21

The correct option is Option B.

Directive principle of state policy Article 45 states that the state shall endeavour to promote free education until they attain 14 years within ten years from the commencement of constitution .Education is included in 7th schedule as concurrent list.73rd and 74 th amendment gave rights to panchayats and municipalities to administer educational institutions.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 22
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According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

  1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
  2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
  3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
  4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Detailed Solution: Question 22

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament the following:
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission.
2. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
3. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
Therefore, the correct answer is option C: 1, 3, and 4 only.
Explanation:
- The Union Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends the distribution of financial resources between the Union government and the States. The President is responsible for laying its recommendations before Parliament.
- The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is an independent constitutional authority responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments. The President is required to lay the CAG's report before Parliament.
- The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body that safeguards the rights and interests of Scheduled Castes. The President is obligated to lay its report before Parliament.
These reports are important for transparency, accountability, and effective functioning of the government.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 23
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Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts

  1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
  2. Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
  3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 23


The correct answer is option B: 2 and 3 only. Let's analyze each statement to understand why.
Statement 1: The statement is incorrect. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts consists of Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. It is not limited to a maximum of 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
Statement 2: The statement is correct. The main function of the Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts is to scrutinize the appropriation and finance accounts of the Government. This committee ensures that the allocated funds are being utilized properly and in accordance with the approved budget.
Statement 3: The statement is also correct. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Government and preparing the audit report. The committee reviews this report and takes necessary action based on its findings.
In summary, only statements 2 and 3 are correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option B: 2 and 3 only.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 24
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Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

  1. The Finance Commission
  2. The National Development Council
  3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
  4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
  5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution: Question 24

Planning in India:
The following entities are associated with planning in India:

  1. The Finance Commission: The Finance Commission is responsible for recommending the distribution of financial resources between the central government and the state governments. It plays a crucial role in the planning process by allocating funds for various developmental activities.

  2. The National Development Council: The National Development Council (NDC) is the apex body for decision-making in matters related to planning and development in India. It consists of the Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all states, and other members. The NDC provides a platform for discussion and coordination between the central and state governments regarding development plans and policies.

  3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development: The Ministry of Rural Development is responsible for the planning and implementation of programs and schemes aimed at the development of rural areas in India. It formulates policies related to rural development, poverty alleviation, and employment generation in rural areas.

  4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development: The Ministry of Urban Development is responsible for the planning and development of urban areas in India. It formulates policies and programs related to urban infrastructure, housing, transport, and urban governance.

  5. The Parliament: The Parliament of India plays a crucial role in the planning process. It debates and approves the annual budget, which includes allocations for various developmental activities. The Parliament also discusses and deliberates on policies and legislation related to planning and development.


Therefore, the correct answer is option C: 2 and 5 only.

Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) - Question 25
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Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
  2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Detailed Solution: Question 25

Explanation: Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

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This test contains 25 MCQs on Indian Constitution - MCQ Online Test (1) with detailed solutions for each question. It is part of the Polity and Constitution (Prelims) by IAS Masters course on EduRev, designed to align with the current UPSC syllabus. Each solution explains not just the correct answer but also gives you an understanding of the topic — not just to attempt the question but also help you prepare for the exam with practice.

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