Jharkhand (JSSC) PRT Paper III Mock Test - 2 - Jharkhand (JSSC) PRT/TGT MCQ

The correct answer is option 2

• The Swarnarekha River originates near Ranchi, the capital of Jharkhand.
• It flows from the three states Jharkhand, West Bengal, Orissa.
• The Swarnarekha River join the bay of Bengal near Orissa.
• Jamshedpur city is on the banks of the Swarnarekha River.
• The Swarnarekha River is called an organic desert.
• Vaitarni river flows the Southside of Swarnarekha River.

The correct answer is Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha.

• The procedure for the nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha is borrowed from Ireland.

Key Points

• Canadian Constitution:
  • Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
  • A federal system with a strong center.
  • Residual powers vest at the center.
  • Appointment of State Governors.

Additional Information

Sources of Indian Constitution

In our solar system, all the planets have natural satellites except Mercury and Venus.

Key Points

• Venus and the planet Mercury are the only two planets that don't have a single natural moon orbiting them.
• Mercury is the first planet from the sun in the solar system as well as the smallest planet among the eight planets.
• Named after the Roman god Mercury, the planet also has the shortest orbital period around the sun due to its closeness to the sun.
• As stated earlier, the planet does not have any known natural satellites.
• Just like Mercury, Venus also does not have any known natural satellites.
• Venus is the second innermost planet from the sun in the solar system.
• The planet has an orbital period of about 243 days although its orbital direction is unlike most of the other planets.

Hence, the correct answer is Mercury and Venus.

Important Points

• Satellite
  • A satellite is an object that moves around a larger object. But usually, when someone says satellite, they are talking about a man-made satellite.
  • Man-made satellites are machines made by people. These machines are launched into space and orbit Earth or another body in space. Ex - Moon, sputnik -1, etc.
• Natural Satellite
  • A natural satellite is an object that orbits a planet or other body larger than itself and which is not man-made. Ex- Earth has a moon as a natural satellite.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Bhalchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat

Key Points:

• The first recipients of the award were Bhalchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat (Wrestling), Om Prakash Bhardwaj (Boxing), and O. M. Nambiar (Athletics), who was honored in 1985.

Additional Information:

• ‘The Dronacharya Award for Outstanding Coaches in Sports and Games’ is given to coaches for doing outstanding and meritorious work on a consistent basis and for enabling sportspersons to excel in International events.
• List of the Winners(Regular Category):
  • Lalit Kumar - Wrestling
  • R. B. Ramesh - Chess
  • Mahaveer Prasad Saini - Para Athletics
  • Shivendra Singh - Hockey
  • Ganesh Prabhakar Devrukhkar - Mallakhamb
• Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement 2023 Winners:
  • ​Manjusha Kanwar - Badminton
  • Vineet Kumar Sharma - Hockey
  • Kavitha Selvaraj - Kabaddi
• Dronacharya Award-2023 (Lifetime Category) Winner:
  • Jaskirat Singh Grewal (Golf)
  • Bhaskaran E (Kabaddi)
  • Jayant Kumar Pushilal (Table Tennis)

The correct answer is Communal representation

Key Points

• The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931.
• Gandhi represented Indian National Congress and Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women.
• In this conference, Gandhi and Ambedkar differed on the issue of separate electorates for the untouchables.
• The second round table conference was deemed a failure because of the many disagreements among the participants.

Additional Information

• The three Round Table Conferences of 1930–1932 were a series of peace conferences organized by the British Government and Indian political personalities to discuss constitutional reforms in India.
• These started in November 1930 and ended in December 1932.
• B. R. Ambedkar, Jinnah, Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri, Sir Muhammad Zafrulla Khan, K. T. Paul, and Mirabehn were key participants from India.
• According to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji participated only in the Second Round Table Conference.

The correct answer is Major Leslie .

Key Points

• Major Leslie British Army Major was first killed in the course of the revolt of 1857.
• On 12th June 1857, there was the first outbreak of the movement at Rohini in Santhal Parganas, the Headquarters of the 5th Irregular Cavalry under Major MacDonald.
• Three troopers attacked Lt. Sir (Sergeant) Norman Leslie, the Adjutant, and the Assistant Surgeon Mr Grant Leslie was killed and other two were wounded, but Mac-Donald ruthlessly suppressed the rising and inflicted horrible punishment on the three troopers on the 16th June 1857.
• Soon the headquarters of the regiment was shifted to Bhagalpur from Rohini.

Additional Information

• Major facts related to the Revolt of 1857 and Jharkhand.
• The Revolt of 1857 in Jharkhand began on 12 June 1857 with a mutiny of soldiers in Rohini village of Deoghar district .
• In this village was the 32nd Regiment of the Army under the leadership of Major McDonald , whose three soldiers revolted and killed Lieutenant Norman Leslie .
• The main centres of the Revolt of 1857 were Hazaribagh, Ranchi, the valley of Chutupalu, Chatra , Palamu and Chaibasa .
• On July 30, the soldiers of Hazaribagh and Ramgarh revolted, but its main center became Ranchi.
• In the rebellion of 1857, Thakur Vishwanath Shahdev of Ranchi, Tikait Umraon Singh, Pandey Ganpat Rai, Sheikh Bhikhari, Jagat Lal Singh of Hazaribagh, Jamadar Madhav Singh of Ramgarh Battalion, Jaymangal Pandey and Nadir Ali of Doranda Battalion.
• Raja Arjun Singh of Podahat (Singhbhum), Chero Sardar Bhavani Rai of Vishrampur, Nilambar and Pitambar of Palamu and many other leaders played an important role.

The correct answer is Kerala.

• Kerala has the highest literacy rate (94 percent) in India, as per the 2011 Census.
• The literacy rate in India in 2011 has increased by 8 percent to 73 percent in comparison to 64.8 percent in 2001.
• The male literacy rate stands at 80.9 percent which is 5.6 percent more than the previous census, the female literacy rate stands at 64.6 percent an increase of 10.9 percent than 2001.

Key Points

• The highest literacy increase took place in Dadra and Nagar Haveli by 18.6 points (from 57.6 percent to 76.2 percent), Bihar by 14.8 points (from 47.0 percent to 61.8 percent), Tripura by 14.0 points (from 73.2 percent to 87.2 percent).
• Improvement in female literacy is higher than males in all states and UTs.

Important Points

• The top five states and UTs, where the literacy rate is the highest are:
  • Kerala (94 percent).
  • Lakshadweep (91.8 percent).
  • Mizoram (91.3 percent).
  • Goa (88.7 percent).
  • Tripura (87.2 percent).
• The bottom five states and UTs are:
  • Bihar (61.8 percent).
  • Arunachal Pradesh (65.4 percent).
  • Rajasthan (66.1 percent).
  • Jharkhand (66.4 percent).
  • Andhra Pradesh (67 percent).

The correct answer is Horticulture and Honey.

Key Points

• The Golden Revolution is related to Horticulture and Honey.
• It started in 1991 and lasted till 2003.
• Father of Golden Revolution: Nirpakh Tutaj.
• The Golden Fibre Revolution is related to Jute Production.

Additional Information

According to archaeologists during the Paleolithic period, 'factory sites' were places where stones were found and people made tools.

Key Points

• Archaeologists have found some of the things hunter-gatherers made and used.
• It is likely that people made and used tools of stone, wood and bone, of which stone tools have survived best.
• Some of these stone tools were used to cut meat and bone, scrape bark (from trees) and hides (animal skins), chop fruit and roots.
• Some may have been attached to handles of bone or wood, to make spears and arrows for hunting.
• Other tools were used to chop wood, which was used as firewood.
• As stone tools were important during the Paleolithic period, people tried to find places where good quality stone was easily available.
• Places where stone was found and where people made tools are known as factory sites.
• Usually, we find blocks of stone, tools that were made and perhaps discarded because they were not perfect, and chips of waste stone left behind at these sites.
• Sometimes, people lived here for longer spells of time.

• These sites are called habitation-cum-factory sites.

Hence, we can conclude that according to archaeologists during the Paleolithic period, 'factory sites' were places where stones were found and people made tools.

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya.

Key Points

• Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire in 322 BCE when he conquered the kingdom of Magadha and the northwestern Macedonian satrapies.
  • Maurya Empire was founded in 322 BCE by Chandragupta Maurya, who had overthrown the Nanda Dynasty and rapidly expanded his power westward across central and western India in order to take advantage of the disruptions of local powers in the wake of the withdrawal by Alexander the Great‘s armies.
  • According to legend, the teacher Chanakya convinced his disciple, Chandragupta Maurya, to conquer the kingdom of Magadha (the Nanda Empire) when he was insulted by its king Dhana Nanda.
  • Chandragupta Maurya expanded the Maurya Empire north and west as he conquered the Macedonian Satrapies and won the Seleucid-Mauryan war.

Additional Information

• According to several legends, Chanakya traveled to Magadha, a kingdom that was large and militarily powerful and feared by its neighbors but was insulted by its king Dhana Nanda, of the Nanda Dynasty.
  • Chanakya swore revenge and vowed to destroy the Nanda Empire.
  • Maurya devised a strategy to invade Pataliputra, the capital of the Nanda Empire.
  • A battle was announced and the Magadhan army was drawn from the city to a distant battlefield in order to engage Maurya’s forces.

The correct answer is Qutbuddin Aybak.

• The first floor was constructed by Qutbuddin Aybak and the rest by Iltutmish around 1229.​

Key Points

• Qutb Minar:
  • The Qutb Minar is five stories high.
  • It is a 73 m-high tower of victory and the world's largest brick minaret in the world.
  • Qutab-ud-din Aibak started the construction of Qutb Minar in 1193.
  • The band of inscriptions you see is under its first balcony.
  • Iltutmish completed the construction of Qutb Minar.
  • Over the years it was damaged by lightning and earthquakes and repaired by Alauddin Khalji, Muhammad Tughluq, Firuz Shah Tughluq, and Ibrahim Lodi.
  • Qutab Minar is a minaret and "victory tower" that forms part of the Qutb complex.
  • It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site in the Mehrauli area of New Delhi, India.
  • It is one of the most visited tourist spots in the city due to it being one of the earliest that survives in the Indian subcontinent.

The Quit India Movement is also known as the August Movement.

• The Japanese had reached India's eastern frontier. In May 1942, the Congress working committee adopted a resolution calling for complete non-violent, non-cooperation with any forces invading India.
• Gandhiji came to believe that "the presence of the British in India is an Invitation to Japan to invade India and their withdrawal removes the bait."

Important Points

It was launched at the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 9 August 1942, during World War II, demanding an end to British rule in India.

• Gandhiji asked the British 'to leave India in God's hand'.
• During the Quit India movement, Gandhi gave the slogan of ‘Do or die’.
• Disorderly and non-violent demonstrations took place throughout the country in the following days.

​​Thus, it is clear that Quit India Resolution is related to Mahatma Gandhi.

Additional Information

The resolution stated the provisions of the movement as:

• An immediate end to British rule over India.
• Declaration of the commitment of free India to defend itself against all kinds of imperialism and fascism.
• Formation of a provisional government of India after British withdrawal.
• Sanctioning a civil disobedience movement against British rule.

The correct answer is Mangrove forests.

The following major types of vegetation may be identified in our country.

1. Tropical Evergreen Forests
2. Tropical Deciduous Forests
3. Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs
4. Montane Forests
5. Mangrove Forests

 Key Points

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is ​1, 3 and 4 only.

Key Points

• Rural Settlement Patterns reflect the way the houses are sited in relation to each other.
• The site of the village, the surrounding topography and terrain influence the shape and size of a village.
• Rural settlements may be classified on the basis of a number of criteria:
  • On the basis of setting: The main types are plain villages, plateau villages, coastal villages, forest villages and desert villages.
  • On the basis of functions: There may be farming villages, fishermen’s villages, lumberjack villages, pastoral villages etc.
  • On the basis of forms or shapes of the settlements: These may be a number of geometrical forms and shapes such as Linear, rectangular, circular star-like, T-shaped village, double village, cross-shaped village etc.
    • Linear pattern: In such settlements houses are located along a road, railway line, river, canal edge of a valley or along a levee. Hence pair 1 is correct.
    • Rectangular pattern: Such patterns of rural settlements are found in plain areas or wide intermontane valleys.
      • ​The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles. Hence pair 2 is incorrect.
    • Circular pattern: Circular villages develop around lakes, tanks and sometimes the village is planned in such a way that the central part remains open and is used for keeping the animals to protect them from wild animals. Hence pair 3 is correct.
    • Star-like pattern: Where several roads converge, star-shaped settlements develop by the houses built along the roads.
    • T-shaped, Y-shaped, Cross-shaped or cruciform settlements: T -shaped settlements develop at tri-junctions of the roads, while Y-shaped settlements emerge as the places where two roads converge on the third one and houses are built along these roads.
    • Cruciform settlements develop on the crossroads and houses extend in all four directions. Hence pair 4 is correct.
  • Double village: These settlements extend on both sides of a river where there is a bridge or a ferry.

Concept:

• When the environment is contaminated by unwanted substances which hurt both the living and the non-living, it is referred to as pollution.
• Some most common types of pollution are air, water and noise pollution.

Explanation:

Hydroelectric power:

• A hydroelectric power plant is the safest way of producing electric energy.
• It is a renewable source of energy.
• It causes zero emission of pollutants.
• Hydropower plants convert the potential energy of falling water into electricity.
• Hydropower plants are associated with dams.

Thus, the Hydropower plant is the only option that does not contribute to pollution.

Important Points

Negative effects of Hydropower generation:

• The force created by water rushing through pipes in a dam is useful in hydropower generation.
• The flowing water makes wheels called turbines spin.
• The turbines run machines called generators, which produce electricity.
• This type of power is known as hydroelectric power.
• It is also very costly to construct due to logistical challenges.
• Sustainable growth refers to the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
• Hydropower generated from dams does not encourage sustainable growth.
• They disrupt the natural ecology of rivers, damage forests, and biodiversity.
• It displaces thousands of indigenous people from their river lifelines.
• They release large amounts of greenhouse gases, disrupt food systems, water quality and agriculture.

Additional Information

Nuclear Power Plant:

• The major hazard of nuclear power generation is the uranium storage and disposal of spent or used fuels.
• Uranium decays into harmful subatomic particles (radiations).

Automobile:

• Automobile pollution is the major cause of global warming.

Thermal Power Plant:

• The term thermal power plant is used since fuel is burnt to produce heat energy which is converted into electrical energy.
• Large amounts of fossil fuels are burnt every day in power stations to heat water to produce steam which further runs the turbine to generate electricity.
• The thermal power plant is also a major cause of air pollution.

The correct answer is 6, 11.

Key Points

The Constitution of India has 6 Fundamental Rights and 11 Fundamental Duties.

Fundamental Rights

• Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are guaranteed to all citizens.
• They are applied without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender, etc.
• Significantly, fundamental rights are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain conditions.
• There are six fundamental rights of Indian Constitution along with the constitutional articles related to them are mentioned below:
• Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
• Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
• Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
• Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
• Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
• Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)

Fundamental Duties.

• 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
• 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
• Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency of 1975-77.
• The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.

As per Article 84 (b) of the Indian Constitution, the minimum age for contesting in elections for the Lok Sabha is 25 years. However, in case of the Rajya Sabha the minimum age is 30 years. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

In case a person is elected simultaneously to both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, and has not yet taken his seat in either House, he can choose, within 10 days from the later of the dates on which he is chosen to those Houses, the House of which he would like to be a member

In such a scenario, he must intimate his choice in writing to the Secretary to the Election Commission of India (ECI) within 10-day, failing which his seat in Rajya Sabha will fall vacant at the end of this period. The choice provided by him is final. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is Five year.

Key Points

Vice President of India:

• The Vice President is the second highest constitutional office in India.
• He is accorded a rank next to the President in the official warrant of precedence.
• Article 63 to Article 71 of the Indian Constitution (Part V) deals with Vice President.
• Article 67 deals with the term of office of Vice-President.
• The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters his office. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• The Vice President may resign his office by submitting his resignation to the President of India.
• The resignation becomes effective from the day it is accepted.
• The Vice President is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and does not hold any other office of profit.
• The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election.
• The Vice-President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge.
• He is also eligible for reelection to that office.
• He may be elected for any number of terms.

Secularism means the separation of religion from political, economic, social, and cultural aspects of life, religion is treated as a purely personal matter.

• There is clear incorporation of all the basic principles of secularism into various provisions of the constitution.
• The term ‘Secular’ was added to the preamble by the forty-second Constitution Amendment Act of 1976, (India is a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic).
  • It emphasizes the fact that constitutionally, India is a secular country that has no State religion. And that the state shall recognize and accept all religions, not favor or patronize any particular religion.

Thus, we can say that the meaning of secularism in the Indian constitution is that the state recognizes all religions, but it has no religion.

• The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens are contained in Part III of the Indian constitution.
• Fundamental Rights have six categories that come under Article 12-35.
• The Fundamental Rights include the right to equality, right to freedom, right to freedom of religion, right against exploitation, right to constitutional remedies, and cultural and educational rights.
• Part VIII- Union Territories
• Part IV- Directive Principles of State Policy
• The seventh schedule of the constitution consists of 3 lists- Union, Concurrent, and State.

Given:

P = 20 km/h

R = 15 km/h

Time(R) = m + 16 hours

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/Time taken
Relative speed opposite direction = Sum of speeds
Relative speed for same direction = Difference of speeds

Solution:

Relative speed = 20 +15 = 35 km/h

Let, d = distance from E to F

Time taken by Raju to travel from F to E = d/15 hours

They will meet after = d/35 hours

d/15 - d/35 = 16

7d - 3d = 21 x 5 x 16

d = 420 km

Time taken by Prateek to travel from E to F = d/20 = 420/20 = 21 hours

Time taken by Prateek to travel after meet = 21 - d/35 = 21 - 420/35 = 21 - 12 = 9 hours

Hence, the correct option is 1.

Given:

Vaibhav can do a piece of work in 30 days.

Vaibhav's 1-day work =

Pankaj can do the same work in 10 days.

Pankaj's 1-day work =

Total amount received = Rs. 300

Calculation:

The ratio of Vaibhav and Pankaj's 1 day work =  :  = 1 : 3

A's share =  × 300 = Rs. 75

B's share =  × 300 = Rs. 225

Therefore,

The share of A is Rs. 75 and share of B is Rs. 225

Hence, the correct answer is Rs. 75 and Rs. 225.

8 kg 25 g = 8 × 1000 + 25 = 8025 g

Given:

An amount Rs 1368 is distributed amongst 24 persons.

Calculation:

Amount distributed in 24 persons = Rs 1368

Amount distributed in each person = 1368/24 = Rs 57

∴ Each person get Rs 57.

Given:

The numerator increased = 150%

The denominator decreased = 50%

Concept:

GM% =  (Where, GM = Gain marks and TM = Total marks)

Calculation:

Let us assume the fraction is .

⇒

⇒

⇒

∴ The required result will be 4/15.

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘AJDM' is written as 'JDMA’,

Similarly, for 'SKWM'

So, 'SKWM' will be written as 'KWMS'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "127".

Given,

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on different floors of an 8-floor building.

1. G lives on an even numbered floor but not on the 2nd floor and 6th floor.

2. G lives above A’s floor.

3. Two persons lives between G and A

4. 3 persons live between A and B and B lives immediately above G.

Case II eliminated.

5. F lives on even numbered floor.

6. F lives immediately above the B’s floor.

7. Two persons live between F and H.

8. D lives above E’s floor and below C’s floor.

Hence, G lives between B and H.

The correct answer is Uniform Circular Speed.

Key Points

• Uniform motion is the type of motion where a moving object traces equal distances in equal intervals of time.
  • ​Since the distance and time intervals are the same, speed is constant in uniform motion.
• Uniform circular motion is where a moving object traces a circular path with constant speed.
  • ​A circle is assumed to be a polygon with infinitely many sides such that each side approximates a point.
  • So, if the object moving on a circular path undergoes a change in direction at every point.
  • Since direction changes and speed remains constant, velocity is varying.
  • The acceleration vector is not tangential but is directed toward the center of the circle. This is also known as centripetal acceleration.
  • The velocity and acceleration vectors are indeed perpendicular to each other in a uniform circular motion.
  • The velocity vector is tangential to the circle in a uniform circular motion.

The correct answer is Filtration

Key Points

• Filtration:
  • Filtration is the process in which solid particles in a liquid or gaseous fluid are removed by the use of a filter medium that permits the fluid to pass through but retains the solid particles.
  • Either the clarified fluid or the solid particles removed from the fluid may be the desired product.
  • In some processes used in the production of chemicals, both the fluid filtrate and the solid filter cake are recovered. Other media, such as electricity, light, and sound, also can be filtered.

Additional Information

• Rainwater harvesting:
  • Rainwater harvesting (RWH) is the collection and storage of rain, rather than allowing it to run off.
  • Rainwater is collected from a roof-like surface and redirected to a tank, cistern, deep pit (well, shaft, or borehole), aquifer, or reservoir with percolation so that it seeps down and restores the groundwater.
  • Dew and fog can also be collected with nets or other tools.
  • Rainwater harvesting differs from stormwater harvesting as the runoff is typically collected from roofs and other surfaces for storage and subsequent reuse.
• Sublimation:
  • Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from the solid phase to the gas phase without passing through the intermediate liquid phase.
• Evaporation:
  • Evaporation is a type of vaporization that occurs on the surface of a liquid as it changes into the gas phase.
  • A high concentration of the evaporating substance in the surrounding gas significantly slows down evaporation, such as when humidity affects the rate of evaporation of water.